NEET Level Test - 23- Contact Number: 9667591930 /

Mar 8527521718

5 Match the physical quantities (or their combinations)

PHYSICS with the appropriate units.
1 When a small ferromagnetic magnet is fully Physical quantity Units
−1 viscosity
demagnetized, its coercivity is measured to be 3 × 10 Am . 3
(A) (I) m/s
A solenoid of length 10 cm, consisting of 100 turns, is used to density
achieve this demagnetization. What should be the current thermal conductivity
flowing through the solenoid to completely demagnetize the (B) (II) m /s
2

heat capacity
magnet when placed inside it?
thermal current 1
1. 6 A 2. 30 mA (C) (III)
surface tension m×s
3. 3 A 4. 1.5 A
electric field
(D) (IV) Ω
2 A thin hollow equiconvex lens, silvered at the back, magnetic field
converges a beam of light parallel to the principal axis at a Choose the correct answer from the given ones:
4 1. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
distance 0.2 m. When filled with water (μ = ) , the same
3 2. - - - -
A II, B III, C II, D I

beam will converge at a distance of: 3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

1. 3.75 cm
4. - - - -
A III, B II, C I, D IV
2. 3.25 cm
3. 0.12 m
6 A standard Young's double-slit experiment is performed
4. none of the above
in a laboratory, as shown in the figure. The two slits are
3 The angular velocity of a rotating body changes from ω ​ identical and the source (S), the double-slit (S , S ) and the
1 1 2

to ω ​ without the application of an external torque, but due to screen (A) are placed symmetrically, as shown.
2

a change in its moment of inertia about the axis of Monochromatic light falls from the source S onto S , S ; the 1 2

rotation. The ratio of its corresponding radii of gyration is: latter being equidistant from S.
1. ω : ω
1 2

2. √ω : √ω
1 2

3. ω : ω
2 1

4. √ω : √ω
2 1

4 A coil with an area of 100 cm² is initially positioned

perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 T. It is then
rotated by 90 in a duration of 2 s, making it parallel to the
∘

magnetic field. What is the magnitude of the induced EMF in

the coil? The separation between the slits (S , S ) is doubled. Then:
1 2

1. 0.1 × 10 V −2
2. 0.2 × 10 V −2
1. fringe width doubles
3. 0.1 × 10
−1
V 4. 0.2 × 10
−3
V 2. fringe width becomes half
3. intensity of the central maximum increases
4. intensity of the minima increases

7 Which, of the following solid substances, will most

likely show the photoelectric effect easily?
1. Potassium
2. Rubber
3. Plastic
4. Solid hydrogen

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 NEET Level Test - 23- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar 8527521718

8 Which input (A, B)− output (Y ) combination correctly 11 A horizontal pipe through which water flows smoothly,
represents the given logic circuit? as shown in the figure, has two vertical limbs in which the
water levels are h and h . The cross-section of the horizontal
1 2

pipe decreases to half before the second limb. Then:

1. A = 1, B = 1, Y = 1

2. A = 0, B = 1, Y = 1
1. h 1 = h2
3. A = 1, B = 0, Y = 0
2. h = 0
2

4. A = 0, B = 0, Y = 1 3. h 1 > h2

4. h 2 > h1

9 A concave mirror (radius 60 cm) is placed directly in

12 The potential energy (U ) as a function of position (x) is
front of a plane mirror, at a distance of 120 cm : both mirrors
sharing the same principal axis. The origin (O) is taken at the given for three simple harmonic oscillators, all having the
centre-of-curvature of the concave mirror, with the positive x- same mass. The oscillator with the greatest time period of
axis taken along the principal axis towards the plane mirror. oscillation is:

1. A
2. B
3. C
A point object is placed at O, and it is imaged by M and then
2
4. same for all
the rays from M are reflected by M to form a final image.
2 1

This image is at x = A particle of mass and charge is initially at rest in a

1. −22.5 cm
13 m q

2. −24 cm uniform electric field E. It is then released and allowed to

3. 7.5 cm move a distance x under the influence of the field. The kinetic
4. 6 cm energy attained by the particle is:
2
qEx
1. qEx
2
2.
10 A tuning fork, placed in a room, vibrates according to the 2

qEx

equation: Y = (10
−4
m) sin(
2πt
) where Y is the
3. qEx 4.
2
s
0.01

displacement of the tip of a prong. The speed of sound in air is

330 m/s. The frequency of the tuning fork is:

1. 100 Hz
2. 50 Hz
3. 200 Hz
4. 200π Hz

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 NEET Level Test - 23- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar 8527521718

14 Which of the following graphs best represents the 17 Consider a simple pendulum of length L, mass m

variation of impedance (Z) in an LCR series circuit as a suspended from the point O. Its bob is given a transverse
function of the frequency (f ) of the applied AC source? speed u = √4gL at its lowest point. The power due to the
L
force of gravity on the bob, when it is at a height of above
2

the lowest point, is:

1. 2.

3. 4.
1
1. − mg√gL 2. −mg√gL
2

3 5
3. − mg√gL 4. − mg√gL
2 2

15 A block of mass m is suspended from a massless spring

2k 18 Match the correct entries in Column-I with those in
with a spring constant of as shown in the figure. When the
3 Column-II. Column-I mentions graphs of y (first quantity)
block is slightly displaced vertically downward and released, versus x (second quantity) & Column-II gives their
it undergoes simple harmonic motion (SHM). The time period behaviours.
of the oscillation is given by: Column-I Column-II
Binding energy per nucleon
(A) (I) constant
versus mass number
Potential energy of two
nucleons versus separation, for
(B) (II) increases
distances of the order of nuclear
radius
increases to a
Mass defect versus binding
m m (C) (III) maximum & then
1. 2π√ 2. 2π√ energy
k 2k decreases
Decreases to a
3.
3m
4.
2m
Nuclear density versus mass
2π√ 2π√ (D) (IV) minimum & then
2k 3k number
increases

16 If |A→ × B|
→ = → → then the value of |A→ − B|
→ is:
1
(A ⋅ B),
√3
1. - - - -
A III, B IV, C I, D II

2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

1.
1/2
2 2
(A + B − AB)

1/2
3. - - - -
A IV, B III, C I, D II

AB 4. - - -
A III, B IV, C II, D I -
2. (A
2
+ B
2
− )
√3

1/2 19 Displacement current is generated between the plates of a

3. (A
2
+ B
2
− AB√3)
capacitor when the potential difference across the plates is:
1/2
1. maximum 2. zero
4. (A
2
+ B
2
+ AB√3)
3. minimum 4. varying

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 NEET Level Test - 23- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar 8527521718

20 Where is the center-of-mass of the given arrangement 22 Two infinite lines of charge with linear charge densities
(shown in the figure), considering that all the three rods are +λ and −λ are positioned along the x-axis and y-axis,
identical in mass and length? respectively. The magnitude of the net electric field at the
point P (r, r, 0) due to these line charges is given by:
1
(k = )
4πε0

2kλ √2kλ
1. 2.
r r

2√2kλ
3. 4. 0
r

23 An astronaut weighs 650 N on the surface of the Earth. If

he were orbiting at a distance of 2 Earth radii from the centre
of the Earth, his weight would:
1. appear to be double
L L L
1. ( , ) 2. ( , 0) 2. appear to remain the same
2 2 3
3. appear to be smaller by a factor of nine
L L L
3. ( , ) 4. (0, ) 4. appear to be smaller by a factor of four
3 2 3

24 A U -tube barometer consists of two vertical tubes

21 A circular conducting ring with radius R is falling
connected at the bottom, partially filled with mercury
vertically downward through a horizontal magnetic field of 3
(ρ = 13.6 g/cm ). One end (tube-1) is closed and contains
magnitude B. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane Hg

of the ring. gas at an unknown pressure P , while the other end (tube-2) is
1

open to the atmosphere, where the pressure is Patm . The

mercury levels in the two tubes differ, with heights h ​ in 1

tube-1 and h ​ in tube-2. The cross-sectional areas of the tubes

2

are A ​ and A , respectively. The system is influenced by

1 2

gravitational acceleration g.

Which of the following statements are true when the ring is

falling with a constant speed v?
(A) No current flows in the ring.
(B) A and D are at the same potential.
(C) C and E are at the same potential.
The potential difference between A and D is 2Brv, with
(D) Which of the following expressions correctly represents P1 ,
D at a higher potential.
the pressure inside the tube-1?
Choose the correct option from the options given below:
h2 − h1 A1 h1
1. (A), (B) and (C) only 1. Patm 2. Patm
h1 A2 h2
2. (A) and (B) only
h2
3. (C) and (D) only 3. Patm 4. Patm − ρH g g(h1 − h2 )
h1
4. (B), (C) and (D) only

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 NEET Level Test - 23- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar 8527521718

25 Three rods, made of the same material and having 28 The diode D is ideal. The equivalent resistance between
identical cross-sectional areas but different lengths of A, B is: (V A < VB )

10 cm, 20 cm and 30 cm, are joined at a common point as

shown in the figure. Given the temperature at the ends of these

rods, what will be the temperature at the junction O?

1. 60 Ω 2. 30 Ω

3. 15 Ω 4. 5 Ω

29 Equal masses of water at temperatures of

20 C, 50 C, and 80 C are mixed in a calorimeter of
∘ ∘ ∘

negligible heat capacity. The final temperature of the water is:

(assuming no loss of heat)
1. 50 C
∘
2. 60 C
∘

1. 19.2 C∘

2. 16.4 C∘ 3. 40
∘
C 4. 90
∘
C
3. 11.5 C∘

4. 22 C
∘
30 A vessel contains a mixture of hydrogen (H 2) and helium
(H e) molecules at a temperature of 300 K. The RMS speed of
26 The process pV T = constant represents a process that is: hydrogen molecules is v and that of helium molecules is v .
1 2

1. Isobaric Their masses are m (hydrogen molecule) and m (helium

1 2

2. Isochoric molecule), respectively. Then:

3. Isothermal 1. v = v 1 2 2. m v = m v 1 1 2 2

4. Adiabatic 1 1 m1 v1
3. m1 v
2

1
= m2 v
2

2
4. =
2 2 m2 v2

27 A resistor with resistance R produces 440 J of thermal

energy in 22 s when a current of 2 A flows through it. When
the current is increased to 5 A, the thermal energy generated
in the same duration is:
1. 1.80 kJ
2. 2.20 kJ
3. 2.75 kJ
4. 3.2 kJ

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 NEET Level Test - 23- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar 8527521718

31 Two carts are placed on a level, frictionless track and are 33 Given below are two statements:
connected by a compressed spring and a string. At a certain If a hydrogen atom, in its ground state,
moment, the string is cut, causing the carts to move apart. Assertion (A): interacts with a photon of energy less than
Cart-A has a mass of 3 kg, and cart-B has a mass of 2 kg. 10.2 eV – the photon will not be absorbed.

After separation, cart-A moves to the left with a velocity of The first excited state of the hydrogen atom
0.2 m/s. Consider the system to include both carts and take the
has an energy of −3.4 eV & the ground state
right as the positive direction. Reason (R): is at −13.6 eV : therefore, in order to make a
transition the photon must have a minimum
energy of 10.2 eV.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
What is the magnitude of the total momentum of the system
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
after the string is cut?
1. 0.0 kg-m/s
34 Which of the following can undergo shear strain?
2. 0.6 kg-m/s
3. 1.0 kg-m/s 1. solids 2. liquids
4. 1.5 kg-m/s 3. gases 4. all of the above

32 Two cars A & B move from town X to town Y : both

35 The magnitude and direction of the current in the
accelerating uniformly from rest to a maximum speed of
following circuit is:
40 km/h and immediately, decelerating uniformly to a stop at

Y . The distance between X & Y is 120 km. For car A,the

acceleration & deceleration have the same magnitude; for car

B, the acceleration is twice the deceleration. The times taken

by A & B are tA & tB . Then:

1. t
A
= 2t
B
2. t
B
= 2t
A

3. 3t
A
= 2t
B
4. t
A
= t
B

1. 1.5 A from B to A through E

2. 0.2 A from B to A through E
3. 0.5 A from A to B through E

5
4. A from A to B through E
9

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 NEET Level Test - 23- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar 8527521718

36 A galvanometer with a resistance of 20 Ω gives a full 40 Given below are two statements:
scale deflection when a 10 mA current is passed through it. The relative velocity between two projectiles
With a resistance (R) of 980 Ω connected to it, it becomes: Statement I:
in flight is constant.
1. an ammeter with a range of 500 mA, if R is in series A projectile, projected at the same constant
2. an ammeter with a range of 500 mA, if R is in parallel Statement II: speed, can have the same range for two
3. a voltmeter with a range of 10 V, if R is in series different angles of projection.
4. a voltmeter with a range of 10 V, if R is in parallel
1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
A block weighing N is placed on a table. The table 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
37 9.8

3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

exerts an upward normal force of 10 N on the block. Assume
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
g = 9.8 m/s .
2

Which of the following statements are correct?

41 Which of the following graphs depicts the variation of
(A) The block exerts a force of 10 N on the table.
(B) The block exerts a force of 19.8 N on the table. electric potential, V with radial distance, r from the centre of
a positively charged conducting sphere of radius R?
(C) The block exerts a force of 9.8 N on the table.
(D) The block has an upward acceleration.

Choose the correct option from the options given below: 1. 2.

1. (A), (B) and (C) only
2. (A) and (B) only
3. (A) and (D) only
4. (B), (C) and (D) only

38 The band gap in silicon is nearly 1.1 eV at room

3. 4.
temperature. If photons having an energy slightly greater than
1.1 eV are incident on silicon:

1. they are absorbed and an electron-hole pair is created

2. they are absorbed and retained by the silicon atoms
42 n1 moles of an ideal gas at a temperature T1 and n2
3. they are never absorbed by the silicon
4. they are reflected and cause the formation of holes moles of the same gas at a temperature T are taken in two
2

parts of the same insulated vessel with a partition between

A uniform electric field E→ = 3 × 10 them. The partition is now removed. The final temperature is:
39 N/C interacts with
3^
i

a square surface of 10 cm side, with its plane parallel to the

Y Z -plane. The electric flux through the square is:

1. 60 N-m2/C
2. 30 N-m2/C
3. 15 N-m2/C​​
4. zero

n1 T 1 + n2 T 2 n1 T 2 + n2 T 1
1. 2.
n1 + n2 n1 + n2

n1 T 1 − n2 T 2 n1 T 2 − n2 T 1
3. 4.
n1 − n2 n1 − T 2

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 NEET Level Test - 23- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar 8527521718

43 A thick wire carries a current I distributed uniformly

over its cross-sectional area, which has a radius R. The
CHEMISTRY
magnetic field within the wire, at the mid-point of a radius, Identify products A and B in the given reaction:
46
has the magnitude:
μ0 I μ0 I
1. 2.
2πR 4πR

μ0 I μ0 I
3. 4.
8πR 16πR

44 A horizontal ray of light is incident on the right-angled

1.
prism with prism angle 6 . If the refractive index of the
∘

material of the prism is 1.5, then the angle of emergence will

be:

2.

3.

1. 9
∘
2. 10
∘
4.
3. 4
∘
4. 6
∘

45 Two blocks of masses m1 , m2 are connected by a light

47 The graph represents the variation of molar conductance
string passing through a hole in the centre of a rotating
horizontal turntable: m rotating with the turntable in a circle
1
(Λ ) with the square root of concentration (√C ​) for two
m

of radius, r with angular speed ω. The system is in equilibrium electrolytes, 'A' and 'B'. Based on the graph, the nature of both
m1 electrolytes is:
and friction is negligible. The ratio, =
m2

2 g
ω r
1. 2. 2
g ω r

2
ω r 2g
1. A → Strong Electrolyte, B→ Strong Electrolyte
3. 4. 2. A → Weak Electrolyte, B → Strong Electrolyte
2
2g ω r
3. A → Strong Electrolyte, B → Weak Electrolyte
4. A → Weak electrolyte, B → Weak Electrolyte

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 NEET Level Test - 23- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar 8527521718

48 Calculate the magnitude of heat (q) in joules for an 52 Match the compounds in Column-I with their
isothermal irreversible expansion, where the system expands corresponding relationships in Column-II and then choose the
against an external pressure of 8 bar, and the volume correct option from the given choices:
increases by 10 L. Column-I (Compounds) Column-II (Relation)
1. 8000 J 2. 2000 J α-Glucose and
(i) (a) Homologues
3. 6000 J 4. 7600 J α-Galactose

α-Glucose and
Analyze the given reaction sequence: (ii) (b) Epimer
49 α-Fructose

α-Glucose and
(iii) (c) Anomer
β-Glucose

α-Ribose and
(iv) (d) Functional isomers
α-Glucose

1. (i) → (b); (ii) → (d); (iii) → (a), (iv) → (c)

2. (i) → (b); (ii) → (d); (iii) → (c), (iv) → (a)
3. (i) → (d); (ii) → (b); (iii) → (c), (iv) → (a)
The final product (F) is:
4. (i) → (a); (ii) → (c); (iii) → (d), (iv) → (b)
1. Benzyl alcohol
2. Toluene
53 A metal has a threshold frequency f0 . When light of
3. Benzaldehyde
4. Cyclohexanecarbaldehyde frequency v = 2f strikes the metal surface, the maximum
0

velocity of the emitted electrons is v When the frequency of

1

50 Consider the following equilibrium reaction: the incident light is increased to 5f ​, the maximum velocity of
0

Fe2 O3 ( s) + 3CO(g) ⇌ 2Fe(s) + 3CO2 ( g)

the emitted electrons becomes v . What is the ratio of v ​ to v
2 1 2
v1

Which of the following will not affect the equilibrium state? (i.e. )?
v2

(I) Addition of Fe O
2 3
1. 1 : 4
(II) Addition of CO 2
2. 1 : 2
(III) Decreasing the mass of Fe O
2 3
3. 2 : 1
(IV) Removal of CO 4. 4 : 1
1. (II) and (IV)
2. (I) and (IV) 54 Given below are two statements:
3. (I) and (III)
Aldol condensation is caused by the acidity
4. All will affect the equilibrium state Statement I:
of α hydrogen.
Cross aldol is not possible between
51 The de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the 4th orbit
is: Statement II:
(where, a = radius of 1st orbit )
0

1. 2πa0

2. 8πa0
1. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
3. 6πa
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
0

4. 4πa0

3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

4. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

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 NEET Level Test - 23- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar 8527521718

55 Which of the following reactions gives a wrong product 59 Consider the given reaction:
under the given reaction conditions? k=0.1M min
−1

A(g) −−−−−−−−−→ 2B( g)

If the initial concentration of A is 0.5 M, which of the

1. following graphs correctly represents the concentration of B
over time?
2.

3.
1 2

4.

56 Consider the given dissociation reaction

+ −
HX(aq) ⇌ H + X
(aq) (aq)

with an acid dissociation constant (K ) of 1.2 × 10 . What is−5 3 4

a

the osmotic pressure (in atm) of a 0.03 M HX solution at 300

K?
1. 4 atm 2. 2 atm
3. 1 atm 4. 6 atm
60 What is the correct order of ligand strength for the
57 Wilkinson's catalyst, [RhCl(PPh 3 )3 ] is used for:
following ligands according to the spectrochemical series?
1. Hydrogenation of carboxylic acids Cl
−
,F
−
,I
−
, CN
−
, OH
−

2. Hydrogenation of alkynes 1. CN < OH < F < Cl < I

− − − − −

3. Hydrogenation of alkenes 2. I < Cl < F < OH < CN

− − − − −

4. Polymerization of alkenes 3. I < Cl < F < CN < OH

− − − − −

4. F < Cl < I < OH < CN

− − − − −

58 Consider the given two statements:

The conjugate base of phenol is less stable 61 What is the difference in the spin-only magnetic moment
Assertion(A):
than the conjugate base of benzoic acid. (in B.M.) between manganese (Mn) in KMnO4 and
The conjugate base of phenol is not stabilised manganese species in the product (X) of the given reaction?
Reason(R):
by resonance. H
+

KMnO4 −
−→ X (product having Mn )
1. 2
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1. 2. 4
explanation of (A).
3. 0
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not the correct 4. 6
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

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 NEET Level Test - 23- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar 8527521718

62 A mixture contains one mole of a monoatomic gas and 66 Which of the following cations will turn a borax bead
one mole of a diatomic gas. What is the ratio of the heat green when heated in a reducing (luminous) flame?
capacities at constant volume (C ​) to the heat capacities at
V 1. Fe
3+
2. Cu
2+

Cv
constant pressure (C ​) for the mixture( i.e.
P
CP
) ? 3. Mn
2+
4. Ni
2+

2 7
1. 2. If one coulomb of electric charge is passed through a
3 5 67
5 3 solution of silver nitrate (AgNO ) during electrolysis, what is
3. 4. 3

7 5 the mass of silver (in milligrams) deposited at the electrode?

(Molar mass of Ag = 108 g/mol)
63 The addition of water to alkynes occurs in the acidic 1. 1.12 mg 2. 3.26 mg
medium and in the presence of H g ion as a catalyst. Which
2+
3. 2.54 mg 4. 4.02 mg
of the following products will be formed on addition of water
to but-1-yne under these conditions? 68 Consider the following reaction:
1. CH − CH − CH − CH O
3 2 2

2. CH − CH − CO − CH
3 2 3

3. CH − CH − CH − COOH + CO
3 2 2 2

4. CH − COOH + H − COOH
3

64 Match the molecules in Column-A with their

corresponding geometries in Column-B.
The products A and B, respectively, are:
Column-A Column-B (Molecular
(Molecule) Geometry)
(A) ICl (P) T-shape 1. 2.
(B) ICl 3 (Q) Pentagonal Bipyramidal
(C) ClF 5 (R) Linear
(D) IF 7 (S) Square Pyramidal

1. A → R, B → P, C → Q, D → S 3. 4.
2. A → R, B → P, C → S, D → Q
3. A → Q, B → S, C → R, D → P
4. A → P, B → R, C → S, D → Q
69 Consider the following reaction at equilibrium at a
65 Which of the following structures represents cytosine?
temperature of T Kelvin, with a given equilibrium constant
−13
Kc = 3 × 10 :
1
SO2 ( g) + O2 ( g) ⇌ SO3 ( g)
2

Now, consider the reverse reaction:

2SO3 ( g) ⇌ 2SO2 ( g) + O2 ( g)

The equilibrium constant for this reaction is denoted as K ′

1. 2. c
′

which can be expressed as a × 10 in scientific notation.

+b

What is the value of a + b ?

1. 26
2. 29
3. 20
4. 19

3. 4.

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 NEET Level Test - 23- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Mar 8527521718

70 Consider the following equilibrium reactions along with 74 The decomposition of ammonium nitrite (NH 4 NO2 (aq) )
their respective equilibrium constants: into nitrogen gas (N (g)) and water (2H O(l)) follows a first-
2 2

x ⇌ y ; k1 = 1 order reaction. Which of the given graphs correctly represents

y ⇌ z ; k2 = 2 the concentration of NH NO (aq)​vs time?
4 2

z ⇌ w ; k3 = 4

Now, calculate the overall equilibrium constant keq ​ for the

reaction:
x ⇌ w 1 2
Choose the correct answer:
1. 10 2. 8
3. 2 4. 4

71 Consider the given reaction:

3 4

Product formed in this reaction will be:

1. Alcohol 2. Alkane 75 What will be the major product in the following reaction?
3. Alkene 4. Ester

72 Consider the following combustion reaction:

CH4 + O2 ⟶ CO2 + H2 O

How many moles of methane (CH ) will be required for the

4

formation of 11 g of carbon dioxide (CO )?2

1. 0.25 2. 0.62 1. 2.
3. 0.17 4. 1.23

73 An element from the d-block of the 4 period has a spin-

th

only magnetic moment of 3.9 BM in its Z ionic form. What

3+
3. 4.
is the minimum atomic number (Z) of this element?
1. 29 2. 23
3. 24 4. 25 Consider the following compounds:
76

a. b.

c. d.

Which option correctly ranks their boiling points from highest

to lowest?
1. d > a > b > c 2. a > b > d >c
3. a > d > c > b 4. a > d > b > c

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77 Match List-I (Complexes) with List-II (Colour) and 79 The EMF of a cell is given as 0.83 V. The cell can be
choose the correct option: represented as:
List-I List-II + 2+
Ti ∣
∣Ti (0.001M)∥Cu (0.01M)∣
∣ Cu

(i) Fe4 [Fe(CN)6 ]

3
(A) Red The EMF of this cell could be increased by:
(ii) [Fe(SCN)]
2+
(B) Green 1. increasing conc. of Cu , keeping ​conc. of Ti constant.
2+ +

(iii) FeSO ⋅ 7H O
4 2 (C) Prussian blue 2. increasing conc. of Ti , keeping conc. of Cu constant.
+ 2+

1. (i)-(C), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B) 3. increasing conc. of both Ti and Cu .

+ 2+

2. (i)-(B), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(C) 4. decreasing conc. of both Cu 2+

and Ti .
+

3. (i)-(A), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(C)

4. (i)-(C), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(A)
80 The correct Lewis dot structure for the NO
−

2
ion is:

78 Given below are two statements:

1. 2.

3. 4.

81 The values of Van't Hoff factors for KCl, N aCl and

Statement I: K2 SO4 , respectively, are:
1. 2, 2 and 2 2. 2, 2 and 3
3. 1, 1 and 2 4. 1, 1 and 1

IUPAC name of the Compound is 4-chloro-1, Given below are two statements:
82
3-dinitrobenzene.
Blood acts as a buffer solution, and its pH is
Statement -I
maintained at 7.4 by an acidic buffer.
The pH of blood is regulated by the presence
Statement -II of bicarbonate ions (HCO ​) and carbonic acid
−

Statement II: (H CO ​).

2 3

1. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

IUPAC name of the Compound is 2- 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
methylaniline.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
4. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
1. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false. Ratio of the times required to reach 99% completion (t )
83 99

3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

and 90% completion (t ) for a first-order reaction is:
4. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
90

1. 2 2. 4
3. 0 4. 5

84 It is known that an atom contains protons, neutrons, and

electrons. If the mass of the neutron is assumed to be half of
its original value, and that of the proton is assumed to be twice
its original value, then the atomic mass of C will:14

1. Remain the same 2. be 14.28% less

3. be 14.28% more 4. be 28.56% less

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85 Given below are two statements: 90 What is the IUPAC name of catechol?
The stability of +1 oxidation state increases 1. Benzene, 1, 2-diol
Statement I: 2. Benzene, 1, 3-diol
down the group in Group-13.
The atomic radius of Ga is greater than that 3. Benzene, 1, 4-diol
Statement II: 4. 3-Hydroxyphenol
of Al.

1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. BIOLOGY

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
91 How is the current "Sixth Extinction" different from
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. previous mass extinctions?
It is happening at a much faster rate due to human
1.
86 Consider the following statements: activities.
It is caused solely by natural disasters, similar to past
The number of emitted photoelectrons 2.
extinctions.
Statement I: increases with increase in the frequency of
incident light. It is affecting only marine species, while terrestrial species
3.
remain unaffected.
The kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons
Statement II: increases with increase in the frequency of It has no impact on ecosystem stability, as biodiversity
4.
incident light. remains unchanged.

92 Which of the following correctly explains the

1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
2. Statement I is false but Statement II is true. relationship between Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) and
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true. Net Primary Productivity (NPP) in an ecosystem?
GPP is always equal to NPP, since plants do not lose
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false. 1.
energy.
Identify the incorrect oxidation state for the element NPP is always greater than GPP, as plants absorb energy
87 2.
from multiple sources.
mentioned in the following species:
GPP accounts for total organic matter produced, while
1. The oxidation state of Cl in ClO is +5. −
3.
3 NPP excludes respiration losses.
2. The oxidation state of Cr in K Cr O is +6. 2 2 7
GPP is independent of photosynthesis, and NPP depends
3. The oxidation state of O in Cu O is -2. 4.
2
only on plant respiration.
4. The oxidation state of Au in HAuCl is +3. 4

93 T.W. Engelmann’s experiment with Cladophora and

88 Which among the following have single unpaired
aerobic bacteria demonstrated the action spectrum of
electron?
− − 2− −
photosynthesis. What was the key finding of this experiment?
N2 , O2 , CN ,O ,C ,N
2 2 2
Bacteria accumulated in the regions of blue and red light,
1. O , N 1.
2 2
indicating maximum photosynthetic activity.
2. CN , C
− 2−

2
Oxygen evolution was highest in the regions of green
3. CN , O− −
2.
2 light.
4. N , O
−

2
−

2 The action spectrum of photosynthesis closely matched

3.
the absorption spectrum of chlorophyll b.
89 The number of S=O and S–OH bonds present in
Photosynthetic efficiency was independent of light
4.
peroxodisulphuric acid and pyrosulphuric acid, respectively, wavelength.
are :
1. (2 and 2) and (2 and 2) 94 In ascomycetes and basidiomycetes, after the fusion of
2. (2 and 4) and (2 and 4)
two haploid hyphae, an intermediate dikaryotic (n + n) phase
3. (4 and 2) and (2 and 4)
occurs. What does this phase mean?
4. (4 and 2) and (4 and 2)
1. Two separate nuclei remain in each cell before fusion.
2. Diploid (2n) cells form immediately after fusion.
3. The fungus can only reproduce asexually.
4. The two nuclei fuse right after cell fusion.

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95 Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding 99 Telophase is the final stage of karyokinesis where two
the anatomy of a dorsiventral leaf? daughter nuclei form. Which of the following cellular events
The epidermis covers both the upper (adaxial) and lower specifically marks this stage?
1.
(abaxial) surfaces of the leaf. Chromosomes condense into tightly packed structures for
1.
2. The cuticle is present on both epidermal layers. mitotic completion.
The adaxial epidermis typically has more stomata than the The nuclear envelope reforms around decondensing
3. 2.
abaxial epidermis. chromatin, and nucleoli reappear.
The mesophyll consists of parenchyma cells and is Chromatids separate and move towards opposite spindle
4. 3.
involved in photosynthesis. poles.
DNA replication takes place in preparation for the next
4.
96 Accessory pigments like chlorophyll b, xanthophylls, and division.
carotenoids are essential for photosynthesis. How do they
100 In epigynous flowers, the ovary is called inferior
assist in light absorption?
They absorb light across a broader wavelength range and because:
1.
transfer energy to chlorophyll a. 1. The ovary is positioned above the floral parts.
2. They participate directly in the photolysis of water. 2. The thalamus remains flat and does not enclose the ovary.
They convert absorbed light energy into ATP without The thalamus grows upwards and fuses with the ovary,
3. 3.
electron transport. with floral parts emerging above it.
They prevent excessive absorption of light, thereby The ovary remains free from the thalamus and floral parts
4. 4.
reducing photosynthetic efficiency. arise below it.

97 Red-green colour blindness is a sex-linked recessive 101 Plants exhibit open growth due to the continuous
disorder caused by a mutation in genes located on the X activity of meristems. How do meristematic cells contribute to
chromosome. Why is this disorder more common in males this type of growth?
than in females? They undergo repeated cell division and differentiate
1.
Males inherit the Y chromosome from their father, which immediately after formation.
1.
carries the color blindness gene. They retain their capacity to divide, and their derivatives
2.
Males inherit only one X chromosome, so a single contribute to the plant body.
2.
defective allele results in color blindness. They grow in size without dividing, allowing plants to
3.
The disorder is caused by a dominant gene, making it expand indefinitely.
3.
more frequent in males. They remain undifferentiated and do not contribute to
4.
Females have a higher rate of mutations in their X plant body formation.
4.
chromosome, preventing color blindness.
102 Unlike the exponential growth model, the logistic
98 Statins are widely used drugs that help in managing high
growth model is considered more realistic for animal
cholesterol levels. What is the primary mechanism of action of populations. What is the key reason for this?
statins in lowering blood cholesterol? Populations always grow exponentially without
1.
They bind to cholesterol in the bloodstream, making it limitations.
1.
inactive. Logistic growth only applies to large mammals, not
2.
They increase cholesterol breakdown by enhancing bile smaller organisms.
2.
acid production. The model assumes species interactions do not affect
3.
They competitively inhibit the enzyme responsible for population size.
3.
synthesis of cholesterol. Resources are finite and become limiting over time,
4.
They stimulate fat-burning hormones, reducing cholesterol leading to carrying capacity constraints.
4.
accumulation.

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103 During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, 108 Mendel’s Law of Segregation states that alleles of a
protons accumulate in the thylakoid lumen. What is the gene pair separate during gamete formation, ensuring that
primary reason for this proton gradient formation? each gamete carries only one allele. Which observation in
Protons are actively transported into the lumen from the Mendel’s F₂ generation directly supports this law?
1.
stroma using ATP. The blending of both parental traits into a new
1.
Protons are generated by splitting of water on the inner intermediate phenotype.
2. side of the membrane and transported across via electron The formation of gametes containing both alleles from
2.
carriers. each parent.
The NADP reductase enzyme pumps protons into the The presence of only dominant traits, as recessive alleles
3. 3.
lumen while converting NADP⁺ to NADPH. are eliminated.
ATP synthase directly transfers protons from the The appearance of dominant and recessive traits in a 3:1
4. 4.
cytoplasm into the lumen. ratio.

104 Oxidative phosphorylation in respiration differs from 109 A molecule that acts as genetic material must fulfil
photophosphorylation in photosynthesis because: specific criteria. Which of the following properties is most
1. It occurs in the cytoplasm instead of organelles. essential for a molecule to function as hereditary material?
2. It does not involve a proton gradient for ATP synthesis. 1. The ability to generate its own replica (self-replication).
It directly synthesizes ATP without involving any electron 2. The ability to catalyse biochemical reactions in the cell.
3.
transport chain. 3. The ability to mutate rapidly and unpredictably.
It uses oxidation-reduction energy instead of light energy 4. The ability to function only in specific cell types.
4.
to create a proton gradient.
110 Integral and peripheral proteins differ in their placement
105 As we move from species to kingdom in classification,
in the membrane. Why can integral proteins not be easily
what happens to the shared characteristics among organisms? extracted from the membrane?
1. They increase as broader groups form. They are partially or completely embedded in the
1.
2. They decrease, making classification more complex. membrane.
3. They remain constant throughout taxonomic levels. 2. They are loosely attached to the lipid bilayer.
4. They become more specific at higher levels. 3. They form ionic bonds with membrane lipids.
4. They are attached only to carbohydrate chains.
106 Roots in gymnosperms exhibit special associations.
111 In haplodiploid sex determination, found in honeybees,
Pinus forms a symbiotic relationship with fungi called
mycorrhiza, whereas in Cycas, special coralloid roots male drones develop from unfertilized eggs while females
associate with: develop from fertilized eggs. What is the most unusual
1. Rhizobium bacteria characteristic of males in this system?
2. Fungi for nitrogen fixation Male honeybees inherit both paternal and maternal genetic
1.
3. Cyanobacteria for nitrogen fixation material.
4. Archaea for nitrogen fixation Male honeybees do not have fathers but can have
2.
grandfathers.
In most ecosystems, biomass pyramids are upright, but Males are capable of producing sperm through meiosis
107 3.
like diploid organisms.
in the ocean, the pyramid of biomass is inverted. Why does
Males inherit an X chromosome from the queen, leading
this occur? 4.
to sex determination.
Phytoplankton have low biomass but high productivity,
1.
allowing rapid energy transfer to higher trophic levels.
The biomass of zooplankton and fish is constantly
2.
decreasing, leading to an imbalance.
Oceanic consumers do not depend on phytoplankton for
3.
their energy needs.
Marine ecosystems function differently, where energy
4.
transfer is highly inefficient.

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112 Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is used as an 117 Mendel’s research remained unrecognized until 1900.
indicator of water pollution. What does a high BOD value What was the main reason why his work was initially ignored
indicate about a water sample? by the scientific community?
1. The water is low in organic matter and is safe for drinking. His experiments lacked statistical analysis, making them
1.
There is a high amount of organic waste, leading to difficult to interpret.
2.
increased microbial oxygen consumption. His research focused on genetic variation in humans,
2.
The oxygen levels in the water are high, supporting which was not widely accepted at the time.
3.
aquatic life. His concept of stable and discrete factors contradicted the
3.
The water has no microbial activity, making it free from widely accepted theory of blended inheritance.
4.
contamination. His use of Drosophila melanogaster instead of plants was
4.
considered unreliable.
113 When a species is endangered or at high risk of
118 Identify the correct statement about the endodermis in a
extinction, why is ex situ conservation considered a better
approach? dicot root:
It involves protecting species in their natural habitat, Endodermal cells are barrel-shaped and lack intercellular
1. 1.
preventing ecosystem disturbances. spaces.
It removes species from their habitat and protects them in 2. The endodermis is the outermost layer of the root cortex.
2. controlled environments like botanical gardens or seed The Casparian strips in endodermal cells are made of
banks. 3.
lignin.
It allows conservationists to introduce new, genetically The Casparian strips allow free movement of water across
3. 4.
modified species into ecosystems. the endodermis.
It eliminates natural selection, ensuring the survival of
4.
weaker species. 119 Drosophila melanogaster was chosen as a model
organism for genetic studies due to several advantages. Which
114 Water plays a crucial role in plant growth by: characteristic does not contribute to its suitability for genetic
Acting as a solvent for enzyme-catalysed metabolic experiments?
1.
reactions essential for growth. They can be grown on simple synthetic medium in the
1.
2. Providing direct energy required for cell enlargement. laboratory.
3. Inhibiting turgidity to control excessive cell expansion. 2. They complete their life cycle in about two years.
Replacing oxygen in aerobic respiration to enhance ATP A single mating can produce a large number of progeny
4. 3.
production. fly.
4. There is a clear differentiation of the sexes.
115 Which of the following statements is incorrect about a
120 Rudolf Virchow modified Schleiden and Schwann’s cell
dicot seed?
1. The seed coat consists of two layers: testa and tegmen. theory by adding a crucial principle. What key addition did he
2. The micropyle is a small pore above the hilum. make?
3. The radicle and plumule are part of the embryonal axis. 1. Cells arise spontaneously from non-living matter.
In castor seeds, the endosperm is absent in the mature 2. Cells are only composed of non-cellular products.
4. Cells can be created artificially under laboratory
seed. 3.
conditions.
116 The number of mitochondria per cell varies depending 4. All cells arise from pre-existing cells.
on the cell’s metabolic activity. What could be inferred about a
121 Gibberellins increase sugarcane yield by:
cell with an unusually high number of mitochondria?
1. It is likely engaged in high energy-demanding processes. Stimulating chlorophyll production, leading to higher
1.
2. It relies primarily on glycolysis for energy production. photosynthesis.
3. It has a decreased rate of oxidative phosphorylation. 2. Directly converting starch into sucrose in the leaves.
4. It is undergoing rapid mitotic division. Accelerating root growth, leading to increased water
3.
absorption.
Increasing stem length, thus enhancing the storage of
4.
sugars.

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122 Which of the following protists are the chief producers 127 Match each item in Column-I with one in Column-II
in oceans? and select the correct match from the codes given:
1. Diatoms Column-I Column-II
2. Dinoflagellates [mRNA Codon] [Amino acid]
3. Euglenoids (a) UGG (i) Stop codon
4. Blue green algae
(b) GUG (ii) Valine
During intense exercise, when oxygen supply is (c) UGA (iii) Tyrosine
123
(d) UAC (iv) Tryptophan
insufficient for cellular respiration, pyruvic acid is converted
to lactic acid. Why is this conversion necessary? Options:
1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
1. It provides additional ATP for muscle contraction.
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
It regenerates NAD⁺, allowing glycolysis to continue in 3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
2.
anaerobic conditions. 4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
It prevents muscle fatigue by reducing lactate
3.
accumulation. 128 How have life history traits of different species evolved
It acts as a long-term energy storage mechanism in muscle according to ecologists?
4.
cells.
They have evolved randomly, without any influence from
1.
the environment.
124 Which structural characteristic of DNA ensures uniform
They are shaped by abiotic and biotic factors in the
distance between the two strands of the helix? 2. habitat, determining reproductive strategies and survival
The presence of a phosphodiester bond in the sugar- mechanisms.
1.
phosphate backbone. They are identical across all species, as evolution follows
3.
The anti-parallel arrangement of the two polynucleotide a single path.
2.
strands. They only evolve in response to predation pressure, not
4.
The presence of base stacking interactions between other ecological constraints.
3.
nitrogenous bases.
The pairing of a purine with a pyrimidine through 129 ATP is often referred to as the energy currency of the
4.
hydrogen bonding. cell. What is the primary reason that ATP, rather than direct
oxidation of substrates, is used for energy transfer in cellular
125 Golgi apparatus plays a crucial role in modifying and processes?
packaging cellular components. What important biomolecules ATP allows controlled and stepwise release of energy,
1.
are synthesized within the Golgi complex? preventing damage to the cell.
1. Nucleic acids Direct oxidation of substrates is more efficient but ATP is
2. Glycoproteins and glycolipids 2.
required for stability.
3. Phospholipids and triglycerides ATP stores energy indefinitely and does not require
4. Ribosomal proteins 3.
continuous synthesis.
During the S-phase of the cell cycle, the amount of Cellular respiration does not release energy unless ATP is
126 4.
present.
DNA in a diploid (2n) cell doubles from 2C to 4C. However,
the chromosome number remains unchanged. What explains Unlike eukaryotic cells, prokaryotes lack a membrane-
130
this phenomenon?
bound nucleus. How is DNA organized in prokaryotes like E.
Each chromosome replicates to form two identical
1. coli?
chromatids without increasing the chromosome count.
Prokaryotic DNA is scattered throughout the cytoplasm
DNA replication occurs only in a portion of the genome, 1.
2. without any organization.
keeping the chromosome number constant.
The DNA is held in a nucleoid region, where it is
Chromosomes undergo recombination, increasing the total
3. 2. associated with positively charged proteins forming large
DNA content but not the number of chromosomes.
loops.
The S-phase leads to chromosome duplication, increasing
4. DNA is stored in linear chromosomes, similar to
the chromosome count from 2n to 4n. 3.
eukaryotes, but in the absence of a nuclear membrane.
Prokaryotic DNA is single-stranded and does not interact
4.
with proteins for structural organization.

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131 Double fertilization is unique to flowering plants and 135 Why are the plants produced through micropropagation
involves two different fusion events. What happens to the two called somaclones?
male gametes released into the embryo sac during this They are genetically identical to the original plant as they
process? 1.
arise from single somatic cells.
One fertilizes the egg cell, while the other degenerates They contain genetic variations due to recombination
1. 2.
after fertilization. during tissue culture.
One fertilizes the egg cell, and the other fuses with two They result from hybridization between different plant
2. 3.
polar nuclei to form the primary endosperm nucleus. species.
Both fertilize the egg cell, leading to the formation of twin 4. They develop only from seeds, ensuring genetic stability.
3.
embryos.
One fuses with the synergid, while the other unites with 136 The respiratory system consists of a conducting part and
4.
the egg nucleus to form a diploid zygote.
an exchange part. What is the primary function of the
conducting part?
132 In a typical dicotyledonous embryo, different regions of
It facilitates diffusion of gases between the blood and
the embryonal axis play distinct roles in early development. 1.
alveoli.
Identify the correct statements: It transports air to the alveoli while filtering, humidifying,
The portion of embryonal axis above the level of 2.
I: and warming it.
cotyledons is hypocotyl which terminates at the shoot tip. It actively absorbs oxygen from inhaled air and expels
The portion of embryonal axis below the level of 3.
II: carbon dioxide.
cotyledons is epicotyl which terminates at the root tip. 4. It directly participates in gas exchange at the tissue level.
1. Only I
2. Only II Given below are two statements :
3. Both I and II
137
4. Neither I nor II All vertebrates including human develop a row
Statement of vestigial gill slit just behind the head but it is
133 Why do wind-pollinated plants such as grasses produce I: a functional organ in all vertebrates except
mammals.
large feathery stigmas and lightweight, non-sticky pollen
grains? Statement Karl Ernst von Baer noted that embryos never
II: pass through the adult stages of other animals.
1. To increase the chances of self-pollination within a flower.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
To maximize pollen capture from air currents for
2. answer from the options given below :
successful fertilization.
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
3. To ensure pollination only occurs when insects are absent.
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
To promote the formation of larger and more colourful
4. 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
flowers that attract pollinators.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
134 Which layer of the cell envelope of a bacterial cell
provides a strong structural support to prevent the bacterium
from bursting or collapsing?
1. Slime layer of glycocalyx
2. Capsule
3. Cell wall
4. Plasma membrane

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138 The structure shown in the given figure: 141 The Miller-Urey experiment simulated early Earth
conditions to test the hypothesis of abiotic origin of life. What
was the most significant outcome of this experiment?
It proved that life originated spontaneously from inorganic
1.
matter in a laboratory setting.
It confirmed that DNA was the first molecule to form in
2.
early life evolution.
It showed that methane and ammonia could directly self-
3.
replicate under high temperatures.
It demonstrated that simple organic molecules like amino
4.
acids could form under prebiotic conditions.

142 Given below are two statements :

All animals with bilateral symmetry are
Statement I:
triploblastic.
Statement All animals with bilateral symmetry may not
II: have a coelom.
1. Is called as the Malpighian tubule In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below :
2. Is the site of ultrafiltration
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
3. Represents juxta-glomerular apparatus
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
4. Is responsible for secretion of ANF
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Identify the correctly matched pair: 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
139
Abbreviation Full form
143 The given figure shows the zwitter ion configuration of:
1. ART Artificial Reproductive Technologies
2. ZIFT Zygote Internal Fertility Treatment
3. ICSI Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection
4. IVF Intrafallopian Vitro Fertilization

140 Spermatogenesis begins at puberty due to increased

secretion of GnRH, which stimulates the anterior pituitary to
release LH and FSH. What would be the most immediate
effect of a mutation that prevents LH secretion in a developing
male? 1. Valine 2. Serine
Leydig cells fail to produce androgens, leading to 3. Alanine 4. Gycine
1.
impaired spermatogenesis.
Sertoli cells stop supporting sperm maturation, preventing
2.
spermiogenesis.
Testosterone production remains unaffected due to
3.
alternative signaling pathways.
The anterior pituitary compensates by increasing GnRH
4.
secretion, restoring normal spermatogenesis.

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144 Match each item in Column-I with one in Column-II 147 Match each item in Column-I with one in Column-II
and select the correct match from the codes given: and select the correct match from the codes given:
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
(a) Mutualism (i) Lichens [Disease] [Mode of transmission]
(b) Commensalism (ii) Lion hunting a deer (a) Dengue (i) Vector borne
(c) Predation (iii) Cattle egret and grazing cattle Common
(b) (ii) Droplet
Cuscuta found growing on hedge cold
(d) Parasitism (iv) (c) Ascariasis (iii) Contaminated food and water
plants
Visiting flamingos and resident Direct contact with infected person or
(e) Competition (v) (d) Ringworm (iv)
fishes in South American lakes objects
Options:
Options: 1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv), (e) –(v) 2. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(i), (e) –(ii) 3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v), (e) –(iii) 4. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv), (e) –(v)
148 Given below are two statements one is labelled as
145 Malaria is caused by Plasmodium, which enters the Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
human body through the bite of an infected female Anopheles Assertion The external ear (pinna) is present but reduced
mosquito. What is the primary reason for the recurring fever (A): in size in frogs.
in malaria? The ear functions as both a hearing and an
Reason (R):
Plasmodium releases toxins directly into the bloodstream equilibrium organ in frogs.
1.
at regular intervals. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
The parasite multiplies in RBCs, causing their rupture and from the options given below:
2.
releasing haemozoin, which triggers fever cycles. 1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
The immune system produces excess cytokines, causing Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not correctly
3. 2.
inflammation and fever. explain (A).
The liver produces excess bile, leading to high body 3. (A) is True, (R) is False.
4.
temperature fluctuations. 4. (A) is False, (R) is True

146 How does Angiotensin II regulate blood pressure and How many of the given statements are correct?
149
kidney function? I: Bacillus thuringiensis [Bt] is a bio-insecticide.
It increases glomerular blood pressure and stimulates
1. During a particular phase of their life, many Bt strains
aldosterone release. II:
produce crystal proteins.
2. It inhibits sodium reabsorption in the nephron.
III: Most Bt toxins are insect-group specific.
3. It reduces cardiac output to lower blood pressure. 1. Only one
4. It directly causes vasodilation, reducing blood pressure. 2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

150 Proteins are organized into four structural levels, with

primary structure referring to the:
sequence of amino acids i.e., the positional information in
1.
a protein.
structure known as the alpha helix and the beta pleated
2.
sheets.
hollow woolen ball like structure formed by folding of
3.
polypeptide chain
structure of a protein formed by assembly of more than
4.
one polypeptide subunit.

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151 The Na⁺/K⁺ pump maintains resting membrane potential 155 Cnidarians exist in two basic body forms: polyp and
by: medusa. Some cnidarians, like Obelia, alternate between these
1. Pumping 2 Na⁺ out and 3 K⁺ in to maintain neutrality. two forms in a process called metagenesis. In this process:
Using facilitated diffusion to transport sodium and 1. Polyps reproduce sexually, forming medusae.
2.
potassium. 2. Medusae reproduce asexually, forming polyps.
Allowing equal passive diffusion of both ions across the Medusae reproduce sexually, forming polyps, while
3. 3.
membrane. polyps reproduce asexually, forming medusae.
4. Pumping 3 Na⁺ out and 2 K⁺ in, per ATP hydrolysed. 4. Both polyps and medusae reproduce asexually.

152 HIV primarily targets the immune system by reducing 156 Parturition is controlled by a neuroendocrine reflex,
the number of helper T lymphocytes. Why does this lead to involving oxytocin release in response to uterine contractions.
increased susceptibility to infections? How does oxytocin reinforce the process of childbirth?
Helper T cells directly kill pathogens, and their loss makes It suppresses progesterone secretion, allowing uterine
1. 1.
it easier for infections to spread. contractions to intensify.
HIV suppresses bone marrow function, leading to fewer It causes cervical dilation by directly acting on fetal
2. 2.
white blood cells being produced. tissues.
HIV directly destroys red blood cells, making oxygen It inhibits maternal stress hormones to ensure smooth
3. 3.
transport inefficient. delivery.
Helper T cells coordinate the immune response, and their It triggers stronger uterine contractions, which stimulate
4.
4. loss weakens immunity against bacteria, viruses, fungi, further oxytocin release.
and parasites.
157 Certain cry genes (e.g., cryIAc, cryIIAb, cryIAb) are
153 The ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay)
used in genetically modified crops like Bt cotton and Bt corn.
test is widely used for detecting infections. What is the What is the primary function of these cry genes in pest-
fundamental principle behind ELISA? resistant crops?
It directly isolates pathogens from the blood, ensuring 1. They produce enzymes that degrade insect exoskeletons.
1.
rapid diagnosis. They encode toxin proteins that specifically kill certain
2.
It stimulates immune cells to attack pathogens, providing insect larvae.
2.
immediate immunity. They induce rapid growth in plants, making them resistant
3.
It detects the presence of specific antigens or antibodies to pests.
3.
through antigen-antibody interactions. 4. They strengthen cell walls, preventing insect feeding.
It sequences the DNA of pathogens, identifying infections
4.
at the genetic level. 158 Given below are two statements:

Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs when an Rh-negative Statement Unlike angiosperms, gymnosperms have
154 I: flowers.
mother carries an Rh-positive foetus. What happens if this Statement Unlike pteridophytes, gymnosperms have a
condition is left untreated in a subsequent pregnancy? II: dominant genotypic generation.
The foetus may suffer from severe anaemia and jaundice In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
1.
due to maternal Rh antibodies attacking fetal RBCs. answer from the options given below:
The mother’s immune system remains unresponsive to 1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
2.
Rh-positive RBCs in subsequent pregnancies.
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
The foetus develops an overproduction of RBCs to
3. 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
counteract maternal antibodies.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
The condition only affects the first pregnancy, with no
4.
impact on later pregnancies.

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159 Adaptive radiation refers to the evolution of different 163 Restriction enzymes play a crucial role in genetic
species from a common ancestor due to different ecological engineering by cutting DNA at specific sites. Why are the
adaptations. Which of the following best represents adaptive overhanging ends generated by restriction enzymes called
radiation? sticky ends?
Darwin’s finches, where multiple species evolved from a They bind strongly to histones, making DNA packaging
1. 1.
single ancestral finch due to ecological specialization. more efficient.
The evolution of wings in bats and birds, which occurred They degrade quickly, ensuring DNA fragments do not
2. 2.
independently in different lineages. persist in the cell.
The similarity between dolphins and sharks, which They increase DNA stability, preventing further enzymatic
3. 3.
developed streamlined bodies for swimming. modifications.
The identical function of eyes in octopuses and humans, They have unpaired bases, which allow complementary
4. 4.
despite their different origins. sequences to form hydrogen bonds easily.

160 Bony fishes (Osteichthyes) differ from cartilaginous 164 Match each item in Column-I with one in Column-II
fishes in several ways. Which of the following is a key and select the correct match from the codes given:
characteristic of bony fishes? Column-I
Column-II
1. Gills covered by an operculum [Griffith
[Description]
2. Absence of an air bladder experiment]
3. Internal fertilization is common Virulent, had a
(a) Smooth (S) strain (i)
4. Placoid scales covering the body polysaccharide capsule
Non-virulent, lacked a
(b) Rough (R) strain (ii)
How many of the given statements are correct? capsule
161
Non-virulent, but could
I: All bacteria are autotrophic. (c) Heat-killed S strain (iii)
transform R strain
II: Bacteria can only survive on dead organic matter. R strain + Heat-killed Caused disease, proving
All bacterial cells are surrounded by a thick (d) (iv)
III: S strain transformation
peptidoglycan cell wall.
1. Only one Options:
2. Only two 1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3. All three 2. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
4. None 3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
162 Match each item in Column-I with one in Column-II
and select the correct match from the codes given: 165 Given below are two statements one is labelled as
Column-I Column-I Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
[Synovial joint] [Example] Assertion Transcription and translation can be coupled
(a) Saddle (i) Between carpals of the wrist (A): in bacteria.
(b) Pivot (ii) Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb Reason (R): The genetic code is nearly universal.
(c) Gliding (iii) Between atlas and axis (C1-C2) In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
(d) Ball and socket (iv) Hip joint from the options given below:
Options: 1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not correctly
2.
2. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) explain (A).
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) 3. (A) is True, (R) is False.
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) 4. (A) is False, (R) is True

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166 Why is ethidium bromide (EtBr) used in gel 170 Given below are two statements one is labelled as
electrophoresis for DNA visualization? Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
It binds to DNA and fluoresces under UV light, making Assertion It is difficult for biologists to determine the exact
1.
DNA fragments visible. (A): number of prokaryotic species.
It digests DNA fragments, breaking them into smaller Conventional taxonomical methods are not
2.
pieces. Reason suitable for identifying microbial species and
It stabilizes DNA, preventing degradation during (R): many prokaryotic species cannot be cultured in
3. laboratory conditions.
electrophoresis.
It acts as an enzyme that helps DNA move faster through In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
4. from the options given below:
the gel.
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
167 Enzymes follow a highly specific mechanism for Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not correctly
2.
explain (A).
catalysis. Which of the following is correct regarding the
catalytic cycle of an enzyme action? 3. (A) is True, (R) is False.
The enzyme rigidly binds to the substrate without altering 4. (A) is False, (R) is True
1.
its shape.
The binding of the substrate induces the enzyme to alter 171 The order of arrangement of flowers as shown in the
2.
its shape, fitting more tightly around the substrate. inflorescence shown in the given figure is termed as:
The enzyme increases activation energy to slow down
3.
unregulated reactions.
The substrate changes its shape to match the active site of
4.
the enzyme.

168 Oxyhaemoglobin formation and dissociation depend on

several physiological factors. Under which condition does
oxyhaemoglobin dissociate more readily?
High pO₂, low pCO₂, low H⁺ concentration, and low
1.
temperature
High pO₂, high pCO₂, high H⁺ concentration, and high 1. Acropetal order
2. 2. Basipetal order
temperature
3. Centripetal order
Low pO₂, high pCO₂, high H⁺ concentration, and high
3. 4. Random order
temperature
Low pO₂, low pCO₂, high H⁺ concentration, and low Which of the following is a major long-term effect of
4.
temperature
172
alcohol abuse?
Given below are two statements one is labelled as Increased testosterone levels, leading to hormonal
169 1.
imbalances.
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Permanent loss of muscle mass due to alcohol-induced
Assertion 2.
Meiosis I is a reductional division. dehydration.
(A):
Development of cirrhosis due to chronic damage to the
Centromere splits, leading to separation of 3.
Reason (R): liver.
sister chromatids during Anaphase I.
Strengthened immune system, making individuals less
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer 4.
prone to infections.
from the options given below:
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not correctly
2.
explain (A).
3. (A) is True, (R) is False.
4. (A) is False, (R) is True

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173 The human body has several immune barriers to protect 177 Match each item in Column-I with one in
against infections. How do cytokine barriers like interferons Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:
help in preventing viral infections? Column-I Column-II
They attack and destroy viruses directly, preventing their (a) First stable product in C3 plants (i) Mesophyll cells
1.
replication.
(b) First stable product in C4 plants (ii) PGA
They stimulate B-lymphocytes to produce antibodies
2. (c) Site of Calvin cycle in C3 plants (iii) OAA
against viruses.
They increase the production of white blood cells, Site of Calvin cycle fixation in C₄ Bundle sheath
3. (d) (iv)
strengthening the immune system. plants cells
They signal neighbouring uninfected cells, making them Options:
4. 1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
resistant to viral infection.
2. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
How does a frog primarily respire when submerged in 3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
174 4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
water?
1. Through lungs, as water contains dissolved oxygen 178 What causes the first heart sound (lub) during a
Through cutaneous respiration by diffusing gases via the heartbeat?
2.
skin Closure of the semilunar valves at the start of ventricular
3. Through buccal respiration by gulping air 1.
diastole
Through gill-like structures temporarily formed Opening of the semilunar valves to allow blood flow to
4. 2.
underwater the arteries
3. Rapid filling of the ventricles from the atria
175 The hypothalamus regulates both the anterior and
Closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves during
4.
posterior lobes of the pituitary, but the mechanisms of control ventricular systole
differ significantly. Which of the following statements best
describes the differences in hypothalamic control over these 179 During stress or emergency situations, the adrenal
two lobes?
medulla releases catecholamines. Which of the following is
The hypothalamus controls both lobes through direct not an effect of adrenaline/noradrenaline?
1. neural connections, with specialized neurons releasing
1. Increased heart rate and cardiac contraction strength
regulatory hormones into the bloodstream.
2. Vasodilation of blood vessels supplying skeletal muscles
The anterior pituitary is regulated via a hypothalamo-
2. hypophyseal portal system, while the posterior pituitary is 3. Decreased glycogen breakdown in liver cells
controlled by direct neurosecretory pathways. 4. Increased respiratory rate and alertness
The anterior pituitary releases hormones in response to
3. direct hypothalamic nerve impulses, whereas the posterior 180 What algae has been depicted in the given figure?
pituitary functions independently of hypothalamic signals.
The anterior pituitary receives hormonal signals through
4. blood circulation, while the posterior pituitary releases
hormones independently without hypothalamic influence.

176 The LH surge is critical for ovulation and occurs around

the 14th day of the menstrual cycle. What is the primary

functional consequence of a failure in LH surge?
Ovulation does not occur, leading to the formation of a
1.
persistent Graafian follicle.
The corpus luteum forms prematurely, resulting in 1. Laminaria 2. Fucus
2.
excessive progesterone secretion. 3. Polysiphonia 4. Volvox
Oogenesis is permanently halted, preventing further
3.
follicular maturation.
The uterus fails to prepare for implantation, but ovulation
4.
still occurs normally.

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