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20-03-2025 - SR - Star Co-Sc (Model-A& Apex) Phase-Iii - Jee Main Model - SPL GTM-1 (An) - QP
2. In a group of 3 girls and 4 boys, there are two boys B1 and B2 . The number of ways, in which these
girls and boys can stand in a queue such that all the girls stand together, all the boys stand together, but
B1 and B2 are not adjacent to each other, is :
(A) 144 (B) 72 (C) 96 (D) 120
3. Let P(4, 4 3) be a point on the parabola y 2 4ax and PQ be a focal chord of the parabola. If M and N
are the foot of perpendiculars drawn from P and Q respectively on the directrix of the parabola, then the
area of the quadrilateral PQMN is equal to:
263 3 343 3 34 3
(A) (B) 17 3 (C) (D)
8 8 3
4. For a 3 3 matrix M, let trace (M) denote the sum of all the diagonal elements of M. Let A be a 3 3
1
matrix such that | A | and trace (A) = 3. If B = adj(adj(2A)), then the value of |B| + trace (B) equals:
2
(A) 56 (B) 132 (C) 174 (D) 280
5. Suppose that the number of terms in an A.P. is 2k, k N . If the sum of all odd terms of the A.P. is 40,
the sum of all even terms is 55 and the last term of the A.P. exceeds the first term by 27, then k is equal
to
(A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 4
6. Let a line pass through two distinct points P(2, 1,3) and Q, and be parallel to the vector 3iˆ 2ˆj 2kˆ .
If the distance of the point Q from the point R(1, 3, 3) is 5, then the square of the area of PQR is
equal to:
(A) 136 (B) 140 (C) 144 (D) 148
x
e 1 x log e
7. If lim , then the value of equals :
x
1 e e 1 x 1 log e
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(A) e (B) e 2 (C) e 2 (D) e 1
2
x
t 2 8t 15
8. Let f (x) 0 et dt, x R . Then the numbers of local maximum and local minimum points of f,
respectively, are :
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 3 and 2 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 2
x 1 y 2 z 3
9. The perpendicular distance, of the line from the point P(2, –10,1), is:
2 1 2
(A) 6 (B) 5 2 (C) 3 5 (D) 4 3
1
x x sin x sin 1 x x 1
11. If 1 x 2 (1 x 2 )3/2 1 x 2 dx g(x) C , where C is the constant of integration, then g 2
e
equals :
e e e e
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 2 4 2 6 3 4 3
12. Let and be the distinct roots of 2x 2 (cos )x 1 0 , (0, 2 ) . If m and M are the minimum
and the maximum values of 4 4 , then 16(M + m) equals :
(A) 24 (B) 25 (C) 27 (D) 17
13. Let A {1, 2,3, 4} and B {1, 4,9,16} . Then the number of many-one functions f : A B such that
1 f (A) is equal to :
(A) 127 (B) 151 (C) 163 (D) 139
15. Let a and b be two unit vectors such that the angle between them is . If a 2b and 3a b are
3
perpendicular to each other, then the number of values of in [1,3] is :
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0
x 2 y2 x 2 y2
16. Let E : 1 , a > b and H : 2 2 1 . Let the distance between the foci of E and the foci of H
a 2 b2 A B
1
be 2 3 . If a A 2 , and the ratio of the eccentricities of E and H is , then the sum of the lengths of
3
their latus rectums is equal to :
(A) 10 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
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17. If A and B are two events such that P(A B) 0.1 , and P(A | B) and P(B | A) are the roots of the
P(A B)
equation 12x 2 7x 1 0 , then the value of is :
P(A B)
5 4 9 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 4 4
18. The sum of all values of [0, 2] satisfying 2sin 2 cos 2 and 2 cos 2 3sin is
5
(A) (B) 4 (C) (D)
2 6
19. Let the curve z(1 i) z(1 i) 4, z C , divide the region | z 3 | 1 into two parts of areas and .
Then | | equals.
(A) 1 (B) 1 (C) 1 (D) 1
2 3 4 6
SECTION-II
(NUMERICAL VALUE ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a Numerical value. If the
Answer in the decimals , Mark nearest Integer only. Have to Answer any 5 only out of 10
questions and question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, -1 in all other cases.
dy xy x 6 4x
21. Let y = f(x) be the solution of the differential equation 2 , 1 x 1 such that
dx x 1 1 x2
1/2
f(0) = 0. If 6 f (x)dx 2 then 2 is equal to _____.
1/2
22. Let A(6, 8), B(10 cos , 10sin ) and C(10sin ,10 cos ) , be the vertices of a triangle. If L(a, 9) and
G(h, k) be its orthocenter and centroid respectively, then (5a 3h 6k 100sin 2) is equal to _____
23. Let the distance between two parallel lines be 5 units and a point P lie between the lines at a unit
distance from one of them. An equilateral triangle PQR is formed such that Q lies on one of the parallel
lines, while R lies on the other. The (QR) 2 is equal to _____.
2
30 r 2 30 Cr
24. If 30
229 , then is equal to ______.
r 1 Cr 1
25. Let A = {1, 2, 3}. The number of relations on A, containing (1, 2) and (2, 3), which are reflexive and
transitive but not symmetric, is ______.
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PHYSICS MAX.MARKS: 100
SECTION – I
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3)
and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -1 if not correct.
26. A symmetric thin biconvex lens is cut into four equal parts by two planes AB and CD as shown in
figure. If the power of original lens is 4D then the power of a part of the divided lens is
27. A small rigid spherical ball of mass M is dropped in a long vertical tube containing glycerine. The
velocity of the ball becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is half of the density
of the ball, then the viscous force acting on the ball will be (consider g as acceleration due to gravity)
3 Mg
(A) Mg (B) (C) Mg (D) 2 Mg
2 2
29. A series LCR circuit is connected to an alternating source of emf E. The current amplitude at resonant
frequency is I0 . If the value of resistance R becomes twice of its initial value then amplitude of current
at resonance will be
I I
(A) I 0 (B) 0 (C) 0 (D) 2I 0
2 2
30. For a short dipole placed at origin O, the dipole moment P is along x-axis, as shown in the figure. If the
electric potential and electric field at A are V0 and E 0 , respectively, then the correct combination of the
electric potential and electric field, respectively, at point B on the y-axis is given by
V0 E E0 E0 E0
(A) and 0 (B) Zero and (C) Zero and (D) V0 and
2 16 8 16 4
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31. Which one of the following is the correct dimensional formula for the capacitance in F ? M, L, T and C
stand for unit of mass, length, time and charge,
(A) [F] [C 2 M 2 L2 T 2 ] (B) [F] [CM 2 L2T 2 ]
(C) [F] [CM 1L2T 2 ] (D) [F] [C 2 M 1L2 T 2 ]
32. An electron projected perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B moves in a circle. If Bohr's
quantization is applicable, then the radius of the electronic orbit in the first excited state is :
2h 4h h h
(A) (B) (C) (D)
eB eB 2eB eB
Cp Cp
33. For a diatomic gas, if 1 for rigid molecules and 2 for another diatomic molecules,
Cv Cv
but also having vibrational modes. Then, which one of the following options is correct?
(Cp and Cv are specific heats of the gas at constant pressure and volume)
(A) 2 1 (B) 2 1 (C) 2 2 1 (D) 2 1
34. A rectangular metallic loop is moving out of a uniform magnetic field region to a field free region with
a constant speed. When the loop is partially inside the magnate field, the plot of magnitude of induced
emf () with time (t) is given by
35. A light source of wavelength illuminates a metal surface and electrons are ejected with maximum
kinetic energy of 2 eV. If the same surface is illuminated by a light source of wavelength , then the
2
maximum kinetic energy of ejected electrons will be (The work function of metal is 1 eV)
(A) 2 eV (B) 6 eV (C) 5 eV (D) 3 eV
36. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : A simple pendulum is taken to a planet of mass and radius, 4 times and 2 times,
respectively, than the Earth. The time period of the pendulum remains same on earth and the planet.
Reason (R) : The mass of the pendulum remains unchanged at Earth and the other planet. In the light
of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
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38.
To obtain the given truth table, following logic gate should be placed at G :
(A) NOR Gate (B) AND Gate (C) NAND Gate (D) OR Gate
39. A force F 2iˆ bjˆ kˆ is applied on a particle and it undergoes a displacement ˆi 2ˆj kˆ . What will be
the value of b, if work done on the particle is zero.
1 1
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D) 2
2 3
40. Given below are two statements. On is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringes produced by red light are closer as
compared to those produced by blue light.
Reason (R) : The fringe width is directly proportional to the wavelength of light.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false.
41. A ball of mass 100 g is projected with velocity 20 m/s at 60° with horizontal. The decrease in kinetic
energy of the ball during the motion from point of projection to highest point is :
(A) 20 J (B) 15 J (C) zero (D) 5 J
42. A transparent film of refractive index, 2.0 is coated on a glass slab of refractive index, 1.45. What is the
minimum thickness of transparent film to be coated for the maximum transmission of Green light of
wavelength 550 nm. [Assume that the light is incident nearly perpendicular to the glass surface.]
(A) 94.8 nm (B) 68.7 nm (C) 137.5 nm (D) 275 nm
43. The tube of length L is shown in the figure. The radius of cross section at the point (1) is 2 cm and at
the point (2) is 1 cm, respectively. If the velocity of water entering at point (1) is 2 m/s, then velocity of
water leaving the point (2) will be :
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(A) 2 m/s (B) 4 m/s (C) 6 m/s (D) 8 m/s
44. Given are statements for certain thermodynamic variables,
(A) Internal energy, volume (V) and mass (M) are extensive variables.
(B) Pressure (P), temperature (T) and density () are intensive variables.
(C) Volume (V), temperature (T) and density () are intensive variables.
(D) Mass (M), temperature (T) and internal energy are extensive variables.
Choose the correct answer from the points given below :
(A) (C) and (D) only (B) (D) and (A) only (C) (A) and (B) only (D) (B) and (C) only
45. A body of mass 100 g is moving in circular path of radius 2 m on vertical plane as shown in figure. The
velocity of the body at point A is 10 m/s. The ratio of its kinetic energies at point B and C is :
SECTION-II
(NUMERICAL VALUE ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a Numerical value. If the
Answer in the decimals, Mark nearest Integer only. Have to Answer any 5 only out of 10
questions and question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, -1 in all other cases.
46. A proton is moving undeflected in a region of crossed electric and magnetic fields at a constant speed
of 2 105 ms 1 . When the electric field is switched off, the proton moves along a circular path of radius
2 cm. The magnitude of electric field is x 10 4 N / C , the value of x is _____.
Take the mass of the proton = 1.6 10 27 kg .
47. Two long parallel wires X and Y, separated by a distance of 6 cm, carry currents of 5A and 4A,
respectively, in opposite directions as shown in the figure. Magnitude of the resultant magnetic field at
point P at a distance of 4 cm from wire Y is x 10 5 T . The value of x is ________. Take permeability
of free space as 0 4 107 SI units
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48. A parallel plate capacitor of area A 16cm 2 and separation between the plates 10 cm, is charged by a
DC current. Consider a hypothetical plane surface of area A 0 3.2cm 2 inside the capacitor and parallel
to the plates. At an instant, the current through the circuit is 6A. At the same instant the displacement
current through A 0 is ________ mA.
49. A tube of length 1m is filled completely with an ideal liquid of mass 2M, and closed at both ends. The
tube is rotated uniformly in horizontal plane about one of its ends. If the force exerted by the liquid at
F
the other end is F then angular velocity of the tube is in SI unit. The value of is _______.
M
SECTION – I
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3)
and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -1 if not correct.
51. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their dipole moment :
HBr, H 2S, NF3 and CHCl3
(A) NF3 HBr H 2S CHCl3 (B) HBr H 2S NF3 CHCl3
(C) H 2S HBr NF3 CHCl3 (D) CHCl3 NF3 HBr H 2S
52. Identify the number of structure/s from the following which can be correlated to D-glyceraldehyde.
53. The maximum covalency of a non-metallic group 15 element 'E' with weakest E–E bond is :
(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 4
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54. Consider the given figure and choose the correct option :
(A) Activation energy of backward reaction is E1 and product is more stable than reactant.
(B) Activation energy of forward reaction is E 1 + E2 and product is more stable than reactant.
(C) Activation energy of forward reaction is E1 + E2 and product is less stable than reactant.
(D) Activation energy of both forward and backward reaction is E1 + E2 and reactant is more stable
than product.
55. When sec-butylcyclohexane reacts with bromine in the presence of sunlight, the major product is :
57. Match the Compounds (List-I) with the appropriate Catalyst/Reagents (List-II) for their reduction into
corresponding amines.
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The maximum number of RBr producing 2-methylbutane by above sequence of reactions is _____.
(Consider the structural isomers only)
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 1
60. The correct order of the following complexes in terms of their crystal field stabilization energies is :
(A) [Co(NH3 )4 ]2 [Co(NH3 )6 ]2 [Co(en)3 ]3 [Co(NH3 ) 6 ]3
(B) [Co(NH3 ) 4 ]2 [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]2 [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3 [Co(en)3 ]3
(C) [Co(NH3 ) 6 ]2 [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3 [Co(NH 3 ) 4 ]2 [Co(en)3 ]3
(D) [Co(en)3 ]3 [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]3 [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]2 [Co(NH 3 ) 4 ]2
61. Density of 3 M NaCl solution is 1.25 g/mL. The molality of the solution is :
(A) 1.79 m (B) 2 m (C) 3 m (D) 2.79 m
62. The molar solubility(s) of zirconium phosphate with molecular formula (Zr 4 ) 3 (PO34 ) 4 by relation :
1 1 1 1
K 7 K 6 K 7 K 3
(A) sp (B) sp (C) sp (D) sp
6912 5348 8435 9612
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64. Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : An element in the extreme left of the periodic table forms acidic oxides.
Statement (II) : Acid is formed during the reaction between water and oxide of a reactive element
present in the extreme right of the periodic table.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true. (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
(C) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false. (D) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
68.
(A)
(B)
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(C)
(D)
SECTION-II
(NUMERICAL VALUE ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a Numerical value. If the
Answer in the decimals , Mark nearest Integer only. Have to Answer any 5 only out of 10
questions and question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, -1 in all other cases.
71. The compound with molecular formula C 6 H 6 , which gives only one monobromo derivative and takes
up four moles of hydrogen per mole for complete hydrogenation has _______ electrons.
72. Niobium (Nb) and ruthenium (Ru) have “x” and “y” number of electrons in their respective 4d orbitals.
The value of x + y is _______
73. The complex of Ni 2 ion and dimethyl glyoxime contains ______ number of Hydrogen (H) atoms.
75. 20 mL of 2 M NaOH solution is added to 400 mL of 0.5 M NaOH solution. The final concentration of
the solution is ______ 102 M . (Nearest integer).
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