KGMU-Feb.

2025

M-018M

MBBS THIRD PROFESSIONAL PART-II EXAMINATION- 2025

MEDICINE

Paper I
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks- 100

Note: Atempt all questions in serial order. Answer Section-A &Section-B in separate answer books. All parts of
aquestion should be answered together. Illustrate your answer wilth suitable diagram where requred.
Figures in parenthesis indicate marks allotted to a question,

Section-A

A45-year-old male presents with chest pain radiating to the left arm, sweating (15)
and nausea. He has a history of hypertension and smoking. Discuss the
differential diagnosis, inyestigations and management plan.
Q2. Write short notes on: (5x5)
a) Describe the pathophysiology and clinical features of rheumatic heart
disease.
b) Outline the management of a patient with acute myocardial infarction.
c) Discuss the diagnostic criteria and treatment of sepsis.
d) Write a short note on the clinical features and management of dengue
fever.
e) Explain the complications and management of diabetes mellitus.
Q3. Ten Múltiple Choice Questions: (10x1)
1/Which of the following is a common cause of infective endocarditis?
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Escherichia coli
c) Klebsiella pneumoniae
dy Pseudomonas aeruginosa
w2. What is the hallmark of pericardial tamponade?
a) Kussmaul's sign
b) Beck's triad
c) Pulsus paradoxus
Pericardial rub
33A 50-year-old male with fever and pancytopenia is diagnosed with
Kala-azar. Which diagnostic test is most specific?
a) Bone marrow aspiration V
b) Serological test for antibodies
c) Splenic aspiration
PCR for Leishmaniadonovani
)Which of the following is an early complication of acute myocardial
infarction?
a) Cardiogenic shock
b) Ventricular aneurysm
c) Pericarditis
d) Left ventricular thrombus
 KGMU-Fcb 2
53 What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia?
a) Iron deficiency anemia
b) Vitamin B12 deficigncyeht
c) Aplastic anemia
dy Hemolytic anemia
Which drug is the first-line treatment for hypertensiveemergencies?
a) Labetalol
b) Enalapril
c) Furosemide
Clonidine
A patient presents with fever, headache, and rash. What is the most
likely diagnosis if the patient has recently traveled to an area endemic
to typhus?
a) Typhoid fever
b) Malaria
c) Typhus
d) Leptospirosis
8. Which of the following is a feature of nephrotic
a) Proteinuria >3.5 g/day syndrome?
b) Hematuria
c) Hyperkalemia
d) Hypocalcemia
9. What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism worldwide?
a) lodine deficiency
b) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
c) Post-thyroidectomy
d) Drug-induced
Which of the following is essential for effective communication with
patients?
a) Empathy
b) Knowledge
c) Authority
d) Directiveness

Section-B

A35-year-old female presents with jaundice, abdominal pain, and ascites. She (15)
has a history of chronic alcohol use, Discuss. the likely diagnosis,
investigations, and management.
Q2. Short essay questions: (5x5)
a) Describe the clinical features and complications of amoebic liver
absess.
b) Discuss the diagnostic approach to a patient with chronic diarrhea.
c) Outline the management of rheumatoid arthritis.
d) Write a short note on the pathophysiology and treatment of
cerebrovascular accidents.
e) Explain the management of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
Q3. TenMultiple Choice Questions: (10xl)
KWhich of the following is not a cause of jaundice?
a) Hepatitis
b) Hemolysis
c) Obstructive cholangiopathy
d) Myocardial infarction
 KGMU-Feb.2025
W2. Which is the hallmark antibody in systemic lupus erythematosus
(SLE)?
a) Anti-dsDNA
b) Anti-Ro
c) Anti-La
) Anti-Jo-1
What is the most common cause of upper GIbleeding?
a) Peptic ulcer disease
b) Esophageal varices
c) Gastritis
d) Mallory-Weiss tear
Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of osteoarthritis?
a) Methotrexate x
b) Hydroxychloroquine
Paracetamol
d) Infliximab v
5. A30-year-old male presents with abdominal pain and diarrhea. He is
diagnosed with Crohn's disease. What is the characteristic feature on
biopsy?
a) Villous atrophy
b) Non-caseating granulomas
Crypt abscesses
d) Goblet cell hyperplasia
6.)Which of the following is a feature of vasculitis?
a) Palpable purpura
b) Pitting edema
c) Petechiae
d) Ecchymoses
7 What is the most common type of seizure in adults?
a) Absence seizure
b) Focal seizure
ç) Myoclonic seizure
d) Atonic seizure
6. Which condition is associated with crystalline arthropathy?
a) Gout V
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Ankylosing spondylitis
d) Psoriatic arthritis
What is the first-line treatment for infective hepatitis?.
a) Supportive care
b) Antiviral therapy
) Antibioties /
a) Corticosteroids
Ó. Which of the following deseribes the ethica! principle of non
maleficence"?
a) To act in the patient's best interest
b) To avoid causing harm v
c) Toensure justice in treatment
d) To respect patient autonomy

**** * *
 KGMU-Fcb. 2025

M-019M

MBBS THIRD PROFESSIONAL PART-II EXAMINATION- 2025

MEDICINE

Paper II
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks- 100

Note: Attempt all questions in serial order, Answer Section-A &Section-B in separate ansSwer books. All parts of
a question should be answered together. lIlustrate your answer with suitable diagram where required.
Figures in parenthesis indicate marks allotted to a question.

Section-A
Q1. A 15 years old male admitted to emergency with complaints of abdomínal pain, (15)
nausea and vomiting. His ABG finding is suggestive of metabolic acidosis. Enumerate
the causes of metabolic acidosis. Discuss the differentiating features between diabetic
keto-acidosis and hypergly cemic hyperosmolar state, and management of diabetic
ketoacidosis.
Q2. Write short notes on: (5x5)
a) Management of Scorpion bite
b) Management of hyperkalemia
c) Clinical features and diagnosis of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia.
d) Osteoporosis in elderly.
e) Manifestations of Vitamin B12 deficiency
Q3. Zen Multiple Choice Questions: (10x1)
1.)A 45 years old type 2 diabetic male presented to medicine OPD for
evaluation. Which of the following is the earliest manifestatien of diabetic
nephropathy on renal biopsy?
Y Thickening of the GBM
b) Loss of heparan sulfate moieties from GBM
) Mesangial sclerosis
d) Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules
A 15 year old boy is brought from examination hall in apprehensive state
with complain of tightness of chest. His ABG, reveled pH -7.54, HCO3- 21
mEq/L, PCO2-21 mm of Hg. Whích of the following is appropriate diagnosis
a) Metabolic alkalosis
by Respiratory alkalosis
c) Mixed acid base disorder
d) Normal ABG
All of the follovwing paraméters are the end-points of resuscitation for
hemorrhagic shock Except
a) MABP >65 mmHg
b) SvO,> 70%
c) Hemoglobin >11 g/dL
d) Platelet count >50 x 10/L
Which of the following is an acceptable pre-hospital measure in snake bite
management
a) Application of splint in bitten extremity
b) Incision &drainage of bitten' site
YApplication of tourniquet
1 Application of ice over bitten area
 KGMU-Fcb. 2025

state with pinpoint

28 years old lady is brought to the hospital in comatose
most likely diagnosis
pupil, tachypnea and frothing from mouth. What is
a) Tricyclic antidepressant poisoning
b) Organophosphorus poisoning
c), Benzodiazepine poisoning
Opiate poisoning
Allof the following are suggestive of chronic kidney disease (CKD) Except
a) Smallshrunken kidrieys with cortical thinning on Ultrasonography
b) Renal osteodystrophy
c) Normocytic anemia in absence of blood loss
sAt55Secondary hypoparathyroidism
year old smoker male presented with cough with expectoration 7.days
and dyspnea for 2 days. He is having history of freguenthospitalization for
similar complaints. His ABG analysis revealed hypercapnia with mild
hypoxemia. What would be most appropriate diagnosis in patient?
a), Asthma
o COPD
Interstitial Lung Disease
d) Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
8. Kwashiorkor is characterized by all Except
a) Easy hair pluckability ef
Normal serum albumin
Poor wound healing
d) Decubitus ulcer
A person was brought by police from the railway platform. He is talking
irrelevant. He is having dry mouth with hot skin, dilated pupils, staggering
gait and slurred speech. The most probable diagnosis is
a) Clonidine intoxication
b) Opioids poisoning
Organophosphorus poisoning
Datura poisoning
housewife ingests a rodenticide white powder accidentally. She is brought
to hospital where her examination shows generalized, flaccid paralysis and an
irregular pulse. Electrocardiogram shows multiple ventricular ectopics,
generalizéd changes with ST-T. Serum potassium is 2.5 mEq/L. The most
likely ingested poison is:
a) Barium carbonate
b) Super warfarins
c) Zinc phosphide
YAluminum phosphide

Section-B

Q1. A54 years old chronic smoker male presentedto medicine emergency with complaints (15)
of dyspnea on exertion for 2 years. Discuss the differential diagnosis and diagnostic
plan for this for this patient. How will you manage a patient of COPD with acute
exacerbation?
Q2. Write short notes on: (5x5)
a) MDR Tuberculosis
b) Clinical features and treatment of scabies
c) Bipolar disorder
d) Erythema Nodosum Leprosum
e) Discuss the ethical and medico legal issues involved in end of life care
 KGMU-Fcb. 2025

Ten Multiple Choice Questions: (10x1)

1. A 54 year old smoker male diagnosed as a case of COPD. You want to
prognosticate the patient by using BODE index. Which of the following
parameter is NOT used in this index
a) Body mass index
w FEVI/FVC ratio
c) Distance walked in 6 minute
d) MMRC Dyspnea Scale
2. The reversibility of bronchoconstriction can be demonstrated by all of the
following Except
12% increase in FEV, following administration of atrial of corticosteroids
b) > 20% diurnal variation on>3 days in a week for 2weeks on PEF diary
c)15% decrease in FEV, after 6 mins of exercise
>100 mL increase in FEV, following administration ofa bronchodilator
50 year old male, known case of leprosy presented crops painful
erythematous papules. Considering the possibility of ENL which of the
following statements is wrong
a) More common in tuberculoid leprosy
b) TNF plays a central role in pathogenesis
c) Skin biopsy of papules revealed vasculitis or panniculitis
Thalidomide should be used for recurrent and persistent lesions
WhËch of the following is not a feature of psoriasis
It is immune mediated disease
b) Erythematous sharply demarcated plaque covered with silvery scale
c) Skin lesions are non-pruritic
ey Koebner phenomenon
5. Allof the following are the primary muco-cutaneous diseases associated with
vesicular eruptions Except
a) Pemphigus vulgais
b) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Herpes zoster virus
d) Porphyria cutanea tarda
Which of the following is not a feature of Wernicke's disease
a), Ophthal moparesis
) Severe retrograde and anterograde amnesia
c) Ataxia
d) Encephalopathy
Most common nerve to be involved in leprosy is
Greater auricular nerve
b) Common peroneal nerve
c) Radial nerve
Ulnar nerve
Which of the following statement regarding Bipolar disorder is wrong
a) Characterized by unpredictable swings in mood from mania to depression
b) Onset is typicaly between 20-30 years of age
c) Prevalence is similar for men and women
Depression ismore common in men
p. Massive pulmonary Embolism is characterized by all Except
a) Retro-sternal chest pain mimicking MI
b) Syncope
Hypotension
A Left sided heart failure
J0. Allof the following are included in the CURB-65 criteria for determining the
site of patient care Except
a) Confusion
b Serum uric acid
c) Age >65 years
d) Respiratory rate >30/min
 KGMU-Feb. 2025
M-024M

MBBS 3r PROFESSIONAL PART-IEXAMINATION- 2025

PEDIATRICS

t Paper I
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks- 100

Note: Attempt all questions in serial order. Answer Section-A &Section-B in separate answer books. All parts of
a question should be answered together. IIlustrate your answer with suitable diagram where required.
Figures in parenthesis indicate marks alloted to a question.

Section-A

Q1. A 4year old girl presented with fever for 3 days and multiple episodes of (15)
generalized tonic clonic seizures for one day. Wite differential diagnosis,
investigations and treatment for this child.
Q2. Short answer questions: (3x5)
a) Management of steroid sensitive nephrotic syndrome
b) Emergency room management of severe acute asthma
c) Discuss the diagnostic approach to a child with severe short stature
Q3. Very short answer questions: (5x2)
a) Differentiate between breath holding spells and hypercyanotic spells
b) Radiological features of rickets
c) Clinical features of Turner syndrome
d) Injectable polio vaccine under Universal Immunization Program of
India
e) Causes of respiratory distress in a 5 year old child
Q4. Ten Multiple choice questions: (10x1)
1. Tachycardia with absent P wave on ECG is suggestive of
a) Ventricular fibrillation
b) Atrial fibrillation
c) Ventricular tachycardiadnte otalin l ide e
d) WPW syndrome
2. A 1-year-old boy presented with history of progressively increasing
pallor. He had severe pallor, mild icterus and hepatosplenomegaly but
nopetechiae or lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Iron deficiency anemiay
b) Hemolytic anemia_
c) Aplastic anemiati t O t i e e
d) Lymphoma
3. Most specific congenital anomaly in a baby born to a diabetic Woman
is
a) Transposition of great arteries
b) Hypertrophic öbstructive cardiomyopathy
c) Ventricular septaldefect X
d) Sacral agenesis
KGMU-Fcb.
2025
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and both had
diagnosis?
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colleague the
back in fluoroquinolone What pennies?
using
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weeks other fluoroquinolones
bpm. well
likely ecomplication of your increased.
you've 4 andchanges syndrome
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most d)glomerulonephritis to
and
under
defined newborn, theand chronic
fecurrent
bronchiectatie
chloride
resistant line tube management?
theglomerulonephritis not
climb
immunodeficiency
severe cubes markedly
first and endotracheal
for rate
is is has compressions
with What
had used TB additional rifampicinheart and
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retropharyngeal
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6. 7. 9.
KGMU-Feb.
2025
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Classify Causes, in adolescent which
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3. 4.
KGMU-Feb.
2025
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 Q3. Q2. Q1. Attempt
Note:all Time

Allowed: MBBS
(2.) 1.Ten questions:
Short
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Figuresin a
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Loin
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times, due a to (General
Surgery)
Section-A marks
together.
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flexure. for
feature injury down
suffering
consisting narrow to surgery allotted Answer
pain junction blood in
the with cervical SURGERY
is he, the different a Illustrate M-020M
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Site
evaluated stripsstates10-year transfusion patient
various with Section-A
Paper I
to
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severe
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that classifications of &
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hypovolemic of Section-B
answer
colonoscopy into he
and shock.
EXAMINATION-
the has and of
shock. with
goblet difficulty acid in
tan frequency Enumerate
of suitable Maximum
separate Marks-100
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 KGMU-Feb. 2025
Dose of Radiation per X-ray Mammogram film is
a) JGy
c) 1mGy
0.1Gy
6. Daparoscopie cholecystectomy elassified as?
a) Clean
bClean contaminated
c) Contaminated
d) Dirty
7) In a patient of exploratory laparotomy, deep surgieal site infection is
indicated by finding:
a) Septicemia
b) Enterocutaneous fistula
Dehiscence of Rectus sheath
d) Dehiscence of skin approximation
8.) Which of the following modalities is included as a clinical means of
nutritional assessment:
a) Triceps skin fold thickness
b) Serum albumin level
c) Bioelectrical impedence analysis
a Malnutrition universal screening rool
Which of the following statements are trüe about informed consent?
a Obtaining consent can be delegated to a junior member of the team who has
not performed the procedure.
b) Legally, a signed consent from a patient is proof that validconsent has been
properly obtained
c) Every possible hazard, however remote the possibility, should be explained in
detail.
d) Consent is necessary before physical examination of a patient.
10. What is research?
a) Finding out evidence from a database
sb) Asystematic and rigorous process of finding answers to questions
c) A form of audit
d) Acquiring a body of evidence on atopic
Section-B (General Surgery)
Q1. a) A 55-Year-old female presented in OPD with complain of painless lump in (10)
right breast form 4 months. On examination, fullness in all quadrant with(peau
d'orange. Clinically no axillary and supraclavicklar nodes palpable. What is
diagnosis &staging Write down thd surg1cal anatomy of involved organ,
eiopathogenesislandmanagement df above case.
b) Define Gangrene. Describe the etiopathology, clinical features and (5)
management of Thrombo angitis obliterens.
Q2. Short essay questions: (5x5)
a) Tension pneumothorax - etiology & management
b) Primary survey in a patient of blunt trauma abdomen
c) Anatomy of parotid gland
d) Difference between primary and secondary thyrotoxicosis
e) Frey's syndrome
Q3. Ten Multiple Choice Questions: (10x1)
A patient presented in emergency casualty with history of Road Traffie
injury, he is hypotensive. Most likely ruptured organ:
a) Colon.
y Spleen
c) Kidney
d) Mesentry

Tab N
 KGMU-Feb. 2025

2.) Deep vein thrombosis is concluded by test:

a Fegan's test
b) Perthe's test
c) Schwartz test
d) Pratt's test
3.) Clinical features seen in patient with chronic limb ischemia is:
a) Corona phlebectasia
by Muscle atrophy
c) Statis dermatitis
d) Lipodermatosclerosis
4) The advantage of Thiersch skin graft is:
a) Coverage of large raw surface
b) Suture closure of the donor site for the graft
oY Minimal skin graft contraction
d) Excellent cosmetic appearance
5.)Dissection of central lymph node compartment does not offer appropriate
staging at the initinl management, inwhich of the following thyroid
malignancies:
a) Papillary carcinoma
b) Follicular carcinoma
c) Anaplastic carcinoma e
d Medullary carcinoma
In varicose veins surgery is not attempted in presence of:
a) Deep vein thrombosis
b) Varicose vein with ulcer
c) Multiple incompetent perforators
Y All of the above
Patient admitted after Road Traffic injury to the trauma ward. Multiple rib
fractures are seen during physical examination. FAST shows free peritoneal
fluid. Vitals are stable. Whatis the next step?
a), Emergency laparotomy
5 Contrast CT abdomen
c) Repeat FAST after 30 minutes
d) Fluid resuscitation
8,) Identify the correct order of applying 4 layers bandaging system. a. Cotton
crepe, b. Cohesive bandage, c. Elastic bandage, d. Orthopedic wool
a) a, b,C, d
J5 a, d, b, c
c) d, a, c, b
d) d, a, c, b
9,)Only definite treatment for secondary hyperparathyroidism
a) Subtotal parathyroidectomy
Jo Total parathyroidectomy and auto transplantation
c) Total parathyroidectomy only
tRenal transplantation
10.Which of the following statements are true, when it comes to matters of life
and death?
a) The surgeon is always obliged to provide life-sustaining treatment
A decision to withhold îreatment should be taken along with another senior
clinician and recorded in detail
c) Confidentiality is absolute
d) In palliation for pain in advanced malignancy, a potential lethal dose of
analgesia is appropriate
******
 KGMU-Feb. 2025
M-021 M
MBBS THIRD PROFESSIONAL PART-II EXAMINATION- 2025
SURGERY
Paper II
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks- 100
Note: Atlempt all questions in serial order. Answer Section-A & Section-B in separate answer books. All parts of
a question should be answered together. Illustrate your answer with suitable diagram where required.
Figures in parenthesis indicate marks allotted to a question.
Section-A (General Surgery)
Q1. A 70-year-old male patient presented with recurrent vomiting especially in the evening
over the last month. The vomitus contains old undigested food particles. He also
complains of anorexia and unintentional weight loss for the last 3 months. On
examination there was pallor, positive succession splash and ausculto-percussion test.
Serum sodium: 134 meq/1; serum potassium 3.8 meq/1, Albumin 2.8g/dl.
a) What is your provisional diagnosis? (1)
b) Enumerate any four etiological factors for development of this disease. (2)
c) Discuss in brief any two important investigations to confirm your diagnosis (4)
and staging the disease.
d) Discuss in brief the modes of spread of this disease. (3)
e) How will youprepare this patient for surgery? (5)
Q2. Short essay questions: (5x5)
a) Clinical features and management of appendicular mass
b) Indications and principles of organ transplantation.
c) Fistula in Ano
d) Hypersplenism
e) Classification of testicular tumour
Q3. Ten Multiple Choice Questions: (10x1)
1.) The following statements are true except:
Acute haematemesis from portal hypertension occurs most commonly from
gastric varices
Initial endoscopic treatment of oesophageal varices with banding, as opposed
to injection sclerotherapy, has less chance of oesophageal ulceration
c) Long-term beta-blocker therapy coupled with sclerotherapy regime or
endoscopic banding is the mainstay of treatment of portal hypertension
d) Aseites in cirrhosis can be treated by a peritoneovenous shunt
2. Which of the following defines morbid obesity?
a) BMI greater than 32 Kg/m2
b BMI greater than 35 Kg/m2 with comorbidity
Jej BMI greater than 40 Kg/m2 with comorbidity
d) BMI greater than 45 Kg/m2
3. Which of the following statements is not true?
a) All patients should be thoroughly resuscitated
SAparacolic abscess on CT scan must have open surgery
c) Septic shock might follow
d) Nutritional support must be instituted in certain patients
4. Which of the following statements is false with regard to pseudocysts?
a) They can be confused with cysticneoplasms
b) They can arise after blunt trauma to the upper abdomen
The majority of them require intervention
d) Gastrointestinal bleeding may be a complication of a pseudocyst
5. In child ren the following could be confused with acute appendicitis exeept:
a) Gastroenteritis
b) Mesenteric adenitis
Henoch-Schönlein purpura
d) Urinary tract infection (UTI)
 KGMU-Feb. 2025
6. Which of the following imaging techniques are not used for urinary calculus
disease?
a) Plain kidney, ureter and bladder (KUB) x-ray
bySpiral CT scan
Ultrasound (US)
d) Retrograde pyelography
7. On rectal examination, which of the following features does not suggest
carcinoma?
a) Nodules within the prostate
b) Obliteration of the median sulcus
L Mobile rectal mucosa over the prostate
d) Extension of a hard nodule beyond the capsule into the bladder base
8. In bulbous urethralrupture, which of the following statements is false?
Y Urethral catheterisation might be attempted as an alternative
b) Urethral rupture is caused by direct blow to perineum
c) Acute retention occurs
d) There is perineal haematoma with blood at the urethral meatus
9. Which one of the following causes of acute pancreatitis is due to a congenital
anatomical variation?
a) Gallstones
b) Hereditary pancreatitis
e Pancreas divisum s
d) Autoimmune pancreatitis
10. The following statements are true except:
a) Before splenectomy for haemolytic anaemia, abdominal US isessential
b) A pancreatic or gastric fistula can occur as a post-splenectomy complication
c) In a left hemicolectomy the spleen can be in danger of iatrogenic injury
d The risk of opportunist postsplenectomy infection (OPSI) is greatest after the
first 6 months of splenectomy

Section-B (Orthopaedics, Anesthesiology, Dentistry and Radiodiagnosis)

Q1. A 25-year-old male labor has come to the OPD with a history of recurrent purulent
discharge from right upper leg for last 10 years. Clinical features and x-ray findings are
suggestive of chronic osteomyelitis.
a) Discuss the clinical features (History, Symptoms & Signs) and management of (10)
chronic osteomyelitis.
b) Mention at least three diagnostic findings on plain X-ray film in this case. 3)
c) Mention at least two complications of chronic osteomyelitis. (2)
Q2. Short essay questions: (5x5)
a) Write the difference between dental cyst and dentigerous cyst.
b) Draw and label the neuromuscular junction. Classify the neuromuscular
blocking agents.
c) Greenstick Fracture
d) Imaging modalities for Breast lump
e) Fundamental principles of bioethics
Q3. Ten Multiple Choice Questions: (10x1)
1. Regarding spinal physical examination, which of the following is a
characteristic finding of an upper motor neuron lesion?
a) Decreased tone
by Hyper-reflexia
c) Fasciculation
d) Down-going plantars
(2.) Regarding surgical approaches to the hip, a|Trendelenburg gait vith
Pbdrerorweaknesseould be caused by an injufy to which nerve?
a) nferior gluteal nerve
S Superior gluteal nerve
c) Pudendal nerve
Sciatic nerve
 KGMU-Feb. 2025
Regarding acute osteomyelitis,which of the following statements is true?
a) In young children, refusal to weight bear alone is not consistent with
osteomyelitis
b) Haemophilus influenzae is the most common causative organism in children
c) Inflammatory markers are routinely normal
dy Radiographic changes can take over Iweek to develop
Patients with hip disease can have referred pain to the knee. What nerve is
responsible for this referred pain?
a) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
b ) Obturator nerve
c) Femoral nerve
d) Sciatic nerve
5) The order of deformitycorrection for Ponsetti casting techniqueis
a) Cavus, equinus, adductus, varus
b) Varus, adductus, cavus, equinus
c) Cavus, adductus, varus, equinus
d) Equinus,adductus, varus, cavus
Which of the following statements about the WHO pain step ladder are
correct?
If simple analgesics are ineffective, they should be stopped and intermediate
strength opioids presctibed
The breakthrough dose of strong opiates should be approximately 1/6 of the
total daily dose of long-acting opiates
Most patients being treated for canter pain with strong opiates will develop
addiction
d) Pethidine is the recommended strong opiate
(7) Patients vary greatly in their requirement for postoperative analgesia. What
is the best way to assèss adeguacy of pain relief?
a) Measure the degree of tachycardia
,yAsk the patient to measure the pain
c) Assess the level of hypertension
d) Look for tachypnoea
(8 All of the folowing statements are true except?
a Ultrasound has no disadvantages
Computed tomography (CT) scan has a higher resolution than plain
radiographs
c) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scans give excellent contrast resolution
d) Radionuclide imaging allows function tobe studied
9) The following statements are true except:
a) US is a good first-line investigation
CT is the best investigation for acute diverticulitis
c) Plain x-ray of KUB (kidney, ureter, bladder) is the best imaging for suspected
ureteric colic
Plain x-ray is the first-line investigation for suspected perforation or
obstruction
10.)Which of the following statements are true?
a) Consent should be obtained by the person doing the operation
b) The written communication should alway's be in English
c) Every possible hazard, however remote the possibility, should be explained in
detail
YLegally, a signed consent from a patient is proof that valid consent has been
properly obtained
 Weeks 8 d)
Weeks 7 c)
W6Weeks
5Weeks a)
activity cardiac fetal detect Transvaginal
can USG 4.
500-750ml/min
350-375ml/min c)
50ml/min 100-1 b)
10-50ml/min a)
term flow
at blood Uterine The 3.
fertilisation after day 3to 2 d)
fertilisation after day 9to 7 c)
fertilisation after day 7to 6 b)
fertilisation after day 5to 4
cavity
by uterine reaches ovumFertilised 2.)
changes carus curve
of direction
of -cm10.5
which about measures
levelat the isltIt d)
muscles perineal attachment
the of level
of the isIt b)
dimensions pelvic least plane
of the is It a)
interspinous regarding
the true NOT following
is the diameter
ofWhich (1.)
(10x1) Questions: Choice Multiple Q3.
Macrosomia e)
Partogram d)
pregnancy Vaccination
in c)
Previa Vasa b)
labor onset
ofPhysiology
of a)
(5x5) questions: essay Short Q2.
(5) patient. management
this of the Plan d)
(3) complications. fetomaternal Enumerate
the c)
2) patient? investigate
this to
How b)
(5) diagnosis? provisional the What
is a)
dipstick. proteionuria
onof+2 convulsions
and
history
of with edema pedal bilateral 150/100mmHg
and BP with morning
early LR
reported
to pregnancy weeks 36wiprimipara
th woman old yr24 A Q1.
Section-A
question. allotted
ato marks indicate parenthesis Figures
in
required. where diagram suitable with answer yourIlustrate together. answered should
be question a
parts
of Allbooks. answer separate Section-B
in Section-A& Answer order. serial questions
in Attempt
all Note:
100 Marks- Maximum Hours Three Allowed: Time
PaperI
GYNAECOLOGY OBSTETRICS&
EXAMINATION-
2025 PART-II
PROFESSIONAL THIRD MBBS
 KGMU-Feb. 2025
amenorrhea presents with light
A young woman with six wveeks of
bleeding &pain. USG shows empty uterus. Diagnosis maybe
a) Ovarian cyst
Ectopicpregnancy
c) Incomplete abortion
d) Hydatidiform mole
6. According to MTP Act 2 doctors opinion is required with pregnancy
a) 10Weeks
b) 6 Weeks
c) >12 Weeks
20 Weeks
7.For Medical Termination of pregnancy consent should be taken from
a) Male partner
b) Male as well as female partner
LeFemale partner
d) Consent is not required
8.)Contraindication of induction of labor
a) PIH
Placenta previa
c) Diabetes.
d) Heart Disease.
(9. )Assesement of progression oflabor is best done by
a) Station of head
b) Rupture of membrane
c)_Contraction of uterius
L Partogram
10)Which of the following factors favours forward rotation of a
occipitoposterior position during labour
a) Android pelvis
b) Early rupture of membranes
c) Large size baby
Good uterine contraction

Section-B
Q1. A Primigravida 12 weeks of gestation comes for routine antenatal checkup.On
taking the detailed history she says she is AB Negative and her husband is B
Positive, She is anxious ánd wants to know the risks.
a) How do you counsel the patient? (5)
b) What test is done to know the sensitisation? (3)
c) How can a primigravida be alloimmunised other than pregnancy?
d) What are the antenatal precautions that can be taken to prevent (3)
(2)
complications?
e) What are the postnatal precautions that can be taken to prevent the (2)
complications?
Q2. Short essay questions: (5x5)
a) Management of Preterm babies.
b) Latest amendments in MTP Act.
c) Management of labour in HIV Positive women.
d) Management of 1" stage of labour in a woman with rheumatic heart
disease.
e) Sereening methods for gestational diabetes.
 Carboprost d)
Misoprostol c)
Oxytocin b)
AMethylergometrine
used beshould
not following the which
of disease heart with patient 10.)Ina
Thalessemia d)
loss blood GI c)
anaemia deficiency Iron
loss blood Acute a)
pregnancy
is anaemia
in cause
of common Most 9.
above the of
None d)
abortion Missed c)
Pregnancy Ectopic b)
Mole 1a
H
appearance
seen storm Snowfollowing the vhichof In 8.
9.0g/dl d)
12.0g/dl
11.0g/dl. ,g c)
10.0g/dl a)
isHb
whendiagnosed pregnancy
is ,anaemia
in WHO According
tothen less 7.
Ergometrine
Oxytocin c)
Misoprostol b)
Mefepristone
PPH? commonly
in
used most not drugis the Whj
ofch 6.
Test BetkeKleihauer d)
Test Lily's c)
TestBubble b)
Test APT
cell fetal maternal
and differentiates test Which 5.
Alphaprotein
level Serum d)
levelAmylase Serum c)
level CEA Serum b)
monitoring Hcg Beta
by is
done Hyadatiform
Mole patient
of Followup
in 4.
Spleen d)
Liver c)
Brain b)
Lungs
Choriocarcinoma metastasis
in for common
site The
800mcgmost 3.
600mcg c)
400mcg b)
PPHmanagement mcg 200 a)
of emergency Misoprost
in of
dose The 2.
Prone d)
Supine c)
legged cross Sitting b)
position which measured chair Sittingon
(10x1) in pregnancy
bemust during pressure Blood 1.
Questions: Choice Multiple Q3.
KGMU-Fcb.
2025
 uterusBicornuate
disease
inflammatory c)Pelvic
tuberculosis Genital b)
tumors ovarian Epithelial a)
EXCEPT condition following the ofall raised
in becanCA-125 4.
above the None
of d)
malignancy Ovarian
Endometriosis
pregnancy
K Ectopic a)
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dysmenorrhea secondary severe wipresent
th following
may the Which
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smear Pap a)
screening cancer cervical method
of NOTafollowingis the Which
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management Medical b)
woman Reassure
woman P2olasymptomatic
d year 25 an in
USG
detected
on cm2x2 fibroid
of subserous management
aof the is
What 1.
(10x1) Questions: Choice Multiple Q3.
menorrhagia puberty management
of and causes Discuss
the e)
deficiency
estrogen to due womenmenopausal problems
in common theDiscuss d)
hours since2abdomen lower in
pain severe with room
emergency
Gynae presenting
in old year 22diagnosis
ain differential thDiscuss
e c)
cervix the drainage
of lymphatic Describe
the b)
bleeding
postmenopausal causes
of Discuss a)
(5x5) questions: essay Short Q2.
detected lesionis organic no if
case thmanage
e you wil diagnosis?
How
makea patient
to investigate
the you wil diagnosis?
How differential the are
(15) What year. one past bleeding,
for menstrual heavy wipresents
th oldPS year 45 A Q1.
Section-A
question. allotted
ato marksindicate parenthesis Figures
in
required. where diagram suitable with answer yourlIlustrate together. answered should
be question a
parts
of All books. answer separate Section-B
in Section-A& Answer order. serial questions
in Attempt
al NOte:
100Marks- Maximum Hours Three Allowed: Time
Paper
II
GYNAECOLOGY OBSTETRICS&
EXAMINATION-
PROFESSIONALPART-II
2025 THIRD MBBS
 Trauma d.
Intercourse C,
congestion Venous
Friction a.
prolapse
is. uterine jn
ulcer
decubitus Cause
of 1.
(10x1) Questions: Choice Multiple Q3.
limitations and merits their and testspatency tubal tDiscuss
he e)
cervix cancer screening for on
note Short d)
DMPA on
note Short c)
do?
you will What MTP. do toandparents inform
her not doctor
toconsulting
as
yourequests pregnancy.
She wipresents
th unmarried
girl old year 17 A b)
standards 2021 WHO parameters by semen Normal a)
(5x5) questions: essay Short Q2.
case management
the of and
diagnosis approach
to your Discuss months. last6 since
discomfort distension
and
(15) abdominal progressive wipresents
th years,
postmenopausal
f5or P2old year 55 A Q1.
Section-B
Pregnancy
syndrome Asherman's c)
Tuberculosis b)
Hypothyroidism a)
case
isamenorrhoea
this in secondary cause
ofcommon most Themonths.
amenorrhoea
2of complaints
of with comes woman married old year 29 A10.
oophorectomy salpingo bilateral hysterectomy
with Total Lty
hysterectomy Total
therapy
progesterone Oral b)
IUD LNG a)
hyperplasiais endometrial atypical fchoice
or Treatment
of 9.)
mellitus diabetes Increased
of
risk d)
cancer
endometrial Increased
of
risk c)
cancer Ovarian Increased
of b)
osteoporosiS Increased
rriskof
isk
PCOS consequence
of term long NOTafollowing
is the Whjof
ch
Etoposide d)
Paclitaxel c)
Cisplatin b)
Methotrexate a
chemotherapyof agent single for chemotherapeutie
used drug
is WhichGTN 7.
disorder Bleeding d)
Endometriosis
Malignancy c)
b)
Anovulation a
menorrhagia puberty cause
ofcommon 6.Most
agenesis
tMullerian
dysgenesis Genadal c)
syndrome Klinefelter b)
syndrome Turner a
following? the which
ofincludepossibilities Diagnostic absent arvagina)
e
and aterus development,
the but hair pubic and breast normal has She
MU-25 Feb.amenorrhoea. primary with office your presents
to paticnt A19-vear-old 5.
 ******
tumor Granulosa
cell d)
ovary
AStruma
carcinoma Embryonal b)
tumour Dysgerminoma a)
cell germ NOT a following
is the Whiofch 1o.
YDoxycycline
mg100
Fluconazole
mg 150 c)
Metronidazole
2gm,
Azithromycin
lgm a)
infections vaginal management
of
syndromie dose
in single given
as NOT following
is the of
one Which 9.
disease glandular Suspected d)
repair cervical
tear Previous
visible clearly junction
not coloumnar Squamo - b)
disease invasive Suspected a)
Cx? premalignant
lesion
of treatment
of
ablative
contra-indication
for NOT
a following
is the ofone Which
HCG d)
AFP c)
LDHV
dysgerminoma
ise 125 CA a
associated
with marker 7.Tumor
anemia,
,, Severe d)
depression Severe c)
gain weightExcessive
migraine Severe a)
EXCEPT COC's rawal
of withd indications
for are6.)All
A Rape d)
24
day on
pill COC Missed
intercourse nprotected b)
rupture Condom a)
EXCEPT contraception
al are emergency Indicationsof 5.
Nulliparity d)
Smoking
Diabetes b)
Obesity a)
EXCEPT endometrialçancer
include
all for factor risk Major 4.
operation fort Le d)
hysterectomy Wardmayo's
repair
Fothergill's b)
amputation Cervical a)
herzappropriate
for would
betreatment
following perinenmWhich
the of ax introitus
and the upto coming
rectocele- cystocele
&introitus, outside 1"
lying cervix shows
Examination
vagina. from out coming something history
of with you to
come
has She back. year delivery1 vaginal hada 0 +Plold years 24 A
Mrs 3.
Fimbrial
Ampullary d)
c)
Isthmus
Cornua a),
tuis
be portionof which ringFallopes using ligationlaparoscopie ligated.
During 2.
KGMU-Feb.
2025