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Date : 20-MAR-2025 Total Marks : 720 Time : 02:00 - 05:00 PM

PHYSICS : Complete XIth Syllabus

CHEMISTRY : Complete XIth Syllabus
BOTANY : Complete XIth Syllabus
ZOOLOGY : Complete XIth Syllabus

INSTRUCTION
(1) Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of
pencil is strictly prohibited.
(2) There are FOUR parts in the question paper A, B, C & D consisting of Physics, Chemistry having 45
questions and Biology 90 questions.
(3) The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 Marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 Marks. For each incorrect response, ONE Mark
will be deducted from the total score. The maximum marks are 720.
(4) On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving
the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away Test Booklet only with them.
(5) The CODE for this Test Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on this Test Booklet. In case of
discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of the
Test Booklet.
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Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet /
Answer Sheet.
(7) Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
(8) Use of Electronic / Manual Calculator is prohibited.
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A

01. Vector A makes equal angles with x, y and z axis. 06. A block of mass 2kg is given a push horizontally and
Value of its components along these axes (n terms then the block starts sliding over a horizontal plane.
 The figure shows the velocity time graph of the
of magnitude of A ) will be:
motion. The coefficient of friction between the plane
A A
(1) (2) and the block is : (g = 10 m/s2)
3 2
3
(3) 3A (4)
A
02. In a book, the answer for a particular question is
expressed as b  ma 1  2K
K ma
(‘2’ is dimensionless)
Here ‘m’ represents mass, ‘a’ represent acceleration,
‘ℓ’ represents length. The unit of ‘b’ should be,
(1) m/s (2) m/s2 (1) 0.02 (2) 0.2
(3) metre (4) sec (3) 0.04 (4) 0.4
03. Two particles are projected vertically upwards with 07. Calculate the reading of spring balance shown in
same velocity on two of different planets where figure: (g = 10 m/s2)
acceleration due to gravities are g1 and g2 respectively.
If they fall back to their initial points of projection after
lapse of time t1 and t2 respectively then:
(1) t1t2 = g1g2 (2) t1g1 = t2g2
(3) t1g2 = t2g1 (4) t1g2 = t1t2
04. Square of velocity and position graph of particle is
given, at point A slope is 45o. The acceleration of
particle at A is:

(1) 60 N (2) 40 N
(3) 50 N (4) 80 N

08. A man of mass 75kg is pushing a heavy box

horizontally on a flat floor. The coefficient of kinetic
and static friction between floor and the box is 0.20
and the coefficient of static friction between the
(1) 4 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2 man’s shoes and the floor is 0.80. The maximum
(3) 1 m/s2 (4) 0.5 m/s2 mass of the box which the man can slide without
himself slipping is:
05. From a point on the ground at a distance ‘a’ from (1) 750 kg (2) 150 kg
foot of a pole, a ball is thrown at an angle of 45o (3) 300 kg (4) 600 kg
with horizontal which just touches the top of the
pole and strike the ground at a distance ‘b’ on other 09. A particle is projected with velocity (3iˆ  4ˆj)m / s
side. The height of pole will be
from a point on the ground. What will be the height
ab ab
(1) (2) attained by it when its velocity becomes
2 ab perpendicular to its acceleration? (g = 10 m/s2)
ab (1) 0.8 m (2) 5 m
(3) a + b (4)
ab (3) 0.4 m (4) 1.6 m
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
10. A block of mass m moving at a speed v compresses
a spring through a distance x before its speed
becomes one fourth. The spring constant of the
spring is:
13mv 2 15mv 2
(1) (2)
16x 2 16x 2
mv 2 2mv 2
(3) (4)
2x 2 x2 (1) –v (2) v
(3) zero (4) v/2

11. The work done by the force F  x 2 ˆi  y 2 ˆj around the
15. A solid sphere of mass m and radius R rolls without
path shown in the figure is slipping on a horizontal surface such that vcm = v0,
2 then: (U = 0 at any point on horizontal surface)
(1) a 3 (2) zero
3 1
(1) K.E. of rotation is mv 02
4 5
(3) a3 (4) a 3 7
3 (2) Mechanical energy  mgR  mv02
10
12. A raindrop of mass 1 g falling from a height of 1 km 7
(3) Total K.E.  mv 02
hits the ground with a speed of 50 ms–1. If the 10
resistive force is proportional to the speed of the (4) All option are correct
drop, then the work done by the resistive force is :
16. A particle of mass m is projected with a speed v0 at
(g = 10 ms–2): an angle of projection θ with horizontal. Find the
(1) 10 J (2) –10 J torque of the weight of the particle about the point
(3) 8.75 J (4) –8.75 J v sin 
of projection after time 0 .
g
13. A uniform sheet is shown below. If the shaded area 1 1
(1) mv 02 sin 2 (2) mv 02 cos 2
is removed find new position of centre of mass. 2 2
a 1 1
(1)  (3) mv02 sin  cos  (4) mv 02 sin 
6 2 2
a
(2)  17. Four massed m, 2m, 3m and 4m are placed at
6
corners of a square of side ‘a’ then direction of
a gravitational field intensity at its centre is (as shown
(3) 
3 in diagram):
a
(4) 
3

14. Three particles A, B and C of equal mass move with

equal speed v along the medians of an equilateral
triangle as shown in the figure. They collide at the
centroid of the triangle G. After the collision A
comes to rest, while B retraces its path with speed v. (1) ↑ (2) ↓
What is the speed of C? (3) → (4) ←
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
18. A missile is launched with a velocity less than the 22. Viscous force is somewhat like friction as it opposes
escape velocity. The sum of its kinetic and twice the the motion and non-conservative but not exactly so
potential energy is always. because:
(1) Positive (1) It is velocity independent while friction depends
(2) Negative on velocity
(3) Zero (2) It is velocity dependent while friction does not
(4) May be positive or negative depending upon its (3) It is independent of area like surface tension but
initial velocity friction depends
(4) It is independent of temperature while friction
19. Two satellites A and B of masses m1 and m2 depends
(m1 = 2m2) are moving in circular orbits of radii r1
and r2 (r1 = 4r2), respectively, around the earth. If 23. A thin rod of negligible mass and a cross section of
their periods are TA and TB, then the ratio TA/TB is: 2 × 10–6m2 suspended vertically from one end, has a
(1) 4 (2) 16 length of 0.5m at 200oC. The rod is cooled to 0oC,
(3) 2 (4) 8 but prevented from contracting by attaching a mass
at the lower end. The value of this mass is: (Young’s
20. The cylindrical vessel is kept on stand. Calculate modulus = 1011N/m2, Coefficient of linear expansion
maximum possible horizontal range of water stream 10–5 K–1 and g = 10 m/s2):
and height (x) of small hole from bottom of vessel (1) 20 kg (2) 30 kg
respectively: (3) 40 kg (4) 50 kg

24. Two vessels A and B contain ideal gases with the

temperature of B double that of A. Both gases are
heated, so that they attain the same temperature. It is
found that the fractional increase in the most
probable speed of gas in vessel A is double that of
the mean speed of gas in B. The ratio of the final to
the initial temperature of gas in vessel A is:
(1) 3  2 2 (2) 2  3 2
(1) R = 15 m; x = 2.5 m
(2) R = 15 m; x = 0 m (at bottom) (3) 3  2 2 (4) 2  3 2
(3) R  2 50m; x = 0 m (at bottom)
 5
(4) R  50m; x = 2.5 m 25. Three samples of the same gas X, Y and Z    
 3
have initially equal volume. All the three samples
21. A film of water is formed between two straight
parallel wires of length 10 cm each separated by undergo expansion to double their volume. The
0.5cm. If their separation is increased by 1 mm process is adiabatic for X, isobaric for Y and
while still maintaining their parallelism, how much isothermal for Z. If final pressures are equal for all
work will have to be done (Surface tension of water three samples, the ratio of their initial pressure is:
= 7.2 × 10–2 N/m)
(1) 2 8 : 2 :1 (2) 4 : 2 : 1
(1) 7.22 × 10–6 J (2) 1.44 × 10–5 J
(3) 2.88 × 10–5 J (4) 5.76 × 10–5 J (3) 2 3 4 :1: 2 (4) 2 :1: 3 4
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
26. Figure shows a polytropic process for an ideal gas. 31. Graph of force of impact (F) vs time ‘t’ for short
The work done by the gas will be in process AB is duration of collision of two bodies is as shown. Find
15 coefficient of restitution for given graph.
(1) P0 V0
2
14
(2) P0 V0
3
(3) 8P0V0
(4) Insufficient information

27. The potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator

at mean position is 3 joules. If its mean K.E. is 4
joules, its total energy will be: (1) 0.56 (2) 1
(1) 7 J (2) 8 J (3) 0.64 (4) 0.26
(3) 10 J (4) 11 J
32. A solid sphere is rolling down an inclined plane.
28. The error in measuring the mass and radius of a What is the minimum coefficient of friction required
solid sphere are ±1% and ±0.5% respectively. The for pure rolling:
error in calculation of the moment of inertia of the (Angle of inclination = θ)
solid sphere will be about 2 2
(1) ±1.5% (2) ±2.5% (1) tan  (2) tan 
5 7
(3) ±3% (4) ±2%
3 2
(3) tan  (4) tan 
29. In the arrangement shown in figure, coefficient of 2 3
1
friction between the two blocks is   . The force 33. The angular momentum of a particle about origin is
2
of friction acting between the two blocks is (Ground varying as L = 4t + 8 (SI units) when it moves along
is smooth) a straight line y = x – 4 (x, y in meters). The
magnitude of force acting on the particle would be:
(1) 1 N (2) 2 N
(3) 2N (4) 3N

34. Find the escape velocity of particle mass m which is

(1) 8 N (2) 10 N situated at a radial distance r (from centre of earth)
(3) 6 N (4) 4 N above the earth’s surface. M is the mass earth.
GM GM
30. Three blocks of mass 1 kg, 4 kg and 2 kg are placed (1) (2)
2r r
on a smooth horizontal plane as shown in the figure.
The contract force between 1 kg block and 4 kg 2GM
(3) (4) None of these
block is r

35. The elastic energy per unit volume in terms of

longitudinal strain σ ad Young’s modulus Y is:
Y2 1
(1) (2) Y
(1) 100 N (2) 120 N 2 2
2
(3) 50 N (4) 110 N (3) 2Yσ (4) 2Yσ
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
36. A wall has two layers A and B each made of 40. The graph plotted between phase angle (ϕ) and
different materials. The layer A is 10 cm thick and B displacement of a particle from equilibrium position
is 20 cm thick. The thermal conductivity of A is (y) is a sinusoidal curve as shown below. Then the
thrice that of B. Under thermal equilibrium best matching is
temperature difference across the wall is 35oC. The
difference of temperature across the layer A is:
(1) 20oC (2) 10oC
(3) 15oC (4) 5oC

37. 2 particles p and q describe SHM of same amplitude

a and same frequency f along straight line, the Column-A Column-B
maximum distance between the two particle a 2 . (a) K.E. versus phase (i)
angle curve
The initial phase difference between particle is:

(1) Zero (2)
2
  (b) P.E. versus phase (ii)
(3) (4) angle curve
6 3

38. A point mass is subjected to two simultaneous

sinusoidal displacement in x-direction. x1(t) = A sin (c) T.E. versus phase (iii)
 2  angle curve
ωt and x 2 (t)  A sin  t   . Adding a third
 3 
sinusoidal displacement x3(t) = B sin (ωt + ϕ) brings
the mass to a complete rest. The value of B and ϕ (d) Velocity versus (iv)
are phase angle curve
3 4
(1) 2A, (2) A,
4 3
5  (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(3) 3A, (4) A,
6 3 (3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

39. A sound wave starting from source S, follows two 41. Assertion (A):
paths SEFD and SEABFD. AB = ℓ, AE = BF = 0.6ℓ When two vibrating tuning forks having frequencies
256 and 512 are held near each other, beats cannot
and wave length of wave is 6m. If maximum sound
be heard.
is heard at D, then minimum value of length ℓ is:
Reason (R):
The principle of superposition is valid only if
frequencies of oscillators are nearly equal.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the
correct explanation of (A).
(1) 11m (2) 6m (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) 2.5m (4) 5m (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
42. A ball of mass m is attached to a string of length L 46. What is the hybridisation state of:
and given a horizontal velocity 10gL at its lowest
point as shown. The ratio of tension in the string
when it has turned an angle 60o to initial tension, i.e. (1) sp2 (2) spd2
T2/T1 is: (3) sp2d (4) sp2d
17
(1)
21 47. The number of hydrogen bonded water molecule(s)
19 associated with CuSO4.5H2O is
(2)
21
(1) 3 (2) 1
19
(3) (3) 2 (4) 5
22
17
(4)
23 48. Which of the following order is incorrect?
(1) AlCl3 > MgCl2 > NaCl : Polarising power
43. In a circular motion of a particle, the tangential
(2) CO < CO2 < CO32 : Bond length
acceleration of the particle is given aτ = 9ms–2. The
radius of the circle is 4m. The particle was initially (3) BeCl2 < NF3 < NH3 : Dipole moment
at rest. Time after which total acceleration of the (4) H2S > NH3 > SiH4 > BF3 : Bond angle
makes an angle 45o of with the radial acceleration is
1 5
(1) s (2) s 49. A weak acid of dissociation constant 10–5 is being
3 3
2 4 titrated with aqueous NaOH solution. The pH at the
(3) s (4) s point of one-third neutralisation of the acid will be
3 3
(1) 5 + log 2 – log 3
44. Consider a gravity free hall in which a tray of mass
M, carrying a cubical block of ice of mass m and (2) 5 – log 2
edge 2L, is at rest in the middle. If ice melts by what (3) 5 – log 3
distance does the centre of mass of the tray and ice (4) 5 – log 6
system descend?

L 50. For one of the element, various successive ionisation

(1) enthalpies (in kJmol–1) are given below:
3
L The element is
(2)
4
L
(3)
2
(4) Zero
(1) P (2) Mg
45. A one meter long uniform cylindrical pipe is closed (3) Si (4) Al
at the bottom and is kept in vertical orientation. To
what minimum depth water should be poured in the 51. Unit of entropy is
tube so that the air column in the tube resonates with
(1) JK–1 mol–1
a tuning fork of frequency 340Hz? (take speed of
sound in air as 340 m/s and neglect end correction) (2) J mol–1
(1) 25 cm (2) 50 cm (3) J–1K–1 mol–1
(3) 75 cm (4) 87.5 cm (4) J K mol–1
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
52. Consider the following sets of quantum number : 57. Which of the following compounds will exhibit cis-
n l m s trans (geometrical) isomerism?
(i) 3 0 0 +1/2 (1) 2-isobutene (2) Butanol
(ii) 2 2 1 +1/2 (3) 2-butyne (4) 2-butenol
(iii) 4 2 –2 –1/2
(iv) 1 0 –3 –1/2 58. Paper chromatography is an example of
(v) 3 2 3 +1/2 (1) Partition chromatography
Which of the following sets of quantum number is (2) Thin layer chromatography
not possible? (3) Column chromatography
(1) i, ii, iii and iv (2) ii, iv and v (4) Adsorption chromatography
(3) i and iii (4) ii, iii and iv
59. ∆U is equal to
53. The density of 1M solution of a compound X is
1.25 g m L–1.The correct option for the molality of (1) adiabatic work (2) isothermal work
solution is (Molar mass of compound X = 85 g ) (3) isochoric work (4) isobaric work
(1) 1.1165 m (2) 0.858 m
(3) 0.705 m (4) 1.208 m 60. On complete combustion, 0.3 g of an organic
compound gave 0.2 g of CO2 and 0.1 g of H2O. The
54. Which of the following oxide is amphoteric in percentage composition of carbon and hydrogen in
nature? the compound, respectively is:
(1) SnO2 (2) SiO2
(1) 4.07% and 15.02% (2) 18.18% and 3.70%
(3) GeO2 (4) CO2
(3) 15.02% and 4.07% (4) 3.70% and 18.18%
55. The amount of glucose required to prepare 250 mL
M 61. If the equilibrium constants of the following
of aqueous solution is (Molar mass of glucose: 1
20 equilibria, SO 2  O 2  SO3 and 2SO3  2SO2+ O2
180 g mol–1) 2
(1) 2.25 g (2) 4.5 g are given by K1 and K2 respectively, which of the
(3) 0.44 g (4) 1.125 g following relation is correct?
2 3
56. The correct order of increasing basic strength of the  1   1 
(1) K 2    (2) K1   
following compounds is:  K1   K2 
 1 
(3) K 2    (4) K2 = (K1)2
 K1 

62. Which of the following is an optically active

compound?
(1) 1-Butanol (2) 1-Propanol
(3) 2-Chlorobutane (4) 4-Hydroxyheptane

63. Which one of the following represents smallest

quantity?
(1) II < V < I < III < IV (2) V < II < I < III < IV (1) 1850 ng (2) 1.85 × 10−4g
3
(3) II < V < I < IV < III (4) V < II < I < IV < III (3) 1.85 × 10 g (4) 1.85 × 10−6kg
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
64. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule 69. pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12. The
(1) contains replaceable H+ ion. value of solubility product Ksp of Ba (OH)2 is
(2) gives up a proton. (1) 3.3 × 10–7 (2) 5.0 ×10–7
(3) accepts OH– from water releasing proton. (3) 4.0 × 10–6
(4) 5.0 × 10–6
(4) combines with proton from water molecule.
70. Which of the following electronic configuration is
65. Which of the following exhibits aromaticity by not possible?
using Huckel's rule? (1) = 3, = 0, = 0 (2) = 3, = 1, = −1
(3) = 2, = 0, = −1 (4) = 2, = 1, = 0

71. For the reaction

(1) (2) 2A  B  C, K c  4  103 . At a given time, the
composition of reaction mixture is [A] = [B] = [C] =
2 × 10–3 M. Then, which of the following is correct ?
(1) Reaction has a tendency to go in forward
direction.
(3) (4) (2) Reaction has a tendency to go in backward
direction.
(3) Reaction has gone to completion in forward
66. Which is the best description of the behaviour of direction.
bromine in the reaction given below? (4) Reaction is at equilibrium.
H2O + Br2 → HOBr + HBr
(1) Proton acceptor only 72. Which transition in the hydrogen atomic spectrum
(2) Both oxidised and reduced will have the same wavelength as the transition,
(3) Oxidised only n2 = 4 to n1 = 2 of He+ spectrum?
(4) Reduced only (1) 2 = 4 to 1 = 3 (2) 2 = 3 to 1 = 2
(3) 2 = 4 to 1 = 2 (4) 2 = 2 to 1 = 1
67. The ionisation enthalpies of second period elements
vary with atomic numbers as : 73. Match List I (equations) with List 11 (types of
process) and select the correct option :
List I List II
(Equations) (Types of process)
A. Kp > Q 1. Non-spontaneous
0
B. G < RT ln Q 2. Equilibrium
C. kp = Q 3. Spontaneous and
endothermic
H 4. Spontaneous
D. T >
The elements present at points and are S
(1) Be, C (2) B, N
(3) Be, O (4) Be, N. (1) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4 (2) A-3; B-4; C-3; D-1
(3) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3 (4) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3
68. The solubility product of AgI at 25°C is 1.0 × 10–16
mol2L–2. The solubility of Agl is 10-4N solution of 74. The correct thermodynamic conditions for the
KI at 25°C is approximately (in mol L–1) spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is
(1) 1.0 × 10–16 (2) 1.0 × 10–12 (1) ΔH > 0 and ΔS < 0 (2) ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0
–10
(3) 1.0 × 10 (4) 1.0 × 10–8 (3) ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0 (4) ΔH > 0 and ΔS = 0
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
75. The IUPAC name of an element with atomic 80. Which of the following represents the correct
number 119 is decreasing order of relative reactivity towards an
(1) unnilennium (2) unununnium electrophile, E+?
(3) ununoctium (4) ununennium (1)C6H5−CH3, −CH3−C6H4−CH3, −CH3−C6H4−NO
2, −NO2−C6H4−NO2
76. Match List I with List II : (2) p−CH3–C6H4−CH3, −CH3−C6H4−NO2, −NO2
−C6H4−NO2, C6H5−CH3
List I List II
(3) −CH3−C6H4−NO2,C6H5−CH3, −CH3−C6H4−CH
(quantum number) (Orbital)
3, −NO2−C6H4−NO2
(a) n = 2, l = 1 (i) 2s (4) −CH3−C6H4−CH3,C6H5−CH3,p−CH3−C6H4− NO2,
(b) n = 3, l = 2 (ii) 3s −NO2−C6H4−NO2
(c) n = 3, l = 0 (iii) 2p
81. An acid solution has a pH = 6. It is diluted 100
(d) n = 2, l = 0 (iv) 3d times, the pH of the resultant solution would be :
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (1) 5.95 (2) 6.95
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (3) 7 (4) 8

77. Which one of the following represents all 82. The pair of species showing perfect tetrahedral
isoelectronic species? geometry
(1) Na  , Mg 2  , O  , F (2) Ca2+, Ar, K+, Cl– (1) PCl4 and NH 4 (2) BF4 and NH3
(3) Na+, Cl–, O–, NO+ (4) N2O, N2O, NO+, NO (3) SF4 and CCl4 (4) SF4 and CH 3

78. 1.0 g of H2 has same number of molecules as in 83. Statement-I:

(1) 14 g of N2 (2) 18 g of H2O Chlorination of methane gives a mixture of chloro
(3) 16 g of CO (4) 28 g of N2 substituted products.
Statement-II:
79. On vigorous oxidation by permanganate solution Chlorination proceeds through the formation of
(CH3)2C=CH  CH2CH3 gives carbanion.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(1) (3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct, but Statement is
incorrect.
(2)
84. The number of radial nodes and angular nodes for
nd-orbital can be represented as :
(1) ( − 2) radial nodes +1 angular node = ( −1)
total nodes
(3) (2) ( − 1) radial nodes +1 angular node = ( −1)
total nodes
(3) ( − 3) radial nodes +2 angular nodes = ( − − 1)
total nodes
(4) (4) ( − 3) radial nodes +2 angular nodes = ( −1)
total nodes
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
85. The correct order of increasing acid strength of the 91. In which steps of C3-cycle, ATP molecules are
compounds utilized:
(A) CH3CO2H (B) MeOCH2CO2H (1) Reduction and regeneration steps.
(2) Carboxylation and reduction steps.
(C) CF3CO2H (D) (3) Regeneration and carboxylation steps.
(4) Regeneration, reduction and carboxylation steps.
(1) B < D < A < C (2) D < A < C < B
(3) D < A < B < C (4) A < D < C < B 92. Statement-I (S-I):
Photorespiration decreases photosynthetic output
86. On mixing certain alkane with chlorine and Statement-II (S-II):
During photorespiration pathway neither ATP nor
irradiating it with ultraviolet light, it forms only one
NADPH is produced
monochloroalkane. The alkane is (1) Both S-I and S-II are correct
(1) Iso-pentane (2) Neo-pentane (2) S-I is correct, S-II is wrong
(3) Propane (4) Pentane (3) S-I is wrong, S-II is correct
(4) Both S-I and S-II are wrong
87. 1.5 moles of each of XY2 and XY3 if weigh 96 g and
120 g respectively. The atomic masses of X and Y 93. During Kreb’s cycle succinyl CoA is formed:
respectively are (1) When condensation of OAA with acetyl group
(1) 4, 8 (2) 8, 16 takes place
(2) By two successive decarboxylations of citric acid
(3) 32, 16 (4) 32, 64
(3) During oxidation of malic acid to OAA
(4) During conversion of succinic acid into malic
88. The presence of unsaturation in organic compounds acid
can be tested with
(1) Schiff’s reagent (2) Tollen’s reagent 94. First member of Krebs cycle is :
(3) Fehling’s reagent (4) Baeyer’s reagent (1) Oxaloacetic acid (2) α - ketoglutaric acid
(3) Malic acid (4) Succinic acid
89. Which one of the following sequences represents the 95. Statement-I :
correct increasing order of bond angles in the given Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria of the cell and
molecules? its present in all living organisms.
(1) H2O < OF2 < OCl2 < ClO2 Statement-II :
(2) OCl2 < ClO2 < H2O < OF2 In aerobic organisms, it is the only process in
(3) OF2 < H2O < OCl2 < ClO2 respiration.
(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
(4) ClO2 < OF2 < OCl2 < H2O
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
90. Statement-I: (4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.
Cyclohexanone can show tautomerism
Statement-II: 96. Arithmetic growth includes all, except :-
(1) Constant growth rate
It contain α-hydrogen with respect to carbonyl group
(2) It is found in root and shoot
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (3) It is expressed as Lt = L0 + rt
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (4) Its characteristic graph is sigmoid
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect. 97. Market value of fruits increased by the use of:-
(4) Statement II is correct, but Statement I is (1) Auxins (2) Gibberellins
incorrect. (3) Cytokinins (4) ABA
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
98. Match the column A and B : 102. When the margins of sepals and petals overlap one
another without any particular direction, this
Column A Column B
condition found in:
a. Auxin (i) Overcome apical (1) Cassia (2) Cotton
dominance (3) Mustard (4) China rose
b. Cytokinin (ii) Triple response
c. ABA (iii) Hedge making 103. With respect to the stamens match the following:
d. Ethylene (iv) Seed development Column –I Column-II
Select correct option : (A) Diadelphous (i) China rose
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (B) Polyadelphous (ii) Pea
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (C) Monoadelphous (iii) Lily
(D) Epiphyllous (iv) Citrus
99. (I) Cytokinin is primarily concerned with cell (1) A–(iv), B–(iii), C–(i), D–(ii)
division (2) A–(iv), B–(i), C–(ii), D–(iii)
(II) C2H4 breaks seed and bud dormancy (3) A–(ii), B–(iv), C–(i), D–(iii)
(III)ABA stimulates the opening of stomata under (4) A–(i), B–(iv), C–(iii), D–(ii)
the water stress conditions
104. Choose the incorrect statements about
(IV)C2H4 initiates germination in peanut seeds and
cyanobacteria.
sprouting of potato tubers.
(1) They also referred to as blue-green-algae.
(V)In most situations ABA is synergistic to GA.
(2) They have pigments like bacteriochlorophyll
The false statements are:
(3) They are photosynthetic autotrophs.
(1) I, II, IV (2) Only III (4) They are unicellular, colonial or filamentous
(3) III, V (4) IV, V
105. How many of the following statement are
100. In which stem of plant water cavity and bundle incorrect?
sheath present- (A)Mycelium of phycomycetes is septate and
(1) Maize (2) Sunflower coenocytic.
(3) Gram (4) Pea (B)Ascomycetes reproduce by conidia which are
endogenously produced.
101. Which of the following figure correctly represent to (C)Basidiomycetes reproduce asexually by zoospore
insertion of floral leaves in China rose? or aplanospore.
(D)Deuteromycetes only reproduce sexually by
conidia.
(1) Only one (2) All are incorrect
(1) (2) (3) All are correct (4) Two

106. Read the following statements carefully and select

the answer:-
(A) In angiosperm gametophyte is very reduced
(B) In moss gametophyte is very reduced.
(C) In angiosperm sporophyte well developed
(3) (4) (1) A and B are correct but C incorrect
(2) A and C are correct but B incorrect
(3) C and B are correct but A incorrect
(4) A, B and C are correct
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
107. Assertion: 112. The cross section of a plant material shows the
Mosses are of great ecological importance. following anatomical features under microscope:
Reason: The vascular bundles are radially arranged, eight
Mosses along with lichens are the first organisms to xylem strands with exarch condition and well
colonise rocks. developed pith. The plant material should be:
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason (1) Dicot stem (2) Monocot stem
is a correct explanation of the Assertion. (3) Dicot leaf (4) Monocot root
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is
not a correct explanation of the Assertion. 113. Ratio of protein and lipid in the membrane of
erythrocytes of human being is:
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(1) 1.8 (2) 1.3
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(3) 0.80 (4) 0.60
108. Select the structure which is membraneless,
114. Arm ratio is one (1) for which type of chromosome:
spherical in structure and synthesizes rRNA. (1) Submetacentric (2) Acrocentric
(1) Ribosome (2) Microbodies (3) Metacentric (4) Telocentric
(3) Nucleolus (4) Nucleus
115. If in a cell the amount of DNA is 2C in G2 phase
109. Match column-I with column-II and select the then what will be the ratio of amount of DNA in
correct option from the codes given below: metaphase : G1 phase : Anaphase ?
Column-I Column-II (1) 2 : 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2 : 2
(A) Axonemes (i) Centriole (3) 2 : 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 1 : 2
9+0
(B) microtubule (ii) Cytoskeleton 116. Which of the following is related to mitosis and not
arrangement a part of meiosis?
Mechanical (1) Homologous chromosomes form bivalents
(C) (iii) Flagellum (2) Division of chromosomes
support
(D) Svedberg’s unit (iv) Ribosome (3) Homologous chromosomes behave
independently
(1) A → ii, B → iii, C→ i, D → iv
(4) Exchange of fragments between homologous
(2) A → i, B → iii, C → iv, D → ii
chromosomes
(3) A → iii, B → i, C → ii, D → iv
(4) A→ iii, B→ ii, C → i, D → iv
117. When the both pigment systems are involved
simultaneously in electron transport system then
110. Which of the following statement is incorrect for
Pinus? path of electron become Z-shape, this shape is due to :
(1) Male and female cones are borne on different (1) First electron acceptor is flavoprotein
trees (2) Chlorophyll-a is universal pigment
(2) Seed are not covered (3) Splitting of water
(3) Pollen grain is reduced gametophyte (4) Electron carrier are placed in order of redox
(4) Life cycle is diplontic potential

111. Phloem of monocot is different from that of dicot in 118. Doubling of the number of chromosomes can be
(1) Absence of phloem parenchyma achieved by disrupting mitotic cell division soon
(2) Presence of phloem parenchyma after:
(3) Presence of companion cell (1) Anaphase (2) Telophase
(4) Presence of sieve tube (3) Prophase (4) Metaphase
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
119. In a pea flower, five petals are arranged in a 124. In cymose inflorescence __________:
specialized manner with one posterior, two lateral (1) The peduncle has unlimited growth
and two anterior. These are named as _______, (2) The main axis terminates with a flower
_______ and ________ respectively. (3) The flowers are borne in acropetal order
(1) Keel, Wings and Standard (4) All of these
(2) Vexillum, Keel and Standard
(3) Keel, Standard and Carina 125. Read the following statements and select the correct
(4) Standard, Wings and Keel option.
Statement-A:
120. The phenomenon which is influenced by auxin and Fungus fixes atmospheric nitrogen for the alga in
also played a major role in its discovery: lichens.
(1) Phototropism (2) Root initiation Statement-B:
(3) Gravitropism (4) Apical Dominance Lichen is symbiotic association between algae and
fungi.
121. Fatty acids are connected with the respiratory (1) Only statement A is correct
pathway through: (2) Only statement B is correct
(1) Acetyl CoA (3) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) a-Ketoglutaric acid (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Dihydroxy acetone phosphate
(4) Pyruvic acid 126. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. electron transport
system in mitochondria.
122. Statement-I: (1) NADH dehydrogenase  Complex I
In bacteria, the mesosomes are formed by the
(2) Cytochrome b-c1 Complex III
extensions of plasma membrane.
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase  Complex II
Statement-II:
The mesosomes in bacteria help in DNA replication, (4) Cytochrome c oxidase  Complex V
cell wall formation and photosynthesis.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 127. Which among the following characters is not seen in
incorrect. members of potato family?
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (1) Swollen placenta
correct. (2) Epiphyllous stamens
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (3) Valvate aestivation
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (4) Axile placentation

123. Which of the following statements are correct with 128. Identify incorrect statement w.r.t. glycolysis
respect of Golgi apparatus? pathway
(A)It is the important site of formation of (1) Four ATP molecules are directly synthesized
glycoprotein and glycolipids. (2) Two ATP molecules are utilised
(B) It produces cellular energy in the form of ATP. (3) Two redox equivalents are removed per molecule
(C) It modifies the protein synthesized by ribosomes of PGAL
on ER. (4) Lactic acid is the key product
(D) It facilitates the transport of ions.
(E) It provides mechanical support. 129. Ribosome is made of:
Choose the most appropriate answer from the (1) rRNA + proteins
options given below: (2) rRNA + mRNA + proteins
(1) (B) and (C) only (2) (A) and (C) only (3) mRNA + proteins
(3) (A) and (D) only (4) (D) and (E) only (4) rRNA + tRNA + proteins
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
130. Which of the following statements is Incorrect? 136. Select the mismatched pair :
(1) Conidia are exogenously produced asexual (1) Order Primata – Gibbon, monkey, gorilla
spores in Trichoderma
(2) Order Carnivora – Tiger, cat, dog
(2) Motile aplanospores are endogenously produced
asexual spores in Mucor (3) Order – Solanaceae and Petunia
(3) Ascospores are endogenously produced sexual Polymoniales families
spores in Claviceps (4) Order carnivora – Felidae and Canidae
(4) Basidiospores are exogenously produced sexual families
spores in Ustilago
131. Assertion: 137. Which of the following statements is totally wrong
Cuticle is also present in lower epidermal region of about the occurrence of notochord, while the other
the leaf. three are correct?
Reason: (1) It is present in larval tail in Ascidians.
The lower epidermis contains a large number of (2) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog.
stomata in sunflower. (3) It is absent throughout life in humans from the
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is very beginning.
the correct explanation of assertion. (4) It is present throughout life in Ampioxous.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is
not the correct explanation of assertion.
138. Unique character of sponges is :
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false. (1) choanoctyes or collar cells that line the
spongocoel and the canals.
132. In a multicarpellary, syncarpous, unilocular ovary, If (2) that they are hermaphrodite.
the ovules are borne on the central axis and septa are (3) that they live in marine water.
absent this is defined as: (4) that they reproduce by asexual means only.
(1) marginal placentation
(2) parietal placentation 139. Match column – I with column – II, and select the
(3) axile placentation
correct option.
(4) Free-central placentation
Column – I Column – II
133. Choose the incorrect match. (A) Physalia (i) Brain coral
(1) Parthenocarpic fruit-Seedless fruit
(2) Wall of fruit – Epicarp (B) Adamsia (ii) Sea fan
(3) Edible part of apple and pear – Thalamus (C) Pennatula (iii) Sea pen
(4) Dry or fleshy part of fruit – Pericarp (D) Gorgonian (iv) Sea anemone
134. The composition of stele is: (E) Meandriana (v) Portuguese man-of-war
(1) Pith, vascular bundle (F) Aurelia (vi) Jellyfish
(2) Pericycle, pith and cortex (1) A v, B iv, C  ii, D  iii, E  i, F vi
(3) Endodermis, pericycle
(4) Endodermis, pericycle, pith (2) A v, B iv, C  iii, D  ii, E  i, F vi
(3) A v, B iv, C  ii, D  i, E  ii, F vi
135. Statement–I (S-I): (4) A v, B iii, C  iv, D ii, E  i, F vi
The golgi apparatus is in close association with
endoplasmic reticulum 140. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the
Statement-II (S-II): cnidarians?
Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles
(1) A central gastrovascular cavity with a single
from the ER fuse with cis face of golgi apparatus
opening, mouth on hypostome
and move towards trans face
(1) Both S-I and S-II are correct (2) Mostly marine, sessile or free swimming,
(2) S-I is correct, S-II is wrong radially symmetrical.
(3) S-I is wrong, S-II is correct (3) Show cellular level of organization.
(4) Both S-I and S-II are wrong (4) Coelom is absent.
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
141. Cockroach, house fly and mosquitoes are insects 147. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature
because they have of biceps muscle?
(1) Chitinous exoskeleton and body divided into (1) We are usually able to make it contract merely
head and cephalothorax. by thinking about it.
(2) Six legs, compound eye and body divided into (2) It has alternate light and dark bands
head, thorax and abdomen. (3) Its muscle fibre taper at both ends.
(3) Segmented body with jointed feet and chitinous (4) Its muscle fibres are bundled together in a
parallel fashion.
exoskeleton.
(4) Three pairs of legs, one pair of antennae and
148. Agglutinin is present in :
flame cells.
(1) RBC (2) WBC
(3) serum (4) spleen
142. Which one of the following statements is false?
(1) Both cartilaginous and bony fishes are dioecious.
149. Match Column-I with column-II and select the
(2) Cartilaginous fishes show sexual dimorphism. correct option with respective Cockroach.
(3) Male cartilaginous fish has claspers.
Column-I Column-II
(4) Female bony fish has claspers.
(a) Pair of spermatheca (i) 2 -6th segments
nd

(abdominal)
143. Which of the following traits is not a characteristic
of amphibians? (b) Ovary (ii) 6th segment
(1) Skin is moist and without scales (abdominal)
(2) Cloaca is present (c) Mushroom shaped (iii) 6th-7th segments
(3) Dioecious, external fertilization, oviparous, accessory (abdominal)
indirect development. reproductive gland
(4) Amnion present during embryonic stage (d) Anal cerci (iv) 10th segment
(1) (a)–(ii); (b)–(i); (c)–(iii); (d)–(iv)
144. Which of the following is called macropolice man of
(2) (a)–(iii); (b)–(ii); (c)–(iv); (d)–(i)
blood?
(3) (a)–(iv); (b)–(iii); (c)–(i); (d)–(ii)
(1) Neutrophil
(4) (a)–(i); (b)–(iv); (c)–(ii); (d)–(iii)
(2) Basophil
(3) Monocyte
150. Malpighian tubule are lined by
(4) Lymphocyte
(1) glandular epithelium with ciliated cells
(2) simple epithelium and non-ciliated cells
145. The intercellular material of cartilage is :
(3) cutinized epithelium
(1) hollow, pliable and resists compression.
(4) simple squamous epithelium
(2) solid, not pliable and resists compression.
(3) solid, pliable and resists compression.
151. Which of the following statements is incorrect about
(4) solid, pliable and does not resist compression.
development of periplaneta americana?
(1) On an average female produces 9-10 oothecae
146. Bones have a ______ and _______ ground
each containing 14-16 eggs.
substance, rich in ______ salts and _____ fibres.
(2) The development is paurometabolous.
(1) Soft, pliable; Ca; callagen (3) The nymph grows by moulting about 7 – 8 times
(2) Hard; pliable, Ca; collagen to reach adult form.
(3) Hard; non-pliable; Ca; collagen (4) The next to last nymphal stage has wing pads but
(4) Hard; pliable; Fe; Collagen only adult cockroach has wings.
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
152. Pick the correct statements 157. Inspiration occurs when there is a negative pressure
(a) Proteins are heteropolymer. in the lungs with respect to atmospheric pressure.
(b) Collagen is the most abundant protein on this This negative pressure is achieved when :
biosphere. (1) intrapulmonary pressure is less than the
(c) Chitin is the second most abundant atmospheric pressure.
polysaccharide. (2) intrapulmonary pressure is greater than the
(d) Alanine is a basic amino acid. atmospheric pressure.
(3) intrapulmonary pressure is equal to the
(1) (a), (b) and (c) atmospheric pressure.
(2) (b) and (c) (4) intrapulmonary pressure becomes more than the
(3) (a) and (c) intraalveolar pressure.
(4) (c) and (d)
158. During expiration, the volume of thoracic cavity
153. Find out the correct match from the following table decreases because of :
(1) contraction of diaphragm and external
Column – I Column – II Column – III
intercostals muscles.
(a) Peroxidase Co-enzyme Zn++ (2) contraction of diaphragm and relaxation
(b) Carboxypeptidase Metal ion Cu++ intercostals muscles.
(3) contraction of diaphragm and relaxation of
(c) Catalase Prosthetic Haeme group external intercostals muscles.
group (4) none of these
(1) only (a) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) only (c) (4) (b) and (c) 159. In the given box value of (a), (b) and (c) are
respectively
154. Which of the following are the most diverse
molecules in the cell?
(1) Lipids
(2) Proteins
(3) Carbohydrates
(4) Mineral salts
(1) 0.3, 40 and 45 (2) 40, 45 and 0.3
(3) 0.3, 45 and 40 (4) 40, 0.3, and 45
155. Which of the following molecules are not utilized by
our body in their original form ? 160. Under normal physiological conditions. Every
(1) All biomacromolecules 1000ml of oxygenated blood delivers about (a) of
(2) All biomicromolecules O2 to the (b) and every 1000 mL of deoxygenated
(3) Biomolecules having molecular weight less than blood delivers about (c) of CO2 to the (d) .
1000 dalton. (1) (a) – 4mL; (b) – tissues; (c) – 5mL; (a) – alveoli
(4) All of these (2) (a) – 5mL; (b) – tissues; (c) – 4mL; (a) – alveoli
(3) (a) – 4mL; (b) – alveoli; (c) – 5mL; (a) – tissues
(4) None of these
156. Which of the following is incorrect about gastric
juice:
161. Rh incompatibility in first pregnancy
(1) Gastric juice have HCl. (1) occurs when foetus develops its heart completely.
(2) Digest protein. (2) occurs during the delivery of first child.
(3) Gastric juice is secreted by gastric glands. (3) occurs when foetal organs are completely developed.
(4) Pancreas secreation passes to stomach (4) never occurs during the first pregnancy.
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
162. Which of the following statements is correct ? 167. If X is a hormone which controls the carbohydrate
(a) Lymphatic system collects tissue fluid/interstitial metabolism in the body and Y is a hormone which
fluid and drains it back to the major veins. controls the secretion of X, then X and Y are
(b) Interstitial fluid (tissue fluid) and lymph have (1) insulin and somatotropin, respectively.
almost similar composition. (2) aldosterone and growth hormone, respectively.
(c) Lymph and interstitial fluid have no large (3) glucocorticoid and ACTH, respectively.
proteins and RBCs. (4) glucocorticoid and GnRH, respectively.
(d) Exchange of nutrients and gases between the
blood and cells always occurs through tissue 168. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
fluid. (1) The medullary zone of kidney is divided into a
(e) Interstitial fluid has the same mineral distribution few conical masses called medullary pyramids
as that in plasma. projecting into calyces.
(f) Fats absorb into lacteals (2) Inside the kidney, the cortical region extends in
(1) All of these between the medullary pyramids as renal pelvis.
(2) only (c) and (d) (3) Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule is
(3) (e) and (f) called the renal corpuscle.
(4) (a), (c) and (d) (4) Renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted tubule
(PCT) and distal convoluted tubule (DCT) of the
163. Injury of adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the
nephron are situated in the cortical region of
secretion of which one of the following :
kidney.
(1) Adrenaline
(2) Cortisol
(3) Aldosterone 169. Unmasking of active site on actin is by :
(4) Both androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone (1) increase in Ca2+ level of sarcoplasm.
(2) decrease in Ca2+ level of sarcoplasm
164. Cardiac output will be the ________, if heart has a (3) increase in K+ level of sarcoplasm
stroke volume of 0.07 L min–1 and is bearing at the (4) decrease in K+ level of sarcoplasm
rate of 80 per minute.
170. Match name of bones in column – I with their
(1) 56.0 L min–1
number in Column – II and select the correct option.
(2) 0.56 L min–1
(3) 5.6 L min–1 Column – I Column – II
(4) 56.8 L min–1 (a) Skull (i) 24
(b) Vertebrae (ii) 60
165. The strength of ventricular contraction increases
when SA node is stimulated by : (c) Ribs (iii) 22
(1) vagus nerve
(d) Sternum (iv) 1
(2) parasympathetic nerve
(3) sympathetic nerve (e) Pectoral girdles (v) 2
(4) all of these (f) Arms (vi) 4
(g) Ears ossicles (vii) 6
166. Which of the following is most likely to cause an
increase in the glomerular filtration rates? (h) Pelvic girdles (viii) 33
(1) Blockage of ureter
(2) Constriction of the afferent arterioles (1) (h) (iii), (a)  (iv), (f)  (ii), (e)  (vii)
(3) Release of renin from the juxtaglomerular (2) (c) (viii), (a)  (iv), (f)  (ii), (g)  (v)
apparatus (3) (c) (viii), (a)  (iv), (b)  (vi), (g)  (v)
(4) volume depletion (4) None of these.
Space for Rough Work

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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
171. Match column I with column II and choose the 176. Which is incorrect about classes of enzyme?
correct option : (1) There are six classes
Column – I Column – II (2) Each class have 4-13 subclasses
(3) Enzyme act on specific substrate
(a) Hinge joint (i) Between humerus and
(4) None of these
pectoral girdle
(b) Pivot joint (ii) Between carpals and 177. Find the correct option for labeled A, B and C
metacarpals of thumb respectively:
(c) Gliding joint (iii) Between the carpals
(d) Saddle joint (iv) Between atlas and axis
(e) Ball and (v) Knee joint
socket joint
(1) (a)–(v); (b)–(iv); (c)–(iii); (d) – (ii); (e) –(i) (1) Troponin, F-actin, Tropomyosin
(2) (a)–(i); (b)–(ii); (c)–(iii); (d) – (v); (e) –(iv) (2) F-actin, Troponin, Tropomyosin
(3) (a)–(i); (b)–(iii); (c)–(ii); (d) – (v); (e) –(iv) (3) Troponin, Tropomyosin, F-actin
(4) (a)–(v); (b)–(iii); (c)–(ii); (d) – (i); (e) –(ii) (4) Actin binding site, Troponin, Tropomyosin

172. During refractory period 178. Assertion:

(1) Nerve transmits impulse very slowly PTH causes osteoporosis.
(2) Nerve cannot transmit impulse Reason:
(3) Nerve transmits impulses very rapidly. Collip’s hormone act on osteolcast cell of bone.
(4) None of these (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason
is the correct explanation of assertion.
173. What is/are sensory structure present in frog? (2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason
(1) Taste bud is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Nasal epithelium (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) Tympanum with internal (4) Both assertion and reason are false.
(4) All of these
179. Assertion:
174. Find the correct match: Organism develop from 3 germ layer are called
(1) Terpenoides - Diterpene triploblastic.
(2) Toxin - Vinblastin Reason:
Platyhelmenthes to chordate are triploblastic.
(3) Lectin - Concavalin-A
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason
(4) Drugs - Curcumin
is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason
175. Assertion: is not the correct explanation of assertion.
A protein having defferent types of amino acid. (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Reason: (4) Both assertion and reason are false.
Protein is heteroplymer.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason 180. How many of following hormone action generate
is the correct explanation of assertion. secondary messenger ?
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason (GH, GH-RH, GH-IH, Cortisol, Testosterone,
is not the correct explanation of assertion. Aldosterone, PTH, TSH, MSH)
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. (1) 2 (2) 3
(4) Both assertion and reason are false. (3) 5 (4) 6
Space for Rough Work

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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A

*** Space for Rough Work ***

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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A

Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur, 760 002

www.svmberhampur.com

Date : 20-MAR.-2025 I Total Marks : 720 I Time : 02:00 - 05:00 PM

Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A
01 1 31 1 61 1 91 1 121 1 151 3
02 3 32 2 62 3 92 1 122 1 152 3
03 2 33 3 63 1 93 2 123 2 153 3
04 4 34 3 64 3 94 1 124 2 154 2
05 2 35 1 65 2 95 4 125 2 155 1
06 2 36 4 66 2 96 4 126 4 156 4
07 1 37 2 67 4 97 2 127 2 157 1
08 3 38 2 68 2 98 1 128 4 158 4
09 1 39 4 69 2 99 3 129 1 159 1
10 2 40 2 70 3 100 1 130 2 160 4
11 2 41 3 71 2 101 1 131 2 161 2
12 4 42 3 72 4 102 1 132 4 162 1
13 2 43 3 73 3 103 3 133 2 163 1
14 2 44 4 74 2 104 2 134 1 164 3
15 4 45 1 75 4 105 2 135 1 165 3
16 2 46 1 76 4 106 2 136 3 166 3
17 3 47 2 77 2 107 1 137 3 167 3
18 2 48 4 78 1 108 3 138 1 168 2
19 4 49 2 79 4 109 3 139 2 169 1
20 3 50 4 80 4 110 1 140 3 170 4
21 2 51 1 81 2 111 1 141 2 171 1
22 2 52 2 82 1 112 4 142 4 172 2
23 3 53 2 83 3 113 2 143 4 173 4
24 3 54 1 84 4 114 3 144 3 174 2
25 3 55 1 85 3 115 1 145 3 175 2
26 2 56 1 86 2 116 3 146 3 176 3
27 4 57 4 87 3 117 4 147 3 177 3
28 4 58 1 88 4 118 4 148 3 178 1
29 4 59 1 89 3 119 4 149 1 179 2
30 4 60 2 90 1 120 1 150 1 180 4

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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
RM Batch, XI Syllabus Test, Hints & Solutions, Date: 20-Mar.-2025
01. Answer (1) 08. Answer (3)
 Maximum force upto which the man remains at rest
Let the components of A makes angle α, β and γ
= μs Mg = 0.8 × 75 × 10 = 600 N
with x, y and z axis respectively then α = β = γ Force on box = 600 N
cos2 θ + cos2 β + cos2 γ = 1 μmg = 600
1 0.2 m(10) = 600
 3cos 2   1  cos  
3 m = 300 kg
09. Answer (1)
A
 A x  A y  A z  A cos   u 2y
3 H
2g
02. Answer (3)
10. Answer (2)
2K C.O.M.E
Here, 1 
ma
1  2 v  1 2
2

ma ma m  v      kx
  (because ‘2’ is dimensionless) 2   4   2
2K K
2
ma 1 15v 1 15 mv 2
But b   m  kx 2  k 
K 2 16 2 16 x 2
So unit of b is metre 11. Answer (2)
Force is conservative. So work done in closed loop
03. Answer (2)
is zero.
2u tg 12. Answer (4)
t1  u 1 1
g1 2 wG + wf = ∆k
2u t g 1
t2  u 2 2 mg H  w f  m[v 2  u 2 ]
g2 2 2
1 1 1
t1g1 = t2g2  10  1000  w f    2500
04. Answer (4) 1000 2 1000
wf = –10 + 1.25
d 2 dv wf = –8.75J
Slope  (v )  2v
dx dx 13. Answer (2)
Slope = 2a …(1) 4m  0  m a/2 ma a
YCM   
Given  Slope = tan 45o = 1 …(2) 4m  m 2(3m) 6
1 14. Answer (2)
 a   0.5m/s 2 15. Answer (4)
2
05. Answer (2) K2 2
For sphere: 2 
 x R 5
y  x tan 1   K2 1
 R K R  2  mvcm 2

R 2
2 1 1
 mv02  mv02
5 2 5
 K2  1 2  2  1 2 7
T.K.E.  1  2   mvcm  1   mv0  mv02
 R  2  52 10
 a 
u = mgR
h  a tan 45o 1  
 a  b 7
E  K  U  mv02  mgR
ab 10
h
ab 16. Answer (2)
06. Answer (2) 2v sin 
 Time of flight T  0
| a | 2 g
μkg = 2 v2
μk = 0.2 Horizontal range R  0 sin 2
g
07. Answer (1)
v sin 
Acceleration of blocks as seen from frame After time t  0 , the particle is at highest
10(g  2)sin 30o  5(g  2) g
 0 point.
10  5 Torque of weight mg about point of projection.
So sprign balance reading
R mgv02 sin 2 1
= 10(g + 2) sin 30o or 5(g + 2) 0  mg   mv02 sin 2
= 60 N 2 2g 2
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
17. Answer (3) 27. Answer (4)
18. Answer (2) Energy at rest position is 3J this min is potential
If missile launched with escape velocity than it will energy (PE at EP) PEmin = 3J
escape from the gravitational field and at infinity its
Mean i.e. average K.E. = 4J
total energy becomes zero.
But if the velocity of projection is less than escape So maximum K.E. = 2(Mean K.E.) = 8J
velocity then sum of energies will be negative. This T.E. = (PE)min + (K.E.)min = 3 + 8 = 11J
shown that attractive force is working on the 28. Answer (4)
satellite.
2
19. Answer (4) I MR 2
m 5
m1  2m 2  1  2 29. Answer (4)
m2
r1 20  2
r1  4r2  4 a  3m / s 2
r2 6
2+f=2×3
TA2  r12 and TB2  r23
3/ 2
f = 4N
T r  T 30. Answer (4)
 A   1   (43 )1/ 2  A  8
TB  r2  TB 120  50
20. Answer (3) a  10m / s 2
7
21. Answer (2)
120 – F = 10
Increment in area of soap film = A2 – A1
2 × [(10 × 0.6) – (10 × 0.5)] × 10–4 = 2 × 10–4m2 F = 110N
Work done = T × ∆A 31. Answer (1)
= 7.2 × 10–2 × 2 × 10–4 = 1.44 × 10–5J J R 0.36
22. Answer (2) e   0.56
J D 0.64
23. Answer (3)
 32. Answer (2)
Strain ()   T  (105 )(200)  2  103
 tan 

Stress = Y (strain) R2
Stress = 1011 × 2 × 10–3 = 2 × 108 N/m2 1 2
K
 Required force = stress × Area
33. Answer (3)
= (2 × 108)(2 × 10–6) = 4 × 102 = 400 N
34. Answer (3)
400
Mass to be attached   40kg 35. Answer (1)
g
36. Answer (4)
24. Answer (3)
v p  T  v avg  T  37. Answer (2)
   1  2  2   1 38. Answer (2)
v p  TA  vavg  2TA  39. Answer (4)
Let T/TA = x, the above equation reduces to
40. Answer (2)
( x  1)  2( x / 2  1) or x ( 2  1)  1
41. Answer (3)
Or x  [1/(3  2 2)] or x  3  2 2 42. Answer (3)
25. Answer (3) 43. Answer (3)
Let initial pressure of three samples are
44. Answer (4)
Px, Py, Pz PxV5/3 = P(2V)5/3
Py = P 45. Answer (1)
PzV = P(2V) v
f
Px : Py : Pz  2 3 4 :1: 2 42
26. Answer (2) 46. Answer (1)
 P1V1x  P2 V2x Benzyl carbonium in
x
16P0  2V0 
 
P0  V0 
x=4
P V  P V 2P V  16P0 V0 14
w 2 2 1 1  0 0  P0 V0
1 x 1 4 3
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
47. Answer (2) 53. Answer (2)
Cu2+ ion has 17 electrons in its outermost orbital. Relation between Molality (m), Molarity (M) and
4H2O molecules donate 4 pairs of electrons for density (d) is
coordinate covalent sharing. The one H2O molecule
1000 M
is attached to the sulphate ion by hydrogen bonding, m Msolute denotes
the oxygen being oriented to the hydrated cupric ion. 1000  d  M  M solute
Molar mass of solute.
1000  1 1000 1000
m=  
1000  1.25   1  85 1250  85 1165
= 0.858 m
Thus, the number of hydrogen bonded water
molecule associated with CuSO4.5H2O is 1. 54. Answer (1)
48. Answer (4) 55. Answer (1)
(1) Polarising power of cations increases with the w 2  1000
Molarity, M = w 2  Amount of glucose
increasing charge. M2   V 
(+1) (+2) (+3)
NaCl < MgCl2 < AlCl3 M
given molarity =
1 20
(2) Bond length 
Bond order 1 2  1000 180  250
 2   2.25g
20 180  250 20  1000
56. Answer (1)
–OCH3 is the strongest electron releasing group (+
effect) which opposes most the dispersion of lone
pair of electrons of nitrogen into the ring. Thus,
Hence, the decreasing order of bond length is −OCH3 being at para position imparts highest
CO32   CO 2  CO basicity. −NO2 being at meta position stabilises the
(3) Cl  Br  Cl, μ = 0 electron pair of nitrogen only by − effect. While
Hence, correct order of dipole moment: −NO2 being present at para position due to −
BeCl2 < NF3 < NH3 effect and − effect stabilises the lone pair of
(4) Correct order of bond angle: electrons of nitrogen most and imparts least basicity.
BF3 > SiH4 > NH3 > H2S
120o 109o28’ 107o 92.3o
49. Answer (2)
[Salt]
It forms a basic buffer. So, pH  pK a  log
[Acid]
[Salt]  1 3 
One-third neutralisation means  
[Acid]  3 2 
1
pH  5  log   or pH  5  log 2
2
50. Answer (4)
57. Answer (4)
Large jump between 3 and 4 suggests that the
element has three valence electrons. Key Idea Compounds which have at least one
51. Answer (1) double bond (C = C) and the groups attached with
Entropy is a function of the state of a double bonded carbon atoms are different, exhibit
thermodynamic system. It is extensive I quantity, (SI geometrical isomerism.
unit: joule/K/ mol). 58. Answer (1)
52. Answer (2) Paper chromatography is an example of partition
Is not possible or any value of n because l varies chromatography in which liquid present in the pores
from 0 to (n - 1) thus for n 2, can be only 0, 1, 2. (iv) of paper is stationary phase and some other liquid is
is not possible because for l = 0 , m = 0 . (v) is not
movable phase. The principle involved is partition
possible because for l = 2 , m varies from - 2 to +2
chromatography wherein the substances are
Related Theory The value of the spin quantum
number is independent of principal, azimuthal and distributed or partitioned between liquid phases.
magnetic quantum number. It is never possible that One phase is the water, which is held in the pores of
two electrons in the same orbital will have the value the filter paper used; and other is the mobile phase
of all four quantum numbers the same. which moves over the paper.
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
59. Answer (1) 65. Answer (2)
According to 1st law of thermodynamics,
∆U = q + w
Where, ∆U = change in internal energy
q = heat, w = work done
For adiabatic process, q = 0
*
CH 3  CH 2  C H  CH 3
|
Cl 66. Answer (2)
 ∆U = w In the given reaction, the oxidation number of
bromine increases from 0 to +1 and decreases from
i.e., change in internal energy is equal to adiabatic O to -1 . Due to this reason bromine is both oxidised
work. as well as reduced.
60. Answer (2) 0
:H2O + B r2 → HOBr + HBr–1
12  m 2  100
Percentage of Carbon = m Caution Some students understood that the given
44  m
reaction is redox reaction, but confuse with fact that
Mass of organic compound = 0.3g m2 = redox reaction I the reaction in both oxidation an
Mass of carbon dioxide = 0.2 g reduction occurs.
12  0.2  100 67. Answer (4)
∴ %C =  18.18%
44  0.3 The electronic configuration of Be = 1 2, 2 2 (Fully
filled). The electronic configuration of N= 1 2, 2 2,
2  m1  100
Percentage of hydrogen = 2 3 (Half filled).
18  m Due to stable electronic configuration of Be and N ,
m1 = mass of water = 0.1 g the ionisation enthalpies of these elements is more
2  0.1  100 than elements of the next group.
∴ %H =  3.70% 68. Answer (2)
18  0.3
61. Answer (1) Agl Ag   11.1  1016  s 2
1 Solubility of Ag– = 1.0 × 10–8
SO 2  O 2  SO3 Solubility of Agl in KI solution
2
= 1.0 × 10–8 × 10–4
[SO3 ]
K1  = 1.0 × 10–12 mol L–1
[SO 2 ][O 2 ]1/ 2 69. Answer (2)
SO3  2SO2 + O2 Given, pH of Ba (OH)2 = 12
∴pOH = 14 – pH
[SO 2 ]2 [O 2 ]
Thus, K 2  = 14 – 12 = 2 We know that,
[SO3 ]2 pOH = –log [OH–]
Comparing (i) and (ii) we get, 2 = –log [OH–]
 1 
2 [OH–] = antilog (–2)Ba(OH)2
1
K2  2
or K 2    [OH–]=1×10–2
K1  K1  Dissolves in water as
62. Answer (3) Ba(OH)2(s)  Ba s2   2OH 2
2-Chlorobutane contains a chiral carbon atom and s mol L–1
hence, is optically active compound. ∴ [OH–] = 2s = 1 × 10–2
63. Answer (1) OH   1  102
1850ng = 1850 × 10−9g = 1.85 × 10−6g  Ba  
2

2 2
1.85 × 103 g = 1.85 × 103 × 10−6g = 1.85 × 10−3g 2

1.85 × 10−6kg = 1.85 × 10−6 × 103g = 1.85 × 10−3g Ksp =  Ba 2    OH  

64. Answer (3)  1  102 
 1  10 
2 2
=
Boric acid is an acid because its molecule accepts
 2 
OH– from water releasing proton. It acts as a Lewis
= 0.5 × 10–6 = 5 × 10–7
acid because of the electron deficient nature of
boron in boric acid. 70. Answer (3)
Option (3) is correct because for to be zero, m can't
B(OH)3 + H2O → [B(OH)4]– (aq) + H
be –1, because, = − to + .
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
71. Answer (2) 79. Answer (4)
2A B + C, Kc = 4 × 10–3 At a given time t, QCc is 80. Answer (4)
to be calculated and been compared with Kc. −CH3−C6H4−CH3 with two electron donating
QC  1 methyl groups is the most reactive, followed by
As Qc/Kc, so reaction has a tendency to move CH3−C6H5 with one methyl group. Out of the
backward. remaining, −CH3−O−NO2 with one electron
72. Answer (4) withdrawing −NO2 group is more reactive than
For He+ ion, NO2−O−NO2 with two nitro groups towards
electrophile, +.
1 1 1 1 1  3R
 Z2 R  2  2   (2) 2 R  2  2   81. Answer (2)
  n1 n 2  2 4  4 pH=6 or [H+] = 10−6; when it is diluted 100 times.
1 1 1 i.e., [H+] = 10−6 × 10−2 = 10−8
For hydrogen atom, R 2  2 But pH of an acid cannot exceed 7. Here we should
  n1 n 2  also consider [H+] that comes from water.
3R 1 1 1 1 3 Now [H+] = [H+] from HCl + [H+] from
 R  2  2  or 2  2  H2O = 10−8 + 10−7 = 10−8 + 10 × 10−8
4 n
 1 n 2  n 1 n 2 4
= 11 × 10−8 pH = −log(11 × 10−8)
n1 = 1 and n2 = 2 = −(1.0413 − 8) = 6.9587
73. Answer (3) 82. Answer (1)
When Kp > Q, the reaction goes in forward
PCl4 and NH 4 show perfect tetrahedral geometry.
direction, i.e., the reaction is spontaneous (B) Given,

G   RT ln Q, thus,  G    ve and hence, the BF4 has regular tetrahedral geometry.
reaction is nonspontaneous. (C) At equilibrium, In NH3, due to repulsion by lone pair, geometry gets

H distorted. SF4 has see-saw structure and CCl4 shows
K P  Q  D  T   or TS  H This condition is tetrahedral geometry.
s
true for spontaneous endothermic reaction (as G ≥ H CH 3 is also having lone pair on central atom. So,
– T S) geometry also gets distorted from perfect
74. Answer (2) tetrahedral.
75. Answer (4) 83. Answer (3)
According to IUPAC nomenclature, an element with Chlorination of methane occurs through the
atomic number of 119 is ununennium. Hence option formation of chlorine free radical and at 520−670K
4 is correct. "un" is used for number 1. "enn" is used gives a mixture of four products i.e., CH3Cl, CH2Cl2,
for number 9 and at the end ium is added. CHCl3 and CCl4.
76. Answer (4) 84. Answer (4)
For n = 2, l = 1 orbital is 2p for Total number of nodes = − 1
n = 3, l = 2, orbital is 3d for For -orbital, radial nodes = – – 1 = − 3 and
n = 3, l = 0 orbital is 3s for there are 2 angular nodes.
n = 2, l = 0, orbital is 2s The number of angular nodes is given by l. i.e., for
77. Answer (2) p, 1 angular node, for , 2 angular nodes and so on.
Ca2+ = 20 – 2 = 18e– 85. Answer (3)
Ar = 18e– 86. Answer (2)
K+ = 19 – 1 = 18e– So, Ca2+, Ar, K+ 87. Answer (3)
Cl– = 17 + 1 = 18e– If atomic weights of and are ' ' and ' '
And Cl– are isoelectronic species respectively
78. Answer (1) 1.5( + 2 ) = 96 and 1.5( +3 ) = 120
1  a + 2 = 64 and + 3 = 80
Number of moles of H2 =  0.5 On solving, = 32 and = 16
2
Number of molecules of H2 = 0.5 NA (1) 88. Answer (4)
14 89. Answer (3)
Number of moles of N2 =  0.5 H2O is 3 hybridised with bond angle 104.5∘ due to
28
presence of two lone pairs. OF2 has structure similar
Number of molecules of N2 = 0.5 NA (2)
to H2O with bond angle 103∘ due to higher
18 electronegativity of fluorine. OCl2 also has similar
Number of moles of H2O = 1
18 structure with bond angle 111∘ because of steric
Number of molecules of crowding of two chlorine atoms. However, ClO2 has
H2O = 1 × NA = NA (3) Number of moles of CO = π-bond character with an odd electron so that bond
16 4 28 angle is 118∘. Thus, four compounds can be
 Number of moles of N2 =  1 Number
28 7 28 arranged in order of their bond angles, as
of molecules of N2 = 1 × NA = NA. 90. Answer (1)
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
91. Answer (1) 111. Answer (1)
ATP utilized both in reduction (2 ATP per CO2) and Phloem parenchyma absent in monocot stems.
regeneration (1 ATP per CO2) 112. Answer (4)
92. Answer (1) More than six xylem strands i.e. polyarch xylem with
Photorespiration occurs in C3 plants in which neither well developed pith are characteristic feature of
ATP or NADPH produced and also sugar not monocot root.
synthesized. 113. Answer (2)
93. Answer (2) 52% proteins/40% lipids = 1.3
94. Answer (1) 114. Answer (3)
OAA is first member of TCA cycle. In metacentric chromosomes, both arms have similar
95. Answer (4) size.
Statement-I : Glycolysis occurs in the cytosol of the 115. Answer (1)
cell and its present in all living organisms. 116. Answer (3)
Statement-II : In anaerobic organisms, it is the only Homologous chromosomes not paired during mitosis.
process in respiration.
117. Answer (4)
96. Answer (4)
118. Answer (4)
Characteristic graph is linear for arithmetic growth.
Colchicine treatment in metaphase arrests the cell
97. Answer (2)
division and causes chromosomal doubling.
GA delays the senescence of fruits and keeps fruits
119. Answer (4)
for longer period in trees.
120. Answer (1)
98. Answer (1)
99. Answer (3) Phototropism in canary grass studied by Darwin and
(III) ABA stimulates the closing of stomata under the Darwin.
water stress conditions 121. Answer (1)
(V) In most situations ABA is antagonistic to GA Acetyl CoA is the link molecule.
100. Answer (1) 122. Answer (1)
Monocot stem has water cavities in xylem and Mesosome not helps in photosynthesis.
vascular bundle is surrounded by sclerenchymatous 123. Answer (2)
bundle sheath. 124. Answer (2)
101. Answer (1) 125. Answer (2)
China rose has hypogynous flower. In lichen, fungus provides shelter and absorbs
102. Answer (1) moisture for algae.
When the margins of sepals and petals overlap one 126. Answer (4)
another without any particular direction, it is called Complex IV is cytochrome c oxidase.
imbricate aestivation e.g. Cassia, Gulmohur 127. Answer (2)
103. Answer (3) Solanaceae – Epipetalous
104. Answer (2) 128. Answer (4)
Cyanobacteria have pigments like Chlorophyll-a, Pyruvic acid is the key product of glycolysis.
carotenoid. 129. Answer (1)
105. Answer (2) 130. Answer (2)
(A) Mycelium of phycomycetes is aseptate and Aplanospores are non-motile.
coenocytic. 131. Answer (2)
(B) Ascomycetes reproduce by conidia which are 132. Answer (4)
exogenously produced. 133. Answer (2)
(C) Ascomycetes reproduce asexually by zoospore or
Wall of fruit – Pericarp
aplanospore.
134. Answer (1)
(D) Deuteromycetes only reproduce asexually by
All tissues inner to endodermis constitute the stele.
conidia.
135. Answer (1)
106. Answer (2)
(B) In moss gametophyte is much developed, free 136. Answer (3)
living and nutritionally independent. Petunia is a Genus.
107. Answer (1) 137. Answer (3)
In rock succession, lichens and mosses are pioneer Notochord present in embryonic stage of human and
species. modified to bony vertebral column.
108. Answer (3) 138. Answer (1)
Nucleolus synthesizes rRNA. 139. Answer (2)
109. Answer (3) 140. Answer (3)
110. Answer (1) Cnidarian shows tissue level of organization.
In pinus, Male and female cones are borne on same 141. Answer (2)
tree i.e. monoenious. Class insecta having 3 pairs of legs.
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NEET- UG 2025 Test Booklet Code-A
142. Answer (4) 161. Answer (2)
Clasper organ present in male condrictryeel. 162. Answer (1)
143. Answer (4) 163. Answer (1)
In amphibian, pieces, amnion don’t develop during Adrenalin produced from Adrenal medulla.
embryogenesis. 164. Answer (3)
144. Answer (3) CO = HR × SV = 80 × 0.07 L. min–1 = 5.6 L. min–1
145. Answer (3)
165. Answer (3)
146. Answer (3)
166. Answer (3)
147. Answer (3)
Bicep muscles is skeletal muscle. 167. Answer (3)
148. Answer (3) 168. Answer (2)
Agglutinin are antibodies present in plasma/serum 169. Answer (1)
but agglutinogen present on RBCs. Ca2+ bind to troponin lead to conformational
149. Answer (1) changes and released from the binding site for
150. Answer (1) myosin on actin.
151. Answer (3) 170. Answer (4)
Nymph undergoes 13 moulting to form adult. 171. Answer (1)
152. Answer (3) 172. Answer (2)
153. Answer (3) During refractory period the nerve regain its resting
154. Answer (2) stage and during this period it do not receive further
Though the protein are heteropolymer of 20 amino stimulus.
acid hence from this amino acid under different 173. Answer (4)
combination, many types of protein can be formed. 174. Answer (2)
155. Answer (1)
Vinblastin is a drugs.
All bio-micro molecule can directly passes into body
175. Answer (2)
cell.
156. Answer (4)
Assertion is correct explanation of reason.
Pancreatic secretion passes to duodenum in frog. 176. Answer (3)
157. Answer (1) Option 3 is not related with enzyme classes.
158. Answer (4) 177. Answer (3)
159. Answer (1) 178. Answer (1)
160. Answer (4) Collip’s hormone is other name of PTH which act
1000 ml oxygenated blood deliver 50 ml O2 to tissue on osteoclast lead to demineralization of bone.
and 1000 ml deoxygenated blood released 40 ml 179. Answer (2)
CO2 to alveoli. 180. Answer (4)

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