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1. Which of the following is NOT one of the components D) consumer information

of the marketing information system? support system
A) internal reports
B) marketing intelligence
C) marketing decision support
D) consumer information support system
E) marketing research system

2. The information system that gathers information gen- D) Internal reports system
erated by internal reports such as orders, billing, re-
ceivables, inventory levels, and so on is called the:
A) consumer information support system.
B) marketing research system.
C) decision support system.
D) internal reports system.
E) marketing intelligence system

3. 19) Which of the following marketing information sys- A) marketing intelligence

tem components gathers information about events
and happenings "outside" of the firm?
A) marketing intelligence
B) internal reports system
C) consumer information support system
D) external environment reporting system
E) decision support system

4. 20) Which of the following marketing information sys- B) marketing research

tem components provides studies conducted for spe- system
cific situations facing the company? A) marketing in-
telligence system
B) marketing research system
C) consumer information support system
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D) decision support system

E) internal reports system

5. Which of the following marketing information system B) marketing research

components is NOT continuous? system
A) consumer information support system
B) marketing research system
C) internal report system
D) decision support system
E) marketing intelligence system

6. 30) Professional organizations try to prescribe ethical B) codes of ethical behav-

behavior for members by creating: ior
A) representatives in churches to influence future
researchers.
B) codes of ethical behavior.
C) lobbyists who fight for higher ethical standards in
government.
D) examples of poor ethical behavior in other profes-
sions.
E) means to participate in the development of certifi-
cation standards in professions other than marketing
research.

7. 31) What does sugging refer to? A) selling under the guise
A) selling under the guise of a survey of a survey
B) fund raising under the guise of a survey
C) collecting data through telephone interviews
D) falsifying data
E) surveying under the guise of selling

8. 32) What does frugging refer to? B) fundraising under the

A) selling under the guise of a survey guise of a survey
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B) fundraising under the guise of a survey

C) collecting data through telephone interviews
D) falsifying data
E) frightening (respondents) under the guise of re-
search

9. 5) Jeff is the president of a bank. He wants to find B) descriptive research.

out the satisfaction level of his customers in Dallas on
certain dimensions such as friendliness of employees,
convenience of location, and availability of loans. Jeff
needs to conduct:
A) exploratory research.
B) descriptive research.
C) causal research.
D) prescriptive research.
E) diagnostic research.

10. 6) Which of the following is true regarding exploratory E) It helps identify re-
research? search priorities.
A) It is highly structured.
B) It is very formal.
C) It describes the phenomena of interest.
D) It attempts to uncover the factors that cause some
event.
E) It helps identify research priorities.

11. 8) Which of the following is true regarding secondary C) It refers to data that has
data? already been collected.
A) Obtaining secondary data is more expensive than
collecting primary data.
B) It should always be sought second, after primary
data.

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C) It refers to data that has already been collected.

D) It takes a lot of time to collect secondary data.
E) It is collected specifically for solving the problem at
hand.

12. 44) A marketing research proposal contains: C) the timetable for a re-
A) important assumptions made by the researcher. search project.
B) the action standards for a project.
C) the timetable for a research project.
D) problem symptoms associated with research.
E) the consequences of all decision alternatives.

13. 12) What type of research is unstructured and infor- C) exploratory

mal?
A) deductive
B) causal
C) exploratory
D) exploitive
E) exhaustive

14. 13) Ray Kroc, a milk shake machine salesman, noticed B) exploratory research.
that one restaurant in California burned up many milk
shake machines. He inferred that the restaurant was
meeting the needs of the market better than other
restaurants. His observation illustrates the use of:
A) observational deduction.
B) exploratory research.
C) explanatory research.
D) causal research.
E) discontinuous panel research

15. 14) In which of the following situations should ex- C) to define terms
ploratory research be used?
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A) to measure the relationships among variables

B) when experimentation is needed
C) to define terms
D) in situations in which all of the concepts are clearly
defined and measured E) to determine how variable x
causes variable y

16. 15) Which of the following is NOT a situation in which A) to measure the rela-
exploratory research should be used? tionships among variables
A) to measure the relationships among variables
B) to clarify problems
C) to establish research priorities
D) to gain background information
E) to clarify hypotheses

17. 16) Appropriate methods for conducting exploratory A) secondary data analy-
research would include: sis.
A) secondary data analysis.
B) experiments.
C) sample surveys.
D) longitudinal research.
E) discontinuous panels.

18. 20) Small groups of people brought together and A) exploratory research
guided by a moderator through an unstructured,
spontaneous discussion for the purpose of gaining
information relevant to the research problem can be
categorized under which type of research design?
A) exploratory research
B) causal research
C) deductive research

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D) exploitive research
E) exhaustive research

19. 21) What type of research design does the text state B) exploratory research
should almost always be used in research studies?
A) causal research
B) exploratory research
C) explicit research
D) exhaustive research
E) descriptive research

20. 22) What type of research design should a marketing B) descriptive research
researcher use to find out how many customers there
are, what brands they buy and in what quantities,
which advertisements they recall, what are their atti-
tudes toward the company, and who is the competi-
tion?
A) exploratory research
B) descriptive research
C) causal research
D) explicit research
E) exhaustive research

21. 23) Descriptive research studies are conducted to: A) answer who, what,
A) answer who, what, when, where, and how ques- when, where, and how
tions. questions.
B) specify the causality in the problem.
C) describe previous findings in similar problems.
D) answer who, what, when, where, how, and why
questions.
E) determine if x, then y, relationships.

22.
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24) What are the two basic types of studies that are E) longitudinal studies
categorized as descriptive research? and cross-sectional stud-
A) focus groups and case analysis ies
B) longitudinal studies and case analysis
C) focus groups and cross-sectional studies
D) case analysis and experiments
E) longitudinal studies and cross-sectional studies

23. 25) What type of descriptive research study measures B) cross-sectional studies
a population at only one point in time?
A) sample observations
B) cross-sectional studies
C) longitudinal studies
D) "point in time" studies
E) "one point in time" studies

24. 26) Longitudinal studies can be described as tech- D) repeatedly measure

niques that: the same sample units
A) measure the population at only one point in time. from the population over a
B) develop an understanding of a phenomenon in period of time.
terms of "if-then" conditional statements.
C) search for and interpret existing information rele-
vant to the research problem.
D) repeatedly measure the same sample units from
the population over a period of time.
E) conduct parallel studies, which allows for compar-
isons to be made between such studies

25. 11) External secondary data may be grouped into A) published, syndicated
which three sources? services data, and data-
A) published, syndicated services data, and databases bases
B) published, nonpublished data, and other electronic

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sources
C) syndicated services data, external data, and com-
plex data
D) fields, records, databases
E) published, fields, CRMs

26. 26) A form of external, secondary data that is col- B) syndicated data
lected in a standard format and made available to
subscribers is:
A) published data.
B) syndicated data.
C) trade association publications.
D) business periodicals.
E) syndicated services data.

27. 29) The Nielsen TV ratings would be considered an B) syndicated data ser-
example of: vices firms.
A) syndicated processing firms.
B) syndicated data services firms.
C) standardized processing firms.
D) packaged services firms.
E) CRM firms.

28. 1) What type of research involves collecting, analyzing, A) qualitative methods

and interpreting data by obtaining free form, non-
standardized, or open-ended observations and state-
ments of what people do and say.
A) qualitative methods
B) quantitative methods
C) pluralistic methods
D) strategic research methods
E) survey research methods

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29. 2) Which of the following is a unique aspect of quali- C) provides rich insights
tative research? into consumer behavior
A) involves quantifiable response collection
B) utilizes clear and precise methodology
C) provides rich insights into consumer behavior
D) disengages respondents so that they may make
their own decisions
E) enhances the ability to predict behavior of respon-
dents

30. 3) Which type of research involves the use of struc- B) quantitative research
tured questions where the response options have
been predetermined and a large number of respon-
dents are involved?
A) qualitative research
B) quantitative research
C) pluralistic research
D) focus group research
E) Socratic research

31. 4) Which type of research would likely be called "soft" A) qualitative research
research?
A) qualitative research B) quantitative research C) plu-
ralistic research
D) focus group research E) Socratic research

32. 5) Which type of research would be most appropriate B) qualitative research

if the managers of the Tide brand at Procter & Gamble
wanted some ideas as to different ways Tide laundry
detergent could be improved?
A) quantitative research

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B) qualitative research C) pluralistic research D) focus

group research E) idea-generation research

33. 6) In understanding the Hispanic market, researchers D) qualitative

have found that they prefer to call themselves Latinos,
and that there are vast differences between Latinos
in California, Texas and Florida, the Caribbean, South
America and Mexico. Your book describes this un-
derstanding of a market segment as stemming from
which type of research?
A) quantitative
B) Hispanic research
C) pluralistic
D) qualitative
E) segmented research

34. 8) Frito-Lay brand managers want to know which of A) direct

three proposed end-aisle displays work the best in
terms of catching consumers' attention. They set up
prototypes of the three displays in three supermar-
kets and visit each to observe consumers' head move-
ments as they approach each display. Which observa-
tion technique would the managers be using?
A) direct
B) past records
C) archives
D) indirect
E) in-store observation

35. 10) With which type of observation technique do re- D) physical traces
searchers observe tangible evidence of some event,
such as measuring the amount of graffiti on buildings

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to indicate the potential crime in an area?

A) covert
B) archives
C) invented
D) physical traces
E) overt

36. 11) When a "secret shopper" is used to report sales- B) covert

persons' level of customer assistance and courtesy,
which type of observation is being used?
A) overt
B) covert
C) physical traces
D) archives
E) invented

37. 30) Which of the following qualitative techniques is D) in-depth interview

characterized as a set of probing questions posed
one-on-one to a subject by an interviewer so as to gain
an idea of what the subject thinks about something or
why he or she behaves in a certain way?
A) probing question survey
B) protocol analysis
C) role-playing activity D) in-depth interview
E) school teacher-probing

38. 31) In which technique below are consumers' values D) laddering

determined, followed by determining which product
or service attributes would be viewed as a means of
achieving a desired value? For example, it is deter-
mined that "good health" is highly valued and "soy
products replacing beef" is viewed as a means of

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achieving "good health."

A) value salience analysis
B) qualitative value interviews
C) quantitative value interviews
D) laddering
E) value gradient analysis

39. 32) The Acme Research firm decides to use a tech- B) protocol analysis
nique that requires a person to place herself in a de-
cision-making setting and to verbalize everything she
considers in making the decision. Which qualitative
technique will she be using?
A) in-depth interview
B) protocol analysis
C) probing question survey
D) role-playing activity E) value salience analysis

40. 33) Which situations are particularly relevant for the A) purchases involving a
use of protocol analysis? long time frame and sev-
A) purchases involving a long time frame and several eral decision factors
decision factors
B) purchases involving a short time frame and only
one or two decision factors
C) purchases involving a long time frame and only one
or two decision factors
D) purchases involving a short time frame and several
decision factors
E) routine purchases, such as purchasing chewing
gum

41. 35) A researcher for Lipton tea is interested in learn- D) sentence completion
ing how teenagers think of iced tea, and she gives a test

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sample of teens the following incomplete sentence:

"Teens who drink tea instead of cola are..." and asks
them to finish the sentence. This is an example of a(n):
A) in-depth interview.
B) "Picture This, Picture That" exercise. C) word differ-
ences test.
D) sentence completion test.
E) "Sort Me Up."

42. 4) Which of the following is NOT a method for collect- D) multiple modal surveys
ing survey data? A) person-administered surveys B)
computer-administered surveys C) self-administered
surveys
D) multiple modal surveys E) mixed-mode surveys

43. 5) What is NOT a unique advantage of using per- D) speed

son-administered surveys? A) feedback B) rapport C)
quality control
D) speed E) adaptability

44. 6) Adaptability refers to the ability to react to respon- D) person-administered

dent differences. Which survey method is best suited surveys
for adaptability? A) computer-administered surveys B)
self-administered surveys
C) drop-off surveys
D) person-administered surveys E) CATI

45. 7) Having an independent party call back a sample A) interviewer cheating

of each interviewer's respondents to verify that they
took part in the survey is a way to avoid which of the
following?
A) interviewer cheating B) human error
C) adaptability D) interviewer rapport E) card sorting
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46. 8) Which of the following is a NOT a disadvantage of D) They are rigid, not
person-administered surveys? adaptable
A) They are slower than other methods. B) They are
more expensive. C) They are prone to errors.
D) They are rigid, not adaptable. E) Respondents may
fear interview evaluation

47. 9) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of A) ability to develop rap-

computer-administered surveys? A) ability to develop port with the respondent
rapport with the respondent B) speed C) error-free
interviewing
D) use of pictures, videos, and graphics E) possible
cost savings

48. 10) Interview evaluation refers to: D) respondent anxieties

A) an evaluation of the quality of the interviews by an caused by the presence of
editor. an interviewer.
B) an evaluation of the interviews by the client/man-
ager.
C) an overall procedure for evaluating the quality of
the entire interview process.
D) respondent anxieties caused by the presence of an
interviewer.
E) interviewer anxieties caused by the interview proce-
dure

49. 11) The primary disadvantage of computer-adminis- C) costs of design, pro-

tered surveys is that: gramming, debugging,
A) real-time data capture is error-prone. and set up are high.
B) because the data is entered directly into the com-
puter, interview evaluation time is limited.
C) costs of design, programming, debugging, and set
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up are high. D) a limited number of people have access

to computers. E) technology anxiety is common.

50. 12) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of D) considerable interview-

self-administered surveys? A) reduced cost B) respon- er-evaluation apprehen-
dent can control the pace of the survey C) no inter- sion
viewer apprehension
D) considerable interviewer-evaluation apprehension
E) respondents may be more honest without an inter-
viewer

51. 13) Which is true regarding a disadvantage of self-ad- B) The primary burden of
ministered surveys? respondent understand-
A) Because interviewers are not present, evaluation of ing is placed upon the
the interview is impossible. questionnaire.
B) The primary burden of respondent understanding
is placed upon the questionnaire.
C) The primary burden of respondent understanding
is placed upon the field editor.
D) Respondents feel anxious because they control the
administration process.
E) Respondents interpret the questions themselves so
the questionnaire can be somewhat vague.

52. 16) What is a technique that is NOT a variation of C) drop-off survey

person-administered surveys?
A) in-home interview B) mall-intercept interview C)
drop-off survey
D) telephone interview E) in-office interview

53. 31) The most popular type of self-administered survey D) mail survey
is the:
A) group self-administered survey. B) drop-off survey.
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C) email survey.
D) mail survey. E) anonymous survey.

54. 32) The essential objective of the drop-off survey is: B) to gain a prospec-
A) low cost because there is no mail-out expense. B) tive respondent's cooper-
to gain a prospective respondent's cooperation. C) to ation.
minimize item omission bias.
D) not to have to pay interviewers. E) to increase the
speed of response.

55. 33) Which of the following would be considered an E) All of the above would
example of the drop-off survey? be considered drop-off
A) A researcher brings a questionnaire to a respon- surveys.
dent's home and leaves it to be completed. B) A hotel
leaves a questionnaire in a room for customers to
evaluate their accommodations. C) A retail store offers
a customer a survey and promises a gift certificate if
they return the questionnaire on their next visit. D) A
graduate student hands surveys out to other students
to be placed in a drop box when completed. E) All of
the above would be considered drop-off surveys.

56. 1) Which of the following is defined as determining D) measurement

if and how much of a property is possessed by an
object?
A) scale level
B) attributes of properties
C) subjective and objective properties
D) measurement
E) intensity determination

57. 2) Researchers measure: A) properties of objects

A) properties of objects. B) numbers of customers. C)
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objects of measurements. D) objects of properties.

E) types of products.

58. 3) Age, income, gender, and interest in buying product B) properties

X would all be considered ________ of the consumer, or
object.
A) descriptions
B) properties
C) subjective descriptors
D) objectives descriptors
E) commonalities

59. 4) If we were measuring age, income, height, number A) objective properties

of bottles purchased, and so on, we would be measur-
ing:
A) objective properties. B) subjective properties.
C) objective objects. D) subjective objects. E) objective
subjects.

60. 15) Which type of scale measure contains bipolar de- C) semantic differential
scriptors such as "hot-cold," "wet-dry," "convenient-in- scale
convenient," and so on?
A) constant sum scale B) lifestyle inventory
C) semantic differential scale D) graphic intensity E)
agreement scale

61. 16) The halo effect is best avoided by: B) flipping favorable and
A) doing a couple of things wrong during the entire unfavorable endpoints on
research project. different scale items.
B) flipping favorable and unfavorable endpoints on
different scale items.
C) flipping "bad" scales to the back of the survey to
encourage a good response before the respondents
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get to the bad questions.

D) using only percentage scales.
E) using only closed-ended questions.

62. 17) Which of the following scale measures is good for C) semantic differential
assessing store, company, or brand images because scale
profiles may be generated to easily depict the image?
A) constant sum scale
B) lifestyle inventory
C) semantic differential scale
D) image analysis scale
E) image profile scale

63. 5) A sample unit could be a: D) all of the above

A) household.
B) consumer
. C) purchasing agent.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

64. 6) An accounting of the complete population is known D) a census

as:
A) a population. B) a sample. C) a sample unit.
D) a census. E) comprehensive accounting.

65. 7) The target population for the U.S Census is: A) all households in the
A) all households in the United States United States
. B) as many people as can be convinced to fill out the
survey.
C) a certain percentage of the population.
D) an equal number of people from each region of the
United States.

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E) an equal percentage of people from each region of

the United States.

66. 9) A master list of all the sample units in the population D) sample frame
is known as the: A) sample list. B) population master
list. C) master frame.
D) sample frame. E) population frame.

67. 11) If we define our population as all households in A) a survey with sample
the city of Chicago, Illinois, and we use the Chicago frame error.
telephone directory from which to draw our sample
units, we would likely have:
A) a survey with sample frame error. B) a representa-
tive survey.
C) a survey containing error. D) a survey with a poorly
defined master list. E) a census

68. 12) Sources of error that come from sources other B) nonsampling errors.
than the sample selection method and sample size are
referred to as:
A) serious mistakes.
B) nonsampling errors.
C) errors caused by competitors.
D) errors caused by clients.
E) errors caused by statisticians.

69. 18) Which of the following is the best definition of D) It is the amount of dis-
variability? similarity (or similarity) in
A) It is the amount of dispersion in a data set contain- respondents' answers to a
ing interval or nominal data. particular question.
B) It is the difference between scores in the present
sample and scores in a previous sample.
C) It is the amount of dissimilarity in ordinal data.
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D) It is the amount of dissimilarity (or similarity) in

respondents' answers to a particular question.
E) It is the amount of responses in one respondent's
answers to a particular survey question

70. 19) Which of the following is true with regard to vari- C) q=100%-p
ability?
A) p is always less than q B) q is always less than p
C) q=100%-p
D) p and q are always equal
E) p+q=1.96

71. 20) Consider that we have nominal data (responses E) 55 percent say "Yes"
are categorical) and the responses are "Yes" or "No" and 45 percent say "No"
to the question: "The next time you order pizza, will
you use Domino's?" Which of the following sets of
responses shows the MOST variability?
A) 90 percent say "Yes" and 10 percent say "No"
B) 80 percent say "Yes" and 20 percent say "No"
C) 70 percent say "Yes" and 30 percent say "No"
D) 60 percent say "Yes" and 40 percent say "No"
E) 55 percent say "Yes" and 45 percent say "No"

72. 31) If we assume the "highest" amount of variability A) 50, 50.

when estimating pq, then pq are:
A) 50, 50.
B) 1, 99.
C) 0, 10.
D) 1, 5.
E) 0, 5.

73. 32) In trying to estimate the variability in the popula- E) Use 50/50 or find a
tion in order to determine pq, which of the following former study and calculate
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represents viable alternatives? the variance or conduct a

A) Use a random number generator to provide two pilot study.
random values for p and q.
B) Use the most conservative approach, p = 10, q = 90.
C) Use 90/10 or find a former study and calculate the
variance or conduct a pilot study.
D) Use 1/5 or find a former study and calculate the
variance or conduct a pilot study.
E) Use 50/50 or find a former study and calculate the
variance or conduct a pilot study.

74. 1) ________ is defined as all errors in a survey except D) Nonsampling error

those attributable to the sample plan and sample
size.
A) Transcriptional error
B) Sampling risk
C) Continuity error
D) Nonsampling error
E) Sampling frame

75. 2) Which of the following is NOT a nonsampling error? E) size of the sample taken
A) all types of nonresponse error
B) data gathering and handling error
C) data analysis
D) data interpretation error
E) size of the sample taken

76. 4) Which of the following is true about nonsampling A) It cannot be measured

errors? by a formula like sampling
A) It cannot be measured by a formula like sampling errors
errors
. B) It can be measured as accurately as sampling

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errors.
C) It can be measured if the sample plan is available.
D) It cannot be measured if the sample size is not
available.
E) It can be easily controlled like sampling errors.

77. 5) Which of the following best represents how a non- B) Various controls can be
sampling error can be minimized? imposed on the data col-
A) The sample size taken should be small in order to lection process to mini-
determine the nonsampling error more accurately. mize the effects of non-
B) Various controls can be imposed on the data collec- sampling error.
tion process to minimize the effects of nonsampling
error.
C) The sample selected from the sample size should
be random.
D) The nonsampling error should be controlled.
E) Data collection should be kept at a minimum to
minimize nonsampling error.

78. 6) Which of the following is a general type of nonsam- A) fieldworker error

pling error?
A) fieldworker error
B) clerical error
C) forecast error
D) continuity error
E) false positive error

79. 9) ________ occur whenever a data collection person A) Unintentional field-

willfully violates the data collection requirements set worker errors
forth by the researcher.
A) Unintentional fieldworker errors
B) Intentional respondent errors

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C) Unintentional respondent errors

D) Intentional fieldworker errors
E) Instinctive respondent errors

80. Which of the following is a type of intentional field- D) cheating

worker error?
A) guessing
B) fatigue
C) nonresponse
D) cheating
E) misunderstandings

81. 14) An ________ occurs whenever a fieldworker com- C) unintentional inter-

mits an error while believing that he or she is perform- viewer error
ing correctly.
A) instinctive interviewer error
B) intentional respondent error
C) unintentional interviewer error
D) unintentional respondent error
E) intentional interviewer error

82. Fieldworker misunderstanding would be considered B) unintentional inter-

an: viewer error.
A) instinctive interviewer error.
B) unintentional interviewer error.
C) intentional fieldworker error.
D) unintentional respondent error.
E) intentional respondent error.

83. 3) ________ analysis is used by marketing researchers E) Descriptive

to describe the sample dataset in such a way as to por-
tray the typical respondent and to reveal the general
pattern of responses.
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A) Differences
B) Association
C) Predictive
D) Inference
E) Descriptive

84. 4) Statistical concepts such as mean, medium, and E) descriptive

frequency distribution are forms of ________ analysis.
A) differences
B) association
C) predictive
D) inference
E) descriptive

85. 5) Statistical concepts such as range and standard E) descriptive

deviation are forms of ________ analysis.
A) differences
B) association
C) predictive
D) inference
E) descriptive

86. 6) When marketing researchers use statistical proce- D) inference

dures to generalize the results of the sample to the
target population it represents, the process is referred
to as ________ analysis.
A) differences
B) association
C) predictive
D) inference
E) descriptive

87. D) inference
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7) Statistical concepts such as standard error and null

hypothesis are forms of ________ analysis.
A) differences
B) association
C) predictive
D) inference
E) descriptive

88. 8) ________ analysis helps determine the degree to A) Differences

which real and generalizable differences exist in the
population.
A) Differences
B) Association
C) Predictive
D) Inference
E) Descriptive

89. 9) Statistical concepts such as t tests of differences and A) differences

analysis of variance are forms of ________ analysis.
A) differences
B) association
C) predictive
D) inference
E) descriptive

90. 10) ________ analysis determines the strength and di- B) Association
rection of relationships between two or more vari-
ables.
A) Differences
B) Association
C) Predictive

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D) Inference
E) Descriptive

91. 11) Statistical concepts such as correlation and B) association

cross-tabulation are forms of ________ analysis.
A) differences
B) association
C) predictive
D) inference
E) descriptive

92. 28) Values that are computed from information pro- B) statistics.
vided by a sample are referred to as the sample's:
A) parameters.
B) statistics.
C) median.
D) range.
E) standard deviation.

93. 29) Values that are computed from a complete census, A) parameters.
which are considered to be precise and valid mea-
sures of the population, are referred to as:
A) parameters.
B) statistics.
C) median.
D) range.
E) standard deviation.

94. 38) ________ are the degree of accuracy desired by the B) Confidence intervals
researcher and stipulated as a level of confidence in
the form of a range with a lower boundary and an
upper boundary.
A) Measures of variability
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B) Confidence intervals
C) Standard percentages
D) Parameter estimates
E) Statistical inferences

95. 39) Which of the following standard error values cor- C) 1.96
responds to 95 percent level of confidence?
A) 2.69
B) 3.14
C) 1.96
D) 2.58
E) 1.52

96. 40) A 99 percent confidence interval allows us to say B) 99 percent of all the
that if we took many samples from the population: samples would contain a
A) the whole sample would contain a range that in- range that included the
cluded the population parameter. population parameter.
B) 99 percent of all the samples would contain a range
that included the population parameter.
C) 99 percent of all the samples would allow us to
estimate the mean within ±1 percent.
D) 1 percent of all the samples would contain a range
that included the population parameter.
E) 1 percent of all the samples would allow us to esti-
mate the mean within ±1 percent.

97. 41) The proper command sequence in SPSS to gener- A) ANALYZE-COMPARE

ate a confidence interval for a mean is: MEANS-ONE-SAMPLE T
A) ANALYZE-COMPARE MEANS-ONE-SAMPLE T TEST. TEST.
B) ANALYZE-COMPARE MEANS-MEANS.
C) ANALYZE-COMPARE MEANS-PAIRED SAMPLE T
TEST.

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D) ANALYZE-COMPARE MEANS-INDEPENDENT SAM-

PLE T TEST.
E) ANALYZE-COMPARE MEANS-ONE-WAY.

98. 42) ________ is a statistical procedure used to accept or C) Hypothesis testing

reject the hypothesis based on sample evidence.
A) Frequency distribution
B) Standard deviation
C) Hypothesis testing
D) Parameter estimation
E) Predictive analysis

99. 1) What type of analysis would be used to answer A) association or relation-

a question such as "Which customer demographic is ship analysis
most strongly related to product purchase/nonpur-
chase"?
A) association or relationship analysis
B) predictive analysis
C) predictive or relationship analysis
D) analysis of variance
E) canine/feline regression analysis

100. 2) Pontiac wants to know what types of persons re- C) associative analysis.
spond favorably to proposed style changes in the Fire-
bird. Frito-Lay wants to know what kinds of people buy
from the Frito-Lay line. These are questions that may
be answered through:
A) relationship analysis.
B) chi-square analysis.
C) associative analysis.
D) analysis of variance.
E) regression analysis.

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101. 3) Associative analyses determine whether stable re- B) two variables.

lationships exist between:
A) costs and expenses.
B) two variables.
C) 12 or more variables.
D) marketing and sales.
E) statistics and results.

102. 29) In order to run a chi-square test using SPSS, the D) ANALYZE; DESCRIPTIVE
proper command sequence is: STATISTICS; CROSSTABS.
A) ANALYZE; CHI-SQUARE; GO.
B) ANALYZE; SUMMARIZE; CROSSTABS; CHI-SQUARE.
C) ASSOCIATIONS; NONMONO; CHI-SQUARE.
D) ANALYZE; DESCRIPTIVE STATISTICS; CROSSTABS.
E) ASSOCIATIONS; STATISTICS; CROSSTABS.

103. 34) A correlation coefficient is an index number con- C) -1.00 and +1.00.
strained to fall between the range of:
A) 0 and 1.00.
B) 0 and 100.
C) -1.00 and +1.00.
D) -1.00 and 0.
E) -100 and 0.

104. 36) Which of the following correlation coefficients C) -.75

would indicate a "moderate" association?
A) .85
B) -.85
C) -.75
D) .35
E) .60

105.
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37) Let's assume we find in a study that the correlation B) smoking tends to de-
coefficient between number of years of education and crease.
cigarette smoking is -.89. This means that as educa-
tion level increases: A) smoking tends to increase.
B) smoking tends to decrease.
C) smoking changes 89 percent.
D) smoking is nonexistent.
E) only 89 out of every 100 people in the study would
not smoke.

106. 40) If you wished to compute a Pearson product mo- E) ANALYZE; CORRELATE;
ment correlation coefficient using SPSS, which com- BIVARIATE
mand sequence would you use?
A) CORRELATE; PEARSON; GO
B) ANALYZE; CORRELATE; PEARSON
C) ANALYZE; CORRELATE; PEARSON; R
D) ANALYZE; CORRELATE; PEARSON; GO
E) ANALYZE; CORRELATE; BIVARIATE

107. ) Which of the following is NOT true of prediction? C) We are seldom con-
A) It is a statement of what is believed will happen in fronted with the need to
the future. make predictions.
B) It may be based on prior observation.
C) We are seldom confronted with the need to make
predictions.
D) It may be based on past experience.
E) Marketing managers are constantly faced with the
need to make predictions.

108. 3) What is the best way to make a prediction? D) building a predictive

A) using simple statistical analysis model
B) making a best guess based on past experience

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C) employing residual analysis

D) building a predictive model
E) hypothesizing

109. 7) Bivariate regression analysis is defined as a predic- C) one variable is used to

tive analysis technique in which: predict the level of another
A) a pattern is identified over time and projected into by use of the straight-line
the future. formula
B) a relationship that exists across time is observed to
make a prediction.
C) one variable is used to predict the level of another
by use of the straight-line formula.
D) one variable is used to predict the level of another
by use of a scatter diagram.
E) a relationship that exists at one point in time is
observed to make a prediction.

110. 11) In bivariate regression analysis, the dependent D) predicted, and it is usu-
variable is one that is: ally termed y in the re-
A) used to predict the independent variable, and it is gression formula.
the x in the regression formula.
B) used to predict the independent variable, and it is
the y in the regression formula.
C) predicted, and it is usually termed x in the regres-
sion formula.
D) predicted, and it is usually termed y in the regres-
sion formula.
E) predicted, and it is termed b in the regression for-
mula.

111. 12) In bivariate regression analysis, the independent A

variable is one that is:

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A) used to predict the dependent variable, and it is the

x in the regression formula.
) used to predict the dependent variable, and it is the
y in the regression formula.
C) predicted, and it is the x in the regression formula.
D) predicted, and it is the y in the regression formula.
E) used to predict the dependent variable, and it is the
b in the regression formula.

112. 14) In evaluating your bivariate regression analysis E) determining if there is

findings, you first determine whether or not a lin- statistical significance
ear relationship between the independent and depen-
dent variable exists in the population. Which of the
following best describes what you are doing in this
step?
A) determining if the two variables have any covaria-
tion
B) determining if the two variables vary together
C) determining if the two variables belong in the same
regression matrix D) determining if the two variables
are isotonic
E) determining if there is statistical significance

113. 15) In evaluating your bivariate regression analysis A

findings, you first determine whether or not a lin-
ear relationship between the independent and depen-
dent variable exists in the population and secondly
you:
A) determine the significance of the intercept and the
slope.
B) determine the significance of the covariation.
C
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) determine if the two variables vary together.

D) determine if the two variables belong in the same
regression matrix. E) determine if the two variables
predict the intercept and the slope

114. 16) Which of the following SPSS commands allows you D

to run bivariate regression?
A) ANALYZE; BIVARIATE; REGRESSION
B) ANALYZE; REGRESSION; BIVARIATE
C) REGRESSION; BIVARIATE
D) ANALYZE; REGRESSION; LINEAR
E) REGRESSION; BIVARIATE; LINEAR

115. 7) In bivariate regression analysis, the higher the Ad- B

justed R Square value:
A) the lower the predictive power of the analysis.
B) the better the straight line's fit to the scatter points.
C) the worse the straight line's fit to the scatter points.
D) the closer to 0 it will be.
E) None of the above; there is no Adjusted R Square
value in regression analysis.

116. 8) The main purpose of ANOVA in bivariate regression C

is to:
A) tell us if there are significant differences between
three or more means.
B) tell us if ANOVA is an issue.
C) tell us if the straight-line model fits the data we are
analyzing.
D) provide a frequency table for further analysis.
E) None of the above; ANOVA is not used in regression

117. E
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21) Sometimes a researcher will find that the ANOVA

F is not significant in regression analysis or if the F
is significant, the R square is lower than desired. It is
appropriate in these cases to:
A) examine the data using another stat package other
than SPSS.
B) change the scaling assumptions from ratio or inter-
val to ordinal and rerun the analysis.
C) run a confidence interval around the predicted val-
ues and then make the interval narrower.
D) run a confidence interval around the predicted val-
ues and then make the interval wider.
E) run a scatter diagram, search for outliers, and re-
move them and rerun the regression

118. 22) A form of regression analysis where more than C

one independent variable is used in the regression
equation is known as:
A) regression planes.
B) additivity.
C) multiple regression analysis.
D) independence assumption.
E) MANOVA.

119. 33) When you find "mixed" results in multiple regres- A

sion (i.e., some betas are significant, others are not),
you:
A) eliminate, or "trim," the insignificant variables.
B) adjust the insignificant variables by applying a
standardized weight.
C) accept the null hypothesis.

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D) choose the result that fits your hypothesis.

E) none of the above

120. 3) A factual message that transmits research results, B

vital recommendations, conclusions, and other infor-
mation to the client, who in turn uses the information
as a basis for decision making, is known as:
A) article summary.
B) marketing research report.
C) body report.
D) advancement report.
E) title page.

121. 4) Which is NOT true regarding the importance placed E

on the marketing research report?
A) The report is the product that represents the efforts
of the research team.
B) The report communicates the research project and
findings to the client.
C) The report helps build credibility.
D) The report may be the only part of the project that
the client will see.
E) The report's organization and format are not all that
critical as long as the conclusions are well written.

122. 19) Which of the following is NOT a figure? E

A) graph
B) chart
C) map
D) picture
E) table

123. C
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26) Plagiarism is derived from a Latin word for:

A) paper taking.
B) plain theft.
C) kidnapping a Roman citizen's slave.
D) kidnapping paper thoughts.
E) copying others' words.

124. 35) Visuals that systematically present numerical data D

or words in columns and rows are referred to as:
A) figures.
B) charts.
C) pictures.
D) tables.
E) diagrams.

125. 39) Which of the following identify exact values? A

A) tables
B) pictures
C) maps
D) graphs
E) pie charts

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