Exit Exam Model exam 2015

Choose the best answers and put your answers on the separate answer sheet provided.
Part I: Computer Maintenance and Technical Support Questions
1. Which process of the computer checks all your components during boot?

A. CMOS C. BIOS
B. POST D. Lithium battery

2. Which kind of socket incorporates “lands” to ensure connectivity to a CPU?

A. PGA C. LGA
B. Chipset D. Copper

3. Which of the following components could cause the POST to beep several times and fail
during boot?

A. Sound card C. Hard drive

B. Power supply D. RAM

4. Which of the following is the most secure file system in Windows?

A. ext4 C. NTFS
B. exFAT D. FAT32

5. A computer just had a memory upgrade installed. After the computer is booted, it does not
recognize the new memory, even though it is listed as being compatible on the
manufacturer’s website. Which of the following steps should be performed to resolve the
issue?

A. UEFI/BIOS update C. OS Update

B. Adjust jumper settings D. New CMOS battery

6. Which of the following is used by the CPU to communicate with system memory?

A. Southbridge C. Northbridge
B. BIOS D. PCIe
7. You just rebooted a PC and it displays a black screen with a white blinking underscore on
the top left. What is the most likely problem?
A. BIOS needs to be flashed.
B. Windows Recovery Environment is running.
C. PC is in Safe Mode.
D. Incorrect boot order.
8. Which component supplies power to the CMOS when the computer is off?

A. Lithium battery C. Power supply

B. POST D. BIOS

9. Which of the following is the fastest cache memory?

A. L2 C. DRAM
B. L3 D. L1

10. Which of the following represents the speed of the CPU?

A. TDP C. Internal clock speed

B. Cache D. Bus speed

11. Which of the following devices is hot-swappable?

A. RAID
B. Tape drive
C. Hard drive
D. DVD drive
Part II: Fundamentals of Database Question
1. Which one of the following is FALSE about Relational Database
A. There should be no duplicate tuple in a relation.
B. A single cell can hold multiple values.
C. All the data in a column should be from the same domain
D. In a database having more than one relation, ach relation should have a
relationship with at least one other relation.
2. “The foreign Key value of an attribute must much a value of the primary key column in
the related table or otherwise it must be NULL.” This statement implies for
____________________ constraint
A. Entity Integrity Constraints
B. Referential Integrity Constraint
C. Relationship Constraint
D. Domain Constraint
3. In normalization term, if non-key attribute depends on another non-key attribute the
dependency is called _____________
A. Functional Dependency C. Transitive Dependency
B. Normal Form D. None
4. If a relation doesn’t have functional dependence but it contains transitive dependencies,
the relation is in _______ Normal Form.
A. 1NF C. 2NF
B. 3NF D. NF
5. Which one of the following is a derived attribute?
A. Salary C. Birth_date
B. Age D. Address
Stud_id First_name Last_name Sex CGPA
107 Getachew Yiheyis M 2.82
113 Mesfin Negesse M 3.51
106 Leyla Endris F 3.21
109 Edlawit Amare F 2.37
Table1: Student Relation
 6. Given above the relation student, which SQL query is used to select all female students
whose Cummulative_GPA is greater than 3.0.
A. Select sex=’F’ from student where CGPA>3.0
B. Select * from student where sex=’F’ and CGPA>3.0;
C. Select * students from where sex=’F’ AND CGPA>3.0;
D. Select * from student where sex=’F’ & CGPA>3.0;
Given the relation for EMPLOYEE and DEPARTMENT
EMPLOYEE DEPARTMENT

DeptNo DeptName BlockNo

EmpId EmpName Emp_DeptNo
1 IT 3
5 Chumete 300 0 0
5 0 1
5
6 Wabel 200 2 IS 3
6 a 0 0
6 0 2

7. A relational algebra operator applied to tables of 3 CS 303

EMPLOYEE and DEPARTMENT produces the 0
table shown below. 0
Em Emp Emp_D Dep Dept Bloc
pId Name eptNo tNo Name kNo
55Chu 3 30 C 30
mete 0 S 3
0

66 W 2 20 I 30
a 0 S 2
b 0
e
l
a
The operator applied to obtain the above table is:
A. Join operator
B. Cross product operator
C. Intersection operator
D. Union operator

8. Which one of the following is FALSE about Relational Database

A. There should be no duplicate tuple in a relation.
 B. A single cell can hold multiple values.
C. All the data in a column should be from the same domain
D. Every relation should have a Primary Key.
9. Which one of the following is not the advantage of Database approach of data handling
compared with file-based approach?
A. Data can be shared
B. Data dependency
C. A higher data integrity
D. None
10. ______________ defines the tables, the attributes of each table and the relationships
between the tables in the database.
A. Relational instance
B. Relational Schema
C. Database Schema
D. Database Instance

Part III: Data Communication and Computer Networks Questions

1. As you learnt in data communication and networking class there are seven layers for OSI
model. Which one of the following layers is responsible to decide the transmission
protocol?
A. Presentation C. Transport
B. Network layer D. Session
2. 192.168.1.129/26 is IP address from 192.168.1.0/24. 192.168.1.129/26 is?
A. Host address in Subnet3 C. Host address in Subnet1
B. Network id for Subnet3 D. network id for Subnet2
3. Which one of the following multiple access protocol types is deals about no station is
superior to another station and none is assigned the control over another?
A. Controlled access protocol
B. Random access protocol
C. Channelization protocol
D. None
4. You need to subnet a network that has 6 subnets, each with at least 24 hosts. Which
classful subnet mask would you use?
A. 255.255.255.192 C. 255.255.255.240
B. 255.255.255.248 D. 255.255.255.224
5. The network address of 172.16.0.0/20 provides how many subnets and hosts?
A. 8 subnets, 4,094 hosts each C. 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each
B. 16 subnets, 4,094 hosts each D. 16 subnets, 8,094 hosts each
6. Which of the following if incorrect about TCP?
A. Connection oriented C. Bandwidth reserved
B. Connection establishment D. Connectionless
 7. Suppose you and your best friend talks on messaging application and man in the middle
modifies the message. Which one of the network security elements compromised?
A. Confidentiality C. Availability
B. Integrity D. Authentication
8. In Asymmetric key cryptography how can we send the plaintext to receiver?
A. By encrypting the plaintext with receiver private key
B. By encrypting the plaintext with sender private key
C. By encrypting the plaintext with receiver public key
D. By encrypting the plaintext with sender public key
9. Which one of the following types of network topology takes high cables to connect and
redundant paths are built in?
A. Mesh C. Star
B. Bus D. Ring
10. If we say circuit switching is better than packet switching because of?
A. Have overhead C. Fixed bandwidth
B. Dynamic bandwidth D. Transmission delay

Part IV: Advanced Database System Questions

1. The only way to undo the effects of a committed transaction is to execute a ____________
A. Undo transaction C. Redo transaction
B. Compensating transaction D. None of these
2. Which of the following statements results in making all the changes made by the transaction
permanent in the database?
A. COMMIT C. ROLLBACK
B. ABORT D. None of these
3. The ARIES algorithm is based on the principle of ____________________.
A. Write-ahead logging
B. Logging changes during undo
C. Repeating history during redo
D. All of these
4. The person who is responsible for the overall security of the database system is _______.
A. Programmer C. Database administrator
B. Database users D. All of these
5. A database log, that is used for security purposes is called ____________________
A. Database audit C. Transaction log
B. Audit trail D. None of these
6. Among the type of failure which one is belongs to failure happens due to the bugs in
software or by hardware failure etc.
A. Disk Failure C. System Crash
B. Transaction Failure D. None of the above
7. Which of the following isolation level allows more concurrency than the others?
A. Read uncommitted C. Repeatable read
B. Read committed D. Serializable
8. Which one of the following is not the main components of query tree?
 A. Leaf Node
B. Constant Node
C. Root Node
D. Internal Nodes
9. ________________ identifies the query tokens such as SQL keywords, attribute names, and
relation names that appear in the text of the query.
A. Query Tree
B. Code Generator
C. Query Optimizer
D. Scanne
10. Which one of the following is wrong about checkpoints?
A. The whole log has not to be searched
B. Stop accepting new transactions
C. Wait until all current transactions complete
D. It allows accepting new transactions

Part V: Fundamentals of Programming I

1. Which one of the following is NOT a valid variable name?

A. Sum_ C. Sum/
B. Sum# D. none

2 What is the value of noOfPeoples?

int noOfBoys = 10;
int noOfGirls = 6;
int noOfPeoples = ++noOfBoys + noOfGirls + --noOfBoys;
A. 28 C. 27
B. 26 D. 29

3. Which statement causes a program to stop the iteration of a loop?

A. continue C. goto
B. jump D. break
4. String [] jobs = {“student", “farmer", “engineer",” economist”};

What is the value of jobs [2]?

A. student C. engineer
B. farmer D. economist
 5. What are the four primitive integer data types?
A. double, short, int, long C. short, int, long,
char
byte, short, int, long D. byte, short, int, String

Part VI: Fundamentals of Programming II

Part VII: System Analysis and Design

Part VII: Advanced Programming
6. _______ is a type of unchecked exception in which it was raised during
method called when class is in improper state?

A. NullPointerException C. SocketException
B. IllegalArgumentException D.
IllegalStateException
7. ________ is a type of Exception in which it is usually occur because of
errors programmer cannot control?

A. Unchecked exception C.
NullPointerException
B. Checked Exceptions D. None
8. _________ in Java is an easy-to-use visual experience builder for Java
applications?

A. GUI C. JFC
B. API D. All
9. Answer the question number 9 using the following figure.
 A a

On the above figure “a” locates to?

A. JMenuBar C. JMenuItem
B. JMenu D. None
________ 10. What is the output of the following program?
class Mango {
String color;
double price;
Mango (String color, double price) {
this.color = color;
this.price = price;
}
Mango (double price) {
this ("red", price);
}
Mango m = new Mango ("yellow", 50.0);
String getColor () {
System.out.println(m.getColor());
return color;}

System.out.println(m.getPrice());
m.setPrice(25.0);

System.out.println(m.getPrice());

Mango b = new Mango (100.0);

System.out.println(b.getColor());

System.out.println(b.getPrice());

b.setPrice(m.getPrice());

System.out.println(b.getPrice());

A. yellow B. red C. yellow D.

None
50.0 25.0 25.0
25.0 50.0 50.0
red yellow red
100.0 25.0 25.0
25.0 100.0 100.0

Part VIII: Internet Programming I

Part X: Internet Programming II
Part XI: Netwrok Device and Configuration
Part XII: Multimedia Systems
Part XIII: Event Driven Programming

Event Driven Questions for Model Exit Exam

1. In C#, the segment of code which is executed during the occurrence of some events is
called ______________
A. Event listner C. Event
B. Event Handler D. Event driver
2. Which one of the following is TRUE about Rapid Application Development (RAD)?
A. It lacks extensive pre-planning
B. It involves iterative development
 C. It includes the use of Database Management System tools.
D. All
3. Which one is False about .NET framework
A. It supports web application development
B. Microsoft Intermediate Language (MSIL) is one of its features
C. It supports multiple programming languages
D. It is a programming language by itself
4. In GUI programming environments like C# _________ control is used to invoke
some action on the occurrence of an event.
A. textBox C. button
B. comboBox D. None
5. Which one of the following is not an Even in C# programming language?
A. Leave C. KeyUp
B. KeyPress D. Load
6. Given a segment of C# code
int result = (int)a + (int)b;

The type-conversion used is called ________________

A. implicit type conversion
B. explicit type conversion
C. variable declaration
D. None
7. When you write the code “textBox1.Text”, Text is called _________ of textBox1.
A. Property C. Method
B. Event D. Value
8. Which property of a label control is used to change it’s text color.
A. Label1.ForeColor C. Label1.Back-color
B. Label1.Text-color D. Label1.Font-color
9. Which C# control is used to group controls
A. groupBox C. Form
B. Panel D. All

Given the following C# User interface and it’s description

Description of the given c# interface

The Text Box for Num1 is “textBox1”
The Text Box for Num2 is “textBox2”
The label for result is “label1”
The button for Add is “button1”
The button for Subtract is “button2”
 10. The correct c# code to calculate the sum of two numbers provided on textbox1 and
textbox2 and display their sum on label1 is
a. label1.value = textBox1.Value + textBox2.value;
b. label1.text=textBox1.Text. +textBox2.Text;
c. label1.value = textBox1.toString() +textBox2.toString();
d. label1.text=(int.parse(textbox1.text)+int.parse(textBox2.text)).toString();

Part XIV: Network and System Administration

1. Which one of the following is correct about the difference between system administration
and network administration.
A. System administration is that computer field which involves computer systems and
networks whereas Network administration is the field which involves the operation and
maintenance of computer hardware and software along with network.
B. Network Administrator oversees the network (a group of computers connected together),
while a System Administrator is in charge of the computer systems.
C. A and B
D. None
2. Which statement define the main activities of a Network Administrator
A. Installing and configuring individual workstations
B. Maintaining network documentation
C. Troubleshooting hardware, software, connectivity, and server issues
D. All

3. What are the system requirements of domain controller?

A. processor
B. RAM
C. Network adapter
D. all

4. Which one of the following is not active directory service?

 A. Domain Services (DS)
B. Lightweight Directory Services (LDS)
C. Rights Management Services (RMS)
D. none

5. Which statement define Network Address Translation (NAT) correctly?

A. Is the process where a network device, usually a firewall, assigns a public address to a
computer (or group of computers) inside a private network.
B. Is a type of network wherein anyone, namely the general public, has access and through it
can connect to other networks or the Internet.
C. Is any connection within a specified network wherein restrictions are established to
promote a secured environment.
D. A and B
6. Which of the following is the most appropriate scenario where you would want to install a
read-only domain controller?
A. In a branch office where physical security might be less than optimum.
B. In the head office near the receptionist’s desk.
C. In the server room where the forest root domain is located and you need an optimum
location for the schema master and domain naming master.
D. In a branch office server room where you need to place the infrastructure master, RID
master, and PDC emulator close to clients requiring their services.

7. The main purpose of Active Directory is to ________.

A. Provide authentication and authorization to users and computers.

B. Provide File and Print services.
C. Give administrators the ability to control access to restricted hardware.
D. Allow users to organize their file systems into a cohesive and high performance
directory.

8. Why remote administration is needed?

A. To administer the ICT infrastructure

 B. Editing another computer’s Registry settings
C. A and B
D. Needed for security

9. If you wanted to require that a user enter an Administrator password to perform administrative
tasks, what type of user account should you create for the user?

A. Administrator User account

B. Standard User account
C. Power User account
D. Authenticated User account

10. You want to create roaming profiles for users in the sales department. They frequently log on
at computers in a central area. The profiles should be configured as mandatory and roaming
profiles. Which users are able to manage mandatory profiles on Windows computers?

A. The user who uses the profile

B. Server operators
C. Power users
D. Administrators

Part XIIV: Information Assurance and Security

1. The three primary methods for authenticating users to a system or
network are.
A. Passwords, tokens, and biometrics.
B. Authorization, identification, and tokens.
C. Passwords, encryption, and identification.
D. Identification, encryption, and authorization.
2. When downloading software from Internet, why do vendors publish MD5
hash values when they provide software to customers?
A. Recipients can verify the software’s integrity after downloading.
 B. Recipients can confirm the authenticity of the site from which they
are downloading the patch.
C. Recipients can request future updates to the software by using the
assigned hash value.
D. Recipients need the hash value to successfully activate the new
software.
3. The practice of embedding a message in a document, image, video or
sound recording so that its very existence is hidden is called.
A. Anonymity.
B. Steganography.
C. Cryptography.
D. Data diddling.
4. Which one of the following is used protect your organization against
cybercrime?
A. Educate all levels of your organization about the risks of social
engineering and common social engineering scams like phishing
emails and typo squatting
B. Invest in tools that limit information loss, monitor your third-party risk
and fourth-party vendor risk and continuously scan for data exposure
and leak credentials
C. Use technology to reduce costs like automatically sending out vendor
assessment questionnaires as part of an overall cyber security risk
assessment strategy
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
5. Reference monitor requires which of the following conditions?
A. Policy, mechanism and assurance
B. Isolation, layering and abstraction
C. Isolation, completeness and verifiability
D. Confidentiality, availability and integrity
6. In which common threats to e-mail systems does attacker use rather than
hack into a system, an attacker can use e-mail to gather sensitive
information from an organization‘s users or get users to perform actions
that further an attack in which one person or program successfully
masquerades as another by falsifying the sender information shown in e-
mails to hide the true origin.
A. Malware
B. Spam and Phishing
C. Social Engineering
D. Email Bombing
7. Which one of the following NOT is capability of firewalls?
A. A firewall defines a single choke point that keeps unauthorized
users out of the protected network, prohibits potentially vulnerable
services from entering or leaving the network, and provides
protection from various kinds of IP spoofing and routing attacks.
B. A firewall provides a location for monitoring security related events.
C. A firewall is a convenient platform for several internet functions that
are not security related.
D. A firewall cannot serve as the platform for IPsec.
8. Since, the hash value of first message block becomes an input to the
second hash operation, output of which alters the result of the third
operation, and so on. This effect is known as_____
A. Seed value effect of hashing C. Avalanche effect
of hashing
B. Hash value effect of hashing D. Message Digest
effect of hashing
9. If Hawi wants to send a confidential message to Abebe. She encrypts the message using
Abebe’s public key and Send the message. Abebe will then decode it using his own private
key. If Abebe needs to make sure that a message sent by Hawi really comes from her, how
can he make that?
A. Using Public-key Cryptosystem
 B. Using Digital Signature
C. Using Private-key Cryptosystem
D. Using Security Associations
10. Muktar and Mifta when to communicate through secure communication
channel. Then. If Muktar used public key 17 for encryption of the message
and Mifta used private key 15 for decryption messages. So, which
cryptography type is used in the communication?
A. Asymmetric key cryptography
B. Symmetric key cryptography
C. Private key cryptography
D. Conventional key cryptography

XV: System Analysis and Design

1. Which of the following is a mechanism that allows several objects in a class
hierarchy to have different methods with the same name?
A. Aggregation
B. Polymorphism
C. Inheritance
D. All of the mentioned
2. Which of the following is a disadvantage of OOD?
A. Easier maintenance
B. Objects may be understood as stand-alone entities
C. Objects are potentially reusable components
D. None of the mentioned
3. Assume you are a programmer and you decide to develop software using
java programming language and you decide to implement it on window
operating system about which requirement you are done with?
A. Pseudo requirement
B. Functional requirement
C. Nonfunctional requirement
D. Requirement elicitation
4. Read the following description. “Customers of the garage can buy cars.
Customers with a bad credit should pay an extra down payment”. Which of
the following diagrams represent this description?

Buy a car Buy a car

Customer «extend» Customer «extend»

Pay an extra Pay an extra

down payment down payment

A. B.

Buy a car Buy a car

Customer «include» Customer «include»
Pay an extra Pay an extra
down payment down payment

C. D.
5. Class diagrams are used to represent the structure of a system in terms of:
A. Objects D. Operations
B. Attributes E. All of the above
C. Relationships

6. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. Cohesion is the degree of relatedness of an encapsulated unit (such
as a component or a class)
B. Aggregation relationships b/n two classes or components defined as
"is part of"
C. Persistent object is an object not saved to permanent storage
D. Superclass is a class from which another class inherits
7. Which of the following statement is true for the following diagram

A. A is a kind of B
B. B is a kind of B
C. A is part of B
 D. B depends on A
E. None of the above
8. From the following is which one is false about the decision node in
activity diagram?
A. Passes control to one of two outputs
B. Is noted as a diamond with one incoming and multiple outgoing
edges.
C. Specifies the direction of the control flow with guard conditions
D. Is noted as an oval shape with one input and one output
9. Which of the following statement is true regarding verification?
A. Performed by an independent test team
B. Checking that we are building the right system
C. Making sure that it is what the user wants
D. Checking that we are building the system right
10. Which of the following specifies how many instances of one class may
relate to a single instance of an associated class?
A. Multiplicity
B. Association
C. Degree
D. None of the above