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NEET RAND TEST
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 BOTANY taxonomy constituents of plants
1. Which of the following is NOT a correct rule 2. Numerical taxonomy B. Evolutionary
of biological nomenclature? relationships
(1) Biological names are written in italics or 3. Cytotaxonomy C. Chromosome
underlined if handwritten. number, structure,
(2) The first word in a biological name starts and behavior
with a capital letter and represents the genus. 4. Chemotaxonomy D. Observable
(3) The second word in a biological name characteristics
starts with a capital letter and represents the processed with codes
species. (1) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
(4) Biological names are generally derived (2) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
from Latin or Latinised. (3) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
2. What is the basis for grouping plant families (4) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
like Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae into the 6. Read the following statements about
order Polymoniales? Rhodophyceae
(1) Similarities in vegetative characters Statements:
(2) Similarities in floral characters a. Members of Rhodophyceae are commonly
(3) Similarities in habitat and distribution called red algae due to the presence of r-
(4) Similarities in seed morphology phycoerythrin.
3. Identify the odd one out based on the b. Red algae are exclusively found in well-
classification of Deuteromycetes. lighted regions near the water surface.
(1) Alternaria c. Floridean starch is the stored food material
(2) Colletotrichum in red algae, structurally similar to
(3) Trichoderma amylopectin and glycogen.
(4) Agaricus d. Sexual reproduction in red algae is
4. Assertion(A): Viruses are not included in oogamous with complex post-fertilisation
Whittaker’s five-kingdom classification. developments.
Reason(R): Viruses are non-cellular e. Red algae reproduce asexually through
organisms that exhibit an inert crystalline non-motile spores.
structure outside the living cell. (1) only a and c are correct.
(1) Both Assertion(A) and Reason (R) are (2) b and d are correct.
true, and Reason (R) is the correct (3) b is incorrect, all others are correct.
explanation of Assertion(A) (4) d and e are incorrect.
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are 7. Which of the following statements about the
true, but Reason (R) is the correct floral characters of the Solanaceae family is
explanation of Assertion(A) incorrect?
(3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is (1) The flowers are bisexual and
false actinomorphic.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is (2) The calyx has five sepals, united, with
true valvate aestivation.
5. Match the types of taxonomy with their (3) The gynoecium is bicarpellary, ovary
respective basis: inferior, and bilocular.
Column A Column B (4) The androecium consists of five stamens,
1. Phylogenetic A. Chemical epipetalous.

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8. Which of the following is TRUE for a 13. Why does the velocity of an enzymatic
dicotyledonous seed like castor? reaction stop increasing beyond a certain
(1) Castor seed is non-endospermic, storing substrate concentration?
food in the cotyledons. (1) The enzyme molecules are saturated with
(2) Castor seed has a single cotyledon and substrate molecules
stores food in the seed coat. (2) The substrate molecules degrade at
higher concentrations
(3) Castor seed is endospermic, with the
(3) The enzyme loses its activity at higher
endosperm storing food reserves. substrate concentrations
(4) Castor seed lacks a hilum and micropyle. (4) The reaction reverses at higher substrate
9. Which of the following is a characteristic concentrations
feature of a monocotyledonous stem? 14. Match the types of cofactors with their
(1) Vascular bundles are open and arranged examples:
in a ring. Column A Column B
(2) Phloem parenchyma is present within the A. Haem in peroxidase
1. Prosthetic group
vascular bundles. and catalase
(3) Vascular bundles are scattered and 2. Co-enzyme B. NAD and NADP
surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle C. Zinc in
3. Metal ion
sheath. carboxypeptidase
(4) Hypodermis is made up of (1) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (2) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
collenchymatous cells. (3) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B (4) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B
10. What is the function of the pericycle in a 15. Match the phases of Prophase I in Meiosis I
dicot root? with their key characteristics:
(1) It stores food Column A Column B
(2) It initiates the formation of lateral roots (Phase) (Characteristic)
and vascular cambium during secondary Chromosomes become
growth 1. Leptotene A. visible and start
(3) It prevents water loss through suberin condensing
deposition Homologous
(4) It provides mechanical support to the chromosomes pair and
endodermis 2. Zygotene B.
synaptonemal complex
11. What is the arrangement of microtubules in forms
the axoneme of eukaryotic cilia and flagella? Crossing over occurs,
(1) 9 + 3 array (2) 9 + 2 array 3. Pachytene C. recombination nodules
(3) 6 + 4 array (4) 8 + 2 array appear
12. What is the primary function of the nucleolus Dissolution of
in a eukaryotic cell? 4. Diplotene D. synaptonemal complex
(1) It stores genetic material in the form of and chiasmata form
DNA Terminalisation of
(2) It synthesizes ribosomal RNA (rRNA) 5. Diakinesis E. chiasmata, spindle
(3) It regulates the transport of RNA and assembly begins
proteins through nuclear pores Options:
(4) It is involved in cell division by forming (1) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-E
spindle fibers (2) 1-B, 2-C, 3-E, 4-A, 5-D
(3) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-E, 5-B
(4) 1-E, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C, 5-D
3

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16. Match the stages of meiosis with their key (2) The membrane system traps light energy
events: and synthesizes ATP and NADPH, while the
Column A Column B stroma is responsible for enzymatic reactions
(Stage) (Event) that synthesize sugar
Homologous (3) The stroma lamellae store light energy,
chromosomes align and the grana carry out enzymatic reactions
1. Metaphase I A.
at the equatorial to form starch
plate (4) The matrix stroma produces light energy,
Homologous while the membrane system forms sugars
chromosomes
19. Which pigment is considered the chief
2. Anaphase I B. separate, sister
chromatids remain pigment associated with photosynthesis, and
attached why?
Chromosomes align
(1) Chlorophyll b, because it absorbs light in
at the equator, sister
3. Metaphase II C. the yellow-green region
chromatids face
opposite poles (2) Carotenoids, because they protect
Centromeres split, chlorophyll from photooxidation
sister chromatids
4. Anaphase II D. (3) Chlorophyll a, because it shows
move to opposite
poles maximum absorption in the blue and red
Options: regions of light
(1) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(4) Xanthophylls, because they reflect yellow
(2) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
(3) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A light for photosynthesis
(4) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D 20. What is the primary function of pyruvate
17. Which of the following statements about dehydrogenase in aerobic respiration?
early experiments on photosynthesis is
incorrect? (1) To convert glucose into pyruvate in the
(1) Priestley concluded that plants restore to cytoplasm
the air whatever breathing animals and (2) To oxidatively decarboxylate pyruvate
burning candles remove into acetyl CoA in the mitochondrial matrix
(2) Jan Ingenhousz demonstrated that (3) To synthesize ATP directly from
sunlight is essential for plants to purify air pyruvate
(3) Priestley observed oxygen bubbles (4) To reduce oxygen into water during
forming around green parts of aquatic plants
aerobic respiration
in sunlight
(4) Ingenhousz identified the bubbles formed 21. What is the net ATP gain when one molecule
around green parts of aquatic plants as of glucose is fermented to alcohol or lactic
oxygen
acid?
18. Which of the following correctly explains the
division of labour within the chloroplast? (1) 0 ATP (2) 2 ATP
(1) The grana is responsible for sugar (3) 4 ATP (4) 36 ATP
synthesis, and the stroma is responsible for
ATP production
4

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22. Assertion (A): Removal of the shoot tip e. False fruits develop only from the ovary.
(decapitation) promotes the growth of lateral (1) a and d (2) b and e
buds. (3) c and d (4) b and d
Reason (R): The apical bud produces auxins, 26. Which of the following statements best
which inhibit the growth of lateral buds explains Mendel’s Law of Independent
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are Assortment?
true, and Reason (R) is the correct (1) The alleles of a single gene segregate
explanation of Assertion (A) equally during gamete formation
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are (2) The segregation of one pair of alleles is
true, but Reason (R) is not the correct independent of the segregation of another
explanation of Assertion (A) pair of alleles during gamete formation
(3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is (3) Dominant traits are always inherited
false together with recessive traits in hybrids
(4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is (4) The phenotype ratio of a dihybrid cross is
true always 3:1
23. What is the role of gibberellins in plants with 27. What is the phenomenon called when a single
a rosette habit? gene exhibits multiple phenotypic effects?
(1) Inhibits flowering and seed production (1) Polygenic inheritance (2) Epistasis
(2) Promotes bolting by elongating internodes (3) Pleiotropy (4) Codominance
before flowering 28. Which of the following statements about
(3) Enhances the development of lateral roots human skin colour is true in the context of
(4) Delays the maturity period of juvenile polygenic inheritance?
plants (1) Human skin colour is controlled by a
24. The diagram represents the internal structure single gene with dominant and recessive
of a seed. Which seed is shown in the image? alleles
(2) Human skin colour is influenced by three
or more genes as well as environmental
factors
(3) Human skin colour is not affected by
environmental factors, only by genetic
(1) Bean seed (dicot, non-endospermic) makeup
(2) Pea seed (dicot, non-endospermic) (4) Human skin colour exhibits codominance
(3) Castor seed (dicot, endospermic) rather than polygenic inheritance
(4) Maize seed (monocot, endospermic) 29. Which of the following scenarios will allow
25. Read the following statements about seeds the lac operon to be expressed in E. coli?
and fruits. Identify the incorrect statement: (1) Presence of glucose and absence of
Statements: lactose in the growth medium
a. Non-albuminous seeds have no residual (2) Presence of lactose and absence of
endosperm as it is completely consumed glucose in the growth medium
during embryo development.
(3) Presence of both glucose and lactose in
b. Albuminous seed Store food in cotyledon.
c. The micropyle facilitates the entry of the growth medium
oxygen and water during seed germination. (4) Absence of both glucose and lactose in
d. The pericarp is the wall of the ovary that
the growth medium
develops into the wall of the fruit.
5

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30. What is the role of untranslated regions 35. Which of the following is NOT one of the
(UTRs) in mRNA? three critical research areas of
(1) They are translated into polypeptides biotechnology?
(2) They code for start and stop codons (1) Providing improved catalysts like
(3) They facilitate efficient translation but are microbes or enzymes
not translated into polypeptides (2) Engineering optimal conditions for
(4) They degrade mRNA after translation catalyst action
31. What is the role of release factors and rho (ρ) (3) Downstream processing to purify organic
factor in transcription and translation? compounds
(1) Release factors initiate transcription, and (4) Designing new habitats for endangered
rho (ρ) factor terminates it species
(2) Release factors terminate translation, and 36. Which of the following statements best
rho (ρ) factor terminates transcription describes the role of biotechnology in large-
(3) Release factors elongate the mRNA scale production?
strand, and rho (ρ) factor initiates translation (1) It focuses only on altering the chemistry
(4) Both release factors and rho (ρ) factor are of DNA for genetic studies
involved in elongation of polypeptides (2) It involves ferrying foreign DNA into
32. Which of the following statements about host organisms for production and marketing
cyanobacteria is correct? of functional products
(1) Cyanobacteria are heterotrophic microbes (3) It emphasizes the natural multiplication
that depend on organic matter for nutrition of organisms without any genetic
(2) Cyanobacteria, like Anabaena and modification
Nostoc, can fix atmospheric nitrogen and (4) It excludes the use of bioreactors for
improve soil fertility large-scale production
(3) Cyanobacteria are found only in aquatic 37. What are proteins called when they are
environments and not on land encoded by a gene expressed in a
(4) Cyanobacteria are used to reduce heterologous host?
atmospheric nitrogen levels in the (1) Native proteins
environment (2) Recombinant proteins
33. What is the key belief of organic farmers (3) Structural proteins
regarding biodiversity? (4) Functional proteins
(1) Biodiversity increases the cost of farming 38. What is the term used for a gene that helps
(2) Biodiversity harms the ecosystem by identify and select transformed cells during
promoting pests recombinant DNA experiments?
(3) Biodiversity enhances the health and (1) Indicator gene
sustainability of the ecosystem (2) Selectable marker
(4) Biodiversity reduces crop yield (3) Regulatory gene
34. In which part of the insect’s body is the Bt (4) Structural gene
protoxin activated? 39. Which technique is used to check the
(1) Stomach progression of restriction enzyme digestion
(2) Midgut of DNA?
(3) Intestine (1) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
(4) Salivary glands (2) Southern blotting
(3) Agarose gel electrophoresis
(4) Centrifugation
6

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40. What is the correct sequence of steps in (3) By proving that all mutations are
recombinant DNA technology? beneficial for the organism
(1) Ligation → Isolation of DNA → Transfer (4) By identifying that mutations are
into host → Culturing → Extraction of unrelated to genetic material
product 44. What difficulty arises in predicting the
(2) Isolation of DNA → Fragmentation →
nucleotide sequence of mRNA from a given
Ligation → Transfer into host → Culturing
→ Extraction of product amino acid sequence?
(3) Fragmentation → Culturing → Ligation (1) Each amino acid is coded by only one
→ Transfer into host → Isolation of DNA → specific codon
Extraction of product (2) The genetic code is ambiguous, and one
(4) Transfer into host → Isolation of DNA → codon can specify multiple amino acids
Culturing → Fragmentation → Ligation → (3) The genetic code is degenerate, meaning
Extraction of product
multiple codons can code for the same amino
41. How can recombinant colonies be
differentiated from non-recombinant colonies acid
in the presence of a chromogenic substrate? (4) The sequence of amino acids directly
(1) Recombinant colonies appear blue, while specifies the tRNA sequence, not the mRNA
non-recombinant colonies remain colorless sequence
(2) Recombinant colonies remain colorless, 45. Why are regulatory sequences sometimes
while non-recombinant colonies appear blue referred to as regulatory genes?
(3) Both recombinant and non-recombinant
(1) Because they code for structural proteins
colonies appear blue
(4) Both recombinant and non-recombinant (2) Because they influence the expression of
colonies remain colorless structural genes by regulating transcription
42. Assertion (A): tRNA is known as an adapter (3) Because they are responsible for DNA
molecule in protein synthesis. replication
Reason (R): tRNA reads the mRNA codon (4) Because they alter the genetic code of
through its anticodon and binds to a specific structural genes
amino acid to facilitate translation. ZOOLOGY
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are 46. Read the following and choose the correct
true, and Reason (R) is the correct statements
explanation of Assertion (A) a) Pons consists of fibre tracts that
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are interconnect different regions of the brain.
true, but Reason (R) is not the correct b) Midbrain is located between
thalamus/hypothalamus of forebrain and pons
explanation of Assertion (A)
of hindbrain.
(3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is c) Greyish appearance of cerebral cortex is
false due to the presence of concentrated
(4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is myelinated axons.
true d) Inner parts of cerebrum along with
43. How have mutation studies contributed to our hippocampus and amygdala forms brain
understanding of the relationship between stem.
e) The cerebellar hemispheres are
genes and DNA?
connected by a tract of nerve fibres called
(1) By showing that mutations occur only in corpus callosum.
proteins (1) a, b and e only
(2) By demonstrating that changes in DNA (2) b, c and d only
sequence can alter gene expression (3) a and b only
(4) c and d only
7

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47. Pituitory hormones stimulates the synthesis
and secretion of steroid hormones like
(1) estrogen and relaxin
(2) testosterone and cortisol
(3) progesterone and inhibin
(4) aldosterone and adrenaline
48. Read the following and choose the correct (1) Autosomal dominant
statements. (2) X – linked recessive
a) Relaxin is produced by both placenta (3) Autosomal recessive
and ovary. (4) X – linked dominant
b) Inhibin is produced by both testis and 51. Read the following and choose the correct
ovary. statements
c) Somatostatin is produced by both A) Fossils found in Java in 1891 revealed
hypothalamus and pituitory. the existence of Homo habilis in Asia.
d) Human chorionic gonadotropin is B) The Neanderthal man developed pre-
produced by both trophoblast cells and historic cave art about 18000 years ago.
placenta. C) Homo erectus arose in Africa and
e) Androgenic steroids are produced by moved across continents and developed into
both adrenal cortex and testis. distinct races.
(1) all except d D) Australopthecines used hides to protect
(2) all except c their body and buried their dead
(3) all except e E) Ramapithecus was hairy and walked
(4) all except b like gorillas and chimpanzees.
49. Match the Column I with Column II. (1) C, D and E only
Column I Column II (2) A, B and E only
A Multiload 375 I Prevent RTI’s (3) E only
(4) A and E only
B Lactational II Suppress sperm
52. Match the Column I with Column II.
amenorrhea motility
Column I Column II
C Saheli III Prevent A Decrease in helper I Dengue
ovulation T – lymphocytes

D Nirodh IV Prevent B Decrease in II AIDS

implantation thrombocytes
C Decrease in III Allergy
A B C D erythrocytes
(1) II III I II
(2) I IV III II D Increase in Ig E IV Malaria
(3) IV I II III antibodies
(4) II III IV I
A B C D
50. The following pedigree chart depicts the
(1) II I III IV
inheritance of
(2) II I IV III
(3) I II III IV
(4) I II IV III

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53. Which of the following ecological pyramid is Statement I : Volume of air inspired through
inverted ? inspiratory capacity is less than that of vital
(1) Pyramid of biomass in a lake capacity.
(2) Pyramid of number in a grassland Statement II : Volume of air expired through
(3) Pyramid of energy in a forest vital capacity is more than that of expiratory
(4) Pyramid of number in an ocean capacity.
54. Match the Column I with Column II. In light of the above statements, choose the
Column I Column II correct answer from the options given below.
A Cuscuta on I Parasitism (1) Both statement I and statement II are
hedge plant correct.
B Orchid on II Commensalism
mango tree (2) Both statement I and statement II are
C Fungi on roots III Mutualism incorrect.
of higher plants (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
D Warblers on the IV Co-existence incorrect.
same tree (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
is correct.
A B C D 58. Match the Column I with Column II.
(1) I II III IV Column I Column II
(2) IV III II I A Sino - atrial node I Collagen fibres
(3) III IV I II B Purkinje fibres II Endothelium
(4) II I IV III C Tunica externa III Right atrium
55. Given below are two statements. D Tunica intima IV Walls of ventricle
Statement I : Most of the birds are oviparous A B C D
and some are viviparous. (1) III IV I II
Statement II : All the mammals are (2) IV III II I
viviparous without any exceptions. (3) II I III IV
In light of the above statements, choose the (4) I II IV III
correct answer from the options given below. 59. Glomerular filtration rate of a healthy person
(1) Both statement I and statement II are is
correct. (1) 1100 mL/min (2) 650 mL/min
(2) Both statement I and statement II are (3) 125 mL/min (4) 1.5 litres / day
incorrect. 60. Joint between carpals is
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is (1) gliding (2) saddle
incorrect. (3) pivot (4) hinge
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II 61. Which of the following is the primary
is correct. function of medulla oblongata ?
56. Which of the following possess simple (1) Association areas for memory and
columnar epithelium with microvilli ? communication
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule (2) Centres to control urge for eating and
(2) Lining of intestine drinking
(3) Wall of trachea (3) Receive and integrate visual and tactile
(4) Ducts of salivary gland inputs
57. Given below are two statements. (4) Centres to control cardiovascular
reflexes and gastric secretion
9

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62. Read the following and choose the correct (3) A only
statements. (4) A and C only
a) Secretin acts on the exocrine pancreas 66. Which of the following is not an effect of
and stimulates secretion of insulin and cocaine ?
glucagon. (1) Interferes with the transport of
b) Androgens produce synthetic effects on dopamine
protein and carbohydrate metabolism. (2) Potent stimulating action on central
c) Glucogon reduces the cellular glucose nervous system
uptake and utilization. (3) Produces a sense of euphoria and
d) Thymosins play a major role in the increased energy
differentiation of B-lymphocytes, which (4) Acts as depressant and slows down
provide cell-mediated immunity. body functions
e) Melatonin stimulates melanocytes and 67. Which of the following enzyme is crucial for
increases the pigmentation of human skin. the immune system to function ?
(1) b, c and e only (1) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
(2) c and d only (2) Homogentisate dioxygenase
(3) b and c only (3) Beta galactosidase
(4) a, c and d only (4) Adenosine deaminase
63. Which of the following is a diploid stage ? 68. Given below are two statements.
(1) First polar body Statement I : Loss of biodiversity in a region
(2) Primary oocyte leads to increased resistance to
(3) Secondary oocyte environmental perturbations.
(4) Second polar body Statement II : Careful analysis of records
64. Which of the following contraceptive shows that extinctions across taxa are not
/method is not used to delay pregnancy ? random.
(1) Saheli In light of the above statements, choose the
(2) Nirodh correct answer from the options given below.
(3) Intra uterine device (1) Both statement I and statement II are
(4) Vasectomy correct.
65. Select the correct statements with respect to (2) Both statement I and statement II are
mechanism of sex determination in incorrect.
grasshopper. (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
A) It is an example of female heterogamety incorrect.
B) Male produces two different types of (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
gametes either with or without X is correct.
chromosome. 69. Which of the following chordates belong to
C) Total number of chromosomes the same subphylum ?
(autosomes and sex chromosomes) is same in
(1) Amphioxus and Ascidia
both males and females.
D) All eggs bear an additional X (2) Scoliodon and Salpa
chromosome besides the autosomes. (3) Balanoglossus and Balaenoptera
Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) Hippocampus and Hemidactylus
given below
(1) B and D only
(2) A, C and D only
10

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70. Which of the following structures do not D Anti diuretic IV Insulin
open into the genital chamber of female hormone
cockroaches ?
(1) A single median oviduct A B C D
(2) Spermatheca (1) III IV II I
(3) A pair of anal cerci (2) IV III II I
(4) A pair of collaterial glands (3) III IV I II
71. If N is the population density at time ‘t’, then (4) IV III I II
its density at time t + 1 is 74. Select the correct set of assisted reproductive
technologies ?
dN
(1)  rN (1) IUT and IUD
dt (2) AI and RTI
(2) N t   B  I    D  E   (3) IUI and IVF
(3) N o e rt (4) ZIFT and MTP
75. Which of the following is a salient
dN KN observation drawn from human genome
(4)  rN  
dt  K  project ?
72. Given below are two statements. One is (1) The human genome contains 30,000
labelled Assertion (A) and the other is million bp
labelled Reason (R). (2) Expressed sequence tags make up very
Assertion (A): At puberty only 60,000 – large portion of human genome
80,000 primary follicles are left in each (3) Single nucleotide polymorphism occur
ovary. about 1.4 million locations
Reason (R): A large number of these follicles (4) Repeated sequences have no role in
degenerate from birth to puberty. maintaining chromosome structure and
In light of the above statements, choose the dynamics
correct answer from the options given below. 76. Given below are two statements. One is
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not labelled Assertion (A) and the other is
the correct explanation of (A). labelled Reason (R).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false. Assertion (A): Darwin’s theory of natural
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true. selection states that populations are stable in
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the size except seasonal fluctuations.
correct explanation of (A). Reason (R): Members of population vary in
73. Match the Column I with Column II based on characteristics even though they look
antagonistic functioning. superficially similar.
Column I Column II In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
A Progesterone I Parathormone
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
B Glucagon II Atrial the correct explanation of (A).
natriuretic (2) (A) is false but (R) is true
peptide (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
C Thyrocalcitonin III Oxytocin correct explanation of (A).

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77. Which of the following are mainly involved 83. Which of the following is correct about frog?
in the generation of acquired immune (1) Midbrain is characterized by a pair of
response ? optic lobes
(1) Antibodies and B – lymphocytes (2) Kidneys have structural and functional
connection with the ovaries
(2) Interferons and neutrophils
(3) Ventricle opens into sac like sinus
(3) Lysozyme and NK cells venosus on the ventral side of the heart
(4) Interleukins and monocytes (4) Liver secretes bile that is stored in the
78. Which of the following is used in the stomach
treatment of emphysema ? 84. Which of the following factor is favourable
(1) Alpha lactalbumin for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin?
(2) β - lactalbumin (1) High partial pressure of oxygen
(3) β - 1 – antitrypsin (2) High partial pressure of carbondioxide
(3) Higher hydrogen ion concentration
(4)  -1- antitrypsin (4) Higher temperature of body parts
79. Which of the following organism breed only 85. Given below are two statements. One is
once in its life time ? labelled Assertion (A) and the other is
(1) African flamingo labelled Reason (R).
(2) Australian kangaroo Assertion (A): End of QRS complex marks
(3) Pacific salmon the end of ventricular systole.
(4) Siberian crane Reason (R): T wave represents the return of
80. Given below are two statements. ventricles from excited to normal state.
Statement I : Humus is highly resistant to In light of the above statements, choose the
microbial action and undergoes correct answer from the options given below.
decomposition at an extremely slow rate. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
Statement II : The breakdown of humus into correct explanation of (A).
inorganic nutrients is known as humification. (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
In light of the above statements, choose the the correct explanation of (A).
correct answer from the options given below. (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
correct. 86. Given below are two statements.
(2) Both statement I and statement II are Statement I : Osmoreceptors in the body are
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is activated by changes in blood volume, body
incorrect. fluid volume and ionic concentration.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II Statement II : An excessive loss of fluid from
is correct. the body can activate osmoreceptors, which
81. Which of the following became extinct due stimulate the hypothalamus to release ADH.
to over-exploitation ? In light of the above statements, choose the
(1) African catfish correct answer from the options given below.
(2) Passenger pigeon (1) Both statement I and statement II are
(3) Water hyacinth correct.
(4) Bengal tiger (2) Both statement I and statement II are
82. Which of the following component is the incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
characteristic feature of Hemichordata ?
incorrect.
(1) Notochord (2) Spinal cord (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
(3) Stomochord (4) Umbilical cord is correct.
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87. Given below are two statements. PHYSICS
Statement I : Each muscle fibre is lined by 91. 20 divisions on the main scale of a Vernier
the plasma membrane called fascia. callipers coincides with 21 divisions on the
Statement II : The ‘A’ and ‘I’ bands are Vernier scale. If each division on the main
arranged alternately throughout the length of scale is of 0.5mm, the least count of the
the myofibril in a skeletal muscle. instrument in mm is
In light of the above statements, choose the 1 20
correct answer from the options given below. (1) (2)
42 21
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
5 5
correct. (3) (4)
(2) Both statement I and statement II are 20 21
incorrect. 92. Two bodies of different masses are dropped
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is from heights of 16 m and 25 m respectively.
incorrect. Ignoring the air resistance, the ratio of the
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II time taken by them to reach the ground is
is correct. 25 5
(1) (2)
88. In DNA fingerprinting, autoradiography is 16 4
used for the 4 16
(3) (4)
(1) Separation of DNA fragments based on 5 25
electric charge 93. A projectile is thrown at angle with vertical.
(2) Detection of hybridized DNA fragments It reaches a maximum height 𝐻. The time
on photographic film taken to reach the highest point of its path is
(3) Transfer of separated DNA fragments 8H 2H
to nitrocellulose membrane. (1) (2)
g g
(4) Digestion of DNA by restriction
endonucleases H 2H
(3) (4)
89. Which of the following explains analogy ? 2g g cos 
(1) All mammals share similarities in 94. A block of mass 10 kg is kept on a rough
pattern of bones of forelimbs inclined plane as shown in the figure. A force
(2) Same structure developed along of 3N is applied on the block. The coefficient
different directions of static friction between the plane and the
(3) Different structures evolving for the block is 0.6 . What should be the minimum
same functions value of force P, such that the block does not
move downward?
(4) Similar anatomical structures to (Take g  10 ms 2 and sin 530 = 0.8)
different needs reveal common ancestry
90. Arrange the following events of an action
potential in a proper sequence
a) Efflux of K + b) Depolarisation
c) Influx of Na + d) Repolarisation
(1) cdab
(2) cabd
(3) abcd (1) 47 N (2) 119 N
(4) cbad (3) zero (4) 35 N
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95. A cricket player catches a ball of mass 120g 101. A thin weightless bag suspended to spring
moving with 25 m/s speed. If the catching balance is filled with 2 kg of water and then
process is completed in 0.1 s then the immersed in water. The reading of spring
magnitude of force exerted by the ball on the balance is
hand of player will be (in SI unit): (1) 2 kgwt (2) 2.5 kgwt
(1) 30 (2) 24 (3) 1.75 kgwt (4) zero
(3) 12 (4) 25 102. Stress-strain curves for two rods A and B are
96. A family uses 10 kW of power. Direct solar shown. The two rods of equal area of cross
energy is incident on horizontal surface at a sections, lengths ‘l’ and 3l, made of different
rate of 250 W per square meter. If 20% of its materials are equally strained. The ratio of
energy is converted into useful electric potential energies stored in the rods A & B is
energy, how large area is needed to meet A
family demand of power.
(1) 200 m2 (2) 220 m2 B

stress
(3) 50 m2 (4) 40 m2 300
300
97. A stationary shell explodes into two
strain
fragments, having masses in the ratio of 1:2.
The heavier fragment attains a Kinetic energy (1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1
of 100 J. The kinetic energy released (3) 1 : 1 (4) 9 : 1
in the explosion is 103. A drop of liquid of diameter 2.8 mm breaks
(1) 200 J (2) 150 J up into 125 identical drops. The change in
(3) 300 J (4) 600 J energy is nearly (𝑺 = 𝟕𝟓 𝐝𝐲𝐧𝐞 𝐜𝐦 𝟏 )
98. Two bodies of masses 2 kg and 4 kg initially (1) Zero (2) 7.4  10 9 J
at rest are moving with velocities 20 ms−1 and (3) 7.4  10 6 J (4) 7.4  10 4 J
10 ms−1 towards each other due to mutual 104. Two spheres of radii in the ratio 1:2 and
gravitation attraction. What is the velocity of densities in the ratio 2:1 and of same specific
their centre of mass? heat, are heated to same temperature and left
(1) 5 ms−1 (2) 6 ms−1 in the same surrounding. Their rate of
(3) 8 ms−1 (4) zero cooling will be in the ratio
99. A ring of radius 𝒓 and mass 𝒎 rotates about a (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
diametric axis passing through its centre with (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
angular velocity 𝝎. Its kinetic energy is 105. It is hotter for the same distance over the top
mr 2 of a fire than it is in the side of it, mainly
(1) mr 2 2 (2) because
2
mr 2 2 mr 2 2
(1) Air conducts heat upwards only
(3) (4) (2) Heat is radiated only upwards
4 2
(3) In addition to radiation, convection also
100. A person standing on a rotating platform has
takes heat upwards
his hands lowered. If he suddenly stretches
(4) Convection, conduction and radiation all
out his arms then the angular momentum of
contribute significantly transferring heat
the system
upwards
(1) Becomes zero (2) Increases
(3) Decreases (4) Remains the same

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106. Considering earth as a uniform solid sphere, E
the difference between acceleration due to
gravity at poles and at equator is ‘x’. If the
earth starts rotating with double the present PE
angular speed, the difference becomes. KE
(1) > 4 x (2) zero
(3) 4x (4) 9x
107. A planet is revolving around the sun in an (4)
elliptical orbit. During its motion from A to 109. The number of degrees of freedom for a
B, which quantity remains constant ? diatomic gas like Cl2 , taking vibrational
(1) Angular velocity
mode into account is
(2) Momentum
(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) Tangential velocity
(3) 6 (4) 7
(4) Areal velocity about sun
110. Match List-I with List-II
108. For a simple pendulum, a graph is plotted
List-I List-II
between its kinetic energy (KE) and potential
(a) Isothermal (i) Pressure constant
energy (PE) against its displacement d.
(b) Isochoric (ii) Temperature
Which one of the following represents these
constant
correctly? (Graphs are not drawn to scale)
(c) Adiabatic (iii) Volume constant
E
(d) Isobaric (iv) Heat content is
KE
constant
Choose the correct answer from the options
PE given below :
d
(1) (1) (a) – (iii) ; (b) – ii); (c) – (i); (d) – (iv )
E (2) (a) – (ii); (b) – (iv); (c) – (iii); (d) – (i)
PE (3) (a) – (ii); (b) – (iii) ; (c) –(iv) ; (d) – (i)
(4) (a) – (i); (b) – (iii); (c) – (ii); (d) – (iv)
111. 1g of a liquid at its boiling point is converted
KE to vapour at 3  105 Pa pressure. If increase
d
(2) in the volume is 1600 cm 3 during this phase
E change, then the increase in internal energy in
the process will be :
KE
(Latent heat of liquid is 500 cal g−1)
(1) 1620 cal (2) 1620 J
(3) 1620 erg (4) 1620 eV
d 112. A cylinder of fixed capacity 44.8 litres
contains helium gas at standard temperature
and pressure. The amount of heat needed to
(3) PE
raise the temperature of the gas in the
cylinder by 15.0 °C is nearly
(1) 45J (2) 374J
(3) 90J (4) 623J
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113. Two identical charged spheres are (2) A is false, B is true
suspended by strings of equal length. The (3) Both A and B are true
stings make an angle  with each other. (4) Both A and B are false
When suspended in water the angle remains 118. The figure shows the various positions
the same. If density of the material of the (labelled by subscripts) of small magnetised
sphere is 1.5g/cc, the dielectric constant of needless 𝑷 and 𝑸. The arrows show the
water will be _____ direction of their magnetic moment and all
(Take density of water  1g / cc ) are of same magnitude. Which configuration
(1) 5 (2) 3 corresponds to the lowest potential energy
(3) 4 (4) 1.5 among all the configurations shown
114. Two identical bulbs when connected in series
to a battery, consume electric power of 60W.
If these bulbs are now connected in parallel
combination to the same battery, electric
power consumed will be :
(1) 60W (2) 240W (1) PQ3 (2) PQ4
(3) 120 W (4) 30W (3) PQ5 (4) PQ6
115. A hypothetical radioactive nucleus decays
119. Assertion (A): Soft iron is preferred to steel
according to the following series
180   
 
as the core of transformer.
72 A   A1   A2     A4
Reason ( R) : Steel has less retentivity than
If the mass number and atomic number of A
soft iron , but it has high coercivity than
are respectively 180 and 72. Then to atomic
number and mass number of A4 will soft iron.
respectively be (1) Both A and R are correct R is the correct
(1) 69,171 (2) 70,172 explanation of A
(3) 68,172 (4) 69,172 (2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
116. Hydrogen atom from excited state comes to correct explanation of A
the ground state by emitting a photon of (3) A is not correct but R is correct
wavelength 𝜆. If 𝑅 is the Rydberg constant, (4) A is correct but R is not correct
the principal quantum number 𝑛 of the 120. Electric field strength due to a short dipole of
excited state is dipole moment ‘ P ’ at a distance ‘r’ on its
equatorial line is
R   
(1) (2)
R 1 R 1 1  P  1  2P 
(1)   (2)  
4 0  r 3  4 0  r 3 
 R2 R
(3) (4)    
 R 1 R 1 1  P.r  1  Pr 
(3)   (4)  
117. STATEMENT(A) : Increasing the current 4 0  r 3  4 0  r 3 
sensitivity of moving coil galvanometer may
121. A 4 F capacitor is charged to 400V and then
not necessarily increase its voltage sensitivity
STATEMENT(B) : A charged particle moves its plates are joined through a resistance 50
through a magnetic field perpendicular to . The heat produced in the resistance is
field direction. Then its momentum (1) 1.6 J (2) 0.32 J
changes but the kinetic energy is constant (3) 0.64 J (4) 1.28 J
(1) A is true, B is false
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122. For the circuit shown in figure the charge on (4) Ampere’s circuital law
4 F capacitor is 127. A thin long straight conductor is along the
axis of a circular loop. If the current in the
straight conductor is increasing then

(1) 40 C (2) 30 C
(3) 24 C (4) 54 C
(1) Induced current flows in the circular loop
123. In a resonance tube, using a tuning fork of
(2) Induced current flows in clockwise
frequency 325 Hz, two successive resonance
(3) Emf is induced but, induced current is
length are observed as 25.4 cm and 77.4 cm
zero
respectively. The velocity of sound in air is
(4) Induced current is zero as emf is not
(1) 338 ms−1 (2) 328 ms−1
induced at all
(3) 330 ms−1 (4) 320 ms−1
128. A thin, long, straight conductor carries a
124. For a photo electric cell the graph showing
current 0.5A vertically up. If a particle of
variation of cut off voltage (V0) with
mass 1mg carrying a charge of 1nC is
frequency (  ) of incident radiation is best
projected with a velocity of 1800 kmph
represented by
towards east, on the east of conductor at a
distance 5cm from it. The acceleration of the
v0 v0 particle at that instant is
(1) Zero (2)10-6 ms−2
(3) 10-11 ms−2 (4) 10-10 ms−2
(1)  (2) 
129. A magnet released freely in a long vertical
copper tube falls with
(1) constant acceleration
v0 v0 (2) zero acceleration from the beginning
(3) decreasing velocity but increasing
acceleration
 (4) decreasing acceleration but increasing
 velocity
(3) (4)
130. Statement (A) : Infrared rays are used in
125. Which of the following is true ?
remote switches of household electronic
(1) Forbidden energy gap of semiconductors
systems.
is >3eV
Statement (B) : In Microwave oven, as the
(2) In an unbiased p-n junction diode, frequency of the microwaves match the
electrons diffuse from n-region to p-region resonant frequency of water molecules, so
(3) NOT gate is a universal gate that energy is efficiently transferred from
(4) Solar cell is forward biased waves to the food item containing water
126. Meter bridge works on the principle of molecules
(1) Law of conservation of energy (1) Both A and B are correct
(2) Wheatstone’s bridge and its balance (2) Both A and B are wrong
condition (3) A is correct and B is wrong
(3) Ohm’s law (4) A is wrong and B is correct.
17

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131. An AC voltage V=20 sin 200  t is applied
to a series LCR circuit which drives a
 
current I  10sin  200 t   . The
 3
average power dissipated is
(1) 50 W (2) 21.6 W
(3) 173.2 W (4) 200 W
132. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits
of equal widths. If one slit is made narrow,
then in the interference pattern
(1) OR (2) AND
(1) The intensities of both the maxima and
(3) NOR (4) NAND
the minima increase
CHEMISTRY
(2) The intensity of maxima increases and
136.
the minima has zero intensity
(3) The intensity of maxima decreases and Column-I Column-II
(Oxide) (Nature)
that of the minima increases
(4) The intensity of maxima decreases and I) CrO3 A) Acidic
the minima has zero intensity II) NO B) Amphoteric
133. A mango tree is at the bank of a river and III) ZnO C) Neutral
one of the branch of tree extends over the IV) V2O3 D) Basic

river. A tortoise lives in the river. A mango Correct match is

(1) I-A; II-C; III-D; IV-B
falls just above the tortoise. The
(2) I-B; II-B; III-D; IV-D
acceleration of the mango falling from tree (3) I-B; II-C; III-B; IV-B
as it appears to the tortoise is (refractive (4) I-A; II-C; III-B; IV-D
137. Which one of the following does not give
index of water is 4/3 and the tortoise is
foul smell when heated with chloroform
stationary) and caustic potash ?
(1) g (2) 3g/4 (1) Diethylamine
(3) 4g/3 (4) none of these (2) Methanamine
134. The magnification of an object placed in (3) Aniline
front of a convex lens is +2. The focal (4) Benzylamine
138. Calculate the emf of the cell,
length of the lens is 2.0 m. Find the
distance by which the object has to be Fe  s  / Fe2  0.1M  Ag   0.1M  / Ag  s 
moved to obtain a magnification of -2 ( in
metres )
E 0
Ag  / Ag
0
 0.8V ; EFe 2
/ Fe
 0.44V 
(1) 2 m (2) 4m
(1) 1.27 V (2) 1.3 V
(3) 1m (4) 3m
(3) 1.21 V (4) 1.18 V
135. Name the logic gate equivalent to the
139. The configuration of an element is
diagram attached [Rn]5f146d107s27p4. The element is
(1) Og (2) Nh
(3) Mc (4) Lv
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140. Incorrect relation according to Bohr’s 145. With the molecular formula, C4 H 6 an
theory is organic compound contains sp, sp and sp3
2

z2 z carbon atoms. The IUPAC name of the

(1) En   2 (2) V  
n n organic compound
n 2
2z2 (1) Buta-1,3-diene
(3) rn  (4) P.E   2
z n (2) But-1-en-3-yne
141. In Lasagne’s test, the organic compound (3) Buta-1,2-diene
containing nitrogen gives Prussian blue (4) Cyclobut-1-ene
colour. The oxidation state of central metal 146. Basic buffer among the following is
ion in the complex formed is (1) 1 mole of H 2 SO4 +2 moles of NH 4 OH
(1) +2 (2) +3 (2) 2 moles of NH 4 OH +2 moles of
(3) +4 (4) +1
CH 3COOH
142. Statement-I : Acetic acid dissolved in water
undergoes dimerisation. (3) 2 moles of CH 3COOH +1 mole NaOH
Statement-II : Na2 SO4 dissolved in water (4) 2 moles of NH 4 OH + 1 mole of HCl
undergoes dissociation. 147. A  B  products. When [B] is kept constant
(1) I is correct, II is incorrect and [A] is quadrupled then rate doubles.
(2) I and II are correct When both [A] and [B] are doubled then rate
(3) I is incorrect, II is correct doubles. Order with respect to ‘B’ is
(4) I and II are incorrect 1
(1) 1 (2)
143. 2
Column-I Column-II (3) 2 (4) -1
(Process) ( G )
I) A) zero 'Z '
148. XeF4 
143 K
 XeF6 . ‘X’ is
H 2 O  l    H 2 O  S 
273.15K
(1) O2 F2 (2) SF4
II) 3O2  g  
 2O3  g  B) Positive (3) F2 (4) SF6
III) C) Negative 149. Assertion (A) : Glucose penta acetate cannot
H 2O  l  
378.99 K
 H 2O  g  react with NH 2 OH
Reason (R) : Glucose penta acetate has a
Correct match is hemiacetal structure
I II III (1) Both A and R are incorrect
(2) Both A and R are correct R is the correct
(1) C A B
explanation of A
(2) A B C (3) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
(3) C B A correct explanation of A
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) B C A 150. The complex which does not give precipitate
144. Galena is with AgNO3 solution is
(1) PbS (2) SnO2 (1) CoCl3 .4 NH 3 (2) CoCl3 .5 NH 3
(3) PbCO3 (4) Ag 2 S (3) CoCl3 .3 NH 3 (4) CoCl3 .6 NH 3

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151. N 2  g   3 H 2  g   2 NH 3  g  . According to 156. Solubility of Zr3  PO4 4 is 10 8 M . K SP of
Lechatlier’s principle, decomposition of NH 3 Zirconium phosphate is 6.912  10  x ‘x’ is
is favoured (1) 56 (2) 53
(A) At high ‘T’ (B) At low ‘T’ (3) 60 (4) 51
(C) At high ‘P’ (D) At low ‘P’ 157. Incorrect statement is
(1) A and C (2) A and D (1) n-hexane+n-heptane form an ideal
(3) B and C (4) B and D solution
152. A) Aniline can be purified by steam  w
(2) Blood is isotonic with 0.9%   NaCl
distillation. v
B) Aniline + CHCl3 mixture can be separated solution.
by distillation (3) 1 mole of HCl dissolved in one litre
C) Glycerol can be recovered from spent lye solution is 1N HCl solution
by vacuum distillation (4) Vapour pressure of a liquid is a
D) Silica gel can be used as a stationary colligative property
phase in thin layer chromatography. 158.  CH 3 3 CBr 
C 2 H 5 ONa
 X . ‘X’ is
Correct statements are (1) A saturated hydrocarbon
(1) A, C and D only (2) A, B, C and D (2) A symmetrical ether
(3) B and D only (4) A, B and D only (3) An unsaturated hydrocarbon
Cl 2 CH Cl
153. C6 H 6 
AlCl
 A  3
Na /ether
B. In this (4) An unsymmetrical ether
3

reaction, compound B is 159. IP2 is highest for

(1) Chlorobenzene (1) S (2) Cl
(2) Toluene (3) P (4) Si
(3) o-Dichlorobenzene 160. Enthalpy of atomization of sodium 108
(4) Biphenyl kJ/mole. Enthalpy of atomization of chlorine
is 242 kJ/mole. Ionization enthalpy of sodium
154. Statement-I: Wave function   has no
is 492 kJ/mole. What additional information
physical meaning is required to find the enthalpy change for the
Statement-II: Spin quantum number is following process.
derived from schrodinger wave equation.
1
(1) I is correct, II is incorrect Na  s   Cl2  g   Na   g   Cl   g 
2
(2) I and II are correct
(1) Ionization enthalpy of chlorine
(3) I is incorrect, II is correct
(4) I and II are incorrect (2) Enthalpy of sublimation of sodium
155. (3) Electron gain enthalpy of chlorine
alc . KOH
 
 A; (4) Bond dissociation enthalpy of chlorine
Br
161. I )  CH 3  2 C  C  CH 3 2 
KMnO4 / H

Conc. H 2 SO4
  B  major  ;
OH  II )  CH 3 2 C  C  CH 3 2 O3
Zn  H 2O 
A and B are Only acetone is formed as product in
(1) Same compounds (1) I only
(2) Pair of positional isomers (2) II only
(3) Pair of chain isomers (3) Both I & II
(4) Pair of geometrical isomers (4) Neither I nor II
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162. (4) Cathode in Lead accumulator
166. The order of electronegativity of 16th group
elements is:
` ‘B’ is (1) S > Se > Te > Po > O
(1) (2) Se > S > Te > O > Po
(3) O > S > Se > Te > Po
(4) Te > O > Se > Po > S
C NH 167. Internal energy is
C (1) A state function and intensive property
(2) A state function and extensive property
(2) (3) A path function and extensive property
(4) A path function and intensive property
CONH 2
168. Hexaamminechromium (III) sulphate is
CONH 2
(1) Cr  NH 2 6   SO4 3
(3) 2

CONH 2 (2) Cr  NH 3 6   SO4 

COONH 4
(3) Cr  NH 3 6   SO4 3
2
(4)
(4) Cr  NH 2 6   SO4 
169. Identify incorrect statements about the
C
reactivity of ethyl alcohol.
C
A) It readily reacts with Na
B) It readily reacts with HCl + anhydrous
163. Bond order is least in ZnCl2
(1) O2 (2) O2 C) It can react with NaOI
(1) A,B&C
(3) C22 (4) C2
(2) A&C only
164. I) (3) B only
(4) B & C only
170. A  B  C , K eq  10 2 . At certain instant

II)  A  C   10 4 and  B   101 . Correct

statement is
(1) QC  K C , reaction proceeds in forward
direction
Incorrect statement is
(1) Boiling point of I < II (2) QC  K C , reaction proceeds in backward
(2) Dipole moment of II is zero direction
(3) Melting point of I > II
(3) QC  K C , reaction proceeds in forward
(4) Stability of I > II
165. MnO2  NH 4  e   MnO  OH   NH 3 . This direction
half reaction occurs at (4) QC  K C , reaction proceeds in backward
(1) Cathode in dry cell direction
(2) Cathode in mercury cell
(3) Cathode in Ni-Cd cell
21

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171. 68% by mass of HNO3 and 32% by mass of Cl Br
H2O forms
(1) Ideal solution
(2) Minimum boiling azeotrope (A) (B)
(3) Maximum boiling azeotrope F
I
(4) Immiscible liquid mixture
172. The species which is coloured but
diamagnetic is (C) (D)
(1) MnO42  (2) Cr 3 (1) A & B (2) C & D
(3) CrO42 (4) Mn3 (3) A & C (4) B & D
173. Assertion (A) : Increase in temperature 178. Shape of polypeptide chain is explained by
increases the rate of chemical reaction. ____structure of proteins
Reason (R) : With the increase in (1) 10 (2) 20
temperature, fraction of activated molecules (3) 30 (4) 40
kb
increases. 179. p is highest for
(1) Both A and R are correct R is the correct N  CH 3 2 NH 2
explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
correct explanation of A (1) (2)
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
N  C6 H 5  2 CH 2 NH 2
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
174. Acetal among the following is
OCH 3 H
OCH 3 (3) (4)
H
C C 180. Bohr’s theory is applicable to
OCH 3 H 3C OH
(1) H (2) (1) H-atom (2) H  ion
OCH 3 OH (3) Be 2  ion (4) Both 1 & 3
H 3C H 3C
C C
H 3C OCH 3 H 3C OCH 3
(3) (4)
NaNH 2 C2 H 5 I
175. CH 3  C  CH  A   B.
Functional isomer of ‘B’ cannot be

(1)
(2) CH 2  CH  CH 2  CH  CH 2
(3) CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  C  CH
(4) CH 2  C  CH  CH 2  CH 3
176. The salt which undergoes anionic hydrolysis
only is
(1) CuSO4 (2) NaCl
(3) CH 3COONa (4) HCOONH 4
177. Which of the following cannot be prepared
by Sandmeyer’s reaction
22

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