Seat No.

: _____

Republic of the Philippines

OPENSOURCE REVIEW GROUP for REE and RME
https://www.facebook.com/groups/ree.opensource
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING DIVISION

WEEKLY ASSESSMENT QUIZ No.: 8 WEEK 8: EE PART 3

JULY 15, 2023 08:00 a.m. – 10:30 a.m
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INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark
only one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your

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choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

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1. For the following phase current Ia = 34.64, Ib = -10 – j17.32, Ic = -10 + j17.32.
What is the positive sequence for phase c?
A. 12.44 – j21.55 C. -12.44 + j21.55
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B. 12.44 + j21.55 D. -12.44 – j21.55

2. One conductor of a three-phase line is open. The current flowing to the

delta-connected load through line a is 20 A. With the current in line a as
reference and assuming that line c is open, what is the negative sequence
current of phase a?
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A. 10 + j5.78 C. -10 – j5.78
B. 10 – j5.78 D. -10 + j5.78

3. The line currents in amperes in phases a, b, and c respectively are 500+j150,

100–j600 and -300+j600. Determine the zero-sequence component of phase a
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current.
A. -100 – j50 amps C. 100 – j50 amps
B. -100 + j50 amps D. 100 + j50 amps
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4. The line currents in a three-phase four-wire system are Ia = (300 + j400) A, Ib =

(200 + j200) A and Ic = (-400 – j200) A. Determine the positive sequence
component of Ia.
A. 276 ∠25.6°A C. 276 ∠265.6°A
B. 276 ∠145.6°A D. 0

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 5. A balanced delta-connected load draws 100 A line current from a balanced 3
phase supply. Determine the zero sequence components of the currents.
A. -50 – j86.6 C. 0
B. 50 – j86.6 D. 86.6 + j50

6. A 500-kVA, 113,200/240 V, three-phase transformer with an impedance of 4.2%

is connected to an infinite bus and without load. If a three-phase fault occurs at
the secondary terminals, the fault current in amperes is,
A. 26,040 C. 24,680

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B. 26,840 D. 28,640

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7. The positive, negative and zero sequence reactance of 20 MVA, 132 kV
synchronous generator are 0.3 pu, 0.2 pu and 0.1 pu, respectively. The generator
is solidly grounded is not loaded. A line to ground fault occurs on phase a.

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Neglecting all the resistances, determine the fault current.
A. -j 1.67 pu C. -j 5 pu
B. -j 2.89 pu D. -j 3.34 pu
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8. For a single line to ground fault the zero sequence current is given by j3.0 pu.
The current carried by the neutral during the fault is,
A. j 1 pu C. j 9 pu
B. j 3 pu D. j 6 pu

9. The per unit value of a 2 ohm resistor at 100 MVA base and 10 kV base voltage
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is,
A. 4 pu C. 0.2 pu
B. 0.5 pu D. 2 pu

10. The reactance of a generator designated X” is given as 0.25 per unit based on
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the generators nameplate rating of 18 kV, 500 MVA. The base for calculations is
20 kV, 100 MVA. Find X” on the new base.
A. 0.0617 pu C. 0.0081 pu
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B. 0.0405 pu D. 0.0450 pu

11. Two-wattmeter method is applied to a 3-phase motor running at full-load. Two

wattmeters indicate 85.5 kW and 34.7 kW, respectively. What is the operating
power of the motor?
A. 87.5% C. 80.69%
B. 89.49% D. 94.76%

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 12. In an electric system the available short circuit MVA is 600 MVA. What is the
Thevenin’s equivalent reactance at 34.5 kV?
A. 1.984 Ω C. 2.561 Ω
B. 1.587 Ω D. 0.046 Ω

13. A 200v, three-phase source is connected to two equal impedances of 7.07 +

j7.07 ohms in parallel and with both connected in wye configuration. What is the
current per phase of the combination?
A. -16.26 – j16.26 A C. 16.26 – j16.26 A

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B. 16.26 + j 16.26 A D. -16.26 + 16.26 A

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14. If 25 ohms and 125 amperes are the base impedance and base current,
respectively for given system, what is the base kVA?
A. 781.25 C. 390.625

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B. 39.1 D. 78.12

15. The apparent power input to a balanced wye-connected load is 30 kVA, and a
corresponding true power is 15 kW at 50 A. The phase voltage is,
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A. 346.4 V C. 230 V
B. 400 V D. 200 V

16. Two No.8 copper conductors are placed 15-cm apart with a GMR of 1.27 x 10^-3
m. If the length of the line is 4km, find the value of the line inductance.
A. 5.78 mH C. 7.63 mH
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B. 6.85 mH D. 9.65 mH

17. A transmission line consists of two solid aluminum conductors having a radius of
2.5 cm and separated on centers by a distance of 3.6 m. Find the total line
inductance in millihenrys, per meter.
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A. 2.09 x 10^-3 C. 0.0209

B. 1.044 x 10^-3 D. 0.0104
AC

18. A 69 kV, three-phase transmission line is 50 km long. The resistance per phase
is 0.3006 ohm per mile and the inductance per phase is 0.451 ohm per mile.
Neglect the shunt capacitance. Using the short line model, what is the voltage
regulation when the line is supplying a three-phase load of 20 MVA at 0.80
lagging power factor at 69 kV?
A. 6.7% C. 7.6%
B. 7.2% D. 6.3%

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 19. A single-phase, 10 km transmission line has 16.65 mH total inductance. If the
distance between the inductor is 1.0 m, what is the conductor radius?
A. 1 cm C. 0.75 cm
B. 2 cm D. 1.50 cm

20. A 69 kV, 3-phase short transmission line is 16 km long. The line has a per phase
series impedance of 0.125 + 0.4375 ohm per km. Determine the transmission
efficiency when the line delivers 70 MVA, 0.80 lagging power factor at 64 kV.
A. 98.75% C. 94.67%

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B. 96.36% D. 95.90%

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21. Find the capacitive suspectance per mile of a single-phase line operating at 60
Hz. The conductor is partridge with an outside diameter of 0.642 in, and spacing
is 20 ft between centers.

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A. 5.10 x 10^-4 mho/mi to neutral C. 5.10 x 10^-6 mho/mi to neutral
B. 0.1961 x 10^4 mho/mi to neutral D. 0.1961 x 10^5 mho/mi to neutral

22. A string insulator has 5 units. The voltage across the bottom most unit is 30% of
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the total voltage. What is the string efficiency?
A. 60% C. 75%
B. 66.67% D. 83.33%

23. What is the self-geometric mean distance of a 3-strand bundle made of ACSR
Rail conductors with 45 cm between o conductors? The GMR of ACSR Rail is
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0.0386 ft.
A. 0.4832 ft. C. 0.3842 ft.
B. 0.2834 ft. D. 0.4382 ft
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24. What should be the kV rating of a surge arrester to be used for an 11 kV
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ungrounded system?
A. 18 kV C. 12 kV
B. 16 kV D. 9 kV
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25. A 10-km long, single-phase short transmission line has 0.5 with an angle of 60°
Ω/km impedance. The line supplies a 316.8 kW load at 0.8 power factor lagging.
What is the voltage regulation if the receiving-end voltage is 3.3 kV?
A. 16.94% C. 12.94%
B. 14.94% D. 10.94%

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 26. A load of 10 MVA, 0.8 p.f. lagging, 22-kV is served by a transmission line which
has a line resistance of 3 ohms and a line reactance of 10 ohms. Solve for the
sending end voltage.
A. 25,206 V C. 22,433 V
B. 26,721 V D. 24,214 V

27. A 155 kV, 60 Hz three-phase subtransmission line is 45 km in length. The

resistance per phase is 0.2148 ohm/mile and the inductive reactance is 0.441
ohm/mile. Calculate the subtransmission line efficiency when the line is supplying

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a three-phase load of 220 MVA at a lagging power factor of 80% at 115 kV using
short line model.

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A. 91.5% C. 90.3%
B. 88.9% D. 90.4%

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28. If a fault occurs near a generating station, how long does the transient
component of a fault last?
A. 10 to 15 sec C. 3 to 5 sec
B. 5 to 10 sec D. 1 to 3 sec
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29. The PTR and CTR used to protect a line are 2000 and 240 respectively. If the
reactance as seen on the relay side is 1.41Ω. What is the reactance of each line?
A. 12.2 C. 14
B. 11.75 D. 16
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30. A power station supplies 60 kW to a load over 2500 ft of 000 2 conductor copper
feeder the resistance of which is 0.078 ohm per 1000 ft. The bus bar voltage is
maintained constant at 600 volts. Determine the maximum power which can be
transmitted.
A. 60 kW C. 120 kW
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B. 230.7 kW D. 150 kW

31. In a power station, 4 x 10^4 GWh of energy is to be produced in one year using
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coal with energy content of 900 watt-years/ton. How many tons of coal will be
required?
A. 7.05 x 10^6 C. 5.07 x 10^4
B. 5.07 x 10^6 D. 7.05 x 10^4

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 32. To generate 1 kWh of energy a power plant burns 0.9 lb of coal with a heating
value of 12500 BTU/lb. What is the heat rate of the plant in kcal/kWh,
A. 2638 C. 2683
B. 2368 D. 2836

33. A power station has a connected load of 25 MW and generates 87.6 GWh/year. If
the load factor is 50%, find the demand factor.
A. 0.8 C. 0.75
B. 0.7 D. 0.65

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34. A hydroelectric generating station is supplied from a reservoir of capacity 2x10^8

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ft^3 at a head of 500 ft, what is the total available electric energy in MWhr if the
hydraulic efficiency is 0.8 and the electrical efficiency is 0.9?
A. 1352 C. 1690

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B. 1217 D. 1521

35. The maximum tidal head available for proposed tidal power plant is 7m. What
must be the area of the tidal bay in square kilometer to generate an average of
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1200 MW of power?
A. 100 C. 105
B. 110 D. 112

36. A wind generator with an efficiency of 90% has an output power of 61.7 kW. If the
average wind velocity is 30 kph, find the blade diameter in meters.
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A. 20 C. 22
B. 18 D. 25

37. A power plant consumes 3600 tons of coal per day. If the coal has an average
energy content 10,000 BTU/lb. What is the plants power output? Assume an
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over-all efficiency of 15%.

A. 125 MW C. 135 MW
B. 132 MW D. 123 MW
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38. A diesel power plant has an over-all efficiency of 30%. If the heat value of diesel
is 18000 BTU/lb and cost 6 P/L, how much is the fuel cost of production per kWh
of energy. The density of diesel is 900 g/L.
A. 2.0 P/kw-hr C. 1.19 P/kw-hr
B. 1.91 P/kw-hr D. 2.91 P/kw-hr

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 39. A 55000 kW thermal power plant of NPC delivers an annual output of 283000
MWh of a peak load of 44 MW. The annual load factor of the plant is nearest to,
A. 0.75 C. 0.65
B. 0.73 D. 0.80

40. The net energy required for a certain country in 2000 was approximately 3x10^6
GWh. What is the equivalent of this energy in quad?
A. 12.42 C. 10.24
B. 102.4 D. 124.2

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41. A certain light source produces an illumination of 800 lux on surfaces. Find the

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illumination of 800 lux on surfaces. Find the illumination on that surfaces if the
distance to the light is doubled.
A. 300 lux C. 400 lux

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B. 100 lux D. 200 lux

42. A room measuring 16m by 8m is to be illuminated by 8 lamps with an average

illumination of 72 lm/sq.m at floor level. If 40% of the total light emitted is absorb
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by the walls and ceiling, calculate the mean spherical candle power required for
each lamp.
A. 103 Cd C. 153 Cd
B. 203 Cd D. 253 Cd

43. A medium unshaded lamp hangs 8 m directly above the table. To what distance
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should it be lowered to increase the illumination to 2 times its former value?
A. 2.34 m C. 4 m
B. 5.66 m D. 4.64 m

44. A 100 candela lamp emits light uniformly in all directions and is suspended 2m
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above the center of a working table which is 3m square. Calculate the

illumination at each corner of the table.
A. 8.08 lm/m^2 C. 12.8 lm/m^2
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B. 16.16 lm/m^2 D. 25.6 lm/m^2

45. An area of 0.3 square meter is to be illuminated by a lamp at a level of 600 lux.
What is the total luminous flux emitted by the lamp?
A. 160 Im C. 180 lm
B. 170 lm D. 190 lm

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 46. A room with dimensions of 72 ft x 36 ft x 13 ft requires 50 footcandles,
maintenance factor of 0.7 coefficients of utilization of 0.46 and refractive index of
4. Calculate the required lumens output of the lamps.
A. 144,000 C. 402,485
B. 136,800 D. 74,690

47. A floodlight emitting 25000 candelas in the center of its beam is aimed at 60
degrees to a point on the ground 20 meters away. The illumination of the point is,
A. 54.12 C. 31.25

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B. 62.5 D. 625

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48. At what distance from a wall will 4 cd lamp provide the same illumination as an 8
cd lamp located 4m from the wall?
A. 2.31 m C. 2.93 m

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B. 2.39 m D. 2.83 m

49. Calculate the mean spherical candle power of a lamp emitting a flux of 1500
lumens.
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A. 119.37 cd C. 375 cd
B. 1500 cd D. 477.46 cd

50. A lamp gives an output of 628 lm. What is its Mean Spherical Candlepower
(MSCP)?
A. 80 C. 60
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B. 70 D. 50

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C
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