Test Booklet No.

F
EARTH, ATMOSPHERIC, OCEAN & PLANETARY SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)

(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.

AUG - 35215 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 50 objective type questions. Each question
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-II will be compulsory, 2.
covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as 3.
follows :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
(i)
a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the (ii)
cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/
questions or questions repeated or not in serial
o rder or any other discre pancy should not be
accepted and correct booklet should be obtained
from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.
Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be
replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same
may please be noted.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet. (iii)
4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
Example : where (C) is the correct response.

A B D
(C)
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place A B D
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
5.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put 6.
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space 7.
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your 8.
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9.
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 10.
11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited. 11.
12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. 12.
 AUG - 35215/II

2
 AUG - 35215/II
Earth, Atmospheric, Ocean and Planetary Science
Paper II
Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100
Note : This Paper contains Fifty (50) multiple choice questions. Each question
carries Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1. The primary process by which 3. Which of the following minerals has

nutrients in deep sea return to the

two different values of hardness in
surface water is :
different orientation ?
(A) Heating of surface water
(A) Quartz
(B) Upwelling
(B) Feldspar
(C) Down welling
(C) Fluorite
(D) Surfacing of deep dwelling

organism (D) Kyanite

2. The rock komatiite is identified on 4. Which one of the following minerals

the basis of its characteristic
has no cleavage ?
.............................. texture.
(A) Calcite
(A) Porphyritic
(B) Garnet
(B) Spherulitic

(C) Spenifex (C) Mica

(D) Orbicular (D) Kyanite

3 [P.T.O.
 AUG - 35215/II

5. The repetition of strata can be

8. The layer of loose, heterogeneous
achieved by :
weathered material lying on the top
(A) Only folding

of rocky hill slopes is :

(B) Only faulting

(C) Both folding and faulting (A) Soil

(D) Only erosion

(B) Weathered debris
6. The most abundant mineral of the

earth is : (C) Regolith

(A) Rutile
(D) Alluvium
(B) Anatage
9. On the global scale, hot deserts in
(C) Olivine

(D) Perovskite the southern hemisphere are found

7. In the direction of the transport, the on :

grain size of the sediment :
(A) Western parts of continents
(A) Increases

(B) Decreases (B) Eastern parts of continents

(C) Remains uniform

(C) Interior parts of continents
(D) First increases and then

decreases (D) Only on elevated cratonic areas

4
 AUG - 35215/II

10. The earthquakes generated along 12. Which one of the following

inclined surface of the subducting

geophysical methods is widely used
plate, occur in :
in groundwater exploration ?
(A) Wadatti-Benioff zone

(A) Electrical induce polarization

(B) Seismo-Subduction zone

(C) Inclined epicentre zone (B) Electrical self-potential method

(D) Tomographic angular zone (C) Electrical resistivity method

11. A saturated permeable geological

(D) Seismic refraction method
rock formation that can transmit
13. The Hadley Circulation involves
large quantities of water under

normal hydraulic gradient is ascending motion near the :

called :
(A) Sub-tropical Latitudes

(A) Aquifer
(B) Mid Latitudes
(B) Aquiclude

(C) Equator
(C) Aquitard

(D) Polar Latitudes

(D) Aquifuse
5 [P.T.O.
 AUG - 35215/II

14. Which of these are fundamental 16. In the cloud classification, which of
forces in the atmosphere ?
these cloud types come under high

(A) Coriolis force and Centrifugal

clouds ?
force
(A) Cumulus, Stratocumulus,
(B) Pressure gradient force,
Stratus
Gravitational force and

Frictional force (B) Cirrus, Cirrostratus,

(C) Pressure gradient force, Cirrocumulus

Gravitational force and Coriolis

(C) Cirrus, Stratus, Altocumulus
force
(D) Stratocumulus, Altocumulus,
(D) Gravitational force, Pressure
Stratus
gradient force, Coriolis force and

Centrifugal force 17. The value of Standard Atmospheric

15. Which of the following is not a Pressure at mean sea level is :

green-house gas ?
(A) 1013.25 hPa
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) 950.13 hPa
(B) Ozone

(C) 990.25 hPa

(C) Argon

(D) Methane (D) 100.25 hPa

6
 AUG - 35215/II

18. The westward drift of the 20. The mineral allanite belongs to :

(A) Feldspar Group

geomagnetic field is because of :

(B) Epidote Group

(A) Differential rotation of core
(C) Amphibole Group

(B) Anticlockwise rotation of the

(D) Pyroxene Group

earth
21. The movement of material is

‘rotational’ in case of :
(C) Pole to equator geomagnetic

(A) Rock-topple
variation

(B) Rock-slide
(D) Equatorial geomagnetic field
(C) Rock-fall

19. A part of the Mid-atlantic ridge

(D) Rock-slump

exposed above the sea-level is in :

22. Plasticity Index is calculated by

formula :
(A) North America

(A) Liquid limit – Plastic limit

(B) Canada
(B) Liquid limit/Plastic limit

(C) Iceland
(C) Plastic limit – Shrinkage limit

(D) Africa (D) Plastic limit/Shrinkage limit

7 [P.T.O.
 AUG - 35215/II

23. The difference among conglomerate, 25. The dry adiabatic lapse rate in the

tillite and fanglomerate essentially atmosphere has a value of :

lies in :
(A) 1.8 deg km–1

(A) Clast size

(B) 4.8 deg km–1

(B) Nature of matrix

(C) 6.8 deg km–1
(C) Environment of deposition

(D) 9.8 deg km–1

(D) Age

26. The trace element, that discriminates

24. In the curve-matching technique if

plume and arc sources is :

1 > 2 > 3, the curve type is :

(A) Nb
(A) ‘Q’ type

(B) Sr
(B) ‘H’ type

(C) ‘A’ type (C) Ba

(D) ‘K’ type (D) Th

8
 AUG - 35215/II

27. The average density of the Earth 29. Most rivers in the Himalayan

is : System are :

(A) 5.52 gm/cm3 (A) Antecedent

(B) 8.52 gm/cm3 (B) Consequent

(C) 3.83 gm/cm3 (C) Obsequent

(D) 6.28 gm/cm3 (D) Subsequent

28. The gossan deposits are commonly 30. Major period of sedimentation in

formed due to : deep sea fan is during :

(A) Replacement (A) Sea level high stand

(B) Contact metasomatism (B) Sea level low stand

(C) Magmatic differentiation (C) Inter-glacials

(D) Supergene sulphide enrichment (D) Mountain building

9 [P.T.O.
 AUG - 35215/II

31. The phenomenon of net flow of

33. Palana lignite is in :

water at an angle to blowing wind

(A) Uttar Pradesh
on the ocean surface in northern

hemisphere is referred to : (B) Bihar

(A) Thermohaline circulation

(C) Rajasthan

(B) Longshore current

(D) Gujarat
(C) Ekman transport

34. Important toxic pollutants in

(D) Upwelling

groundwater are :
32. Marine transgression in Cauvery

basin occurred in :
(A) Cr, Cd, Mg

(A) Cenomanian
(B) Na, K, Ca

(B) Barremian

(C) Au, Ag, Pb

(C) Berriasian

(D) Valanginian (D) Mg, Fe, Mn

10
 AUG - 35215/II

35. The Malwa Plateau is formed of : 37. One of the mass extinctions occurred

(A) Vindhyans in :

(B) Deccan Volcanism

(A) Permian

(C) Bundelkhand Gneiss

(B) Jurassic

(D) Gondwanas
(C) Eocene
36. Bode’s law states that :

(D) Pliocene
(A) Each planet is roughly twice as

far from the sun as its closest 38. The continent-continent collision

neighbourhood between Indian and Eurasian plates

(B) Each planet is far from sun in was initiated at about :

the logarithmic sequence

(A) 10 Ma

(C) Distance of planet from sun is

(B) 25 Ma
square of its radius

(C) 55 Ma
(D) Radius of planet is square root

of its mass (D) 155 Ma

11 [P.T.O.
 AUG - 35215/II

39. The magnetic method of prospecting 41. The highest spreading rates of

depends on detecting the : Mid-oceanic ridge segment are

(A) Magnetic susceptibility of ore observed in :

body
(A) East Pacific rise

(B) Chemical composition of ores

(B) Indian Ocean rise

(C) Structure of ore deposits

(C) Mid-Atlantic ridge

(D) Anomalies in the earth’s

(D) Central Indian Ocean ridge
magnetic field
42. The gravity anomaly across the
40. The deformation processes in the
mountain chain is strongly negative
upper crust are chiefly controlled
due to :
by :

(A) Lithospheric melting

(A) Ductile processes

(B) Low density root zone

(B) Brittle processes

(C) Ductile-Brittle processes (C) Elevated Moho

(D) Plastic-deformational processes (D) High density root zone

12
 AUG - 35215/II

43. Iron rich duricrust is known as : 45. Which one of the following rocks is

(A) Ferricrete often used as roofing stone ?

(B) Alcrete
(A) Cuddapah slabs

(C) Calcrete
(B) Basalt

(D) Silcrete
(C) Dolerite
44. In some materials the strain does

(D) Laterite
not reach a stable value immediately

after application of stress, but rises 46. The monument “Gateway of India”

gradually to a stable value. Such

is built of :

materials are called :

(A) Marble
(A) Plastic

(B) Limestone
(B) Anelastic

(C) Basalt
(C) Ductile

(D) Brittle (D) Granite

13 [P.T.O.
 AUG - 35215/II

47. Coccolithophores are : 49. Kolar gold field is located in :

(A) Heterotrophs (A) Maharashtra

(B) Karnataka
(B) Autotrophs

(C) Rajasthan
(C) Decomposers

(D) Orissa
(D) Carnivorous

50. Which one of the following era

48. Laddervein, boxwork and cavity
represents the longest time
filling structures are common in :
interval ?

(A) Hydrothermal deposits

(A) Precambrian

(B) Magmatic segregation

(B) Palaeozoic

(C) Magmatic differentiation

(C) Mesozoic

(D) Evaporitic deposits (D) Cenozoic

14
 AUG - 35215/II

ROUGH WORK

15 [P.T.O.
 AUG - 35215/II

ROUGH WORK

16