1) ICAO publications & Standards defined in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are;

A) recommended explanatory material for the aviation related legislation of the Contracting
States.
B) advice and guidance for the aviation related legislation within the legal framework of the
Contracting States.
C) binding for all Contracting States without deviation or exception.
D) binding for the Contracting States unless they have notified ICAO about a national difference.

2) Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?

A) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations
B) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections
C) ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such
licenses
D) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the
convention.

3) Which body of ICAO finalises the Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for
submission for adoption?
A) The Regional Air Navigation meeting
B) The Assembly
C) The Air Navigation Commission
D) The Council

4) One of the main objectives of ICAO is to;

A) approve new international airlines operating jet aircraft.
B) Develop principles and technique for international aviation
C) approve new international airlines.
D) approve air fares set by international airlines.

5) “ICAO - Objectives of ICAO were established and are ratified by the…”

A) Geneva Convention 1948.
B) Chicago Convention 1944.
C) Geneva Convention 1936.
D) Warsaw Convention 1929.

6) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:

A) Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.
B) Aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
C) Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
D) Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to
the Chicago convention.
7) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) was established by the international
convention of:
A) Chicago
B) Warsaw
C) The Hague
D) Montreal

8) Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to
the depositary governments. The denunciation shall take effect :
A) 4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary
Governments
B) 3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary
Governments
C) 6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary
Governments
D) 2 months following the date ICAO is informed

9) Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed to:
A) International Civil Aviation Organisation
B) The other Contracting States
C) To all States Members of United Nations
D) United Nations

10) The first freedom of the air is:

A) The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two
states.
B) The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to
another state.
C) The right to overfly without landing.
D) The right to land for a technical stop.

11)The second freedom of the air is the:

A) Right to overfly without landing
B) Right to land for a technical stop
C) Right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two
states.
D) Right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic).

12) Chicago Convention & Cabotage refers to;

A) international air services.
B) domestic air services.
C) security matters.
D) required documents for cargo.

13) Chicago Convention - Contracting States have the obligation to inform ICAO about;
A) new licences and ratings for flight crew and ground personnel and any suspended validity of
such licences.
B) all changes in their national regulations.
C) the pricing policy and agreements for passengers and goods in international air traffic.
D) differences and / or deviations from the standards with the Annexes to the Convention.

14) The Convention of Tokyo applies to damage:

A) Only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of
another contracting state
B) The Tokyo Convention does not deal with this item.
C) Caused in the territory of a contracting state by any aircraft regardless the registration
D) Caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered there in, by an
aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state

15) What action can an aircraft commander take if they have reasonable grounds to believe that
a person has committed, or is about to commit, an unlawful act on board the aircraft?
A) Request the help of other crew members.
B) Request such person to disembark.
C) Request the help of other passengers.
D) Deliver such person to the competent authorities.

16) The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is:
A) The convention of Rome
B) The convention of Chicago
C) The convention of Paris
D) The convention of Tokyo

17) The Convention which deals with offences against penal law is the:
A) Convention of Rome.
B) Convention of Tokyo.
C) Convention of Warsaw.
D) Convention of Madrid.

18) Warsaw convention. The Warsaw Convention and the later amendments in the Montreal
Convention deal with the;
A) establishment and installation of effective security systems at international airports.
B) operatorslicence for in international scheduled aviation.
C) regulations and loading instructions for the transport of dangerous goods.
D) operator`s liability for loss and damage caused to passengers and goods.

19) The Convention defining rules of the parties relating to the carriage of passengers, baggage,
and cargo, and the liability of the carriers and extent of compensation for damage is the…
A) Montreal Convention 1999
B) Tokyo Convention 1963.
C) Brussels Convention 1968.
D) Convention on the Law of Treaties, Vienna 1969.

20) The Convention signed by the States, to ensure adequate compensation for persons who
suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft, is the…
A) Warsaw Convention 1929.
B) Paris Convention 1919.
C) Tokyo Convention 1963.
D) Rome Convention 1933 / 1952.

21) Any person who suffers damage on the surface caused by an aircraft in flight, or by any
person or thing falling therefrom, is entitled to compensation as provided by the…
A) Rome Convention 1933 / 1952.
B) Montreal Convention 1999.
C) Warsaw Convention 1929.
D) Chicago Convention 1944.

22) The Convention of Rome 1933/1952 for the Unification of certain Rules Relating to Damage
caused by Aircraft was established in order to define the liability in case of damage…
A) to third parties on the surface.
B) to other aircraft in case of a mid-air collision.
C) caused by Dangerous Goods that have been carried by an aircraft.
D) to other aircraft while operating on ground.

23) The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with :

A) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
B) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface
C) Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface
D) Offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft

24) What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an International
Standard?
A) Binding for all member states
B) The State has to publish such differences in the national AIP only
C) The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP
D) Modifications to International Standards shall be published in the national AIP only;
differences to Recommended Practices have to be notified to ICAO

25) If a state finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard:

A) It shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the
International Standard
B) It shall give 45 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the
International Standard.
C) It shall give 90 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the
International Standard.
D) It shall give 60 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the
International Standard.

26) For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?
A) The rules established by the state of registry of the aircraft
B) The rules established by the state of the operator of the aircraft
C) The rules established by the state(s) adjacent to the high seas over flown
D) The rules established under the Convention of international civil aviation

27) Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944:

A) Each state has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory
B) All states in the world attended
C) Only 52 nations were permitted to attend
D) Each state was required to recognise the other states attending

28) Within Europe, certain non-scheduled commercial flights between ECAC States may be
carried out without the obligation to request prior permission from the state concerned by
the operator of the aircraft. This is based on which international agreement/convention?
A) Cyprus Convention
B) Convention of The Hague
C) Warsaw Agreement
D) Agreement of Paris

29) The Air Navigation Commission consists of:

A) 33 members appointed by the ICAO Council
B) 15 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly
C) 19 members appointed by the ICAO Council
D) 33 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly

30) Where is the headquarters of ICAO?

A) New York
 B) Paris
C) Montreal
D) London

31) The president of the ICAO Council is elected for:

A) 3 years
B) 10 years
C) 1 year
D) 5 years

32) Which freedom gives the privilege to land for non-traffic purposes in another ICAO
contracting state:
A) The 4th Freedom
B) The 1st Freedom
C) The 2nd Freedom
D) The 3rd Freedom

33) The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes, e.g. refuelling, maintenance is to following
freedom of the air:
A) The 2nd Freedom
B) The 1st Freedom
C) The 3rd Freedom
D) The 4th Freedom

34) An aircraft having sustained damage while on the territory of a Contracting State other than
the State of Registry may fly without fare-paying passengers to an airport at which it can be
restored to an airworthy condition if:
A) It receives permission from the Contracting State where the damage occurred
B) It receives permission from the manufacturer of the aircraft
C) The repair works may be done at an airport that is not more than 250 nm away
D) It receives permission of the State of Registry

35) The privilege to fly across the territory of another participating state without landing is
called:
A) The fifth freedom of the air
B) The first freedom of the air
C) The second freedom of the air
D) The fourth freedom of the air

36) The privilege of landing in another state for a technical stop only is called:
A) The first freedom of the air
B) The second freedom of the air
C) The third freedom of the air
D) The fifth freedom of the air

37) What does the International Air Transport Agreement provide for?
A) Free and unhindered transit of aeroplanes over the high seas
B) The freedom for aeroplanes of one State to land in the territory of another State for the
purpose of refuelling
C) The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other
participating state
D) The freedom for aeroplanes to fly over the territory of any other State without landing

38) Why is the 8th freedom of the air particularly applicable to the European Union?
A) To prevent non-JAA states operating domestic scheduled services in Europe
B) Because the EU is primarily a commercial arrangement and it is commercially sensible to
prevent non-EU carriers from profiting in Europe
C) Because the Chicago Convention allows a state to give exclusivity of internal air services to
another state
D) Because the EU is effectively one state as far as the internal movement of people is
concerned

39) Which convention deals with the operator's liability regarding mail, cargo and baggage?
A) Vienna
B) Tokyo
C) Brussels
D) Montreal

40) According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person
committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?
A) The Convention of Chicago
B) The Convention of Warsaw
C) The Convention of Tokyo
D) The Convention of Rome

41) Which convention on international air navigation resulted in the agreements concerning the
responsibilities with illegal acts committed on board aircraft?
A) The Geneva Convention
B) The Chicago Convention
C) The Tokyo Convention
D) The Montreal Convention
 42) Does the liability of a carrier extend to the carriage of mail and cargo as well as passengers?
A) Yes, but only mail and international cargo
B) Yes but only to internal, not international flights
C) No
D) Yes, but only to scheduled flights (3rd, 4th and 5th freedom flights)

43) Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in flight and
destroying or damaging any air navigation facility punishable?
A) The Montreal Convention
B) The Warsaw Convention
C) The Chicago Convention
D) The Tokyo Convention

44) The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within:

A) 6 months
B) 2 years
C) 5 years
D) 1 year

45) A carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of death or wounding of a passenger if
the accident that caused the damage:
A) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and
disembarking
B) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and
disembarking or after the booking in of the passenger
C) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and
disembarking including time spent after the passenger has checked in for flight
D) Took place on board the aircraft

46) Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to
third parties on the surface?
A) The Tokyo Convention
B) The Montreal Convention
C) The Rome Convention
D) The Guatemala Convention

47) If a person is injured by a part falling from an aircraft flying over the state but registered in
another state, which convention covers this?
A) Paris
B) Rome
C) Chicago
D) Tokyo
 48) What is the status of IATA?
A) It is the international legislative arm of ICAO
B) It is an associate body ICAO
C) It is a trade association of aviation operators and others involved with international aviation
D) It represents the air transport operators at ICAO

49) In which area of Air Traffic Control in Europe does Eurocontrol have a logical and
operationally essential role to play?
A) National airspace management within Europe
B) Air Traffic Flow Management in Europe
C) Regional air navigation planning in Europe
D) Regulation of civil aviation in Europe

50) “Which one of the following statements applies to the general organisation and objectives of
the IATA? The IATA is…”
A) an international trade body which represents, leads and serves airline business in general.
B) an international organisation for innovation, efficient co-operation and assistance for
telecommunications in aviation.
C) a multi-national organisation for developing trade agreements in international aviation
(scheduled and non-scheduled services).
D) a specialisedorganisation of the United Nations for international air traffic agreements.

51) An aircraft flying over the territory of another state must:

A) Follow the rules of the Air of the State it is over flying
B) Follow the rules of the Air of the State that has issued the aircraft Certificate of airworthiness
C) Follow the rules of the Air of the State of the Operator
D) Follow the rules of the Air of the State of Registration

52) What does the acronym IATA stand for?

A) International Air Trade Agreement
B) International Airline Trade Agreement
C) International Airline Training Association
D) International Air Transport Association

53) What is the role of EASA?

A) EASA proposes guidelines to the aviation industry and promotes the highest common
standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.
B) EASA makes only rule propositions to the National Aviation Authorities without the
obligation to implement these.
C) EASA proposes rules to the National Aviation Authorities and promotes the highest common
standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.
D) EASA proposes implementing rules to the European Commission and promotes the highest
common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.

54) What is the role of the National Aviation Authorities (NAAs) in relation to EASA in the field of
air operations?
A) EASA is the Regulatory Authority and the NAAs can implement or reject the rules on air
operations.
B) EASA provides safety recommendations to the NAAs, which implement their own rules.
C) EASA suggests rules to the NAAs, which they can reject or implement.
D) EASA proposes Implementing Rules and the NAAs act as competent authorities.

55) Which of the answers fits with the case when there is an unruly passenger during flight?
A) The PIC may only request the assistance of the cabin crew
B) The PIC may disembark the passenger in any Contracting State
C) The PIC may only disembark the passenger at the state over which the offence took place
D) The PIC must fly to the state of registry to disembark the passenger

56) What is IATA's mission?

A) to implement aeronautical telecommunications advancement
B) to represent, lead and serve the airline industry
C) to implement standards and trade arrangements for international travel
D) to implement international arms trade agreements

57) The Annexes established by ICAO contain:

A) Aeronautical standards binding in all states
B) Proposals of aeronautical regulation in the form of 19 Annexes
C) ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS) to be adopted by contracting states
D) Standards and Renewal practices applied without exception by all states in accordance with
the Chicago Convention

58)The Annexes established by the International Civil Aviation Organisation contain…

A) Standards and Recommended Practices to be adopted by Contracting States.
B) aeronautical standards binding in all states.
C) Standards and Recommended Practices applied without exception by all States, signatory to
the Chicago Convention.
D) proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 19 Annexes.
59) “ICAO Organisation - The body of ICAO that considers and recommends modifications to the
Annexes of the Convention to the ICAO Council is the…”
A) Assembly.
B) Air Navigation Commission.
C) Legal Committee.
D) Transport Committee.

60) The authority of the pilot-in-command in case of offences and certain acts committed on
board aircraft is established by the Convention of…
A) Paris.
B) Rome.
C) Chicago.
D) Tokyo.

61) What is the role and objective of EASA?

A) EASA proposes guidelines to the aviation industry and promotes the highest common
standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.
B) EASA proposes implementing rules to the European Commission and promotes the highest
common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.
C) EASA proposes rules to the National Aviation Authorities and promotes the highest common
standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.
D) EASA makes only rule propositions to the National Aviation Authorities without the
obligation to implement these.
1) The State of Design of an aeroplane, shall ensure that there exists a continuing structural
integrity programme to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane. This includes specific
information concerning corrosion prevention for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated…
A) take-off and landing mass up to 5700 kg.
B) take-off and landing mass over 5700 kg.
C) take-off mass up to 5700 kg.
D) take-off mass over 5700 kg.

2) “Continued Airworthiness after damage. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft
shall be allowed to resume its flight, if the…”
A) State of Manufacture informs the State of Registry that the damage sustained is of a nature
such that the aircraft is still airworthy.
B) State of Design and the State of Manufacture inform the State of Registry that the aircraft is
still airworthy.
C) State of Registry considers that the damage sustained is of such nature that the aircraft is still
airworthy.
D) State of Registry, the State of Design and the State of Manufacture consider that the aircraft
is still airworthy.

3) The loading limitations shall include:

A) All limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loading
B) All limiting mass and centres of gravity
C) All limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading
D) All limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity

4) Validity and renewal of a Certificate of Airworthiness shall be subject to laws of the;

A) Requirements laid down by ICAO
B) States of Registry and operation.
C) Laws of the State of registry
D) Laws of the State in which is operated

5) Any aircraft deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic forces is…
A) an aeroplane.
B) a lighter-than-air aircraft.
C) a rotorcraft.
D) a heavier-than-air aircraft.

6) When is an Airworthiness Certificate required?

A) Any flight with passengers
B) Only flights that land in an airport different from the departure airport
C) Any flight operation
D) International flight
7) Who is responsible for ensuring a programme for continued airworthiness for aircraft over
5700 kg exists?
A) State of Manufacture.
B) State of Occurence.
C) State of Design.
D) State of Registry.

8) Which State ensures the existence of a continuing structural integrity programme to ensure
the airworthiness of the aeroplane above 5700 kg certificated take-off mass?
A) The State of Manufacture.
B) The State of Design.
C) The State of Maintenance Facility.
D) The State of Registry.
 1) When letters are used for registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with urgent signals for example:
A) FFF
B) TTT
C) LLL
D) RCC

2) According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of

letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
A) The state of registry or common mark registering authority
B) The International Civil Aviation Organisation
C) The International Telecommunication Union
D) The state of registry only

3) The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call
signs allocated :
A) To state of the operator
B) To the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication
Union
C) To the State of registry by the International Telecommunication Union
D) To the state of registry by the International Civil Aviation Organisation

4) The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made
by :
A) The state of registry
B) The state of registry and accepted by the International Telecommunication Union
C) The International Telecommunication Union
D) The International Civil Aviation Organisation

5) Which of the following combinations of letters may be used for registration marks?
A) TTT
B) QNH
C) VOR
D) SOS

6) The registration mark shall be assigned by (i) and made up of (ii):

A) (i) National Aviation Authority, (ii) letters or numbers or a combination of letters and numbers

B) (i) National Aviation Authority, (ii) letters or numbers

C) (i) State of Registry, (ii) letters or numbers or a combination of letters and numbers
D) (i) ICAO, (ii) letters or numbers or a combination of letters and numbers

7) Some letter combinations shall not be used in registration marks. Which of the following
combinations might be confused with an urgent or distress signal?
A) XXX
B) I I I
C) DDD
D) RCC

8) The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
A) At least 75 centimetres
B) At least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres
C) At least 60 centimetres
D) At least 50 centimetres

9) When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might
be confused with the:
A) Three letters combinations used in the international code of signals
B) Four letter combinations beginning with Q
C) Five letter combinations used in the international code of signals
D) Letters used for ICAO identification documents

10) When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might
be confused with urgent or distress signals for example:
A) LLL
B) DDD
C) RCC
D) XXX

11) Which of the following could be used as a registration mark?

A) VOR
B) QNH
C) SOS
D) TTT

12) The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail
surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
A) At least 40 centimetres
B) At least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres
C) At least 30 centimetres
D) At least 20 centimetres

13) When letters are used for registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with urgent signals for example:
A) DDD
B) LLL
C) RCC
D) PAN
1) If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence
due to illness, the authority must be informed:
A) After 21 days of consecutive "illness"
B) If still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires
C) After one calendar month of consecutive illness
D) As soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21days

2) The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanes
shall prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such
aircraft only by instrumental rules and an engine _________.
A) Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive.
B) Land/inactive.
C) Single-engine/inactive.
D) Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative.

3) For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not
less than .….….….….….….…… if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night:
A) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command
B) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
C) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
D) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command or
as co-pilot

4) The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as a co-pilot at a pilot station of an aircraft
certificated for operation by a single pilot but required by a contracting state to be operated
with a co-pilot shall be entitled to be credited with not more than:
A) 60% of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a
pilot licence
B) 100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
C) 40% of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a
pilot licence
D) 50% of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of
pilot licence

5) The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended
practices for Personnel Licensing is:
A) Annex 1
B) Annex 12
C) Annex 2
D) Annex 11
6) Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications
for a crew licence to have international validity?
A) Annex 2
B) Annex 1
C) Annex 3
D) Annex 4

7) According to EASA Part-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilot aeroplanes not
requiring a type rating, including:
A) All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine.
B) Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all three
dimensions.
C) All touring motor gliders
D) Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.

8) According to EASA Part FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be
assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has:
A) A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.
B) Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member
C) Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training
D) A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.

9) The privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating are to conduct flight instruction for
the issue of a CPL(A):
A) Provided that the FI(A) has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot of
aeroplanes including at least 200 hours of flight instruction
B) Provided that the FI(A) has completed not less than 15 hours on the relevant type in the
preceeding 12 months
C) Provided that the FI(A) has completed 200 hours of flight instruction
D) Without restriction

10) As part of the total flight time requirement of 1 500 hours, the applicant for an Airline
Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed not less than 200 hours of cross-
country flight time on aeroplanes. How much of this shall be pilot-in command time or co-
pilot time under the supervision of the pilot in command, performing the duties and
functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is
acceptable to the licensing authority?
A) 50 hours
B) 100 hours
C) 75 hours
D) 10 hours
11) When pilot licence holders have reached the age of 40 and are engaged in single-pilot
commercial air transport operations carrying passengers, the validity of a Class 1 medical
certificate is reduced in accordance with the relevant medical requirements from…
A) 24 to 12 months.
B) none of the answers are correct.
C) 12 to 3 months.
D) 12 to 6 months.

12) If an international commercial air service is operated with a single pilot aircraft, what is the
maximum age of the pilot ?
A) 59
B) 60
C) 65
D) 69

13) In accordance with ICAO Annex 1, when a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by
another contracting state, the validity of the authorisation:
A) Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.
B) Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence.
C) Is only considered for PPL.
D) Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and CPL.

14) According to EASA Part-FCL, a professional flight crew licence issued by a non EASA State may
be rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a EASA Member State:
A) At the discretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding
the period validity of basic licence
B) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not
exceeding one year
C) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not
exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid
D) At the discretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding
the period agreed

15) When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the
validity of the authorisation:
A) The Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own
discretion
B) Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private
flights
C) Shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence
D) Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence
16) According to the relevant FCL requirements, one of the privileges of the holder of an
aeroplane Commercial Pilot Licence is to act as pilot-in-command on any…
A) aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation.
B) aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation.
C) aircraft.
D) aeroplane certificated for single pilot operation other than in commercial air transportation.

17) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than
........ hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight
totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two
different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred are:
A) 20 hours and 540 km (300 NM)
B) 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)
C) 20 hours and 270 km (150 NM)
D) 15 hours and 540 km (300 NM)

18) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not
less than:
A) 10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not
less than 540 km (300NM)
B) 15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not
less than 540 km (300NM)
C) 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not
less than 540 km (300NM)
D) 25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not
less than 540 km (300NM)

19) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not
less than:
A) 150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command
B) 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a
pilot of aeroplanes
C) 200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command
D) 200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command

20) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
A) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument
ground time.
B) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument
ground time
C) 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command
D) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument
ground time

21) Minimum and maximum age for ATPL holders. According to ICAO Annex 1, the minimum /
maximum age for the holder of an ATPL to excercise their full privilege is:
A) 16 and 60 years.
B) 18 and 60 years.
C) 21 and 59 years.
D) 17 and 59 years.

22) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in
aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than
...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under
the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command
provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority.
The stated above hours are respectively :
A) 150 hours and 75 hours
B) 250 hours and 70 hours
C) 200 hours and 75 hours
D) 200 hours and 100 hours

23) The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not
less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours shall be as
pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the
duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision
employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively :
A) 200 hours and 100 hours
B) 200 hours and 75 hours
C) 250 hours and 10 hours
D) 150 hours and 75 hours

24) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not
less than:
A) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time.
B) 150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75 hours of instrument ground time.
C) 100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours of instrument ground time
D) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground
time.

25) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not
less than:
A) 75 hours of night time only as pilot in command
B) 100 hours of night flight only as pilot in command
C) 100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot
D) 75 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot

26) The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a
synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1
500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of :
A) 100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure
trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
B) 100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument
flight trainer
C) 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure
trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
D) 75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure
trainer or basic instrument flight trainer

27) According to the relevant FCL requirements, the holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-
pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a
pilot in command shall be credited…
A) with the amount of flight time as agreed with the licensing authority.
B) in full with the recorded flight time, but not with more than 300 hours of the total time
required for a higher grade of pilot licence.
C) in full with this flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.
D) with 50 - of this flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.

28) According to EASA-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane
at least 1.500 hours of flight time, including:
A) 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with FAR
25 or FAR 23, as pilot-in-command
B) 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with FAR
25 or FAR 23, of which up to 150 hours may be as flight engineer.
C) 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with FAR
25 or FAR 23.
D) 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with FAR
25 or FAR 23, including 200 hours of night flight as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot.

29) According to the relevant FCL requirements, the applicant for an ATPL(A) shall have
demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres
of an aeroplane type certificated for…
A) the carriage of passengers at night.
B) a minimum crew of two pilots under IFR.
C) a minimum crew of two pilots plus a flight engineer.
D) operations by pilots under training.
30) In accordance with EASA Flight Crew Licence requirements, the credit for multi-pilot
aeroplane co-pilot time is…
A) 75 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher licence
class.
B) 100 hours of the flying time required for a higher licence class.
C) 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher licenceclass.
D) 100 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher licence
class.

31) According to the relevant FCL requirements, the applicant for an IR shall hold a PPL including
a night qualification, or a CPL, and shall have completed at least 50 hours…
A) instructional flight time as student pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at
least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes for IR(A), or helicopters for IR(H).
B) instructional flight time as student pilot-in-command of aeroplanes for IR(A), or helicopters
for IR(H)
C) cross-country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall
be in aeroplanes for IR(A), or in helicopters for IR(H)
D) cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least
10 hours shall be in aeroplanes for IR(A), or in helicopters for IR(H).

32) According to EASA Part FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed an
completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes
having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a EASA Member State at least:
A) 200 hours of flight time
B) 150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time
C) 150 hours of flight time
D) 200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time

33) According to EASA Part FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for :

A) The period of validity of the medical certificate.
B) Not more than two years
C) Not more than three years
D) The period of validity of the class/type rating.

34) Minimum flight experience requirements for the IR. The applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a
PPL (A) including a night qualification or a CPL(A) and shall have completed at least:
A) 50 hours instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes.
B) 50 hours instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters
of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
C) 50 hours cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which
at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
D) 50 hours cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes of which at least 10 hours shall be in
aeroplanes.

35) The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is:

A) 1 year
B) 6 months
C) 5 years
D) 2 years

36) An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an
instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-
command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less
than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively:
A) 50 hours and 10 hours
B) 40 hours and 10 hours
C) 50 hours and 15 hours
D) 40 hours and 15 hours

37) Type ratings shall be established:

A) All the answers are correct
B) Only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and
each type of helicopter
C) For any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority
D) Only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots

38) According to EASA Part-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for:

A) The period of validity of the licence.
B) One year
C) Two years
D) Indefinitely

39) According to EASA Part-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be
one year from the date:
A) The application is received by the Authority.
B) Of the last medical certificate
C) Of issue
D) Of the skill test

40) According to EASA Part FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for:
A) Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter.
B) Five years after licence issue.
C) Two years
D) One year

41) According to the relevant FCL requirements, the successful completion of multi-crew co-
operation (MCC) training is one of the conditions required for…
A) a professional pilot licence.
B) a first type rating on multi-pilot aeroplanes.
C) any revalidation of a rating on a multi-pilot aeroplane.
D) a first class rating on multi-engine aeroplanes.

42) The holder of a pilot's licence shall inform the Authority of any illness, which they are
suffering, which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the license relates
throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is:
A) 90
B) 21
C) 30
D) 60

43) According to the relevant medical requirements, the applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence
shall hold a current;
A) medical assessment as prescribed by the State issuing the licence.
B) Class III medical assessment.
C) Class I medical assessment.
D) Class II medical assessment.

44) Under certain circumstances and in compliance with ICAO Annex 1, a medical examination
may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment
shall only be made as an exception, and shall not exceed…
A) a single period of 12 months in the case of a private pilot.
B) a single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in
non-commercial operations.
C) a single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in
commercial operations.
D) two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an
aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.

45) The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:
A) The medical assessment is issued
B) The licence is delivered to the pilot
C) The licence is issued or renewed
D) The licence is issued or validated
46) When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter engaged in
single pilot operations have passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be
reduced from:
A) 12 months to 3 months
B) 12 months to 6 months
C) 24 months to 12 months
D) None of the answers are correct

47) According to Part-FCL, Medical certificates classes are:

A) Class 1 only.
B) 1 and 2
C) 1,2,3 and 4
D) 1, 2 and 3

48) What is the minimum age for a pilot to hold a CPL?

A) 18
B) 24
C) 21
D) 17

49) How much flight time must an applicant for a CPL (A) have completed?
A) 200 or 150 hours
B) 200 or 180 hours
C) 250 or 200 hours
D) 250 or 200 hours with a maximum of 25 FNPT

50) What amount of refresher training has to be expected if a type-rating is expired longer than 3
years?
A) The applicant should undergo a minimum of two additional simulator missions.
B) The applicant should again undergo the training required for the initial issue of the rating, or,
in case of helicopter, the training required for the `additional type issue`, according to other
valid ratings held.
C) The applicant should again undergo a minimum of three training sessions in which the most
important malfunctions in the available systems are covered.
D) The applicant should again undergo a normal recurrent training.

51) When does FLIGHT TIME end?

A) At engine shut down when the aeroplane has stopped in the parking bay
B) When all the passengers have disembarked
C) At touchdown
D) When the aeroplane first stops after landing to disembark passengers
52) When does night exist?
A) From the beginning of evening civil twilight until the beginning of morning civil twilight
B) During the period when the centre of the Sun's disc is 6° below the horizon
C) From 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes after sunrise
D) During the hours of darkness

53) To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL)
is:
A) 18 and 64 years
B) 17 and 64 years
C) 21 and 64 years
D) 16 and 64 years

54) When a pilot has taken psychoactive drugs s/he can:

A) fly but not as PIC
B) be happy
C) not fly as it affects performance
D) fly as it does not affect performance

55) “The administrative action taken after a rating or certificate has lapsed for the purpose of
renewing the privileges of the rating or certificate for a further specified period consequent
upon the fulfilment of specified requirements” Is the definition for the term…
A) renewal.
B) fulfilment.
C) revalidation.
D) extension.

56) Who can remove limitations on a Class 1 medical certificate?

A) An AME.
B) An AME in consultation with an AeMC.
C) The Licensing Authority.
D) An AeMC.

57) What is the validity of a Class 2 medical?

A) 24 months up to the age of 30
B) 24 months up to the age of 40
C) 24 months up to the age of 45
D) 60 Months up to the age of 40

58) What is the validity period of a Class One medical when the pilot is aged 62?
A) 6 months
B) 24 months
C) 3 months
D) 12 months

59) The applicant for the first type rating course for a multi-pilot helicopter type shall:
A) Have at least 100 hours as PIC on helicopters
B) Have at least 70 hours as PIC on helicopters
C) Have at least 135 hours as PIC on helicopters
D) Have at least 80 hours as PIC on helicopters

60) When revalidating a type rating for a helicopter or aeroplane, during what period should this
be conducted?
A) Within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating.
B) Within the month post expiry.
C) Within one month immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating.
D) Within the 4 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating.

61) What is the definition of the term cross-country?

A) A flight between a point of departure and a point of arrival following a pre-planned route,
using standard navigation procedures.
B) A flight where the departure and the arrival aerodrome are the same.
C) A flight between a point of departure and a point of arrival without any pre-planning, using
standard navigation procedures.
D) A flight between a point of departure and a point of arrival following a pre-planned route,
without using standard navigation procedures.

62) What is the validity for a Class 1 medical certificate for a licence holder who is 62 years of
age?
A) 36 months
B) 12 months
C) 6 months
D) 24 months

63) Which restrictions apply to licence holders aged between 60 and less than 65 in commercial
air transport?
A) Multi-pilot crew only.
B) Multi-pilot crew only and the other crew member has to be a Co-pilot
C) No restrictions if the other crew member is younger than 40 years.
D) Multi-pilot crew only and the other flight crew member has to be a Captain.

64) What are the mimimum hours for a CPL applicant who has completed an integrated course?
A) 200 hours, not including 5 hours instrument ground time
B) 200 hours, including 5 hours instrument ground time
C) Integrated course: 150 hours, not including 5 hours instrument ground time
D) Integrated course: 150 hours, including 5 hours instrument ground time

65) One of the privileges of the holder of a CPL(A) is to exercise all the privileges of the holder
of…
A) an LAPL(A)
B) an LAPL(A) and a PPL(A).
C) a PPL(A) and an SPL.
D) A PPL(A) only.

66) He/she may undertake a ________________ to further extend the validity of the instrument
rating.
A) Revalidation
B) Renewal
C) Medical
D) Examination

67) At what age shall the holder of a pilot licence NOT act as a pilot of an aeroplane or helicopter
engaged in commercial air transport?
A) 58 years
B) 62 years
C) 65 years
D) 60 years

68) According to EASA Flight Crew Licence requirements, the minimum age for an applicant for a
Commercial Pilot Licence is…
A) 21 years of age.
B) 18 years of age.
C) 16 years of age.
D) 17 years of age.

69) According to the relevant FCL requirements, the applicant for an aeroplane Commercial Pilot
Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes, not less, than…
A) 20 hours of VFR cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight
of not less than 540 km / 300 NM.
B) 15 hours of VFR cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight
of not less than 540 km / 300 NM.
C) 30 hours of VFR cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight
of not less than 540 km / 300 NM.
D) 25 hours of VFR cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight
of not less than 540 km / 300 NM.

70) According to the relevant FCL requirements, the applicant for a commercial pilot licence -
without IR- shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than…
A) 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command.
B) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument
ground time.
C) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument
ground time.
D) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument
ground time.

71) According to FCL requirements for the issue of the ATPL(A), of the required 1500 hours of
total flight time, an applicant shall have completed at least 200 hours of cross-country flight
time, of which the time as PIC or PIC under supervision shall be at least…
A) 100 hours.
B) 150 hours.
C) 125 hours.
D) 75 hours.

72) According to FCL requirements for the issue of the ATPL(A) or (H), of the required 1500 hours
of total flight time, the minimum night flight time as PIC or as co-pilot shall be…
A) 75 hours.
B) 125 hours.
C) 100 hours.
D) 150 hours.

73) Which option most accurately reflects the definition of “multi-pilot aeroplanes”, according to
Part-FCL?
A) Aeroplanes certificated specifically for commercial operation and with a minimum crew of at
least two pilots.
B) Aeroplanes certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots.
C) Aeroplanes that may be operated by a crew of one or two pilots.
D) Civil aeroplanes certificated specifically for commercial operation and with a minimum crew
of at least two pilots.

74) What is the validity for a Class 1 medical certificate for a licence holder who is 45 years of age
and is engaged in single-pilot commercial air transport operations carrying passengers?
A) 24 months
B) 6 months
C) 12 months
D) 36 months

75) According to the relevant FCL requirements, the applicant for a Commercial Pilot
Licenceaeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than…
A) 250 hours of flight time or 200 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a
pilot of aeroplanes.
B) 200 hours of flight time or 180 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a
pilot of aeroplanes.
C) 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a
pilot of aeroplanes.
D) 250 hours of flight time or 175 hours of flight time and 25 hours FFS or FNPT if completed
during a course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes.

76) According to the relevant FCL requirements, the minimum age for the issue of an ATPL is…
A) 18 years.
B) 19 years.
C) 24 years.
D) 21 years.

77)The flying training for an applicant of a CPL(A) integrated course shall comprise…
A) a total of at least 200 flying hours, instrument ground time not provided.
B) a total of at least 150 flying hours, instrument ground time not provided.
C) a total of at least 200 flying hours, of which up to 10 hours for the entire course may be
instrument ground time.
D) a total of at least 150 flying hours, of which up to 5 hours for the entire course may be
instrument ground time.

78) According to FCL requirements for the issue of the ATPL(A), of the required 1500 hours of
total flight time, up to 100 hours may have been completed in a FS or FNPT, of which the
time completed in an FNPT may be a maximum of…
A) 75 hours.
B) 25 hours.
C) 50 hours.
D) 20 hours.

79) According to FCL requirements for the issue of the ATPL(A), of the required 1500 hours of
total flight time, the minimum instrument time shall be…
A) 75 hours, of which not more than 20 hours may be instrument ground time.
B) 150 hours, of which not more than 75 hours may be instrument ground time.
C) 100 hours, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time.
D) 75 hours, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time.
80) For the issue of an instrument rating the holder of a PPL or CPL shall have completed at least
50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command, according to the relevant FCL
requirements, the minimum required cross country flight hours in the relevant aircraft
category are…
A) 15 hours.
B) 25 hours.
C) none.
D) 10 hours.

81) According to the relevant medical requirements, for the initial medical examination the
validity of the medical assessment shall begin at the date the…
A) licence is issued or renewed.
B) medical examination is performed.
C) licence is issued or validated.
D) medical certificate is issued or validated.

82) In accordance with Part-FCL requirements, one of the privileges of a holder of an ATPL(A)is
to…
A) exercise all the privileges of the holder of an LAPL(A), a PPL(A),a Sailplane Pilot Licence (SPL),
and a CPL(A).
B) act as PIC of aeroplanes engaged in commercial air transport.
C) act as PIC or co-pilot of any category of aircraft engaged in operations other than commercial
air transport.
D) exercise all the privileges of the holder of an ATPL(H).
1) ICAO Annex 2; Definitions. The person charged with the safe conduct of a flight is the;
A) ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace.
B) airline operator.
C) aircraft owner.
D) pilot-in-command.

2) In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its track given in the current
flight plan, action should be taken in order to;
A) Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable.
B) notify the appropriate ATS unit immediately of the new track and comply with their
instructions.
C) maintain VMC, wait for instructions from the appropriate ATS unit.
D) climb or descend by 500 ft, inform the appropriate ATS unit.

3) Which of the following signal means that an aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which
compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
A) The switching on and off three times of the navigation lights.
B) The switching on and off of the landing lights in a sequence to indicate the Morse code
letters SOS.
C) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights.
D) The switching on and off alternatively of the landing and navigation lights.

4) When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, the appropriate
air traffic service unit must be informed when…
A) the average true air speed varies by plus or minus 5% of the true air speed given in the flight
plan.
B) a deviation is made from the track.
C) the estimated time to the next reporting point is found to be in error in excess of ten
minutes.
D) a cabin depressurisation occurs.

5) The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:

A) Glider flying is performed outside the landing area;
B) Taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ;
C) Landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only;
D) This aerodrome is using parallel runways

6) VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are :
A) 8 km visibility, and clear of clouds ;
B) 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ;
C) 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ;
D) No minima, VFR flights are not permitted
7) Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft
above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR
flight :
A) At least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
B) At least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
C) At least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
D) At least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position

8) Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome,

experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring
immediate assistance?
A) Switching on and off three times the landing lights
B) Switching on and off four times the landing lights
C) Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
D) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

9) While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal : a
series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :
A) Is cleared for take-off.
B) Must return to its point of departure.
C) May continue to taxy towards the take-off area.
D) Must stop.

10) While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower : series of
red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :
A) May continue to taxi to the take-off area.
B) Must vacate the landing area in use.
C) Must stop.
D) Must return to its point of departure.

11) Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes
from the tower. The aircraft :
A) Is cleared to land.
B) Must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
C) Must land immediately and clear the landing area.
D) Must give way to another aircraft.

12) Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft conflict with
ATC instructions. You should:
A) Follow ATC instructions.
B) Request ATC for other instructions.
C) Follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft.
D) Select code A7500 on your transponder.

13) An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control
tower. This signifies that the aircraft must :
A) Return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.
B) Not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.
C) Not land because the airport is not available for landing.
D) Give way to another aircraft.

14) An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:

A) Outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed;
B) While taxiing, but not when it is being towed;
C) On the ground when the engines are running
D) Outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable;

15) An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to
divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS
shall try to:
A) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between
cabin pressure and outside pressure
B) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL
290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290
C) Fly the emergency triangle
D) Declare an emergency

16) During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio
communication failure. You will :
A) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ;
B) Select A7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination ;
C) Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ;
D) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC

17) Given:

AGL = above ground level

AMSL = above mean sea level

FL = flight level

within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above the
following two levels:
A) 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL.
B) FL 30 or 100 ft AGL.
C) 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL.
D) FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL.

18) A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft in flight
means…
A) make a short approach and land as soon as possible.
B) cleared to land.
C) return for landing.
D) continue circling and give way to other aircraft.

19) The pilot in command of an aircraft: 1. Must comply immediately to all instructions received
from ATC. 2. Is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying". 3. May deviate from air regulations
for safety reasons. 4. May be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC
instruction. 5. May ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance. Which of the
following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
A) 3, 5
B) 1, 4
C) 3, 4, 5
D) 2, 3, 5

20) Who is in general responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?
A) The ATC
B) The pilot-in-command
C) The aircraft operator
D) The ATS reporting office accepting the flight plan

21) The final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft is with the…
A) Pilot-in-command.
B) Operator.
C) ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace.
D) aircraft owner.

22) If an uncontrolled flight is delayed, the flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new
flight plan submitted when the delay exceeds the estimated…
A) off-block time by 30 minutes.
B) off-block time by 60 minutes.
C) departure time by 60 minutes.
D) departure time by 30 minutes.
23) An overtaking aircraft is an aircraft that approaches another aircraft from the rear on a line
forming an angle of less than…
A) 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
B) 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
C) 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
D) 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.

24) A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft in flight
means:
A) Continue circling and give way to other aircraft
B) Return for landing
C) Make a short appproach and land as soon as possible
D) Cleared to land

25) A red flare addressed to an aircraft in flight means:

A) Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
B) Slow down to minimum speed, give way to other aircraft in the circuit and continue circling.
C) Aerodrome unsafe, do not land.
D) Return for approach, clearance to land to be expected on final.

26) In flight the pilot of an aircraft observes a series of projectiles discharged from the ground at
intervals of 10 seconds, each showing, on bursting, red and green lights or stars. The
meaning of this signal is the…
A) aircraft shall establish radio contact on 121.5 MHz with the station on the ground discharging
the projectiles.
B) aircraft is flying in or about to enter a restricted, prohibited or danger area. The aircraft shall
take such remedial action as may be necessary.
C) aircraft is crossing an ATZ without authorisation and must give way to traffic in the circuit.4
D) aerodrome nearby you have chosen for landing is unsafe, do not attempt to land. Proceed to
your alternate.

27) If a controlled flight is delayed, the flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new
flight plan submitted when the delay exceeds…
A) 30 minutes of the estimated off-block time.
B) 60 minutes of the estimated off-block time.
C) 30 minutes of the estimated time of departure.
D) 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.

28) For flights under IFR within advisory airspace, a flight plan;
A) Shall be submitted. There is no obligation to report changes.
B) Shall be submitted and changes to the flight plan reported.
C) does not have to be submitted.
D) May be submitted at the pilot's discretion. In case a flight plan is submitted all changes shall
be reported as soon as practicable to the appropriate ATS unit

29) Pilots of controlled flights shall inform the appropriate ATS when the average TAS at cruising
level varies or is expected to vary from the TAS given in the flight plan by…
A) 2%
B) 3%
C) 5%
D) 4%

30) A marshaller requests a pilot to engage the brakes with the signal;
A) horizontally moving hands fingers extended, palms towards the ground.
B) Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist.
C) crossing arms extended above their head.
D) arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.

31) A series of red flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft in flight means;
A) give way to an aircraft in an emergency situation.
B) aerodrome unsafe, do not land.
C) aerodrome temporarily closed, continue circling.
D) continue circling and wait for further instruction.

32) A series of red flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft on the ground
means;
A) Stop and taxi back, you are on the wrong taxiway.
B) give way to other aircraft that are taxiing.
C) slow down taxi speed.
D) Taxi clear of landing area in use.

33) A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft on the ground
means;
A) reduce taxi speed, but continue taxiing.
B) accelerate taxi speed and expedite.
C) cleared to taxi.
D) stand by, clearance for take-off will be given shortly.4

34) The appropriate ATS unit has to be informed:

A) If the average TAS at cruising level varies or is expected to vary by +/- 5% from that given in
the flight plan.
B) About any track deviation.
C) About any deviation in TAS.
D) If the time estimate for the next reporting point is found to be in error in excess of more than
ten minutes from that notified to ATS.

35)Aircraft equipped with red anti-collision lights shall display them…

A) while taxiing, but not when being towed.
B) outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when being towed.
C) outside the daylight-period at engine-start, during the daylight period this procedure is not
applicable.
D) to attract attention to the aircraft.

36) The flight that has the highest priority for landing is;
A) an aircraft on a diplomatic flight.
B) an aircraft that requires an emergency landing.
C) an air ambulance carrying a person requiring immediate medical attention.
D) a military aircraft.

37) An aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to;
A) Aircraft taking off or about to take off.
B) larger aircraft.
C) Other vehicles or pedestrians.
D) all vehicles on the taxiways except the “follow me” vehicle.

38) When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is a danger of
collision, each aircraft shall…
A) switch on all lights to warn the other aircraft of its position.
B) turn, climb or descend as necessary to avoid a collision.
C) alter its heading to the right.
D) alter its heading to the left.

39) Aircraft A and B approach each other on converging courses in VMC at approximately the
same level in controlled airspace Class D. - Given that aircraft A is flying under IFR and aircraft
B is flying under VFR, which aircraft has the right of way?
A) Aircraft A providing it has aircraft B on its right.
B) Aircraft B providing it has aircraft A on its left.
C) Aircraft A regardless of the direction from which aircraft B is approaching.
D) Aircraft B regardless of the direction from which aircraft A is approaching.

40) When an aircraft enters the traffic circuit without proper authorisation, it shall;
A) not be permitted to land.
B) It shall be permitted to land if its actions indicate that it so desires
C) not be permitted to land unless it becomes evident that the aircraft is in a state of
emergency.
D) only be permitted to land after having received proper authorisation from the aerodrome
authority.

41) Above 3050 m (10000 ft) AMSL, the VMC minima for flights under VFR in all Classes of
airspace are…
A) not defined because VFR flights above 3050 m / 10000 ft are not permitted.
B) visibility of 5 km and distance from clouds 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical.
C) visibility of 8 km and distance from clouds 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical.
D) visibility of 8 km and clear of clouds.

42) Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, what are the minimum
meteorological conditions for VFR flights taking-off or landing at an aerodrome located
within a control zone?
A) Ceiling 1000 ft and Ground Visibility 10 km.
B) Ceiling 1000 ft and Ground Visibility 1.5 km.
C) Ceiling 1500 ft and Ground Visibility 5 km.
D) Ceiling 1500 ft and Ground Visibility 8 km.

43) An aircraft operating under VFR, at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL, and outside
controlled airspace, shall maintain a distance from clouds and a flight visibility of at least…
A) 600 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically, and a flight visibility of 5 km.
B) 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically, and a flight visibility of 8 km.
C) 1000 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically, and a flight visibility of 5 km.
D) 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically, and a flight visibility of 5 km.

44) Above an altitude of 10000 ft, flights operating within airspace Class "G" in accordance with
VFR shall observe the following weather minima:
A) A distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM) horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 8
km.
B) A distance from cloud: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 5 km.
C) A distance from cloud: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 8 km.
D) A distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM) horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 5
km.

45) What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
A) 500 feet
B) 1500 feet
C) 1000 feet
D) 2000 feet
46) Minimum level for flights under IFR - When not flying over high terrain or mountainous areas
and where no minimum flight altitude has been established, flights under IFR shall be flown
at a level that is at least…
A) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 10 NM of the estimated position of the
aircraft.
B) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the
aircraft.
C) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the
aircraft.
D) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 10 NM of the estimated position of the
aircraft.

47) Instrument Flight Rules & minimum level. Over high terrain or mountainous areas, where no
minimum flight altitude has been established, flights under IFR shall be flown at a level which
is at least;
A) 2 000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the
aircraft.
B) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 10 NM of the estimated position of the
aircraft.
C) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the
aircraft.
D) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 10 NM of the estimated position of the
aircraft.

48) After experiencing a two-way communication failure during a flight under IFR in VMC, the
correct procedure is to…
A) continue to fly in VMC and return to the aerodrome of departure.
B) maintain the assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome where VMC
conditions prevail.
C) continue the flight at the assigned level and route, carry out level changes as indicated in the
filed ATS flight plan, start the approach to the flight plan destination at the planned ETA.
D) continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report the arrival by the most
expeditious means to the appropriate Air Traffic Control unit.

49) If radio contact with an intercepting aircraft is established but communication in a common
language is not possible, the pilot of the intercepted aircraft shall communicate to the
intercepting aircraft that he is unable to comply with the instructions by pronouncing the
phrase…
A) NOT POSSIBLE.
B) CAN NOT COMPLY.
C) CAN NOT.
D) UNABLE TO COMPLY.
 50) An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall
immediately, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic service unit, select
Mode A:
A) Code 7700
B) Code 7500
C) Code 7000
D) Code 7600

51) An intercepting aircraft communicates to the intercepted aircraft;YOU MAY PROCEED;

A) Rocking aircraft twice in front of the intercepting aircraft, after acknowledgement by
intercepted aircraft a slow level turn (normally to the left).
B) An abrupt break-away manoeuvre from the intercepted aircraft consisting of a climbing turn
of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.
C) rocking the wings and flashing navigational lights at regular intervals.
D) circling the intercepted aircraft in an anti-clockwise pattern for aeroplanes, or in a clockwise
pattern for helicopters.

52) If the instructions received by radio from any sources are in conflict with those given by
visual signals from an intercepting aircraft, the intercepted aircraft shall…
A) ignore the signals of the intercepting aircraft and request instructions from the appropriate
ATS unit.
B) ignore the signals of the intercepting aircraft and continue in accordance with the last
clearance received and confirmed by the appropriate ATS unit.
C) follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft and request immediate clarification.
D) select transponder mode A 7600, fly holding patterns until having received instructions from
the appropriate ATS unit.

53) The crew of an intercepted aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio-communication
with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit by making a general call
on the frequency…

A) 121.5 MHz. If no contact can be established and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency
125.5 MHz.

B) 243 MHz. If no contact can be established and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency
125.5 MHz.

C) 121.5 MHz. If no contact can be established and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency
282.8 MHz.

D) 121.5 MHz. If no contact can be established and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency
243 MHz.
54) Interception of civil aircraft. The standard phrase used by an intercepting aircraft conveying
the meaning. Descend for landing is;
A) DESCEND FOR LAND; DEE-SEND FOR LAAND
B) YOU LAND; YOU-LAAND
C) LET DOWN; LET-DAUN
D) DESCEND; DEE-SEND

55) Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to
unlawful interference?
A) Code 7700
B) Code 7500
C) Code 7600.
D) Code 7000

56) Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air
traffic advisory service:
A) Need to file a flight plan
B) May file a flight plan under pilot's discretion
C) Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be
notified
D) Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit
providing that service

57) An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C
derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by:
A) +/- 300 ft
B) More than 200 ft
C) More than 300 ft
D) 300 ft

58) Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless:
A) They operate within non controlled airspace
B) Requested by ATC
C) They operate a transponder with Mode C
D) They operate within controlled airspace

59) When two or more aircraft are approaching an aerodrome for landing ...
A) the lower aircraft always has right of way
B) a higher aircraft that is closer to the runway may overtake a lower aircraft
C) the lower aircraft must give way to the higher aircraft
D) a lower aircraft that is faster may cut in front of a slower, higher aircraft
60) If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a
common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting
aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to land?
A) YOU LAND, pronouned YOU-LAAND
B) FOLLOW ME, promounced FOL-LO ME
C) DESCEND, pronounced DEE-SEND
D) PROCEED, pronounced PRO-SEED

61) If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a

common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting
aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?
A) You Land
B) Descend for Landing
C) Descend
D) Let Down

62) A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
A) Give way to other aircraft in emergency
B) The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling
C) The airport is unsafe, do not land
D) Continue circling and wait for further instructions

63) On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
A) Other vehicles or pedestrians
B) Other converging aircraft
C) Aircraft taking off or about to take off
D) All vehicles on the taxiways except the "follow me" vehicle

64) Which manoeuvre will be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot of this aircraft
wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED"?
A) Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern
B) Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights
C) Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft
D) Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the
intercepted aircraft

65) Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft
"B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a
converging course. Which has the right of way?
A) Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its right
B) Aircraft "A" regardless of the direction which "B" is approaching
C) Aircraft "B" regardless of the direction "A" is approaching
D) Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left

66) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
A) Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms towards ground
B) Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist
C) Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards
D) Crossing arms extended above his head

67) A red flare addressed to an aircraft in flight means:

A) Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being
B) Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit
C) Dangerous airfield. Do not land
D) Come back and land

68)A member of the flight crew being under the influence of psychoactive substances…
A) shall not undertake his function if he acts as pilot-in-command for that flight.
B) can undertake his function only if not acting as pilot flying.
C) shall not undertake his function, taking into consideration that human performance is
impaired.
D) can undertake his function only if the impact of the substances on the human performance is
minor.

69) An arrival report shall always contain the following items:

A) Aircraft identification, departure aerodrome, arrival aerodrome, time of departure
B) Aircraft identification, departure aerodrome,time of departure, arrival aerodrome, time of
arrival
C) Aircraft identification, departure aerodrome, number of persons on board, time of arrival
D) Aircraft identification, departure aerodrome, arrival aerodrome, time of arrival

70) Which of the following flight levels are correct cruising levels for a VFR flight with a magnetic
track of 200 degrees?
A) FL75, FL95, FL115.
B) FL70, FL90, FL110.
C) FL60, FL80, FL100.
D) FL65, FL85, FL105.

71) When is deviation from the rules of the air permitted?

A) Anytime the PIC thinks it is necessary
B) Only in the interests of flight safety
C) Only if the operator has special dispensation from the aircraft manufacturer
D) Only when it is economically advantageous

72) While flying at night, another aircraft reports that you are on his 100° relative bearing. In
that case, you should see his:
A) White navigation light
B) Red navigation light
C) Green and white navigation lights
D) Green navigation light

73) Ir radio communication is established between an interceptor and the incepted aircraft, what
would the intercepter pilot say when requesting your call sign?
A) Who are you?
B) Identify yourself
C) Call sign
D) What is your call sign?

74) What should a pilot do when hijacked?

A) Fly ±200 feet from standard levels
B) Continue on flight plan track
C) Fly a right hand race track pattern
D) Attempt to notify the appropriate air traffic service

75) When a glider and a powered aircraft are on the approach to land. the glider is the higher of
the aircraft, which has right of way
A) Glider
B) Powered aircraft
C) The lower aircraft always has right of way
D) The higher aircraft always has right of way

76) When intercepted you should Squawk . . .

A) 7700 Mode C
B) 7700 Mode A
C) 7500 Mode A
D) 7500 Mode C

77) You are subject to unlawful interference and you are unable to contact ATC. The most
appropriate course of action is to:
A) fly at a Flight Level 150 m (500 ft) different from your assigned cruising level in areas where
2,000 ft Vertical Separation is applied.
B) Squawk 7700
C) follow the procedures set out in ICAO Doc 7030 Regional SUPPS as to the correct course of
action to take given the situation.
D) fly at a Flight Level 75 m (250 ft) different from your assigned cruising level in areas where
1,000 ft Vertical Separtion is applied.

78) You must inform ATC as soon as your actual true airspeed differs from that indicated in your
flight plan. This deviation is as follows:
A) 10% or more
B) 3% or 5 minutes
C) 5% or in excess of 2 minutes
D) 5 knots or more

79) What is the maximum flight level that VFR flight is permitted?
A) FL 290
B) FL 200
C) FL250
D) FL100

80) When flying IFR with a magnetic track of 200, which Flight Levels would be appropriate?
View Annex 100680
A) FL 45, Fl 65, FL 85
B) FL 30, FL 50, FL 70
C) FL40, FL 60, FL 80
D) FL 35, FL 55, FL 75
81) When flying on an easterly heading, what correct levels do you fly on?
A) Usually even
B) Usually odd
C) Always odd
D) Always even
82) A glider and an aircraft towing a banner are on a converging course. Which has right of way?
A) Glider regardless of position
B) Towing aircraft when the glider is on its left
C) Towing aircraft regardless of position
D) Glider if the aircraft is on its left

83) On a heading of 230 degrees when in RVSM airspace, which of the levels below could you
fly?
A) FL 390
B) FL 380
C) FL 420
D) FL 310

84) Pre-flight procedures for an IFR flight the pilot-in-command of an aircraft should include:
A) a crew briefing
B) a check of the fuel calculations
C) a check of mass & balance
D) a study of available current weather reports and forecasts.

85) According to ICAO Annex 2, which phrase would be used by an intercepted aircraft for the
meaning “position unknown”?
A) Position unknown
B) Confused
C) Am lost
D) Strayed

86) During pre-flight procedures for an IFR flight the pilot in command should include:
A) mass and balance calculations
B) study of navigation charts
C) consideration of fuel requrements
D) short briefing to crew

87) When should navigation lights be displayed?

A) Sunset to sunrise when in flight or as prescribed by the appropriate authority
B) Sunset to sunrise with engines running and anti-collisions lights ON
C) At all times when manoeuvering on the ground
D) Sunrise to sunset when in flight or as prescribed by the appropriate authority

88) What is a current flight plan?

A) A filed flight plan.
B) A filed flight plan with amendments and clearance included
C) A filed flight plan with the correct time of departure.
D) A flight plan when radio communication is expected between the aircraft and ATC.

89) You are flying VFR in controlled airspace but cannot maintain VMC. Do you:
A) Continue VFR as long as practicable and land at nearest suitable airfield.
B) Land immediately
C) Requestion Special VFR if in a Terminal Area
D) Continue IMC and notify ATC

90) When flying on an airway with an easterly magnetic heading, the correct flight level will be…
A) usually even.
B) usually odd.
C) always odd.
D) always even.

91) An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC under radar
control is assumed to:
A) Maintain the last assigned speed and level, or the minimum safe altitude, if this is higher, for
a period of 7 minutes then divert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of
flight
B) Proceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to the visual flight rules
C) Execute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome
D) Maintain the last assigned speed and level, or the minimum safe altitude, if this is higher, for
a period of 7 minutes then proceed in accordance with the current flight plan to the
designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome

92) “Except when necessary for take-off or landing, a VFR flight shall not be flown over the
congested areas of cities, towns, settlements or over an open-air assembly of persons at a
height less than [1] ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. -
What is the correct value for [1]?”
A) 1000 ft
B) 100 ft
C) 500 ft
D) 2000 ft

93) What has right of way on a manoeuvring area?

A) Service vehicle
B) Friction testing vehicle
C) Passenger bus
D) Aircraft under tow

94)When flying over congested areas a pilot shall maintain:

A) at least 1 NM radius from the centre of the town
B) a height of 1500 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600m
C) a height that will permit an emergency landing to be made without undue hazard to persons
or property
D) a height of 600 m (2000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300m.

95) A pilot intends to change from VFR to IFR in the middle of a flight. A flight plan has already
been submitted. What action is the pilot required to take?
A) Cancel the current VFR flight plan and submit an IFR flight plan.
B) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and submit an IFR flight plan.
C) Communicate the necessary changes to be effected to his/her current flight plan.
D) Cancel the current VFR flight plan and adjust to the table of cruising levels for IFR flights.

96) When shall a VFR flight operating at night maintain continuous air-ground voice
communication watch with the ATS unit that is providing FIS?
A) Between sunset and sunrise.
B) When operating in airspace class F.
C) When operating in airspace class F or airspace class G.
D) When so required by the appropriate ATS authority.

97) You are flying under IFR on a true track of 010 and a magnetic track of 355 above FL 280 in
non-RVSM airspace, What would be the next appropriate level?
A) FL 310
B) FL 300
C) FL 290
D) FL 320

98) Under normal circumstances, except for Class A airspace, what is the minimum distance from
clouds and minimum visibility for a VFR flight operated above the transition altitude and
below FL100?
A) 1500 metres horizontally, 1000 metres vertically and 5 kilometres.
B) 1500 metres horizontally, 300 metres vertically and 5 kilometres.
C) 1000 metres horizontally, 1500 metres vertically and 8 kilometres.
D) 1500 metres horizontally, 300 metres vertically and 8 kilometres.

99) Who is responsible for determining the minimum en-route altitude?

A) The Operator
B) The Commander
C) Euroconrtol ATC
D) ATC

100) According to ICAO Annex 2, who is responsible for providing ATS services over the
high seas?
A) The ICAO Regional Office closest to the high sea area.
B) The Contracting State having accepted the responsibility for providing those services.
C) By delegation, the US over the Atlantic, Russia over the Arctic, and Australia over the Pacific.
D) The Contracting State closest to the high sea area.

101) The fight level you should be flying at is determined by ...

A) Magnetic track.
B) Compass track.
C) Magnetic heading.
D) True track.

102) You are inbound to London Heathrow at FL80. ATC clear you to descend to 5000 ft.
The TA at LHR is 6000 ft. What height do you descend to?
A) FL50 with 1013.2 set.
B) FL50 approaching the TA.
C) Alt 5000 ft with 1013.2 set.
D) Alt 5000 ft with the QNH set.

103) On seeing a steady red light from ATC, what action should be taken by a pilot
operating an aircraft on the ground?
A) Stop
B) Continue circling, give way to other traffic.
C) Clear the taxiway/runway
D) Return to starting point

104) An Aircraft shall inform ATC if their TAS varies from that filed on the flight plan by:
A) 15 kts
B) 25 kts
C) 10 kts
D) 7 kts

105) You are cleared to climb to FL100 via CLE 6A departure. You...
A) have to climb to FL100, obey altitude constraints and routing
B) may climb to FL100 and ignore the SID altitude constraints.
C) may climb to FL100 but stray off the SID laterally.
D) have to climb to FL100 but can ignore altitude constraints and SID pattern.

106) According to ICAO Annex 2, what is the minimum navigation equipment for an IFR
flight?
A) One VOR, one ADF, and one DME.
B) One VOR and one ADF.
C) One VOR, one ADF, one DME, and one GNSS receiver.
D) It must be suitable and appropriate for the route to be flown.

107) In which case may the pilot-in-command depart from the rules of the air?
A) In circumstances that render such departure absolutely necessary in the interest of safety.
B) In circumstances that render such deviation necessary due to bad weather conditions.
C) If it is necessary in the interest of fuel saving.
D) In case of sick or injured persons aboard.

108) When complying with the rules of the air, the pilot-in-command of an aircraft…
A) is only responsible for adherence to the rules of the air, when he is the “pilot flying”
B) may depart from air regulations for safety reasons only.
C) may depart from the rules of the air provided that he is willing to bear full responsibility.
D) must comply without exception with the rules of the air and the instructions received from
ATC.

109) Except for a take-off or landing, an IFR flight has to be flown at a level which is not
below the minimum flight altitude established by the State overflown. If no such minimum
flight altitude has been established, what is the minimum altitude of an aircraft above the
highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas?
A) At least 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 6 km of the estimated position of
the aircraft.
B) At least 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 6 km of the estimated position of
the aircraft.
C) At least 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of
the aircraft.
D) At least 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of
the aircraft.

110) A pilot is performing visual patterns at a controlled aerodrome when he/she notices
that the radio is unserviceable. The aircraft forms part of the aerodrome traffic. - Which
option correctly lists all the actions -given below- that the pilot must take? - 1. If a series of
red flashes is observed, divert as the aerodrome is unsafe. - 2. Attempt to establish contact
with the appropriate ATS unit using all other available means. - 3. If a series of green flashes
is observed, approach to land at the aerodrome.
A) 1, 2, and 3.
B) Only 1 and 2.
C) Only 2 and 3.
D) Only 1 and 3.

111) A red pyrotechnic discharged from aerodrome control to an aircraft in flight means…
A) notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
B) return for approach, clearance to land to be expected on final.
C) slow down speed to minimum, give way to other aircraft in the circuit and continue circling.
D) aerodrome unsafe, do not land.

112) Visual Flight Rules - Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, flights
under VFR shall not take off from an aerodrome within a Control Zone or enter a Control
Zone when the ceiling is lower than…
A) 1500 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
B) 1000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
C) 1000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 8 km.
D) 2000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.

113) What is the minimum flight altitude for an IFR flight over mountainous areas?
A) A level that is at least 600 m (2000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 25 NM of the
aircraft`s estimated position.
B) A level that is at least 600 m (2000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the
aircraft`s estimated position.
C) A level that is at least 300 m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the
aircraft’s estimated position.
D) A level that is at least 600 m (2000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 NM of the
aircraft`s estimated position.

114) In accordance with ICAO Annex 2, Rules of the Air, a controlled flight operated in
VMC which encounters a communication failure shall…
A) continue to fly in VMC to the destination aerodrome and after landing inform the
appropriate ATC unit.
B) make use of the specific provisions for visual signals and set the transponder code for
communication failure.
C) use the emergency frequency to inform the ATC unit about the failure and land at the
nearest aerodrome.
D) continue to fly in VMC to the nearest suitable aerodrome and after landing inform the
appropriate ATC unit as soon as possible.
115) If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication in a
common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted
aircraft to communicate that the position is unknown?
A) ORIENTATION LOSS (ORIENTATION LOSSS)
B) POSITION UNCERTAIN (POSITION UNCERTAINN)
C) AM LOST (AM LOSST)
D) NAVIGATION LOST (NAVIGATION LOSST)

116) An intercepted aircraft with an SSR transponder shall immediately squawk…

A) 7500 and select Mode C.
B) 7600 and select Mode C.
C) 7700 and select Mode A.
D) 7700 and select Mode C.

117) According to ICAO Annex 2, which phrase would be used by an intercepting aircraft
for the meaning “what is your call sign”?
A) Your registration
B) Who are you
C) Call sign
D) State your name

118) According to ICAO Annex 2, which phrase would be used by an intercepting aircraft
for the meaning “land at this aerodrome”?
A) Descend
B) Touch down
C) Descend for landing
D) You land

119) According to ICAO Annex 2, In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently
deviates from its current flight pan (FPL), the appropriate ATS unit has to be informed...
A) If the time estimate for the next reporting point is found to be in error in excess of more than
1 minute from the time notified to ATS.
B) If the sustained TAS varies by plus or minus 10kts or more from that detailed in the Flight
Plan.
C) About any deviation in TAS.
D) About any track deviation form the centreline of an established ATS route only when that
deviation exceeds 2NM for more than 1 minute.

120) According to ICAO Annex 2, In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently
deviates from its current flight pan (FPL), the appropriate ATS unit has to be informed...
A) If the sustained TAS varies by plus or minus 10kts or more from that detailed in the Flight
Plan.
B) If the time estimate for the next reporting point is found to be in error in excess of more than
1 minute from the time notified to ATS.
C) About any deviation in TAS.
D) About any track deviation form the centreline of an established ATS route only when that
deviation exceeds 2NM for more than 1 minute.

121) You are operating VFR tracking 185o M on a heading of 178oM. Which of the
following options gives the correct Flight Level?
A) FL 65
B) FL 75
C) FL 70
D) FL 60
1) The Standard Instrument Arrival (STAR) ends at the LESBA waypoint. LESBA is the;
A) FAP (Final Approach Point).
B) IF.
C) IAF.
D) FAF.

2) What is a manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a
turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the
reciprocal of the designated track:
A) Reversal track.
B) Procedure turn.
C) Base turn.
D) Race track.

3) What is the turn made by an aircraft during the initial approach to the runway between the
end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track,
where the tracks are not reciprocal?
A) Reversal orbit.
B) Base turn
C) Procedure turn
D) Race track

4) What does the abbreviation OIS mean?

A) Obstacle Identification Surface.
B) Obstruction In Surface.
C) Obstacle In Surface.
D) Obstacle Identification Slope.

5) The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a
sector of:
A) 30 NM
B) 25 NM
C) 10 NM
D) 15 NM

6) Turning departures provide track guidance within:

A) 20 km
B) 5 km
C) 15 km
D) 10 km
 7) We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial
departure track is within:
A) 25° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
B) 15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
C) 10° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
D) 5° of the alignment of the runway centre-line

8) Abbreviations
In Pans-Ops, the abbreviation DER stands for (Doc 8168)
A) Displaced end of runway.
B) Distance error in routing.
C) Departure end of runway.
D) Direct entry route.

9) When flying an instrument departure procedure pilots are expected to;

A) request a clearance from ATC for the wind correction to be applied.
B) correct the track for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.
C) ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track.
D) request from ATC an adequate heading for the correction of wind direction and strength.

10) A turning departure is one in which the initial departure track deviates from the alignment of the
extended runway centre line by more than;

A) 12.5 deg

B) 45 deg

C) 30 deg

D) 15 deg

11) The primary area of an instrument approach segment is:

A) A defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which the Minimum
Obstacle Clearance is provided.
B) The outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from zero ft to the
appropriate minimum.
C) The first part of the segment.
D) The most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept to very
carefully.

12) A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach...

A) Using bearing, elevation and distance information.
B) Carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method.
C) Using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director or
an autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft.
D) Using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance
information.

13) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle
clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is :
A) 30m (98ft)
B) 50m (164ft)
C) 120m (384ft)
D) 90m (295ft)

14) For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than :
A) 100 ft
B) 200 ft
C) 250 ft
D) 150 ft

15) If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what actions
should be taken?
A) Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual conctact
B) Initiate a missed approach
C) Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling alitude
D) If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact

16) In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:

A) 350 ft
B) 200 ft
C) The OCH
D) 400 ft

17) A “straight-in-approach” is considered to be acceptable for a non-precision approach if the

angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is…
A) 40 degrees or less.
B) 20 degrees or less.
C) 30 degrees or less.
D) 10 degrees or less.

18) What action should be taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the down wind leg?
A) Request an amended clearance
B) Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude
C) Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome
D) Initiate a missed approach

19) Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach
procedure?
A) The operator
B) The pilot-in-command ;
C) The "flight-operations" of the company
D) The state

20) In general, the main factor that determines the design of an instrument departure procedure
is;
A) the expected experience level of the operating flight deck crew.
B) the terrain surrounding the aerodrome.
C) the aircraft performance.
D) the availability of navigation aids.

21) A change in the mean surface wind direction is reported to the pilot of an arriving aircraft
when the mean crosswind component changes by more than…
A) 4 kt.
B) 3 kt.
C) 10 kt.
D) 5 kt.

22) The Minimum Sector Altitudes (MSAs) provide an obstacle clearance of at least 300 m (1000
ft) within a circle, associated with the homing facility for the approach procedure of that
aerodrome. The circle has a radius of…
A) 25 NM.
B) 5 NM.
C) 10 NM.
D) 20 NM.

23) An approaching aircraft may descend below the MSA if:

A) All mentioned answers are correct
B) The aircraft gets radar vectors ;
C) The pilot is following the published approach procedure
D) The pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight;

24) A so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered to be acceptable for a non-precision

approach, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is:
A) 30° or less
B) 40° or less
C) 10° or less
D) 20° or less

25) For a non-precision or circling approach, the MDH cannot be lower than;
A) OCH.
B) 200 ft.
C) 400 ft.
D) 350 ft.

26) Approach proceduresm & Arrival and approach segments. In an instrument approach
procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called the…
A) intermediate approach segment.
B) arrival segment.
C) final approach segment.
D) initial approach segment.

27) Approach procedures & Final approach segment. In a precision approach (ILS), the final
approach segment begins at the;
A) FAF.
B) IF.
C) FAP.
D) MAP.

28) The minimum obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment for an
instrument approach procedure is at least;
A) 450 m (1476 ft).
B) 600 m (1968 ft).
C) 300 m (984 ft).
D) 150 m (492 ft).

29) Identify all separate segments that can be part of an instrument approach procedure.
A) Initial, intermediate, and final.
B) Holding, initial, intermediate, final, and missed approach.
C) Descend, holding, arrival, intermediate, final, and missed approach.
D) Arrival, initial, intermediate, final, and missed approach.

30) Approach procedures and approach segment (ILS). ILS obstacle clearance surfaces are
established under the assumption that the pilot does not allow the aircraft to deviate from
the centreline by more than…”
A) one full scale deflection after being established on the track.
B) half a scale deflection after being established on the track.
 C) a quarter of a scale deflection after being established on the track.
D) one and a half scales deflection after being established on the track.

31) What are the minimum obstacle clearance requirements in the primary area of the
intermediate approach segment during an instrument approach procedure?
A) 300 m (984 ft) reducing to 150 m (492 ft).
B) 150 m (492 ft) reducing to 0 m.
C) 300 m (984 ft) reducing to 0 m.
D) 450 m (1476 ft) reducing to 150 m (492 ft).

32) In a precision approach (ILS), the glide path interception generally occurs at heights above
runway elevation between;
A) 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).
B) 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
C) 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
D) 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft).

33) Approach procedures - missed approach climb - Missed approach procedures are normally based
on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of;

A) 3.3 %.

B) 2 %.

C) 5 %.

D) 2.5 %.

34) The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument
approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably
located for straight-in approach, is:
A) Visual manoeuvring (circling).
B) Visual approach.
C) Contact approach.
D) Aerodrome traffic pattern.

35) For visual manoeuvring, a sector in the circling area where a prominent obstacle exists may
be ignored for OCA/H calculation if it is outside the final approach and missed approach
areas. When this option is exercised, the published procedure…
A) prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway.
B) prohibits circling within the entire sector in which the obstacle is located.
C) permits circling only in VMC.
D) recommends not to perform the circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
36) What condition allows descent below the MDA on a circling approach?
A) The horizontal visibility is at least 5 NM and the ceiling is 1 500 ft or higher.
B) The ceiling is 1 500 ft or higher.
C) The required visual references have been established and can be maintained.
D) The landing runway or an alternative runway is in sight.

37) What is the correct procedure when following an instrument approach and visual contact
with the runway is lost on the downwind leg?
A) Make a turn of 90 degrees towards the runway and try to regain visual contact.
B) Maintain visual ground contact. Continue visually provided other cues of the aerodrome
environment are visible.
C) Make a turn towards the aerodrome, maintaining altitude and speed, and requesting
instructions from ATC.
D) Make an initial climbing turn towards the runway and initiate the missed approach.

38) In a standard holding pattern turns are made:

A) To the left
B) In a direction depending on the wind direction
C) To the right
D) In a direction depending on the entry

39) Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ?

A) Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound
B) Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound
C) Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound
D) Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound

40) Holding procedures & offset entry. Above 14000 ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30-
degree offset track is limited to;
A) 3 minutes.
B) 2 minutes.
C) 1 minute.
D) 1 minute 30 seconds.

41) Holding Procedures & Entry. The three entry sectors in a holding pattern have a zone of
flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of;
A) 10 degrees.
B) 15 degrees.
C) 5 degrees.
D) 20 degrees.
42) Holding Procedures & Buffer Area. The buffer area beyond the boundary of the holding area
extends to;
A) 3 NM.
B) 5 NM
C) 5 km.
D) 3 km.

43) If a pilot is unable to comply with the procedures for normal conditions laid down for a
holding pattern, they should;
A) advise ATC as early as possible.
B) follow the radio communication failure procedure.
C) remain within the protected area, but may deviate from the prescribed holding pattern.
D) execute a non-standard holding pattern in accordance with the performance of the
aeroplane.

44) The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14 000 ft or below, in still air conditions, is…
A) 1 minute 30 seconds.
B) 2 minutes.
C) 1 minute.
D) 30 seconds.

45) The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air conditions is:
A) 1 minute.
B) 1 minute 30 seconds.
C) 2 minutes.
D) 2 minutes 30 seconds.

46) You have received instructions to hold over a radio fix. The published procedure is: All turns
to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound Magnetic Track 052°. You are approaching the fix
on Magnetic Track 232°. Select the appropriate entry procedure.
A) Direct only
B) Parallel or direct
C) Offset only
D) Either offset or parallel

47) When flying through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be
expressed as:
A) Flight level during descent
B) Altitude during climb
C) Altitude during descent
D) Either altitude or flight level during climb
48) At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set?
A) When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL
B) Within the transition layer
C) When passing the transition level
D) When passing the transition altitude

49) In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the vertical position of
the aircraft shall be expressed in:
A) Flight level on or below the transition level
B) Flight level on or below the transition altitude
C) Altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude
D) Altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude

50) The transition level:

A) Is calculated by the commander
B) Is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome
C) Will be distributed via NOTAM
D) Is calculated by ATS

51) The transition level:

A) Is calculated and decided by the commander
B) Shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been
established
C) Shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been
established
D) For the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP

52) Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:

A) Only at transition level.
B) At transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.
C) At transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.
D) Only at transition altitude.

53) Altimeter setting procedures & Transition Level. The vertical position of an aircraft at or
above the transition level with altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa shall be expressed in terms of…
A) Height.
B) Flight Level.
C) Elevation.
D) Altitude.

54) IFR cruising levels within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL)
A) When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa
B) If the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet
C) Above the transition altitude when applicable
D) Only in airspace class A

55)The Transition Level:

A) Is published for the aerodrome in the section ENR of the AIP.
B) Shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
C) Shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been
established.
D) Is calculated and declared for an approach by the pilot-in command.

56) The transition level:

A) Will be passed to aircraft by ATS units
B) Is calculated by the Pilot-in command
C) Is published and updated in the NOTAM
D) Is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome

57) The height of the transition altitude above the aerodrome shall be as low as possible, but
normally not less than;
A) 1000 ft AGL.
B) 3000 ft AGL.
C) 2500 ft AGL.
D) 1500 ft AGL.

58) Unless instructed otherwise by an air traffic controller, when passing through the transition
layer, a pilot shall report the vertical position of the aircraft as;
A) flight level in descent.
B) altitude in descent.
C) either altitude or flight level in climb.
D) altitude in climb.

59) In the vicinity of an aerodrome of intended landing or used for take-off, the vertical position
of aircraft shall be expressed in terms of;
A) flight level at or below the transition level.
B) flight level at or below the transition altitude.
C) Altitude above mean sea level at or below the transition altitude
D) altitude at or above the transition altitude.

60) On flights in accordance with IFR, the change of the altimeter setting from QNH to Standard
shall be made at the:
 A) Level specified by ATC
B) Transition layer
C) Transition level
D) Transition altitude

61)When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder;
A) only when directed by ATC.
B) only when the aircraft is operating within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
C) At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace
where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
D) only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.

62) When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously
operate this mode:
A) Regardless of ATC instructions.
B) Only when directed by ATC.
C) Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
D) Unless otherwise directed by ATC.

63) When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall attempt to
indicate the situation to ATC by setting the transponder to Mode A, code…

A) 7600.

B) 7500

C) 7700.

D) 7000.

64) To acknowledge transponder mode and code setting instructions, pilots shall;
A) read back the code to be set and SQUAWK IDENT.
B) Use the word wilco.
C) Read back the mode and code to be set.
D) use the word WILCO.

65) When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is
impossible, then:
A) The flight can only continue in the most direct manner;
B) You must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavour to provide
for continuation of the flight;
C) Departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
D) You are not allowed to commence the flight
66) When an aircraft loses two-way radio communication the transponder should be set to;
A) Mode A Code 7600.
B) Mode A Code 5320.
C) Mode A Code 7700.
D) Mode A Code 7500.

67) Pilots shall not SQUAWK IDENT unless they;

A) operate a transponder with Mode C.
B) are requested to do so by ATC.
C) operate within controlled airspace.
D) operate outside controlled airspace.

68) What is the name given to the airspace above the altitude below which the vertical position
of the aircraft is controlled by altitudes above mean sea level and the lowest useable flight
level?
A) The pressure altitude
B) The transition altitude
C) The transition level
D) The transition layer

69) Which of the following correctly defines aerodrome operating minima?

A) Cloud ceiling and ground visibility for takeoff
B) Cloud base and ground visibility for takeoff
C) Cloud ceiling and RVR for takeoff
D) Cloud base and RVR for takeoff

70) Where an operator establishes an aerodrome operating minima, the minima:

A) Shall not be higher than any that may be established for such aerodromes by the state in
which the aerodrome is located
B) Should not be higher than any that may be established for such aerodromes by the state in
which the aerodrome is located
C) Shall not be lower than any that may be established for such aerodromes by the state in
which the aerodrome is located
D) Should not be lower than any that may be established for such aerodromes by the state in
which the aerodrome is located

71) Which of the following is not considered when establishing Aerodrome Operating Minima?
A) The frequency of meteorological reports
B) Dimensions and characteristics of runways
 C) The competence and experience of flight crews
D) Adequacy and provision of ground aids

72) For an ASR, within 40 nm of the radar, fix tolerance is assumed to be:
A) +- 1.5 nm
B) +-1.5 km
C) +- 3.1 nm
D) +-3.1 km

73) By when must the Transion Level be obtained when making an approach to an aerodrome?
A) Before take off
B) Before commencement of the initial approach
C) Before commenment of the final approach
D) Top of descent

74) What are the fixes that link the Arrival and Final fixes?
A) Final (FAF) and Missed (MAPt)
B) Initial (IAF) and Missed (MAPt)
C) Initial (IAF) and Intermediate (IF)
D) intermediate (IF) and Missed (MAPt)

75) You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not
be made until:

1. The pilot has the landing threshold in sight

2. Visual reference has been established and can be maintained

3. The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made

The combination regrouping all the correct answers is:

A) 1,2,3
B) 1,2
C) 2,3
D) 1,3

76) Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed?
A) 230 KTS IAS
B) 240 KTS IAS
C) 230 KTS TAS
D) 240 KTS TAS
77) The inbound magnetic track for holding is 052°, turns are to the right, and the outbound time
is 1 minute. The appropriate entry procedure for a flight on magnetic track 232° with no wind
is…
A) direct only.
B) either parallel or direct.
C) offset only.
D) either offset or parallel.

78) When you are asked to hold on a non standard holding fix (eg en route) what direction are
the turns made?
A) At pilot's discretion
B) It depends upon the inbound holding track
C) Right
D) Left

79) Which of the following approach speed ranges (Vₐt) is applicable for Category B aircraft?
A) 91 kts to 120 kts
B) 224 km/h to 261 km/h
C) 121 kts to 141 kts
D) 261 km/h to 307 km/h

80) What happens during the intermediate segment of an instrument approach?

A) The aircraft climbs to acheive a safe height of 50m
B) The aircraft is manoeuvring to enter the arrival segment
C) The aircraft is aligned with the runway and descent for landing is made.
D) Aircraft speed and configuration are adjusted to prepare for the final approach

81) Where two or more closely spaced aerodromes are located so that coordinated procedures
are required, a common transition altitude shall be established as
A) the highest of the transition altitudes if the aerodromes were considered separately.
B) the average of the transition altitudes if the aerodromes were considered separately.
C) the lowest of the transition altitudes if the aerodromes were considered separately.
D) one of the transition altitudes commonly agreed between the aerodrome authorities.

82) When is it permissible to reset QNH whilst flying above the transition layer?
A) QNH can only be set at the transition level in the descent.
B) This is the normal setting when flying above the trasition layer.
C) QNH can only be set at the transition altitude in the descent.
D) When cleared and maintaining a descent to an altitude and not flying level.
83) Which answer best applies to the initial approach segment?
A) It starts the whole arrival procedure and ends as the intermediate segment begins.
B) It commences at the initial approach fix and ends at the intermediate fix
C) It ends at the initial approach fix
D) the initial segment is followed by the arrival segment

84) Which answer best applies to the Final Approach Fix (FAF)?
A) The optimum distance for locating the FAF from the runway threshold is 5NM.
B) It signifies the end of the Initial Approach Segment
C) It signifies the end of the Final Approach Segment
D) It signifies the end of the Arrival segment

85) Which element of a position report may be omitted when SSR Mode C information is used in
a safe and efficient manner?
A) The aircraft identification.
B) The Flight level or altitude.
C) The position.
D) The Time.

86) With the aircraft at a known elevation on the aerodrome, the flight crew should perform a
pre-flight altimeter check by setting the current QNH. A serviceable altimeter with a test
range of 0 to 50000 feet will indicate the elevation of the point selected…
A) plus the height of the altimeter above this point, with a tolerance of plus or minus 60 feet.
B) plus the height of the altimeter above this point, with a tolerance of plus or minus 80 feet.
C) with a tolerance of plus or minus 80 feet.
D) with a tolerance of plus or minus 25 feet.

87) When may you refer to elevation as 'Flight Level'?

A) When flying at or above the transition level
B) When flying below the transition level
C) When passing through the transition layer
D) When flying below the transition layer

88) Which level should be assigned to the first aircraft to arrive at the holding pattern?
A) A level in accordance with the aircraft wake-turbulence category.
B) The lowest level in the holding.
C) A level as close as possible to the level the arriving aircraft is flying at.
D) The highest level in the holding.

89) In RVSM airspace, what is the maximum permitted tolerance for a Mode C check?
A) +/- 100 ft
B) +/- 200 ft
C) +/- 400 ft
D) +/- 300 ft

90) Omnidirectional departures normally allow departures in any direction. If any restrictions
exist, the restricted sectors are described by means of…
A) GPS coordinates.
B) bearings and distance.
C) flying speed and time to reach the restriction.
D) latitude and longitude of the relevant points.

91) In cruise flight, what should the altimeter indicate?

A) Altitude in and below the Transition Layer
B) Height below Transition Altitude
C) Flight Level in and above the Transition Layer
D) Altitude at or below Transition Altitude

92) For a non-precision approach procedure, what will be produced when an additional margin is
added to the OCH when considering the effects of operational factors?
A) The minimum descent altitude.
B) The decision height.
C) The decision altitude.
D) The minimum descent height.

93) To what shall the calculated transition altitude be rounded up?

A) 600 m (2000 ft)
B) 300 m (1000 ft)
C) 150 m (500 ft)
D) 100 m (328 ft)

94) An Non-Transgression Zone (NTZ) for independent parallel approaches is;

A) at least 1 310 metres wide when the vertical separation between aircraft on adjacent
approaches is less than 1 500 ft
B) a maximum of 1 310 metres wide when the vertical separation between aircraft on adjacent
approaches is less than 1 500 ft
C) a maximum of 610 metres wide when the vertical separation between aircraft on adjacent
approaches is less than 1 000ft.
D) at least 610 metres wide when the vertical separation between aircraft on adjacent
approaches is less than 1 000ft.

95) When may the pilot disregard a Resolution Advisory (RA) issued by ACAS?
A) When following the RA would jeopardize the safety of the aircraft.
B) When ATC instructions are in conflict with RA`s indications.
C) Under no circumstances may a pilot disregard the indications provided by a RA.
D) When visually acquired information indicate that the RA is erroneous.

96) What is the maximum intercept angle for aircraft being vectored to intercept the localiser for
simultaneous indepedent parallel approaches?
A) 20 degrees
B) 30 degrees
C) 45 dgrees
D) 15 degrees

97) When should QNH be obtained in the descent?

A) In the Transition Layer
B) Before the Transition Altitude when cruising withing the Transition Layer
C) At the Transition Level
D) Before the Transition Level

98) You are flying IFR tracking 200 degrees above FL 290 in non-RVSM airspace, which set of
Flight Levels would be suitable?
A) FL 320, FLFL 360, FL 400
B) FL 290, FL 330, FL 370
C) FL 310, FL 350, FL 390
D) FL 300, FL 340, FL 380

99) According to PANS Ops Doc 8168, when should the QNH setting be available to aircraft?
A) During the take- off clearance
B) During clearance on the stand
C) During the start clearance
D) During the taxi clearance prior to take-off

100) According to ICAO Doc 8168 PANS-OPS, consecutive flight levels are separated by a
pressure interval that corresponds to at least ___(1) ft in the standard atmosphere. - What is
the correct value at (1)?”
A) 250 ft
B) 1000 ft
C) 500 ft
D) 2000 ft

101) In order to maintain tracks in a holding pattern, pilots should make allowance for
known wind by applying corrections to…
A) timing and track.
B) speed and track.
C) heading and timing.
D) heading and speed.

102) What are the ICAO approach categories for circling minima?
A) A,B,C,D,E
B) B,C,D,E,F
C) A,B,C,D
D) A,B,C

103) According to PANS ATM DOC 4444 when should the QNH be available for arriving
aircraft?
A) In approach and landing clearances.
B) When cleared to the FAF.
C) When leaving the cruising level.
D) In approach clearances and traffic circuit joining instructions.

104) According to ICAO Pans Ops 8168 a Traffic Advisory (TA) should precede a Resolution
Advisory (RA) because:
A) TAs have the ability to create a horizontal traffic avoidance manoeuvre
B) A TA will highlight the approximate position of an aircraft nearby that may become an RA
C) TAs have the ability to create a vertical traffic avoidance manoeuvre
D) A TA must always be created before an RA

105) Parallel operations where a runway is being used solely for arrivals and the other is
used solely for departures is know as:
A) Independent
B) Segregated Parallel operations
C) Semi - mixed
D) Mixed

106) When a pilot is instructed by ATC to leave the hold at a specific time:
A) he must adjust the hold within its limits to leave at the specified time
B) he must adjust the hold within its limits then accelerate to meet the specified time
C) complete the hold and head to the fix then use aircraft thrust/power to leave at the specified
time
D) he must adjust the hold within its limits to leave +/- 1 minute of specified time

107) When passing over a hold fix, you perform a left turn to heading 090. You maintain
track for a specified time, and then perform a second left turn to intercept the 270 inbound
radial of the same hold fix. After flying over the hold fix for a second time, you perform a
right turn and continue tracking around the hold procedure. What sort of entry procedure is
being described?
A) Offset
B) Parallel
C) Reverse
D) Direct

108) When passing over a hold fix, you perform a right turn and continue on the
procedure, This type of join best describes a:
A) offset/parallel join
B) offest join
C) parallel join
D) direct join

109) A pilot should NOT respond to a traffic advisory (TA) only because:
A) a TA is designed to provide situational awareness
B) aircraft in the surrounding area with ACARS are equipped to provide horizontal guidance
C) It is forbidden to deviate from the trajectory without informing ATS first
D) aircraft in the surrounding area with ACARS are equipped to provide a vertical guidance

110) In a holding pattern, the standart turn is:

A) 20o of bank or rate one turn, whichever requires the lessor bank
B) 25o of bank or rate one turn, whichever requires the greater bank
C) 20o of bank or rate one turn, whichever requires the greater bank
D) 25o of bank or rate one turn, whichever requires the lessor bank

111) Regarding a hold, when does the outbound timing commence?

A) Overhead or abeam the hold point whichever is earlier
B) Abeam the hold point
C) Overhead or abeam the hold point whichever is later
D) Overhead the hold point
112) Towards the end of a long flight the IAF marks the:
A) end of the initial approach segment
B) beginning of the intermediate approach segment
C) initial segment of the STAR
D) end of the STAR

113) Can you initiate a missed approach before the MAPt?

A) Yes – but you must pass over the MAPt.
B) No - a missed approach can only commence at the MAPt.
C) No – you need to continue descent to the MAPt before initiating the missed approach.
D) Yes – as long as turns are kept to a maximum of ±15° of the final aproach track.

114) Where is the Transition Altitude published?

A) Only on Precision Approach charts.
B) In local aerodrome procedures.
C) In Regional Supplements.
D) In the AIP and on appropriate charts.

115) When should aircraft height be reported as altitude above the transition layer?
A) When on approach to an airport where there is no published transition level.
B) When approach clearance has been received and decent begun, provided that the decent is
within controlled airspace.
C) When approach clearance has been received and decent begun and level flight is above the
Transition Level is not expected during decent.
D) When in VMC.

116) When passing over a hold fix, you perform a left turn to heading 090°. You maintain
track for a specified time, and then perform a second left turn to intercept the 270° inbound
radial of the same hold fix. After flying over the hold fix for a second time, you perform a
right turn and continue tracking around the hold procedure. This type of join best describes
a:
A) Parallel entry
B) Reversal entry
C) Offset entry
D) Direct entry

117) As specified in ICAO Doc. 8168, PANS-OPS, which setting should be set on at least
one altimeter prior to take-off?
A) QFE
B) QFF
C) QNH
D) QNE
 118) The inbound holding track is 010° degrees, your heading is 030°, what is the correct
entry procedure to the hold?
A) Direct/Parallel entry
B) Parallel entry
C) Direct entry
D) Offset entry

119) The inbound holding track is 270° degrees, your heading is 052°, what is the correct
entry procedure to the hold?
A) Offset entry
B) Direct entry
C) Parallel entry
D) Direct/Parallel entry

120) Aircraft performance has a direct effect on the conduct of instrument approaches.
What is the most significant aircraft-performance factor?
A) Speed
B) Thrust / Power
C) Range
D) Lift-to-drag ratio

121) What is the main aim of the MAPt?

A) To warn the aircraft not to descend further unless on the extended centreline.
B) To keep the aircraft clear of terrain.
C) To allow the aircraft to initiate a climb to MSA.
D) To allow the aircraft to setup for another approach.

122) A MAPt can be defined by:

A) The intersection of an electronic glideslope with an MDH/A.
B) DME.
C) A VOR arc.
D) The inner marker.

123) When a hold is confined by DME range. When do you commence the turn inbound?

A) 1nm before the DME range is reached.

B) 0.5nm before the DME range is reached.

C) At the DME Range.

D) 10 sec before the DME range is reached.

124) The transition altitude can be located in:
A) The AIP, PIB, NOTAMS, AIC, AIRACS.
B) Charts and the AIP.
C) The AIC and AIRAC.
D) NOTAMS only.

125) In a precision approach, the Missed Approach Point (MAPt) may be defined by…
A) the intersection of the electronic glide path with the applicable DA/H.
B) the location of the Inner Marker.
C) the aerodrome-based beacon (VOR or NDB) or other navigation facility.
D) a specified distance (DME) from the landing threshold.

126) Flying in IMC on an ILS approach the glide path indicator fails, what should you do?
A) Carry out the procedure published for the glide path inoperative using the relevant OCA/H
B) Carry out a mandatory missed approach.
C) Continue to DH on LOC
D) Continue descent maintaining current vertical speed until the ILS minima.

127) When would you be given the transition level?

A) During climb, before the transition altitude.
B) During descent, before the transition level.
C) During taxi.
D) Before take-off.

128) On entering and joining a hold you make only righthand turns, you performed a:
A) Indirect entry with turns to the left.
B) Direct entry with turns to the left.
C) Direct entry with turns to the right.
D) Indirect entry with turns to the right.

129) What is the minimum clearance above obstacles to be maintained by an IFR flight
overflying mountainous areas?
A) Three times the minimum clearance under VFR above water.
B) Twice the minimum terrain clearance under IFR when overflying low terrain.
C) The same as the minimum terrain clearance under IFR when overflying low terrain.
D) The same as the minimum clearance for VFR flights overflying the congested areas of cities.
 130) A first-generation RNAV system that is incompatible with GNSS navigation is installed
on the aircraft and the Authority has granted an appropriate RNAV approval to the operator.
Can the flight crew now carry out a VOR/DME RNAV approach?
A) Yes, provided that the GPS is serviceable prior to the approach.
B) No, the VOR/DME facility must first be confirmed as serviceable.
C) No, RNAV approaches are NOT yet approved in Europe.
D) Yes, the requirements to fly the approach are met.

131) Compared to a DME/DME RNAV approach, a VOR/DME RNAV approach...

A) can be flown without an approval from the State of the Operator.
B) can be flown if the DME part is failed, provided that the VOR is serviceable.
C) is a precision approach, whereas the DME/DME is non-precision.
D) is based on a specific navaid reference facility that will be indicated.

132) At what altitude/height should the missed approach procedure be initiated?

A) At or higher than the DA/H in non-precision approaches.
B) At or higher than the MDA/H in precision approaches.
C) At the altitude/height corresponding to the vertical profile at the Inner Marker.
D) At or higher than the DA/H in precision approaches.

133) When a pilot receives a clearance specifying the time of departure from the holding
point, the pilot should…
A) adjust the holding pattern within its limits in order to leave the holding point within +/- 1
minute from the time specified.
B) adjust the holding pattern within its limits in order to leave the holding point at the time
specified.
C) perform the holding pattern until the holding fix, then adjust the speed in order to comply
with the time specified.
D) perform the holding pattern as it is designed, and using the aircraft performance, leave the
holding point when specified.

134) Standard Instrument Departure Procedures - Straight Departures - In a straight departure the
initial track does not deviate from the alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than…

A) 12.5 degrees.

B) 15 degrees.

C) 45 degrees.

D) 30 degrees.

135) In an ILS approach, the point on the final approach track, where the intermediate
approach altitude intercepts the glide path, is called the…
A) FAP.
B) FAF.
C) IF.
D) IAF.

136) According to ICAO Doc 8168 PANS-OPS, what is the minimum obstacle clearance
provided by the Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA)?
A) 500 m
B) 1000 m
C) 500 ft
D) 1000 ft

137) What is the purpose of the Final Approach segment?

A) To transition from the en-route phase to the approach phase.
B) For aircraft alignment and descent for landing.
C) To join the airways system with the ILS procedure.
D) For speed adjustment and to configure the aircraft for landing.

138) In an instrument approach procedure, what is the name of the segment connecting
the initial and final segments?
A) Secondary segment.
B) Intermediate segment.
C) Arrival segment.
D) Feeder segment.

139) In an instrument approach procedure, where does the initial approach segment
begin and end?
A) Initial Approach Fix (IAF) and Final Approach Fix (FAF).
B) Intermediate Fix (IF)and Final Approach Fix (FAF).
C) Initial Approach Fix (IAF) and Intermediate Fix (IF).
D) First Fix (FF) and Intermediate Fix (IF).

140) On an instrument approach, the Initial Approach Fix (IAF) marks the…
A) end point of the Initial Segment.
B) beginning of the Intermediate Segment.
C) initial point of the Standard Instrument Arrival (STAR).
D) end point of the Standard Instrument Arrival (STAR).

141) In an instrument approach, the Intermediate Fix (IF) is the…

A) end of the intermediate approach segment.
B) end of the initial approach segment.
C) beginning of the initial approach segment.
D) point located half-way between the Initial and Final Fixes.

142) What is the preferred ILS glide path for a precision approach?
A) 3 degrees
B) 3 %
C) 5 degrees
D) 2.5 %

143) It is NOT possible to design a single procedure that can cater for every situation when
a circling approach would be conducted. What are the variables that make every circling
situation different?
A) Pilot experience, obstacles around the airport, and meteorological conditions.
B) Availability of navigation aids, obstacles around the airport, and pilot experience.
C) Meteorological conditions, availability of navigation aids, pilot experience, and final approach
track.
D) Runway layout, final approach track, wind velocity, and meteorological conditions.

144) Approach Procedures - Circling - A circling approach is the extension of an instrument

approach procedure…
A) that may be carried out as long as visual ground contact can be maintained.
B) which can only be conducted in IMC.
C) allowing visual circling prior to landing.
D) which can only be performed when radar vectoring is available.

145) In a circling approach, how is the pilot expected to behave after initial visual contact
with the runway has been established?
A) Immediately descend below MDA/Hand position the aircraft for landing.
B) Continue the circling at MDA/H keeping the runway environment in sight.
C) The circling prescribes tracks, which will be followed based primarily on instruments.
D) The circling manoeuvre will be continued even in case of momentary loss of visual
references.

146) When flying in a holding pattern, all turns shall be made at a bank angle of…
A) 25° or at a rate of turn of 3° per second, whichever requires the higher bank.
B) 25° or at a rate of turn of 3° per second, whichever requires the lesser bank.
C) 20° or at a rate of turn of 3° per second, whichever requires the higher bank.
D) 20° or at a rate of turn of 3° per second, whichever requires the lesser bank.

147) When flying a holding pattern with the outbound leg length based on DME distance,
the outbound leg terminates…
A) 1 NM prior to reaching the limiting DME distance.
B) half a minute prior to reaching the limiting DME distance.
C) 0.5 NM prior to reaching the limiting DME distance.
D) as soon as the limiting DME distance is reached.

148) Holding procedure - The outbound time for a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still
air conditions is…
A) 2 minutes.
B) 2 minutes 30 seconds.
C) 1 minute 30 seconds.
D) 1 minute.

149) When shall the number of the transition level be obtained by the crew of a flight
intending to land?
A) Before starting the arrival segment.
B) Before beginning the initial approach.
C) Before descending below the transition level.
D) Before reaching top of descent.

150) Altimeter setting procedures - The transition level…

A) is published and if necessary updated in the NOTAM.
B) is normally an integrated part of the ATIS.
C) is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome.
D) has to be calculated by the Pilot-in command.

151) When can the flight crew change the altimeter setting from 1013.2 hPa to QNH
during the descent to land, when the aircraft is above the transition level?
A) When the atmospheric pressure is significantly different from the standard pressure and
level flight above the transition altitude is not anticipated.
B) After approach clearance has been issued, provided that level flight above the transition
altitude is not indicated or anticipated.
C) “Only if it has been specified in Item 18, “”Other Information””, of the flight plan.”
D) Flight above the transition level using QNH as the reference datum is not allowed.

152) Within controlled airspace, IFR cruising levels shall given as flight levels…
A) at or above the transition level.
B) if the obstacle clearance is more than 2 000 feet.
C) provided the QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa.
D) only in airspace Class A.
153) In the climb after take-off, the change from QNH to Standard Pressure Setting shall
be made at…
A) the transition altitude.
B) the transition level.
C) a level specified by ATC.
D) the transition layer.

154) Approach Procedures - Circling. A circling approach is the extension of an instrument

approach procedure...
A) allowing visual circling prior to landing.
B) which can only be conducted in IMC.
C) that may be carried out as long as visual ground contact can be maintained.
D) which can only be performed when radar vectoring is available.

155) According to ICAO Doc. 4444, to expedite the approach, the pilot may be asked to...
A) keep distance and time equal between aircraft on the approach.
B) land beyond the usual landing point.
C) remove wake turbulence separation criteria.
D) report when leaving or passing a significant point or navigation aid.
1) Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These
sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:
A) 25 NM
B) 5 NM
C) 10 NM
D) 20 NM

2) The primary area of an instrument approach segment is :

A) The most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very
carefully;
B) A defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle
clearance is provided.
C) The outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from o ft to the
appropriate minimum
D) The first part of the segment ;

3) PANS-OPS & Definitions. An OCA is referenced to…

A) an Aerodrome Elevation.
B) Mean Sea Level.
C) the relevant Runway Threshold.
D) the Aerodrome Reference Point.

4) A circling approach is:

A) A visual flight manoeuvre that may be carried out as long as visual ground contact can be
maintained.
B) A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.
C) A visual flight manoeuvre to be performed when radar vectoring is available.
D) A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway environment in sight while at MDA/H.

5) The units providing Air Traffic Services are:

A) Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.
B) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome
Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.
C) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower.
D) Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office
and Tower.

6) Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:

A) Avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
B) Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air
traffic
 C) Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring
area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
D) Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly
flow of air traffic

7) Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route
segments of
A) 60 NM or more
B) 50 NM or more
C) 75 NM or more
D) 100 NM or more

8) When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of:
A) Air traffic co-ordination centres.
B) Air traffic control and flight information centres.
C) Control centres only.
D) Search and rescue co-ordination centres.

9) Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and
recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
A) Annex 11
B) Annex 14
C) Annex 6
D) Annex 17

10) Aerodrome traffic is:

A) Traffic flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
B) Traffic in the aerodrome circuit.
C) All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
D) All traffic on the manoeuvring area.

11) Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?

A) The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control
Tower.
B) The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.
C) The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone.
D) The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace.

12) Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:
A) Flight Information Service only.
B) Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service.
 C) Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.
D) Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.

13) Name the information issued by a Meteorological Watch Office concerning the occurrence or
expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena, which may affect the safety of
low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low
level flights in the Flight Information Region concerned or sub-area.
A) An en-route Meteo Report.
B) NOTAM information.
C) AIRMET information.
D) SIGMET information.

14) A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following
minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:
A) 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
B) 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
C) 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1.500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
D) 8 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

15) Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to
ensure correct time to within plus or minus:
A) 10 seconds of UTC at all times
B) 1 minute of UTC at all times
C) 30 seconds of UTC at all times
D) 15 seconds of UTC at all times

16) The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is :
A) 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of clouds
B) 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical
from cloud
C) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
D) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m
vertical from clouds

17) The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:
A) By agreement with the receiving unit.
B) Automatically at the control zone boundary.
C) Through a central control unit.
D) With the pilot's consent.
18) Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):
A) It has the same privileges and prerogatives as an atc organisation but its activity is neither
continuous nor regular.
B) Its only purpose is to relay atc information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground.
C) It can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply atc
services.
D) Its purpose is to supply atc services but it is not a state organisation.

19) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth is;
A) a Control Area.
B) Advisory Airspace.
C) a Flight Information Region.
D) a Control Zone.

20) Types of airspace - A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the Earth to a
specified upper limit is a…
A) Control Zone.
B) Air Traffic Zone.
C) Control Area.
D) Advisory Airspace.

21) ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control
service and are separated from each other is classified as:
A) Class D.
B) Class A.
C) Class E.
D) Class B.

22) Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:

A) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.
B) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1000 feet above the earth.
C) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit.
D) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the earth.

23) The lower limit of a Control Area is established at a height of not less than…
A) 200 m or 700 ft above aerodrome level.
B) 200 metres above ground or water.
C) 300 m or 1 000 ft above ground or water.
D) 300 m or 1 000 ft above aerodrome level.
24) Which statement is correct? During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace (Class C):
A) ATC will apply separation with other traffic
B) The pilot to apply separation with other traffic;
C) ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic
D) ATC will apply separation only with other IFR-traffic

25) To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E :

A) A clearance and two-way radio communication is required.
B) A clearance is required.
C) Two way radio communication is not required.
D) A clearance and/or two-way radio communication is required.

26) Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT?

A) Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: not required ;
B) Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: required ;
C) Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: required ;
D) Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: not required

27) Which statement is correct?

A) The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL;
B) The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000ft AMSL;
C) The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level
D) The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of at least 1500ft AGL;

28) What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?

A) 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195
B) 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100
C) 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels
D) 250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100

29) The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m
(10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
A) 250 KT IAS
B) Not applicable
C) 250 KT TAS
D) 240 KT IAS
30) The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m
(10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
A) 250 KT IAS
B) Not applicable
C) 250 KT TAS
D) 240 KT IAS

31) The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m
(10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
A) 250 KT TAS
B) 250 KT IAS
C) 260 KT IAS
D) Not applicable

32) The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when
flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
A) 250 KT IAS
B) Not applicable
C) 250 KT TAS
D) 260 KT IAS

33) The flight information service must provide information concerning collision hazards to aircraft
operating in airspace Classes from…
A) A to E (inclusive).
B) F and G.
C) A to G (inclusive).
D) C to G (inclusive).

34) Upper FIR (UIR)- Where an Upper Flight Information Region (UIR) is established, the procedures
applicable therein;
A) have to be as adopted by ICAO council.
B) have to be agreed at regional air navigation meetings.
C) do not have to be identical with those for the Flight Information Region below.
D) have to be the same as those established for the Flight Information Region below.

35) A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following
minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:
A) 5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
 B) 5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
clouds
C) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds
D) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

36) What is the class of airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, an air traffic control service
is available for all flights, separation is provided between IFR flights and other IFR and VFR flights,
and also between VFR and IFR flights, and traffic information is provided for other VFR flights?
A) Class C.
B) Class E.
C) Class B.
D) Class D.

37) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic
control service and are separated from each other is classified as:
A) Airspace C
B) Airspace E
C) Airspace B
D) Airspace D

38) What is the class of airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, an air traffic control service
is available for all flights, separation is provided between IFR flights, IFR flights receive traffic
information for VFR fights, and VFR flights receive traffic information for all other flights?
A) Class A.
B) Class E.
C) Class B.
D) Class D.

39) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control
Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is
practical, is classified as:
A) Airspace A
B) Airspace B
C) Airspace E
D) Airspace D
40) What is the class of airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, an air traffic advisory
service is available to all IFR flights, and traffic information is available if requested?
A) Class D.
B) Class G.
C) Class E.
D) Class F.

41) What is the Classification of Airspace with the following conditions and services:

1. IFR and VFR: permitted

2. Air traffic control service: none

3. Separation: not provided

4. Information: Flight Information Service if requested

A) Airspace C

B) Airspace F

C) Airspace E

D) Airspace G

42) What is the minimum distance a control zone shall extend from the centre of the aerodrome or
aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made?
A) 5 NM.
B) 15 NM.
C) 7.5 NM.
D) 10 NM.

43) The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed:
A) 30 seconds
B) 3 minutes
C) 1 minute
D) 2 minutes

44) An ATS-unit will issue clearances for the purpose of;

A) Achieving separation between controlled flights
B) providing advisory services.
 C) Achieving separation between IFR flights
D) providing a Flight Information Service.

45) Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
A) Providing advisory services
B) Providing flight Information Service
C) Providing alerting services
D) Achieving separation between controlled flights

46) The en-route IFR clearance expires at 0920. What does this mean?
A) If the aircraft is not airborne by 0920, a new clearance has to be issued.
B) If the aircraft is not airborne by 0920, it has to return to the ramp and the crew has to file a
new flight plan.
C) The issue of the en-route clearance will be at 0920.
D) It is not allowed to take off before 0920.

47) An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is
receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest
that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected?
A) When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130
B) When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70
C) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120
D) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140

48) When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

A) The ATIS is updated immediately when a significant change occurs.
B) Only when weather changes are of a magnitude that requires a change of the active runway
or instrument approach in use.
C) “Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR
D) otherwise hourly.”

49) An ATIS message containing departure and arrival information will include cloud cover
information when the cloud is;
A) Below 1 500 m (5 000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the
greater
 B) below 3000 ft or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is higher.
C) Below 600 m (2 000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the
greater
D) Cumulonimbus

50) Whenever ATIS is provided at an aerodrome, the broadcast information shall be updated;
A) as prescribed by the state.
B) immediately a significant change occurs.
C) as prescribed by the meteorological office.
D) at least every half an hour independent of any significant change.

51) ATIS messages:

A) Shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
B) Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the
voice channel of a VOR
C) Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency
D) Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR

52) Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when
operating in airspace classes:
A) A, B, C, D, E, F and G
B) F only
C) F and G only
D) C, D, E, F, and G

53) When a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, this means that all turns shall be made within the
allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of :

A) 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200

B) 22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250

C) 25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL190

D) 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190

54) When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the
allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius
of :

A) 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200

B) 25.0 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250

C) 20 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL200

D) 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL260

55)The Alerting Service is provided by:

A) The Area Control Centres.
B) Only by ATC units.
C) The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5
MHz.
D) The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.

56) The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:

A) Uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.
B) Uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.
C) Uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.
D) Uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.

57) A radio communications, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" because in the first case:
A) The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.
B) There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.
C) The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight to be immediately interrupted.
D) The aeroplane has suffered damage which impairs its fitness to fly.

58) The Alert phase is defined as when;

A) A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
B) there is a state of emergency in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be
threatened by a danger.
C) an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency.
D) A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.

59) When it becomes apparent that an aircraft operating within controlled airspace is in
difficulty, the decision to initiate the appropriate alert phases is the responsibility of…
A) the operator of the aircraft.
B) Air Traffic Control.
C) search and rescue co-ordination centres.
D) the pilot-in-command.
60) Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?
A) Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit
B) The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft
within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received;
C) Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful
interference, shall be informed about this;
D) The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of
unlawful interference

61) Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4,
represents a navigation accuracy of:
A) Plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis
B) Plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis
C) Plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis
D) Plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis

62) Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed:

A) By regional air navigation agreements
B) By states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
C) By states but not on the basis of regional air agreements
D) By ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements

63) A "Timed Approach Procedure" may be utilized as necessary in order to expedite the
approaches of a number of arriving aircraft. This will be obtained by requesting aircraft to:
A) Keep distance and time equal between aircraft in the approach.
B) Maintain a specified airspeed during the approach procedure.
C) Pass a specified point inbound at the previously notified time.
D) Notify the time when passing a specified point.

64) The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:

A) To assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment.
B) To provide radar separation.
C) To assist aircraft on the location storms.
D) To assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory.

65) The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is:
A) 25 minutes
B) 10 minutes
C) 20 minutes or more
 D) 15 minutes or more

66) Except when prescribed in a procedure or made possible by an agreement, aircraft under radar
control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of a controlled airspace than…

A) 2.5 NM.

B) 5 NM.

C) 3 NM.

D) 1.5 NM.

67) Separation minima between controlled traffic in the vicinity of aerodromes may be reduced;
A) only if the controller has both involved aircraft in sight.
B) only at the discretion of the responsible air traffic controller.
C) if the commander of one of the involved aircraft so requests.
D) When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able
to maintain own separation

68) If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in
sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions:
A) Continued approach will be according to VFR
B) The approach must be passing the FAF
C) The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic
D) The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km

69) The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown
except when, as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment
permits it to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case
distance and level information shall be given at each:

A) 1.5 NM

B) Half NM

C) Half mile

D) 1 NM
70) An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed
approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during
the:
A) Last 4 NM of the approach
B) Last 5 NM of the approach
C) Last 2 NM of the approach
D) Last 3 NM of the approach

71) Repetitive flight plans (RPLs) may be filed for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of
consecutive weeks and:
A) On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days
B) On at least 20 occasions
C) On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days
D) On at least 20 days consecutively

72) The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be
entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
A) True air speed at 65% power.
B) Estimated ground speed (G/S).
C) True air speed (TAS).
D) Indicated air speed (IAS).

73) The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time:
A) Required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing.
B) Of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day.
C) Required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.
D) Required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end
of the flight (block time).

74) When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly
heading:
A) 030 Degress True
B) 030 Degrees True, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)
C) 030 Degrees Magnetic
D) 030 Degrees Magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the Magnetic Track)

75) The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum
certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
A) 14 000 kg.
B) 7 000 kg.
C) 20 000 kg.
D) 5 700 kg for aeroplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters.

76) If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form:
A) Write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the
name of the airport
B) Write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the
name of the airport.
C) Write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the
name of the airport
D) Write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the
name of the airport.

77) An Expected Approach Time (EAT) is transmitted to an aircraft by the most expeditious
means when it is expected that it has to hold for;
A) 30 minutes or more.
B) 20 minutes or more.
C) 15 minutes or more.
D) 10 minutes or more.

78)Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct?

A) Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the aerodrome controller;
B) ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicle
C) The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions
between aircraft on the movement area;
D) An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land if this
is desirable ;

79) An aircraft flying under IFR, maintaining FL 150 has requested clearance for descent. Another
aircraft flying below, maintaining FL 140 receives the clearance: "Descend to FL 70, report
passing FL100". The earliest moment the pilot of the aircraft at the higher level can expect to
receive a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below is, when the pilot of the aircraft at the
lower level has reported:
A) That he has passed through FL100
B) That he has reached FL 70
C) That he has left FL 140
D) That he has descended through FL 130

80) Normal vectors to an ILS final give a 30º intercept. What is the maximum intercept angle
according to ICAO Doc 4444?
A) 30º
B) 45º
C) 50º
D) 40º

81) A pilot will receive an EAT as soon as practicable, when the expected approach delay is…
A) 10 minutes or more.
B) 15 minutes or more.
C) 20 minutes.
D) 5 minutes.

82) The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?
A) The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft
B) Position reports may be omitted
C) The radar identity of the aircraft has been established
D) The aircraft is subject to positive control

83) For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the
estimated time at which the aircraft will…
A) land.
B) arrive overhead the initial approach fix.
C) leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach.
D) stop on the parking area.

84)If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft, the pilot;
A) has to accept the ATC clearance. The clearance is based on the ATC Flight Plan filed.
B) The PIC may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.
C) may request an amended clearance from ATC. Amended clearances will only be given when
VMC prevail.
D) may propose another clearance. ATC has to amend the clearance in accordance with the
pilot`s request.

85) While under radar control during an intermediate or final approach, ATC may require an
adjustment to aircraft speed that will not exceed plus or minus…
A) 15 kt IAS.
B) 25 kt IAS.
C) 20 kt IAS.
D) 10 kt IAS.

86) Change from IFR to VFR. A change from IFR to VFR takes place…
A) as instructed by an Air Traffic Control unit.
B) at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions.
C) when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC.
D) on the initiative of the Pilot-in-Command of an aircraft.

87) Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible:

A) Only when leaving controlled airspace
B) If the commander so requests
C) If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecast during the next 60 minutes
D) If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutes

88) General provisions - change from IFR to VFR. A change from IFR to VFR is only acceptable
when VFR is permitted in that airspace and when…
A) the position of the change has been noted on the ATC flight plan. The cancellation of the
flight under IFR will then be made automatically by ATC.
B) the change is initiated by the PIC with a message containing the specific expression “cancel
IFR flight”.
C) ATC invites the PIC to change from IFR to VFR.
D) the PIC has requested and obtained an ATC clearance for the change and has filed an ATS
flight plan for a special VFR flight.

89) A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following
elements of information in the order listed…
A) 1- Aircraft identification, 2- position, 3- time, 4- true air speed, 5- flight level or altitude, 6-
next position and time over.
B) 1- Aircraft identification, 2- position, 3- time, 4- flight level or altitude, 5- next position and
time over, 6- ensuing significant point.
C) 1- Aircraft identification, 2- position, 3- flight level or altitude, 4- time, 5- next position and
time over, 6- ensuing significant point.
D) 1- Aircraft identification, 2- position, 3- time, 4- flight level or altitude, 5- next position, 6-
time over.

90) A Routine Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in:
A) Flight identification and weather noted ;
B) Urgent messages
C) Weather noted ;
D) A position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time ;

91) The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) between flights operating in accordance with IFR,
within controlled airspace, below FL 290 is:
A) 2000 feet (600 m).
 B) 2500 feet (750 m).
C) 500 feet (150 m).
D) 1000 feet (300 m).

92) The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) between flights operating in accordance with IFR,
within controlled airspace, above FL 290 is:
A) 2000 feet (600 m).
B) 500 feet (150 m).
C) 1000 feet (300 m).
D) 4000 feet (1200 m).

93) The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level
where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the
preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft, is:
A) 10 minutes.
B) 5 minutes.
C) 3 minutes.
D) 15 minutes.

94) When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the
following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:
A) 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
B) 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
C) 5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
D) 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

95) Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar
separation minimum shall be;

A) 3 NM.

B) 1.5 NM.

C) 5 NM.

D) 10 NM.

96) During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is
the responsibility of:
A) The radar controller.
B) The airport controller.
C) The pilot in command.
 D) The approach controller.

97) Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) shall be:
A) 4 000 feet
B) 1 500 feet
C) 2 000 feet
D) 3 000 feet

98) The minimum radar separation provided between aircraft established on the same localiser
course, disregarding additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence, shall
be…

A) 5 NM.

B) 2.5 NM.

C) 3 NM.

D) 2 NM.

99) The separation methods applied by ATC for controlled traffic are…
A) vertical and horizontal separation.
B) time separation and track separation.
C) vertical, horizontal, and angular separation.
D) composite separation.

100) When radar capabilities permit, the minimum radar separation of 5 NM may be
reduced, but shall not be less than;
A) 1 NM.
B) 3 NM.
C) 2 NM.
D) 5 NM.

101) A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in
controlled airspace classified as…

A) B and C.

B) B.

C) B, C, D and E.

D) B, C and D.
102) The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be
reduced to half of the standard value is called;
A) combined separation.
B) composite separation.
C) reduced separation.
D) essential separation

103) The shortest distance in the landing sequence between a LIGHT and a preceding
HEAVY aircraft provided with an ATS surveillance service is;
A) 2 km.
B) 10 km.
C) 6 NM.
D) 3 NM.

104) If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off
in any direction:
A) Until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
B) Until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument
runway
C) Until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
D) Until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway

105) What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is
taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway?
A) 1 minute
B) 3 minutes
C) 5 minutes
D) 2 minutes

106) In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed
approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium
aircraft?
A) Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes
B) Medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes
C) Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes
D) Light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes
107) A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a
HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier
aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same
runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by :
A) 760 m
B) 730 m
C) Less than 730 m
D) Less than 760 m

108) A separation minimum shall be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft and a
HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier
aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite
direction runway for take off, this minimum is:
A) 1 minute
B) 5 minutes
C) 3 minutes
D) 2 minutes

109) The "Clearance to fly maintaining own separation while in visual meteorological
conditions" may be given by the appropriate ATS authority. This has to be requested by the
pilot of a controlled flight and has to be agreed by the ATSU, and applies to which classes of
airspace?
A) Airspace Class B. C, D and E, VMC
B) Airspace Class C, D, VMC
C) Airspace Class C, VMC, hours of daylight
D) Airspace Class D and E, VMC, hours of daylight

110) Essential traffic is:

A) Controlled IFR flights separated from uncontrolled flights within advisory airspace.
B) Controlled Traffic not separated from another controlled traffic with the prescribed
separation minima.
C) Uncontrolled IFR flights separated from uncontrolled VFR flights within advisory airspace.
D) Controlled Traffic separated from other controlled traffic with the prescribed separation
minima.

111) The minimum wake turbulence separation to be applied between a light or medium
aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft, from the same position on the same runway, is…
A) 3 minutes.
B) 2 minutes.
C) 5 minutes.
 D) 1 minute.

112) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind

information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind
direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component
significant change is:
A) 10 KT
B) 5 KT
C) 8 KT
D) 3 KT

113) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind

information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind
direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component
significant change is?
A) 3 KT
B) 4 KT
C) 2 KT
D) 5 KT

114) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind

information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind
direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component
significant change is:
A) 5 KT
B) 4 KT
C) 10 KT
D) 8 KT

115) For independent parallel approaches, what is the minimum radar separation that is required
until the aircraft is established inbound on the ILS localiser course and/or MLS final approach track?

A) 1.0 NM

B) 3.0 NM

C) 2.0 NM

D) 5.0 NM

116) Independent parallel approaches are being conducted with vectoring to the ILS
localiser course or MLS final approach track. The final vector shall be such as to enable the
 aircraft to intercept the ILS localiser course or MLS final approach track at an angle not
greater than…
A) 30 degrees.
B) 15 degrees.
C) 25 degrees.
D) 20 degrees.

117) When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and
vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be
such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course:
A) At least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
B) At least 3.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
C) At least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
D) At least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle

118) Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided

that a No-Transgression Zone / NTZ is established equidistant between the extended runway
centre lines. The minimum width of this zone is:
A) 710 m
B) 500 m
C) 600 m
D) 610 m

119) When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and
vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be
such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final
approach track in level flight for:
A) At least 3.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
B) At least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
C) At least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
D) At least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle

120) A `Visual Approach` can be performed by a flight under IFR…

A) if the cloud base is 1000 ft higher than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure.
B) when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the
approach is executed with visual reference to the terrain.
C) if the cloud base is 1000 ft higher than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure and
the visibility is 5 km or more.
D) during IFR and VFR approaches in VMC.

121) According to international agreements, wind direction indications shall be adjusted

for local variation and given in degrees magnetic;
 A) In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° south.
B) when the local variation exceeds 10 degrees.
C) in a PIREP on request of a meteorological watch office -MWO- or at specified points.
D) Before landing and take-off

122) One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach
control service is:
A) To conduct surveillance radar approaches.
B) To provide instructions in order to reduce separations minima, if accepted by the pilots.
C) To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
D) To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR flights and VFR flights.

123) A pilot may expect instructions for a missed approach from radar when the controller
has not issued the landing-clearance at the moment the aircraft is…
A) 4 NM from touch-down.
B) 2 NM from touch-down.
C) 5 NM from touch-down.
D) 3 NM from touch-down.

124) When ATC is using primary surveillance radar, at what distance from the end of the
runway can the pilot expect that the aircraft will be identified on departure?
A) 5 NM
B) 3 NM
C) 2 NM
D) 1 NM

125) When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway
transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is
within a distance from touch down of…

A) 1.5 NM.

B) 4 NM.

C) 3 NM.

D) 2 NM.

126) A pilot may expect to receive the clearance to land, or any alternative clearance,
before the aircraft reaches a distance from touchdown of;
A) 2 NM from touchdown
B) 5 NM from touchdown
C) 3 NM from touchdown
D) 4 NM from touchdown
127) During a surveillance radar approach, a pilot will receive missed-approach
instructions from the radar controller when the tower has not issued a clearance to land by
the time the aircraft reaches a distance from touch down of…
A) 4 NM.
B) 5 NM.
C) 2 NM.
D) 1.5 NM.

128) Identification without SSR. When Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) is not available,
the pilot may be requested by ATC to execute one or more heading changes for radar
identification. The requested changes to be expected are in the order of;
A) 10 Degrees
B) 20 Degrees or more.
C) 45 Degrees
D) 30 Degrees or more.

129) Air Traffic Control Services have the responsibility to prevent terrain collisions when;
A) ATS only provides prevention when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC.
B) When a flight in accordance with IFR is vectored by radar.
C) an ATS is provided.
D) ATS never prevent collisions with terrain.

130) When radar identification of an aircraft has been achieved, the radar controller shall;
A) request the pilot to squawk ident.
B) communicate with the pilot only when work load permits.
C) inform the pilot only when identification had been achieved using primary radar.
D) inform the pilot.

131) According to ICAO Doc 4444, when an aircraft is radar vectored to an ILS localiser
course, the angle between the interception course and the localiser course shall not be
larger than…
A) 40 degrees.
B) 45 degrees.
C) 35 degrees.
D) 50 degrees.

132) A flight is operating in IMC under IFR, exactly on the current flight plan route. At
18:36 UTC the radar controller gives the following instruction. “Turn to heading 050,
maintain heading 050 until further advised”. This message is acknowledged. At 18:37 UTC a
two-way communication failure occurs. Radio communication cannot be re-established. The
procedure to be followed is to…
A) continue on heading 050 for 15 minutes.
B) continue on heading 050.
C) continue on heading 050 for 30 minutes.
D) return to the current flight plan route.

133) A strayed aircraft is an aircraft;

A) flying in a given area but whose identity has not been established.
B) An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is
lost
C) Only that aircraft which reports that it is lost
D) Only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track

134) An air traffic control unit;

A) May ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk
of confusion between two or more similar call signs.
B) should not ask an aircraft to change its call sign.
C) may require an aircraft to change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of
confusion between two or more similar call signs, providing the aircraft is on a repetitive
flight plan.
D) may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after having accepted the call sign with the
flight plan.

135) Which procedure do you follow after having experienced a two way communication
failure during a flight in accordance with IFR in VMC?
A) Continue to fly in VMC and return to the aerodrome of departure.
B) Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, carry out level changes as indicated in the
filed ATC flight plan, start the approach to the flight plan destination at the planned ETA.
C) Maintain the assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome where VMC
conditions prevail.
D) Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report the arrival by the
most expeditious means to the appropriate Air Traffic Control unit.

136) "ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:

A) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.
B) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way and clearway (if provided)
.
C) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way (if stop way provided) .
D) The length of the runway plus the length of stop way available (if stop way provided).

137) The lower limit of a Control area / CTA shall be established not less than:
A) 1500 ft AGL
B) 3000 ft AGL
C) 700 ft AGL
D) 1000 ft AGL

138) Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the
same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest
difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend?
A) 12 NM
B) 15 NM
C) 20 NM
D) 10 NM

139) When the Mach number separation technique (MNT) is being applied, and the
preceding aircraft maintains a mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft
an RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in
lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is:
A) 80 NM
B) 70 NM
C) 60 NM
D) 100 NM

140) Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same
cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilises "on Track" DME stations and
separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is:
A) 25 NM
B) 20 NM
C) 40 NM
D) 10 NM

141) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level
when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the
preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more, faster than the succeeding
aircraft will be:
A) 10 minutes
B) 3 minutes
C) 5 minutes
D) 2 minutes

142) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level
when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be:
A) 10 minutes
B) 3 minutes
C) 5 minutes
D) 15 minutes

143) For aircraft at the same cruising level, when navigation aids permit frequent
determination of position and speed, provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a
true air speed of 20 Kt or more, faster than the succeeding aircraft will be:
A) 3 minutes
B) 15 minutes
C) 5 minutes
D) 10 minutes

144) The longitudinal separation minimum for 2 aircraft when both are utilizing the same
"on track" DME stations is:
A) 5 NM.
B) 20 NM.
C) 15 NM
D) 10 NM.

145) When the Mach number tecnique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft
shall maintain a mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV
distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10
minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is:
A) 70 NM
B) 80 NM
C) 60 NM
D) 100 NM

146) Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic
distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller
shall attempt to verify this suspicion by:
A) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500
B) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and thereafter to code 7500
C) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700
D) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby and thereafter to code 7700

147) A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established
inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when
independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
A) 150 m (500 ft)
B) 300 m (1000 ft)
C) 200 m (660 ft)
D) 100 m (330 ft)
148) Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by:
A) At least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
B) At least 15° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
C) At least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
D) At least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

149) Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided

that:
A) The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the
missed approach track of the adjacent approach
B) The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the
missed approach track of the adjacent approach
C) The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the
missed approach track of the adjacent approach
D) The missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the
missed approach track of the adjacent approach

150) Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can
be again brought into operation :
A) At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
B) At least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
C) At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft
D) At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft

151) The minimum non-radar separation to be applied by ATC between a light or medium
aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft using the same runway is…
A) 2 minutes.
B) 3 minutes.
C) 4 minutes.
D) 1 minute.

152) Special VFR flights may be authorized to operate locally within a control zone when
the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped
with a functioning radio receiver within class :
A) D and E airspaces
B) C, D and E airspaces
C) E airspace
D) D airspace

153) Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?

 A) Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure
in any event when they are expected to exceed 45 minutes ;
B) During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation ;
C) An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact
between aircraft and approach control ;
D) If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach
Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft

154) Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to

make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than :
A) 25 knots at any stage
B) 10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold
C) 20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold
D) 15 knots at any stage

155) When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished
shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater
than:
A) 25 degrees
B) 15 degrees
C) 30 degrees
D) 20 degrees

156) In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be
supplemented:
A) By a letter for 2 parallel runways.
B) By a number like "0" and "01" for 2 parallel runways.
C) By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" and "R".
D) By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways "L" and "R" and the central has no letter.

157) The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course
shall be:

A) 5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course

B) 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course

C) 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer courses

D) 2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course

158) The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft using DME
stations, is: View Annex 100516
A) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster
than the succeeding aircraft.
B) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster
than the succeeding aircraft.
C) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster
than the succeeding aircraft.
D) 20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster
than the succeeding aircraft.
159) The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same
localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence:

A) 5.0 NM

B) 2.0 NM

C) 2.5 NM

D) 3.0 NM

160) When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to
intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as
to enable the aircraft to:
A) Fly straight and level for at least 2 NM before intercepting the ILS localizer course or MLS
final approach
B) Fly straight and level for at least 3 NM before intercepting the ILS localizer course or MLS
final approach
C) Fly straight and level for at least 1 NM before intercepting the ILS localizer course or MLS
final approach
D) Fly straight and level for at least 2½ NM before intercepting the ILS localizer course or MLS
final approach

161) The separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and
following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or
more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
A) 2 minutes
B) 5 minutes
C) 3 minutes
D) 10 minutes

162) Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on
the same track, when:
A) The preceding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft
B) The preceding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the following aircraft
C) The preceding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the following aircraft
D) The preceding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the following aircraft

163) One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on
tracks diverging by at least:
A) 15 Degrees immediately after take-off
B) 45 Degrees immediately after take-off
 C) 30 Degrees immediately after take-off
D) 25 Degrees immediately after take-off

164) Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message
shall be the responsibility of:
A) The air traffic services
B) The unit as prescribed by the state
C) Both air traffic services and the meteorological office
D) The meteorological office serving the aerodrome(s)

165) When is a time check required?

A) Before a controlled flight and at any such time during flight as may be necessary.
B) From ATC only before a controlled flight.
C) After take-off but before the first position report.
D) Before any flight

166) In the case of a heavier-than-air aircraft, where on the wing structure are the
registration marks?
A) On the left half of the upper surface.
B) On the right half of the lower surface.
C) On the right half of the upper surface.
D) On the left half of the lower surface.

167) A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the
average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the
flight plan by plus or minus:
A) 10%
B) 3%
C) 2%
D) 5%

168) When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight
wishes to continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is
reached:

1. He must inform the control unit ("cancel IFR")

2. He must request and obtain clearance.

3. He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR flight plan.

4. The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan.

The correct combination of statements is:

A) 2 and 4
B) 1 and 3
C) 1 and 4
D) 2 and 3

169) When a runway is 2 000 metres in length, and taxi holding positions have not been
established, aircraft shall not be held closer to the runway in use more than:
A) 50 metres
B) 60 metres
C) 30 metres
D) 45 metres

170) The standard vertical separation minima between two aircraft flying in the same
direction above FL290 is…
A) 1000 feet.
B) 4000 feet.
C) 2500 feet.
D) 2000 feet.

171) The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height above the ground or water of not less
than…

A) 1000 ft / 300 m.

B) 500 ft / 150 m.

C) 700 ft / 200 m.

D) 2000 ft / 600 m.

172) The pre-flight actions for a flight leaving the local aerodrome area, is to include:
A) A careful study of the available weather charts
B) A careful study of the available meteorological reports and forecasts for the route
C) A careful briefing of the passengers
D) A careful briefing of the crew

173) For an aerodrome to be "controlled" it must:

A) Be located within a Control Zone
B) Be located in a Control Area
C) Be located in a Control Zone and have a control tower
D) Have an Air Traffic Control Service
174) An ATS route designator:
A) begins with at least two numbers followed by an alphabetical character
B) shall not exceed six characters.
C) shall not exceed five characters
D) always starts with two alphabetical characters

175) Transition level will be rounded up to the next:

A) 200 metres
B) 300 metres
C) 500 feet
D) 1 000 feet

176) A Heavy/Medium aircraft is conducting a missed approach, for wake turbulence

reasons what is the minimum time separation for a light aircraft taking off from an opposite
direction runway?
A) 1 Minute
B) No separation restriction applies
C) 3 Minutes
D) 2 Minutes

177) Essential traffic is:

A) aircraft, vehicles or persons on runway, near the runway and in the circuit posing a risk to IFR
traffic.
B) aircraft, vehicles or persons on runway, near the runway and in the circuit posing a risk to
aerodrome traffic.
C) aircraft, vehicles or persons on runway, and in the circuit posing a risk to IFR traffic
D) aircraft, vehicles or persons on runway, and in the circuit posing a risk to aerodrome traffic.

178) Altimeter settings provided to aircraft shall be;

A) rounded up to the nearest higher whole hectopascal.
B) rounded down to the nearest lower whole hectopascal.
C) rounded up to the nearest higher half of hectopascal.
D) rounded down to the nearest lower half of hectopascal.

179) When in RVSM airspace between FL290 and FL410 the vertical separation between
aircraft travelling in opposite directions is:
A) 3000 ft
B) 4000 ft
C) 1000 ft
D) 2000 ft
180) ATC shall transmit without delay information on local traffic to departing and arriving
aircraft. How is the term essential local traffic defined?
A) Aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway or traffic in the take-off, climb-out or
initial approach area which may constitute a collision hazard for IFR flights.
B) Aircraft, vehicle or personnel on the runway or traffic in the take-off, climb-out or final
approach area which may constitute a collision hazard for IFR flights.
C) Aircraft, vehicle or personnel on the runway or traffic in the take-off, climb-out or initial
approach area which may constitute a collision hazard for departing or arriving aircraft.
D) Aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway or traffic in the take-off, climb-out or
final approach area which may constitute a collision hazard for departing or arriving aircraft.

181) When providing a QNH value, ATC will calculate this on which basis?
A) Rounded down to the nearest half hPa
B) Rounded down to the nearest whole hPa
C) Rounded up to the nearest whole hPa
D) Rounded up to the nearest half hPa

182) What piece of information will you always get in an Approach or Departure ATIS?
A) Altimeter setting
B) Taxyway braking condition
C) Wind (true)
D) Transition altitude

183) In advisory airspace (Class F airspace), an Air Traffic Advisory Service may be provided
to…
A) controlled flights only.
B) all flights.
C) VFR flights only.
D) IFR flights only.

184) Which of the following is an Air Traffic reportable incident?

A) Reduction in separation leading to an Airprox
B) Mechanical damage while taxiing
C) Passenger seriously ill in flight
D) Exceedence of crew hours in crew rostering

185) A pilot is conducting an IFR flight outside of controlled airspace and is required to
establish communication with the ATS unit providing FIS. Under what circumstances,
considering ICAO Annex 2, shall the pilot also make position reports that are normally
required only for controlled flights?
A) When flying on a flight level.
B) When operating over the High Seas.
C) When it is required to prepare an operational flight plan.
D) When it is required to submit a flight plan.

186) Expected Approach Time (EAT) is:

A) the time computed by ATC for an aircraft to reach destination, if there's no delay
B) the time computed by PIC to reach IAF, if there's no delay
C) the time computed by PIC to reach destination, if there's no delay
D) the time computed by ATC for an aircraft to reach IAF, if there's no delay

187) You are flying at your cruising altitude on route to your destination. You hear over
the radio that another aircraft is performing an emergency descent in the the area due to a
depressurisation problem. Your actions are:
A) perform an emergancy descent
B) broadcast your call sign, location, altitude and heading
C) maintain heading and speed
D) clear the area

188) You are flying at your cruising altitude on route to your destination. You hear over
the radio that another aircraft is performing an emergancy descent in the the area due to a
depressurisation problem. Your actions are:
A) broadcast your call sign, location, altitude and heading
B) maintain heading and speed
C) clear the area
D) perform an emergancy descent

189) The cloud ceiling is defined, within an aerodromes ATIS, when there are clouds,
below 30 000ft, that:
A) covers more than a third of the sky
B) cover more than half the sky
C) covers a quarter of the sky
D) cover less than half the sky

190) You are flying when you receive a broadcast from ATC advising that an aircraft in you
area is making an emergency descent. What action should you take?
A) Transmit on frequency, your callsign, position, track and level.
B) Continue on present heading and maintain level
C) Clear the area
D) Change to the previous frequency and request instructions

191) What information is given to an aircraft on its first call to Tower prior to taxi if no
information has been received?
A) Runway in use, wind, QNH, visibility below 10k and Transition Level
B) Runway in use, wind, QNH and Transition Level
C) Runway in use, QNH and visibility below 10k.
D) Runway in use, wind, QNH, visibility below 10k

192) During the approach, air traffic control has given you numerous changes in airspeed.
At what distance from the runway will you not normally receive further speed changes?
A) 4 nm
B) 5 nm
C) 2 nm
D) 8 nm

193) According to ICAO PANS-ATM (air traffic management), what is the definition for the
term “clearance limit”?
A) The point at which the aircraft reaches the initial approach fix.
B) The last portion of an air traffic control clearance.
C) The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance.
D) A broadcast from an air traffic services unit that limits the use of a specific airspace.

194) What does the abbreviation ATIS stand for?

A) Automatic Terminal Instruction Service
B) Automatic Terminal Information Status
C) Automatic Terminal Information Service
D) Automatic Transferable Information Service

195) You are flying inside a control zone (CTR) but cannot maintain VMC, what should you
do?
A) Manouvre to maintain VMC and leave the CTR if necessary.
B) Climb to MSA and set heading for an area of VMC.
C) Fly direct to the airfield manintaining sight of the ground and land.
D) Request authorization to operate as a special VFR flight.

196) What is the main aim of Mach number technique?

A) To achieve lateral separation.
B) To achieve vertical separation.
C) To achieve longitudinal separation.
D) To achieve natural separation.

197) According to ICAO Annex 11, what are the three basic types of Air Traffic Services?
A) Air traffic control service, flight information service, and advisory service.
B) Area control service, approach control service, and aerodrome control service.
C) Air traffic control service, flight information service, and alerting service.
D) Area control service, alerting service, and aeronautical information service.

198) You are in transit talking to an ATC unit in Germany and you are told to maintain your
current speed. They then hand you to another agency (possibly Belgium). On initial contact
do you ...
A) Don’t tell them your speed.
B) Don't call them as you have been handed over.
C) Tell them your call sign and flight level only.
D) Tell them your speed.

199) What is the code word used in air traffic incident reports to designate “aircraft
proximity”?
A) AIRDIST
B) PROXIMITY
C) AIRPROX
D) ACPROX

200) On routes defined by designated significant points, when shall position reports be
made by the aircraft?
A) Only when requested by the ATS unit serving the airspace.
B) When over, or as soon as possible after passing, each designated compulsory reporting point.
C) Before passing each compulsory reporting point.
D) Five minutes before reaching each compulsory reporting point.

201) You take-off from London Heathrow and experience an onboard emergency requiring
you to dump fuel. What actions would you take?
A) Immediately dump fuel.
B) Go to the Bristol Channel to dump at not less than 5000 ft.
C) Go to the Bristol Channel to dump at not less than 6000 ft
D) Land overweight

202) ATS is responsible for collision avoidance for...

A) Aircraft in uncontrolled airspace.
B) aircraft on the movement area.
C) VFR - VFR traffic in Class C airspace.
D) aircraft on the manoeuvring area.

203) When are manoeuvering area conditions updated?

A) For Arriving traffic, immediately after a significant change.
B) For Arrivals and Departures, immediately a significant change occurs.
C) For Arrival and Departures, every hour.
D) For Arriving traffic, every hour.

204) When shall the responsibility for the control of an arriving aircraft be transferred
from the unit providing approach control service to the aerodrome control tower?
A) When this is requested by the aircrew of the aircraft.
B) When the aircraft is in the vicinity of the aerodrome.
C) When the aircraft enters the control zone.
D) When the aircraft enters the terminal area.

205) In airspace Class C below 10000 ft (3050 m) AMSL the maximum speed for flights
under VFR is…
A) 250 kt TAS.
B) not restricted.
C) 240 kt IAS.
D) 250 kt IAS.

206) In airspace Class E below 10000 ft (3050 m) AMSL, the speed for flights under IFR is…
A) 260 kt IAS.
B) 250 kt IAS.
C) 250 kt TAS.
D) not restricted.

207) In airspace Class C below 10000 ft (3050 m) AMSL, the speed for flights under IFR is…
A) 250 kt TAS.
B) 240 kt IAS.
C) 250 kt IAS.
D) not restricted.

208) In airspace Class B below 10000 ft (3050 m) AMSL, the maximum speed for flights
under VFR and IFR is…
A) 250 kt TAS.
B) 260 kt IAS.
C) 250 kt IAS.
D) not restricted.

209) Flights under VFR, operating inside controlled airspace Class C at or above 10000 ft
(3050 m) AMSL have to maintain the following minima…
A) flight visibility of 8 km, distance from clouds of 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical.
B) flight visibility of 5 NM, distance from clouds of 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical.
C) flight visibility of 5 km, distance from clouds of 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical.
D) flight visibility of 8 km and clear of clouds.

210) When does a clearance issued by an ATC unit include the prevention of collision with
terrain?
A) When an aircraft is within a control zone.
B) When radar vectoring an IFR flight.
C) When an aircraft is entering a holding area.
D) When radar vectoring a VFR flight.

211) Aerodrome traffic is all traffic…

A) on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
B) in the aerodrome circuit, having established contact with the aerodrome traffic control.
C) on the manoeuvring area.
D) on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.

212) While flying you have an emergency. Which of the following SSR transponder modes
and codes shall you select?
A) Mode C and code 7000.
B) Mode A and code 7700.
C) Mode C and code 7600.
D) Mode B and code 7500.

213) In which of the following ATC clearances is the QNH altimeter setting included?
A) In all climb or descent ATC clearances to an altitude.
B) In climb, when first cleared to an altitude above the transition level.
C) In all clearances to altitudes below 2000 ft above aerodrome level.
D) In descent, when first cleared to an altitude below the transition level.

214) The transition level shall be provided to the flight crew…

A) when changing the altimeter setting from QNH to QFE.
B) when passing the transition altitude during descent.
C) during descent, prior to reaching the transition level.
D) during climb, before reaching the transition altitude.

215) Which of the following options is a condition required for a controlled aerodrome?
A) The aerodrome shall have a CTR and a TMA.
B) An aerodrome at which a radar service is provided.
C) An aerodrome at which an air traffic control service is provided to aerodrome traffic.
D) The aerodrome shall have separated frequencies for Approach/Departure, Tower and
Ground.
216) “Air Traffic Services - Definitions - The minimum services provided in an Flight
Information Region (FIR) are…”
A) Flight Information and RADAR Services.
B) Flight Information and Alerting Services.
C) Alerting and Advisory Services.
D) Flight Information and Advisory Services.

217) When a Flight Information Service is being provided to an aircraft, this shall include
the provision of information relating to collision hazards when operating in which classes of
airspace?
A) F only.
B) C, D, E, F, and G.
C) F and G only.
D) A, B, C, D, E, F and G.

218) What is the class of airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, an air traffic
control service is provided for IFR flights, separation is provided between IFR and IFR flights,
and traffic information is given for all flights?
A) Class E.
B) Class A.
C) Class D.
D) Class B.

219) A Special Air Report shall be made when...

A) experiencing severe icing or severe turbulence.
B) an AIRPROX has been encountered.
C) an unruly passenger is on board.
D) the ETA changes by more than 10 minutes.
1) A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:
A) Not more than three months
B) Not more than 28 days
C) Not more than one month
D) Not more than 2 months

2) A checklist of valid NOTAM shall be issued over the Aeronautical Fixed Service (AFS) at
intervals of not more than:
A) 10 days.
B) 15 days.
C) 28 days.
D) One month.

3) In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area,
restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of:
A) At least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
B) At least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
C) At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer
D) At least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer

4) The information concerning charges for aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation Services
are on the following part of the AIP?
A) RAC
B) GEN
C) AD
D) FAL

5) Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP?
A) OCA or OCH
B) Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
C) Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate
D) DME-frequencies

6) AIRAC is a…
A) publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical information of a
lasting character essential to air navigation.
B) system aimed at advanced notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances
necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.
C) notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the
establishment, condition, or change in any aeronautical facility service, procedure, or hazard,
the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
D) package which consists of the following elements: AIP, supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC,
checklists and summaries.

7) Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory
and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory,
and this shall include the preparation and origination of:
A) Integrated Aeronautical Information Package.
B) Only AIP and NOTAMs.
C) AIP, NOTAMs, Circular and AIRAC.
D) Only NOTAMs and Circulars.

8) An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements?

A) AIP including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC
B) AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and checklist summaries
C) AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information
bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summaries
D) AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries

9) AIP - The part of the AIP that contains a list with “Location Indicators” is called…
A) LOC.
B) GEN.
C) AD.
D) ENR.

10) The identification of Prohibited (P), Restricted (R) and Danger (D) areas shall be composed of
the;
A) The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed the
letters P, R and D and figures
B) The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) followed by figures
C) The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and
figures
D) The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R and D

11) Temporary AIP changes of long duration published as AIP supplements are changes that last
for at least;
A) Two months or longer.
B) Six months or longer.
C) One year or longer.
D) Three months or longer.

12) The AIP provides information about SIGMET in part…

A) GEN.
B) MET.
C) ENR.
D) AD.

13) Temporary, long-term modifications (3 months or more) and short-term extensive or

graphical information are published as…
A) AIP supplements.
B) NOTAM.
C) Trigger NOTAM.
D) AIP amendments.

14) The part of the AIP that gives detailed information about refuelling facilities and the fuel
grades available is;
A) AD
B) FAL
C) ENR
D) GEN

15) What part of the AIP contains information about existing prohibited, restricted, and danger
areas?
A) GEN
B) The AIP does not contain this information
C) AD
D) ENR

16) A brief description of the service(s) responsible for Search and Rescue can be found in the
AIP part;
A) GEN.
B) AD.
C) ENR.
D) SAR.

17) AIP. The designation for the part of the AIP that contains a brief description of areas and/or
routes for which meteorological service is provided is;
A) GEN.
B) METEO.
C) AD.
D) ENR.

18) Information on holding, approach, and departure procedures can be found in the AIP part…
A) MAP.
B) GEN.
C) ENR.
D) AD.

19) The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part :

A) GEN
B) ENR
C) MET
D) AGA

20) The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published:
A) Only in NOTAM
B) NOTAM, AIP and MAL
C) In NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.
D) Only in AIP

21) The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its
activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using
the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous,
eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL
250, the level of alert colour code is:
A) ORANGE
B) YELLOW
C) RED
D) GREEN

22) A special NOTAM series notifying a possible important change for the aircraft operation due
to volcano activity, eruption, or ash cloud by means of a specific format is called…
A) VULTAM.
B) NAVTAM.
C) ASHTAM.
D) GVATAM.

23) Operationally significant changes to the AIP published at a specific date are called…
A) NOTAM, and followed by a number.
B) AIRAC.
C) AIC.
D) NOTOC.
24) The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the
methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym…
A) IFPS.
B) EATCHIP.
C) NOTAM.
D) AIRAC.

25) Aeronautical Information Service - The publication containing information on Rules of the Air,
Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures, distributed in advance to become effective
at a specific date, is called…
A) NOTAM RAC.
B) ATS NOTAM.
C) Advisory NOTAM.
D) AIRAC.

26) Aeronautical Information Service. The publication containing information about flight safety,
air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters, published by the AIS of a state
is called…
A) NOTAM.
B) Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC).
C) AIRAC.
D) Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP).

27) Which part of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) contains Runway (RWY) physical
characteristics, declared distances, approach lighting and runway lighting?
A) ENR.
B) GEN.
C) MET.
D) AD.

28) How is the level of volcanic activity identified on an ASHTAM?

A) Colour code
B) 2 character code
C) 3 Character code
D) 2 numbers followed by 1 letter code

29) Aeronautical Information Circulars (AICs) are usually printed on paper of a particular colour
according to the subject of the circular. The colour that corresponds to administrative
matters is…
A) pink.
B) white.
C) yellow.
D) green.

30) Who is responsible for the provision of the aeronautical data and aeronautical information
that is necessary for the safety, regularity, and efficiency of air navigation?
A) The Aeronautical Information Service (AIS)
B) The Aerodrome Operator
C) The Air Traffic Service (ATS)
D) The National Civil Aviation Authority

31) Which of the following is included in the Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) and notified
to aircrew as part of pre-flight information with regards to aerodromes?
A) Failure of the secondary power supply
B) Delays due to overcrowding experienced in the terminal
C) Maintenance problems in the refuelling area
D) An increased security level

32) According to ICAO Annex 14, when mobile objects are marked by colour, what colour should
be used for service vehicles?
A) Blue
B) Green
C) Red
D) Yellow

33) What is issued when snow, ice or standing water are contaminating a runway?
A) METAR
B) A series of NOTAMS.
C) ASHTAM
D) SNOWTAM

34) Aeronautical Information Circulars (AIC) are usually printed on paper of a particular colour
according to the subject of the circular. The colour that corresponds to a safety-related AIC
is…
A) yellow.
B) pink.
C) green.
D) white.

35) What colour paper is used in the Aeronautical Information Circulars (AIC) for safety related
topics?
A) Pink
B) Yellow
 C) White
D) Green

36) Which of the following statements is true?

A) The hangars are part of the manoeuvering area
B) The terminal is a part of the manoeuvering area
C) The Apron is part of the movement area
D) The Apron is part of the manoeuvering area

37) A NOTAM is issued and will be valid during flight. In what format is it issued?
A) Pre-flight information bulletin
B) Pre-flight information summary
C) IAP supplement
D) Aeronauticla information circular (AIC)

38) What are the main objectives for the AIS?

A) To provide ATFM.
B) To provide aeronautical data and aeronautical information.
C) To provide aircraft with an Air Traffic Control service.
D) To provide ATS.

39) The movement area of an aerodrome will include:

A) Only what is included in the manoeuvring area.
B) Only the aprons.
C) The aprons, taxiways and runways.
D) Only the taxiways and the runways.

40) What information should be available from AIS for pre-flight purposes?
A) Load sheet.
B) Gen Dec.
C) Maps and charts applicable to route.
D) Aircraft stores list.

41) Which 4 of the following options would require issuance of a NOTAM?

(i) An operationally significant change in volcanic activity.

(ii) Routine maintenance on the apron which has no affect on aircraft operations.

(iii) Planned runway maintenance that would not adversely affect the safety of aircraft operations.

(iv) A forecast of extensive solar cosmic radiation.

(v) Extensive runway work that might impinge aircraft operations.

(vi) Painting runway markings when the equipment can be removed quickly without affecting aircraft
operations.

(vii) Primary & secondary power interruptions affecting the runway lighting.

A) i, ii, vi, vii

B) i, iv, v, vii
C) ii, iii, v, vii
D) ii, iii, v, vi

42) Which of the following information shall be provided by the Aeronautical Information
Services (AIS) to flight crews, for pre-flight purposes?
A) Aircraft Minimum Equipment List
B) Operational Flight Plan
C) NOTAMs
D) Aircraft performance charts

43) Information of operational significance or of an urgent nature has been provided in a

NOTAM. The NOTAM is still valid. Prior to a flight, this information shall be made available
once more to the flight crew in the form of a plain-language...
A) Pre-flight Information Circular (PIC).
B) Pre-flight Information Bulletin (PIB).
C) Pre-flight Information Summary (PIS).
D) Pre-flight Information Leaflet (PIL).
1) According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the "Code Letter E" shall identify an aircraft
wing span of:
A) 15 m up to but not including 24 m.
B) 36 m up to but not including 52 m.
C) 24 m up to but not including 36 m.
D) 52 m up to but not including 65 m.

2) Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes
for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?
A) 40 metres
B) 45 metres
C) 35 metres
D) 50 metres

3) In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify:

A) The length of the aircraft fuselage.
B) The width of the aircraft wing.
C) Only the aircraft wing span.
D) The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.

4) A barrette consists of…

A) a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed.
B) three or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as one bar of lights.
C) a high obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.
D) a CAT II or III holding position.

5) A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available, prepared
as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off, is
called…
A) the Runway End Safety Area.
B) a Clearway.
C) a Stopway.
D) the Obstacle Free Zone (OFZ).

6) Non-precision approach runways and precision approach runways CAT I, II and III are defined
as…
A) non-instrument runways.
B) parallel runways.
C) precision instrument runways.
D) instrument runways.
7) A defined rectangular area, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane
may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height is called…
A) the Runway End Safety Area (RESA).
B) the Take-Off Run Available (TORA).
C) a Clearway.
D) a Stopway.

8) Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications
for the design of aerodromes?
A) Annex 14
B) Annex 11
C) Annex 6
D) Annex 10

9) Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a
specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the
length of this approach light system?
A) 900 metres
B) 1200 metres
C) 1000 metres
D) 420 metres

10) Accelerate stop distance available (ASDA) is the length of the…

A) take-off run available plus the length of provided clearway.
B) runway available plus the length of provided stopway.
C) take-off run available plus the length of provided stopway.
D) take-off run available plus the length of provided stopway and clearway.

11) Take-off distance available (TODA) is the length of the…

A) take-off run available plus the length of provided stopway.
B) runway available plus the length of provided clearway.
C) take-off run available plus the length of provided clearway.
D) take-off run available plus the length of provided stopway and clearway.

12) A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is:

A) Medium
B) Poor
C) Medium/poor
D) Good

13) Characteristics of T-VASIS: Each wing bar has:

A) 4 lights
B) 5 lights
C) 3 lights
D) 2 lights

14) Other than location signs, aerodrome information signs must consist of…
A) yellow inscriptions on black background.
B) orange background with black inscriptions.
C) black inscriptions on yellow background.
D) black background with red inscriptions.

15) Runway edge lights except in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
A) Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.
B) Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.
C) Fixed lights showing variable white.
D) Flashing white.

16) The runway edge lights shall be:

A) Red
B) Green
C) White
D) Blue

17) A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates that;
A) special precautions must be observed due to the condition of this taxiway.
B) special precautions are needed for landing on the runway in use.
C) this area is unfit for the movement of aircraft.
D) the aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed

18) When displayed in the signal area or at the end of the runway strip in use, a right-hand arrow
of conspicuous colour indicates;
A) that turns are to be made to the right before landing and after take-off.
B) the position of the Aerodrome Reference Point.
C) that standard turns in the circuit have to be made to the left, gliders have to make the turns
to the right.
D) that 180 degree turns on the runway for backtrack have to be made to the right.
19) Visual ground signals - A horizontal white dumb-bell with a black bar placed perpendicular to
the shaft across each circular portion placed in the signal area indicates that…
A) aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only.
B) the aerodrome is being used by gliders and glider flights are being performed on a parallel
runway.
C) a parallel runway system is used at this aerodrome.
D) aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not
be confined to runways or taxiways.

20) On an aerodrome equipped with parallel runways, the designation number of each runway is
supplemented as follows…
A) for three parallel runways, by the letter L and R for the outer runways and no letter
supplement for the central runway.
B) for two parallel runways, by adding 10? to the left runway designation and by subtracting
10? from the right runway designation.
C) for two parallel runways, by the letter L and R in the sequence from left to right.
D) for three parallel runways, by adding L to the designation of the runway farthest to the left,
adding one R to the central runway and adding two R to the designation of the runway
farthest to the right.

21) During final approach on a normal glide path, the number of Precision Approach Path
Indicator (PAPI) red lights visible are;
A) none.
B) two.
C) three.
D) one.

22) Taxiway centre line lights, except on an exit taxiway, are fixed lights showing;
A) Fixed lights showing white.
B) Fixed lights showing yellow.
C) Fixed lights showing blue.
D) Fixed lights showing green.

23) The acronym PAPI stands for;

A) Precision Approach Path Indicator.
B) Precision Approach Power Index.
C) Precision Approach Power Indicator.
D) Precision Approach Path Index.

24) The "PAPI" shall consist of:

A) Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
B) A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.
C) Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
D) A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.

25) Taxiway lights and Taxiway edge lights shall be fixed showing;
A) Fixed showing yellow.
B) Flashing showing blue.
C) Fixed showing green.
D) Fixed showing blue.

26) Runway edge lights shall consist of at least:

A) Fixed lights showing steady green.
B) Flashing lights showing variable green.
C) Flashing lights showing variable yellow.
D) Fixed lights showing variable white.

27) In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on
the centre line have a length of:
A) 300 m
B) 150 m
C) 200 m
D) 250 m

28) Runway lead-in lighting shall consist of;

A) two parallel rows of lights leading towards the runway.
B) a group of at least 5 flashing yellow lights.
C) an arbitrary amount of green lights.
D) Of groups of at least three white lights, flashing in sequence towards the runway

29) The length of an approach lighting system for a precision-approach runway CAT II is…
A) 300 m.
B) 900 m.
C) 150 m.
D) 600 m.

30) Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach
light system?
A) 4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
B) 3 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
C) 3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit
D) 5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit

31) The light shown by an Aerodrome Identification Beacon of a land aerodrome shall be
flashing, giving the aerodrome identification by Morse Code. The colour of this light is:
A) White.
B) Green.
C) Blue.
D) Yellow.

32) Runway threshold identification lights are…

A) flashing green lights.
B) flashing white lights.
C) steady white lights.
D) steady yellow lights.

33) Which is the principal composition of a precision approach category I lighting system?
A) A row of lights on the extended centre line of the runway, extending over a distance of 600
m from the runway threshold and a crossbar at a distance of 450 m from the runway
threshold.
B) A papi or t-vasis-system.
C) A row of lights on the extended centre line of the runway, extending over a distance of 420
m from the runway threshold and a crossbar at a distance of 250 m from the runway
threshold.
D) A row of lights on the extended centre line of the runway, extending over a distance of 900
m from the runway threshold and a crossbar at a distance of 300 m from the runway
threshold.

34) Visual aids for navigation & Runway End Lights. The colour of the fixed, unidirectional
Runway End Lights shall be;
A) white.
B) green.
C) red.
D) yellow.

35) What PAPI lights will the pilot see when the aircraft is well above the approach slope?
A) The unit nearest to and the unit farthest from the runway are steady white, the two in the
centre are flashing white.
B) All four units are flashing white.
C) All four units are steady white.
D) The unit nearest to and the unit farthest from the runway are white, the two others are red.
36) The centre line and crossbar lights of a precision approach Category I lighting system are
fixed lights of variable intensity which are coloured…
A) yellow.
B) blue.
C) white.
D) green.

37) Visual aids for navigation & Runway threshold Lights. The colour of the fixed, unidirectional
runway threshold and wing bar lights shall be…
A) green.
B) flashing white.
C) yellow.
D) white.

38) When a threshold is displaced, the colour of the lights in the approach direction between the
beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold are…
A) blue, this portion of the runway is considered to be a taxiway.
B) white.
C) red.
D) flashing red, intermittent with flashing white.

39) Aeronautical Ground Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided
that they can be brought back into operation before the expected arrival of an aircraft in at
least
A) 30 minutes.
B) One hour.
C) 5 minutes.
D) 15 minutes.

40) Visual ground signals. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates
that:
A) Special precautions must be observed due to the state of the taxiways.
B) The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
C) Special precautions is needed while approaching for landing on the runway in use.
D) This area is unfit for the movement of aircraft.

41) Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration:

A) Information signs; orange background with black inscriptions.
B) Mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black inscriptions.
C) Mandatory instruction signs; black background with red inscriptions.
D) Information signs; yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.
42) Lighting of objects. Low-intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects are;
A) flashing red.
B) fixed red.
C) flashing yellow.
D) fixed orange.

43) High intensity obstacle lights should be:

A) Flashing red.
B) Fixed red.
C) Flashing white.
D) Fixed orange.

44) Lighting of objects. Low-intensity obstacle lights on vehicles other than those associated with
emergency or security shall be;
A) fixed red.
B) flashing yellow.
C) fixed blue.
D) flashing blue.

45) Rescue and fire fighting. The aerodrome category determining the rescue and fire fighting
equipment is based on the;
A) overall length of the longest aeroplane using that aerodrome.
B) length of the longest runway and maximum fuselage mass of the heaviest aeroplane using
that aerodrome.
C) overall length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum
fuselage width.
D) overall length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum
fuselage mass.

46) The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements which are related to
the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a
combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed:
A) 2B
B) 4G
C) 6D
D) 5E

47) The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be:
A) White and green colour identification given by Morse Code.
B) Green colour identification given by Morse Code.
C) White colour identification given by Morse Code.
D) Blue colour identification given by Morse Code.

48) The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run
available prepared as a suitable area where:
A) An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off
B) A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency
C) A landing aircraft can be stopped if overrunning the end of runway
D) An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped

49) Runway threshold lights shall be:

A) Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway
B) Fixed lights showing green or white colours
C) Fixed lights green colours
D) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway

50) Annex 14 to the convention on international civil aviation contains SARPS for:
A) Aerodromes
B) Security
C) Facilitation
D) None of the above

51) Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:

A) Flashing blue
B) Flashing red or preferably yellow
C) Fixed red or preferably orange
D) Fixed red or preferably blue

52) What is the term for a specific location near the initial or planned geometric centre of an
aerodrome?
A) Aerodrome Reference Point.
B) Aerodrome Centre Marking.
C) Airport Reference Location.
D) Aerodrome Location Point.

53) What colour are runway markings?

A) Blue.
B) Yellow.
C) White.
D) Red.

54) What is the colour of a closed marking? View Annex 100621

A) Red when displayed on a runway or a taxiway which is permanently closed to the use of all
aircraft.
B) Yellow when displayed on a runway and white when displayed on a taxiway which is
temporarily closed to aircraft with a MTOM of more than 5700 kg.
C) White when displayed on a runway and yellow when displayed on a taxiway which is closed
to the use of aircraft with a MTOM of more than 5700 kg.
D) White when displayed on a runway and yellow when displayed on a taxiway which is
permanently closed to the use of all aircraft.
55) What instructions would be given to an aircraft subject to unlawful interference (hi-jack)?
A) Directed to park on the runway
B) Directed to park in a normal terminal so the passengers could be offloaded with maximum
efficiency
C) Directed to a normal terminal so the terrorists would believe everything was normal
D) Directed to an isolated parking spot
 56) Regarding the radio altimeter operating area:

1.Where should it be located?

2.How long should it be?

A) Pre-threshold area of a runway.

At least 300 feet

B) Pre-threshold are of a runway

At least 300 metres

C) Pre-threshold area of a precision approach runway.

300 feet

D) Pre-threshold area of a precision approach runway.

At least 300 metres

57) Where would a hijacked aircraft be parked after landing?

A) Near the Security and Rescue services
B) At an isolated parking slot
C) Near the Rescue Services
D) Near the terminal

58) What is the definition of a RESA?

A) A defined rectangular area on the ground or water under the control of the appropriate
authority, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a
portion of its initial climb to a specified height.
B) An area clear of obstructions that can be used in the case of an emergency.
C) An area including taxiway that can be used for aircraft movements.
D) An area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end of the
strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or
overrunning the runway.

59) What is included in a runway strip?

A) Runway and clearway
B) Clearway and RESA
C) Runway and stopway
D) Stopway and RESA
60) A simple approach lighting system:
A) Should extend from the runway centreline, whenever possible, over a distance not less than
420 metres.
B) Should extend from the runway centreline, whenever possible, over a distance of 900
metres.
C) Is used with an ILS Cat 1 system
D) Is used with and ILS Cat 2 system

61) What are the types of lighting system?

A) Simple and precision
B) Simple and instrument approach
C) Non-precision and precision
D) Complex and precision

62) The theshold is usually: View Annex 100710

A) coincident with the airfield reference point
B) at the extremity of the runway unless operational considerations justify the choice of
another location.
C) coincident with the touchdown zone
D) displaced from the extremity of the runway
63) What is the most important factor determining the success of the Rescue and Fire Fighting
Service (RFFS) when dealing with the survival of passengers, crew and aircraft after an
emergency landing?
A) Number of engines on the aircraft
B) The training of the RFFS
C) Equipment used to remove the aircraft from the runway
D) Number of fire extinguishers on board the aircraft

64) What is the most important factor determining the success of the Rescue and Fire Fighting
Service (RFFS) when dealing with the survival of passengers, crew and aircraft after an
emergency landing?
A) Number of fire extinguishers on board the aircraft
B) The training of the RFFS
C) Number of engines on the aircraft
D) Equipment used to remove the aircraft from the runway

65) A pattern B runway-holding position marking at an intersection of a taxiway and a precision

approach RWY shall be supplemented…
A) with a category I, II or III holding position sign, as appropriate.
B) only with a runway designation sign.
C) with a taxiway designation sign.
D) with a category II or III holding position sign, though for CAT I runways a sign is NOT
mandatory.

66) When more than 25 per cent of the runway is covered by water more than 3 mm deep, the
runway surface condition is reported as…
A) Slippery
B) Wet
C) Damp
D) Standing water

67) In ICAO Annex 14, Volume 1, the recommended runway width is specified by a combination
of code numbers and letters, and is found in…
A) Chapter10 - Aerodrome maintenance
B) Chapter 3 - Physical characteristics
C) Chapter 1 - General
D) Chapter 2 - Aerodrome data

68) With regard to ACN-PCN, what does ACN stand for?

A) Aerodrome Classification Number
B) Airfield Collection Number
C) Aircraft Classification Number
D) Aerodrome Collection Number

69) The principal objective of a Rescue and Fire Fighting Service in the event of an aircraft
accident or incident occurring at, or in the immediate vicinity of, an aerodrome, is to…
A) respond within 2 minutes.
B) respond within 3 minutes.
C) preserve aircraft.
D) save lives.

70) Which of the following is one of the most important factors bearing on effective rescue by
the Rescue and Fire Fighting Service (RFFS) in a survivable aircraft accident where the aircraft
is on the runway of intended landing?
A) The number of engines on the aircraft.
B) The suitability of the RFFS equipment for removing the disabled aircraft.
C) The number of fire extinguishers carried onboard the aircraft.
D) The training received by the RFFS personnel.

71) According to ICAO Annex 14 recommendations, aircraft stand markings should be provided…
A) for designated parking positions on a paved apron and on a de-icing/anti-icing facility.
B) only for designated parking positions on a paved apron.
C) only for designated parking positions on any apron.
D) for designated parking positions on any apron and on a de-icing/anti-icing facility.

72) According to ICAO Annex 14, when mobile objects are marked by colour, which colours
should be used for emergency vehicles?
A) Yellow or red.
B) Blue or yellowish green.
C) Blue or red.
D) Red or yellowish green.

73) The height of signs near runways or taxiways should be kept to a mimimum to:
A) provide clearance for wings
B) provide better visibility for pilots
C) prevent damage to aircraft of vehicles
D) provide clearance for propellers and engine pods
74) How shall the bearing strength for an aircraft with an apron mass equal to or less than 5 700
kg be reported?
A) Actual weight of the aircraft on the day and tyre pressure on the day
B) Maximum allowable mass and maximum allowable tyre pressure
C) Actual mass on the day
D) Actual tyre pressure on the day

75) The stopway is an area beyond the runway which can used fro deceleration in the event of a
rejected take-off. It must be:
A) The runway strip is included in the stopway
B) At least half the runway width
C) No less wide than the runway
D) As wide as the runway strip

76) When more than 25 per cent of the runway is covered by water more than 3 mm deep, the
runway surface condition is reported as…
A) slippery.
B) standing water.
C) wet.
D) Damp.

77) With regard to aircraft under 5700 kg, the Pavement Classifcation system (ACN-PCN):
A) is not applicable to aircraft under 5700 kg
B) is used for grass strips
C) lists the types of aircraft permitted to use that pavement
D) is used in the normal way

78) On which of the following types of runway would centre line markings be established?
A) Instrument runways
B) Tarmac runways
C) Certified runways
D) Paved runways

79) An aircraft is moving on the apron. What marking is used to warn the pilot that the shoulders
of the surface are non-load-bearing?
A) One solid line in the same colour as the taxiway centre line marking.
B) One solid line in the same colour as the runway centre line marking.
C) A pair of solid lines in the same colour as the taxiway centre line marking.
D) A pair of solid lines in the same colour as the runway centre line marking.
80) The four declared distances specified for a runway direction (TORA, TODA, ASDA, and LDA)
would be equal if the runway…
A) is without a stopway or clearway, but there is a displaced threshold with a starter extension.
B) is without a stopway and also without a displaced threshold.
C) has a stopway and clearway of equal length, but is without a displaced threshold.
D) is without a stopway or clearway, and also without a displaced threshold.

81) A NO ENTRY sign shall be located…

A) 50 m prior to the area to which entrance is prohibited on the left side of the taxiway.
B) at the beginning of the area to which entrance is prohibited on the left side of the taxiway.
C) at the beginning of the area to which entrance is prohibited on each side of the taxiway.
D) 50 m prior to the area to which entrance is prohibited, on each side of the taxiway.

82) Mandatory instructions signs on an aerodrome shall consist of inscriptions in…

A) yellow on a black background.
B) red on a white background.
C) white on a red background.
D) black on a yellow background.

83) According to ICAO Annex 14, which of the following is necessary when aircraft refuelling
operations take place at the same time as passengers are embarking, on board or
disembarking?
A) All exits from the aircraft must be open for an expeditious evacuation in the event of a fire.
B) Rescue and fire fighting vehicles must be positioned at the aircraft in order to be available in
the event of a fire.
C) Ground equipment shall be positioned so as to allow the use of a sufficient number of exits
for expeditious evacuation.
D) Rescue and fire fighting vehicles must be manned and at their stations in order to be
available in the event of a fire.

84) What is the colour of flags used to mark obstacles on airfields?

A) Orange
B) Red
C) White
D) Green

85) The surface before a runway threshold is paved and exceeds 60 m in length. It is NOT
suitable for the normal movement of aircraft. What should the entire length before the
threshold be marked with?
A) Chevrons
B) Chequered flags
C) Arrows
D) Crosses

86) The addition of a stopway affects which of the following?

A) TORA
B) TODA
C) ASDA
D) LDA

87) The stopway is located at the end of the…

A) Take-Off Run Available (TORA).
B) Take-Off Distance Available (TODA).
C) Landing Distance Available (LDA).
D) Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA).

88) Where should a wind direction indicator (wind sock) be visible from?
A) ATC and aircraft on the manoeuvering area
B) ATC and aircraft in flight
C) Aircraft in flight or on the movement area
D) ATC and aicraft in the movement area

89) The colour for a taxiway edge marker shall be…

A) white or yellow.
B) retroreflective blue.
C) green or white.
D) retroreflective green.

90) Holding bays at airports are used at airports where the traffic is:
A) heavy
B) medium to heavy
C) light
D) light to medium

91) What is the main purpose of a rapid exit taxiway?

A) To maximise the runway occupancy time of departing aircraft.
B) It allows departing aircraft to line-up at higher speeds.
C) It minimises the runway occupancy time of landing aircraft.
D) To permit Land-And-Hold-Short-Operations (LAHSO).

92) The maximum recommended length of a runway Clearway is…

A) half of the Take-Off Run Available (TORA).
B) 100 m.
C) 75 m.
D) half of the Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA).

93) What is the purpose of a Runway Strip?

A) To reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off the runway and protect aircraft flying
over it during take-off or landing.
B) To reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off the runway.
C) To reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off the runway and protect aircraft flying
over it during take-off.
D) To reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off the runway and protect aircraft flying
over it during landing.

94) The RESA is located:

A) At the ends of the runway strip.
B) Between the ends of the runway strip and the ends of the runway.
C) At the end of the runway.
D) At the end of the TODA.

95) Type B holding marks would be accompanied by:

A) Taxiway marker boards.
B) A runway designation sign.
C) Cat 1, or 2 runway holding position sign but not necessarily Cat1.
D) Cat 1, 2 or 3 runway holding position sign.

96) What does PCN stand for?

A) Permanent classification number.
B) Pavement classification number.
C) Pavement category number.
D) Pavement coordination number.

97) How many longitudinal stripes are there in a threshold marking on a runway 60 m wide?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 6
D) 16

98) Where is the RESA located?

A) At the end of the TODA.
B) At the end of the TORA.
C) At the end of the Clearway.
D) At the end of the runway strip.

99) How is the reaction time of emergency services measured?

A) The time between the initial call to the rescue and firefighting service, and the time that all
RFF vehicles arrive at the scene of the accident.
B) The time between the initial call to the rescue and firefighting service, and the time when the
first vehicle is manned.
C) The time between the initial call to the rescue and firefighting service, and the time when the
first responding vehicle arrives at the scene of accident.
D) The time between the initial call to the rescue and firefighting service, and the time when the
first responding vehicle is in position to apply foam at a rate of at least 50 per cent of the
required discharge rate.

100) Where is the Runway End Safety Area located?

A) At each end of the runway strip.
B) At the end of the TODA.
C) Between the end of the runway and the end of the runway strip.
D) At the end of the TORA.

101) A signalling lamp shall be required to produce the colours:

A) White, blue and green.
B) Green, red and white.
C) Red, white and blue.
D) Blue, green and red.

102) When should a beacon be provided at an airfield?

A) When the the airfield is accepting only VFR traffic.
B) When the the airfield is used for night operations.
C) When the the airfield is acting as base to a SAR operation.
D) When the the airfield is operating mostly in VMC.

103) When refuelling do you require:

A) Emergency services at the aeroplane.
B) Enough fire extinguishers to initially fight a fire and people trained to use them readily
available.
C) Enough fire extinguishers to completely fight a fire and people trained to use them readily
available.
D) Emergency services standing by in their vehicles.
104) What is the maximum suggested length of a clearway?
A) Half of the TORA.
B) 75 m.
C) 100 m.
D) Half of the TODA.

105) What is the definition of PCN?

A) A number expressing the relative effect of an aircraft on a pavement for a specified standard
subgrade category.
B) A number expressing the bearing strength of a pavement for restricted operations.
C) A number expressing the maximum weight that an aircraft under 5 700 kg MCTOM can be on
a given pavement.
D) A number expressing the bearing strength of a pavement for unrestricted operations.

106) A pattern ”A” runway-holding position marking shall be supplemented at a

taxiway/runway intersection with a…
A) runway designation sign.
B) taxiway designation sign.
C) taxiway designation sign only for paved runways.
D) runway designation sign only for precision approach runways

107) What does RESA mean?

A) Runway Excursion Safety Area
B) Runway Enhanced Safety Area
C) Runway End Security Area
D) Runway End Safety Area

108) Approach lights and crossbars are measured from the...

A) beginning of the touchdown zone.
B) runway extremity.
C) middle of the touchdown zone.
D) threshold.

109) Refer to annex. What sign is displayed? View Annex 100878

A) Aircraft stand sign
B) Location sign
C) Runway intersection sign
D) Taxiway marking sign
110) In ICAO Annex 14, Volume 1, the recommended runway width is specified by a
combination of code numbers and letters, and is found in…
A) Chapter 2: Aerodrome Data.
B) Chapter 1: General.
C) Chapter 10: Aerodrome Maintenance.
D) Chapter 3: Physical Characteristics.
111) An area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end
of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aircraft undershooting or
overrunning the runway is the ICAO definition for…
A) clearway.
B) runway end safety area.
C) runway strip.
D) stopway.

112) For the aeroplane for which the taxiway is intended, the taxiway designer assumes
that on a taxiway curve the…
A) width of the taxiway is increased on the outer curve.
B) cockpit of the aeroplane will remain over the taxiway centre-line markings.
C) pilot will oversteer and the cockpit will NOT follow the centre-line markings.
D) width of the taxiway is decreased on the inner curve.

113) Lighting of objects - High-intensity obstacle lights are…

A) fixed-orange.
B) fixed-red.
C) flashing-red.
D) flashing-white.

114) Which of the following terms is used to report the condition of a runway as regards
braking action?
A) Skidding
B) Poor
C) Sliding
D) Standard

115) According to ICAO, the location of the runway threshold is...

A) normally at the extremity of the runway, if there are no obstacles penetrating above the
approach surface.
B) variable, depending on the types of operation undertaken.
C) coincident with the touchdown zone.
D) normally coincident with the aerodrome reference point.
1) A person who has been refused entry into their destination country is known as:
A) a criminal
B) an immigrant
C) an inadmissible person
D) a deportee

2) A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a cargo manifest shall,
apart from the information indicated in the heading of the format of the cargo manifest, not
require more than the following item(s) :
A) The air waybill number and the number of packages related to the air way bill number
B) The air waybill number and the nature of the goods
C) The air waybill number; the number of packages related to each air waybill number and the
nature of the goods
D) The air waybill number

3) An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a
flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily
free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty.
A) For a period of 48 hours
B) For a period of 24 hours
C) For a period of 12 hours
D) For a period to be established by that State

4) Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver to
the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of
General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the copies are:
A) 3 of each
B) 2 of each
C) 2 copies of General Declaration and of Cargo Manifest and of a stores list
D) 2 copies of General Declarations and Cargo Manifest and one copy of a simple stores list.

5) In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in scheduled
international services, and which are making flights across the territory of a Contracting State
or stopping for non traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the information
contained in a flight plan as adequate advance notification. This information is to be
received:
A) At least 12 hours in advance of the expected ETA
B) At least 1 hour in advance of arrival
C) At least 4 hours in advance of arrival
D) At least 2 hours in advance of arrival
6) The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on
international flights is:
A) Annex 16
B) Annex 15
C) Annex 8
D) Annex 9

7) The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in
international flights is:
A) Annex 9
B) Annex 15
C) Annex 6
D) Annex 8

8) Which one of the statements is correct :

A) Contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from passengers
B) Contracting states may not accept oral declaration of baggages
C) Contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage from passengers and crew
D) Contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from crew

9) Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall
comply with the documentary procedures as prescribed:
A) By IATA and accepted by ICAO
B) By IATA and accepted by the contracting states
C) By the Regional Postal Office
D) In the Acts in force of the Universal Postal Union

10) Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, when a
passenger is passing through the territory of a contracting state and has to stay in that
contracting state until the next flight for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the
contracting state where the international airport is located shall permit such a passenger to
remain within its territory without requiring visas prior to the arrival when:
A) The passenger is to leave that state within two (2) weeks from the day of his (her) arrival
B) The passenger is to leave that state within two (2) days from the day of his (her) arrival
C) The passenger is to leave that state within one (1) day from the day of his (her) arrival
D) The passenger is to leave that state within 72 (seventy two) hours from the time of arrival of
that passenger

11) In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and no visa is required of him,
contracting states:
A) In certain cases any other identity may be required
B) May require him to obtain any other identity document prior to the commencement of his
flight
C) None of the answers are applicable
D) Shall not require him to obtain any other identity document from their consulates or
operators prior to initiate the flight

12) When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not unladen at their intended destination
but are unladen at another international airport, the contracting state where the unlading
takes place; if satisfied that there has been no gross negligence or carelessness by the
operator:
A) Shall not impose penalties, fines and custom duties but taxes on the operator
B) Shall not impose penalties and fines but may impose customs duties and taxes on the
operator
C) Shall not impose penalties, fines, customs duties and taxes on the operator
D) Shall not impose penalties, fines and taxes but may impose custom duties on the operatör

13) The documents for entry and departure of aircraft:

A) Has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data processing techniques
B) Are accepted at the contracting state discretion
C) Has to be typewritten
D) Are accepted in hand-written block lettering in ink

14) The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting
State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted in other
Contracting State of destination.
A) The obligation of the operator terminates as soon as the person leaves the aeroplane.
B) The obligation is for the contracting state of the operator.
C) The stated above is correct.
D) The operator has no obligation.

15) Unaccompanied baggage to be carried by air shall be cleared under the procedures
applicable for;
A) cargo but the requested customs clearance documents provided by airlines shall be
completed by the passenger prior to shipment.
B) Accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that
normally applicable to other cargo
C) cargo when covered by a traffic document.
D) cargo but shall be not subject to any kind of declaration forms.
16) When a person is found to be inadmissible and is returned to the aircraft operator for
transport away from the territory of the state, the aircraft operator…
A) shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from the removal.
B) and the state of the operator are both responsible for the inadmissible person .
C) shall not be precluded from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising
from the removal.
D) is not responsible for the inadmissibility of such person for entry in the receiving state and
shall not be made responsible for the repatriation of such person.

17) An aircraft flying to another contracting state:

A) Is liable to pay customs duty on all baggage
B) Is admitted to that state temporarily free of customs duty
C) Is liable to pay customs but then the airline can claim a refund later.
D) Is liable to pay customs duty on all unused fuel and oil carried

18) A person who is or will be refused admission to a State by its authorities is…
A) an unruly passenger.
B) an inadmissible person.
C) a deportee.
D) a person in custody.

19) With regard to cargo, baggage and personal effects, entry to the state of disembarkment is
defined in ?
A) Annex 14 – Aerodromes
B) Annex 18 - Dangerous Goods
C) Annex 17 - Security
D) Annex 9 – Facilitation

20) Which of the following statement regarding Crew Membership Certificates is correct?
A) They should be machine readable
B) They have biographical information on one side and crew certifications on the other.
C) They are locally produced in card
D) They must be kept up to date with currencies

21) From what age should children have their own passport?
A) Age is irrelevent
B) Age 6
C) Age 2
D) Age 16
22) When shall an authority require an exit visa?
A) when the visit exceeds 30 days
B) when the visit exceeds 60 days
C) when the visit exceeds 90 days
D) Never

23) According to ICAO Annex 9, who is responsible for the production and presentation of the
Cargo Manifest and the Air Waybill(s)?
A) The aircraft operator or its Authorised Agent.
B) The Load Master.
C) The Pilot-in-Command.
D) The Chief Purser.

24) In which case should a Contracting State (of the Chicago Convention) waive the visa
requirement for a crew member identifying him-/herself with a Crew Member Certificate
(CMC)?
A) When arriving in a duty status on an international flight and seeking temporary entry.
B) When arriving in an off-duty status on an international flight and seeking permanent entry.
C) When arriving in an off-duty status on an international flight and seeking temporary entry.
D) When arriving in a duty status on an international flight and seeking permanent entry.

25) Facilitation & General Declaration. If the State requires crew member`s information to be
included in the General Declaration, which information should be required?
A) The licence number.
B) The date of birth.
C) The place of birth.
D) The crew name.

26) With regards to ICAO Annex 9, a General Declaration:

A) Shall be required by all states
B) Includes nature of cargo and waybill number
C) Includes passenger names and point of embarkment
D) Must be presented to all contracting states requiring it

27) Select the correct statement about the obligation of the operator to remove any person
found inadmissable from the territory of a Contracting State.
A) The obligation is with the Contracting State of the operator.
B) The obligation of the operator terminates when the person has left the aircraft and is in
custody with the local Authority.
C) The operator has no obligation regarding the admittance of a person into the teritory of a
Contracting State.
D) The obligation of the operator shall terminate, when such a person has been legally admitted
entry into a State.

28) Facilitation - Entry and departure of cargo. The production and presentation of the Cargo
Manifest and the Air Waybill shall be the responsibility of ...
A) the aircraft operator, or the owner of the cago.
B) the aircraft operator's authorised agent , or the State Customs Officer
C) the aircraft operator or its authorised agent.
D) the aircraft opeartor's authorised agent, or the owner of the cargo.
 1) Containers or packages containing survival equipment for dropping should have the general
nature of the content indicated by a colour code.The colour for blankets and protective
clothing is:
A) Yellow
B) Blue
C) Red
D) Black

2) Annex 12. Search and Rescue - Signals at night: The pilot of an aircraft, observing a luminous
signal requesting help, will indicate to the persons in difficulty that he has received the
ground signals by:
A) Make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty.
B) Fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.
C) Switching his landing lights on and off twice or, if the aeroplane is not so equipped, his
navigation lights twice.
D) Transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter "R" using his navigational lights.

3) Whenever a distress transmission is intercepted by a pilot-in-command of an aircraft, the

pilot shall, if feasible
A) enter into a holding pattern and wait for instructions.
B) record the position of the transmission and proceed according to the flight.
C) hold at the position and coordinate the SAR operation.
D) acknowledge the distress transmission and record the position of the aircraft in distress if
given.

4) Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals, overhead the scene
of a recent aircraft accident.

Aircraft (1) is unable to establish contact with the Search and Rescue Centre

Aircraft (2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue Centre

Aircraft (3) is a Search and Rescue helicopter.

The command of the situation is the responsibility of:

A) (1) then by mutual consent (2) until the completion of operations.

B) (1) and then by mutual consent to (3).

C) (1) then by mutual consent (2) and then (3).

D) (1) until the completion of operations.

5) An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is being carried out to find
the survivors of an aircraft accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in the form of an "X". This
indicates:
A) "Need medical assistance".
B) "Need mechanical assistance".
C) "Landing impossible".
D) "All occupants alive".

6) (Refer to image) The ground - air visual code illustrated means: View Annex 010-004
A) Require medical assistance
B) Require assistance
C) Please indicate direction
D) Proceding in the direction shown
7) (Refer to image) Using the ground - air visual code the letter(s) similar to the symbol meaning
"REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is (are): View Annex 010-002
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 1

8) (Refer to image) Using the ground - air visual code the symbol meaning "we have found all
personnel" is : View Annex 010-001
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
9) (Refer to image) What is the meaning of the showed symbol in the ground air visual signal
code for use by survivors? View Annex 010-003
A) Landing here impossible
B) Require assistance
C) Drop emergency supplies at this point
D) Require medical assistance
10) In accordance with Annex 12, what does the ground-air visual signal code LLL used by rescue
units mean? View Annex
A) Require medical assistance.
B) We have found only some personnel.
C) Operation completed.
D) We have found all personnel.
11) Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency?
A) 2430 KHz
B) 2182 KHz
 C) 121.5 MHz
D) 243.0 MHz

12) The unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue services and
for co-ordinating the conduct of search and rescue operations within a search and rescue
region is the…
A) Area Control Centre (ACC).
B) Flight Information Centre (FIC).
C) International Alerting Centre (INAC).
D) Rescue Co-ordination Centre (RCC).

13) To indicate that a luminous signal from the ground at night requesting help has been
received and understood, the pilot will…
A) transmit a luminous Morse signal of the letter R using the navigation lights.
B) fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.
C) make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty.
D) switch on and off twice the aircraft’s landing lights, or if not so equipped, switch on and off
twice the navigation lights.

14) What is the ground-air visual signal code for use by survivors on the ground to indicate
require assistance?
A) X
B) V
C) N
D) Y

15) What is the ground-air visual signal code for use by survivors on the ground to indicate
require medical assistance?
A) N
B) V
C) Y
D) X

16) Search and Rescue signals. The ground-air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground to
indicate NEGATIVE is…

A) X.

B) Y.

C) N.

D) V.
17) What is the ground-air visual signal code for use by survivors on the ground to indicate
affirmative?
A) Y
B) V
C) N
D) X

18) At which phase must a rescue co-ordination centre immediately alert search and rescue units
and initiate any necessary action?
A) Alert phase.
B) Emergency phase Class I.
C) Uncertainty phase.
D) Distress phase.

19) When flying A to B, you intercept an emergency transmission from an aircraft in distress.
Your actions will include, where possible:
A) Hold at the point and coordinate the SAR operation
B) Record the bearing of the transmission and continue on your way
C) Enter a holding pattern and await instructions
D) Acknowledge the distress transmission

20) How are Search & Rescue Regions in remote areas organised?
A) Regional air navigational agreements
B) They are not as they are too inaccessible
C) IATA Search & Rescue Committee
D) ICAO Search & Rescue Committee

21) If you are the first aircraft to arrive at the scene of an accident but you are not the search
and rescue aircraft, what should you do?
A) Remain at the scene taking charge of all other aircraft subsequently arriving.
B) Fly over the scene at 1000 ft maintaining an East to West pattern
C) Leave the scene to avoid potential collision with the search and rescue aircraft.
D) Fly over the scene at 1000 ft maintaining a North to South pattern.

22) ICAO Annex 12 is applicable to which geographical areas?

A) Over Contracting States and Territorial waters
B) Over Contracting States only
C) Over the territories of Contracting States and over the high seas.
D) Over the high seas only
23) Search and Rescue. During the hours of daylight, which of the following signals made by
aircraft mean that the ground signals have been understood?
A) Flashing on and off twice the aircraft`s landing lights or, if not so equipped, its navigation
lights.
B) Circling the ground signals at least once.
C) Overflying the ground signals twice on a North-South heading.
D) Rocking the aircraft`s wings.

24) Search and Rescue - During the hours of darkness, which of the following signals made by
aircraft mean that the ground signals have been understood?
A) Rocking the aircraft`s wings.
B) Circling the ground signals at least once.
C) Overflying the ground signals twice on a North-South heading.
D) Flashing on and off twice the aircraft`s landing lights or, if not so equipped, its navigation
lights.
1) Definition of "security, the ICAO Annex 17", is a combination of measures:
A) Intended to safeguard international civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference
B) And human and material resources intended to safeguard international civil aviation
C) And human and material resources intended to safeguard civil aviation against acts of
unlawful interference
D) And human and material resources intended to safeguard international civil aviation against
acts of unlawful interference

2) Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be
responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation
security programme. This programme should apply:
A) Only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights
B) To all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo
and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state
C) Only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights
D) Only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of
Cargo

3) In the event of being hijacked in an area where regional procedures have not been
established the pilot should:
A) Fly a standard racetrack pattern at the next reporting point on track and await ATC
instructions
B) Proceed at a level which differs from the cruising levels normally used for IFR flight in the
area by 300m (1,000ft) above FL290 in non-RVSM airspace or 150m (500ft) above FL290 in
RVSM airspace or below FL290
C) Fly a left-hand racetrack pattern at the next reporting point on track and await ATC
instructions
D) Fly a right hand orbit and await ATC instructions

4) Referring to the operational aspects in the unlawful seizure acts, it can be said:
A) The Annex 17 does not recognise the importance of consultations between the State where
an aircraft affected by an unlawful interference act has landed and the aircraft operator's
State.
B) The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by an unlawful
seizure act, which has landed in their territory, would be detained in all cases.
C) The contracting States will not assist with navigation aids, air transit services, etc, to an
aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act.
D) The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by an unlawful
seizure act, which has landed in their territory, would be retained, unless its departure is
justified to protect lives.
5) When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most
expeditious means of the State of registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the
landing and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to the:
A) Two aforementioned States and the ICAO
B) Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries on board
the aircraft and the ICAO
C) Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each
State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to be
on board the aircraft and the ICAO
D) Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each
State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO

6) Each Contracting State shall ensure that the appropriate Authority arranges for the
supporting resources and facilities required by the aviation security services to be available…
A) at each airport serving civil aviation.
B) for administrative staff of each airport within that State.
C) for every airline operating in the State.
D) on a common basis for all airports within that State.

7) Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is
informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of
judicial or administrative proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be
taken.
A) The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be informed when any passenger
is the subject of judicial proceedings
B) The statement in the above question in incomplete. The pilot in command and the aircraft
operator are to be informed
C) These measures are at the discretion of the contracting state
D) The statement in the above question is correct

8) When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of
foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight,
permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon:
A) Agreement between the state of embarkation and the state of destination
B) Prior notification by the state of embarkation to the foreign state in which the weapons will
be carried on the airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision to
permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft
C) Notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board
his aircraft only
D) Agreement between the state of embarkation and the airport of arrival

9) Security. The national civil aviation security programme is established by;

A) ECAC.
B) each Contracting State.
C) ICAO.
D) ICAO and other organisations, including the Contracting State concerned.

10) The movement area of an aerodrome, the adjacent terrain and buildings or portions thereof
with controlled access is known as;
A) the terminal area.
B) the manoeuvring area.
C) airside
D) the security programme.

11) Under ICAO Annex 17, each contracting State shall ensure the establishment of a security
programme:
A) For each international airport within the State.
B) For all airports within the State.
C) For every airline operating in the State.
D) Only for administrative staff of airport.

12) The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers:
A) And baggage
B) Checked baggage, cargo and other goods
C) Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design
D) Checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design

13) Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the
following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below:
A) Deportees and persons in lawful custody only
B) Deportees and inadmissible persons only
C) Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody
D) None of the answers are correct

14) When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control
and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at
airports serving international civil aviation have been passed:
A) Only the passengers are to be re screened
B) Only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened
C) The persons not subjected to security control shall be identified
D) The passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an
aircraft
15) For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to
be observed such as:
A) The boarding has to be done at the state discretion
B) The boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion
C) Boarding after to all other passengers
D) Boarding prior to all passengers

16) Each Contracting State shall take appropriate measures for the safety of passengers and crew
of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference, while on the ground in
the territory of the Contracting State…
A) during a period of investigation.
B) and must arrange for the passengers and crew to be returned to their country of origin.
C) until their journey can be continued.
D) if this is requested by any individual passengers.

17) A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This
assistance includes:
A) Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and refuelling
B) Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to land
C) Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and catering for
passengers
D) Only permission to land

18) A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This
assistance includes:
A) Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and catering for
Passengers
B) Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land
C) Only permission to land
D) Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and refuelling if deemed
necessary

19) An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to
divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS
shall try to:
A) Fly the emergency triangle and try to establish radiotelephony contact with the interference
coordinator of the appropriate ATS unit on 121.5 mhz.
B) Commence as soon as possible an emergency descent in order to minimise the difference
between cabon pressure and outside pressure.
C) Slow the speed of the aircraft down to minimum, squawk A7700 and declare emergency on
121.5 mhz.
D) Proceed at a level which differs from the cruising level normally used for IFR flights in the
area by 1000 ft above FL 290 or 500 ft below FL 290.
20) In passenger-carrying aeroplanes equipped with a flight crew compartment door designed to
resist penetration by small arms fire, when shall this door be closed and locked?
A) From the commencement of pushback until vacating the runway upon landing.
B) From the time the cabin crew reports cabin ready during taxi-out, until vacating the runway
upon landing.
C) From the time all external doors are closed following embarkation until opening such doors
for disembarkation, except to permit entry and egress of authorised persons.
D) From the commencement of pushback until top-of-climb, and again from top-of-descent to
vacating the runway upon landing.

21) Following an act of unlawful interference, to whom shall the pilot-in-command submit,
without delay, a report of such an act?
A) To the designated local authority.
B) To the Air Traffic Services unit.
C) To ECAC`s working group on security problems.
D) To ICAO’s unlawful interference committee.

22) An operator shall meet security requirements of:

A) State of registry
B) Any state in which the operator flies
C) State of operator
D) United Nations

23) How far should an aircraft that has been hi-jacked be parked from anything else?
A) 300 m
B) 200 m
C) 100 m
D) 500 m

24) Who is responsible to the Contracting State for implementing contols and procedures at each
airport?
A) Airport security committee
B) Air Force
C) Local police department
D) European union safety delegate

25) Who is responsible to the Contracting State for implementing controls and procedures at
each airport?
A) Air Force
B) Local police department
C) European union safety delegate
D) Airport security committee

26) In terms of security, which of the following is an operator required to have?

A) An aviation security training programme.
B) A written screening & security programme.
C) A written security programme.
D) A written screening programme.

27) According to ICAO Annex 6, who is responsible for ensuring that a checklist of bomb-search
procedures exists and is available on board aircraft?
A) The Operator of the aircraft.
B) The ICAO Security Panel.
C) The Operator of the airport.
D) The Ministry of Defence.

28) According to ICAO Annex 17, the primary objective of States as regards safeguarding civil
aviation against acts of unlawful interference is the…
A) safety of passengers, crew, ground personnel, and the general public.
B) safe application of immigration and customs procedures.
C) safety of aerodrome facilities, including landside and airside buildings.
D) safety of aircraft engaged in international civil operations.

29) When an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful interference must depart from its assigned
track or its assigned cruising level without being able to make radiotelephony contact with
ATS, what should the pilot-in-command do, whenever possible?
A) Proceed in accordance with applicable special procedures for in-flight contingencies, where
such procedures have been established and promulgated in the Regional Supplementary
Procedures (Doc 7030).
B) Set code 7700 on the transponder.
C) Proceed at a level which differs from the cruising levels normally used for IFR flight by 150 m
(500 ft) in an area where a vertical separation minimum of 600 m (2000 ft) is applied.
D) Proceed at a level which differs from the cruising levels normally used for IFR flight by 75 m
(250 ft) in an area where a vertical separation minimum of 300 m (1000 ft) is applied.

30) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference, which must depart
from its assigned track or flight level without being able to contact ATS, should whenever
possible…
A) fly at the corresponding IFR flight level plus or minus 200 ft.
B) once established on the new track, change the track every 5 minutes by 5 degrees.
C) change the transponder code to the present code plus 5.
D) attempt to broadcast warnings on the frequency in use, or on the emergency frequency.
31) Who shall require each airport serving civil aviation to establish, implement and maintain a
written airport security programme appropriate to meet the requirements of the national
civil aviation security programme?
A) Air Traffic Services.
B) EASA.
C) Each Contracting State.
D) ECAC.

32) Who shall require each airport serving civil aviation to establish, implement and maintain a
written airport security programme appropriate to meet the requirements of the national
civil aviation security programme?
A) ECAC.
B) EASA.
C) Each Contracting State.
D) Air Traffic Services.
1) ICAO publications & Standards defined in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are;
A) binding for all Contracting States without deviation or exception.
B) binding for the Contracting States unless they have notified ICAO about a national difference.
C) advice and guidance for the aviation related legislation within the legal framework of the
Contracting States.
D) recommended explanatory material for the aviation related legislation of the Contracting
States.

2) Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?

A) ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such
licenses
B) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the
convention.
C) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations
D) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections

3) Which body of ICAO finalises the Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for
submission for adoption?
A) The Air Navigation Commission
B) The Assembly
C) The Council
D) The Regional Air Navigation meeting

4) One of the main objectives of ICAO is to;

A) approve new international airlines operating jet aircraft.
B) approve air fares set by international airlines.
C) Develop principles and technique for international aviation
D) approve new international airlines.

5) “ICAO - Objectives of ICAO were established and are ratified by the…”

A) Chicago Convention 1944.
B) Warsaw Convention 1929.
C) Geneva Convention 1936.
D) Geneva Convention 1948.

6) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:

A) Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
B) Aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
C) Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.
D) Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to
the Chicago convention.
7) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) was established by the international
convention of:
A) Chicago
B) Warsaw
C) The Hague
D) Montreal

8) Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to
the depositary governments. The denunciation shall take effect :
A) 2 months following the date ICAO is informed
B) 4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary
Governments
C) 3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary
Governments
D) 6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary
Governments

9) Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed to:
A) The other Contracting States
B) United Nations
C) International Civil Aviation Organisation
D) To all States Members of United Nations

10) The first freedom of the air is:

A) The right to land for a technical stop.
B) The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to
another state.
C) The right to overfly without landing.
D) The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two
states.
0001. A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is ;
a) Medium.
b) Good.
c) Medium/poor.
d) Poor.
Answer ;
d) Poor.
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0002. A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of ;
a) not more than three months.
b) not more than one month.
c) not more than 2 months.
d) not more than 28 days.
Answer ;
b) not more than one month.
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0003. A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of ;
a) not more than 28 days.
b) not more than 15 days.
c) not more than one month.
d) not more than 10 days.
Answer ;
c) not more than one month.
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0004. A circling approach is ;
a) a flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring.
b) a visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.
c) a contact flight manoeuvre.
d) a visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.
Answer ;
d) a visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.
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0005. A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least ;
a) 10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches
may be made.
b) 20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches
may be made.
c) 15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches
may be made.
d) 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which
approaches may be made.
Answer ;
d) 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which
approaches may be made.
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0006. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is ;
a) Control zone.
b) Flight Information Region.
c) Advisory airspace.
d) Control area.
Answer ;
d) Control area.
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0007. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is ;
a) Air traffic zone.
b) Advisory airspace.
c) Control area.
d) Control zone.
Answer ;
d) Control zone.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 1 Air Law

0008. A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level
varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus ;
a) 5%.
b) 2%.
c) 3%.
d) 10 %.
Answer ;
a) 5%.
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0009. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means ;
a) the aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
b) need special precautions while approaching for landing.
c) an area unit for the movement of aircraft.
d) special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.
Answer ;
a) the aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
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0010. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means ;
a) continue circling and wait for further instructions.
b) the airport is unsafe , do not land.
c) the airport is temporarily closed , continue circling.
d) give way to other aircraft in emergency.
Answer ;
b) the airport is unsafe , do not land.
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0011. A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than ;
a) 500 metres.
b) 300 metres.
c) 200 metres.
d) 150 metres.
Answer ;
c) 200 metres.
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0012. A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS
final approach track. This minimum is , when independent parallel approaches are being conducted ;
a) 2.0 NM.
b) 1.0 NM.
c) 5.0 NM.
d) 3.0 NM.
Answer ;
d) 3.0 NM.
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0013. A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or
MLS final approach track. This minimum is , when independent parallel approaches are being conducted ;
a) 200 m ( 660 ft ).
b) 150 m ( 500 ft ).
c) 100 m ( 330 ft ).
d) 300 m ( 1000 ft ).
Answer ;
d) 300 m ( 1000 ft ).
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0014. A notice containing information concerning flight safety , air navigation , technical , administration or legislative matters and
originated at the AIS of a state is called ;
a) Aeronautical Information Circular ( AIC ).
b) NOTAM.
c) AIRAC.
d) Aeronautical Information Publication ( AIP ).
Answer ;
a) Aeronautical Information Circular ( AIC ).
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 2 Air Law

0015. A notice providing information on Rules of the Air , Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in
advance of its effective date is ;
a) A NOTAM RAC.
b) An ATS NOTAM.
c) An Advisory NOTAM.
d) An AIRAC.
Answer ;
d) An AIRAC.
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0016. A radio communications , “Distress” differs from “Urgency” because in the first case ;
a) there is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.
b) the aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.
c) the aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly.
d) the aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.
Answer ;
a) there is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.
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0017. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means ;
a) Not with standing any previous instructions , do not land for the time being.
b) Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
c) Come back and land.
d) Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
Answer ;
a) Not with standing any previous instructions , do not land for the time being.
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0018. A “RNAV” distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed , provided that each aircraft
reports its distance to or from the same “on track” way-point. This minimum is ;
a) 20 NM.
b) 50 NM.
c) 80 NM.
d) 60 NM.
Answer ;
c) 80 NM.
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0019. A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT
aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the
same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by ;
a) less than 730 m.
b) 760 m.
c) less than 760 m.
d) 730 m.
Answer ;
c) less than 760 m
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0020. A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT
aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an
opposite direction runway for take off , this minimum is ;
a) 1 minute.
b) 2 minutes.
c) 5 minutes.
d) 3 minutes.
Answer ;
b) 2 minutes.
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0021. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals ;
a) Arms down , palms facing inwards , moving arms from extended position inwards.
b) Crossing arms extended above his head.
c) Horizontally moving his hands , fingers extended, palms toward ground.
d) Raise arm and hand , with fingers extended , horizontally in front of body , then clench fist.
Answer ;
d) Raise arm and hand , with fingers extended , horizontally in front of body , then clench fist.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 3 Air Law

0022. A so called “Visual Approach” can be performed ;
a) during IFR flights , if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground.
b) during IFR flights , if the cloud base is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure.
c) as in above , but in addition there should be a visibility of 5.5 km or more.
d) during IFR and VFR flights in VMC.
Answer ;
a) during IFR flights , if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground.
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0023. A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in ;
a) a position report , including aircraft identification , height , position and time.
b) flight identification and weather noted.
c) weather noted.
d) urgent messages.
Answer ;
a) a position report , including aircraft identification , height , position and time.
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0024. A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes ;
a) provision of navigation aids , air traffic services , permission to land and refuelling.
b) provision of navigation aids , air traffic services and permission to land.
c) only permission to land.
d) provision of navigation aids , air traffic services , permission to land and catering for passengers.
Answer ;
b) provision of navigation aids , air traffic services and permission to land.
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0025. A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of
unlawful interference ;
a) until their journey can be continued.
b) if is requested by an individual passenger.
c) and arrange for them to return to their country of origin.
d) during a period of investigation.
Answer ;
a) until their journey can be continued.
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0026. A strayed aircraft is ;
a) an aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost.
b) only that aircraft which reports that it is lost.
c) only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track.
d) an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established.
Answer ;
a) an aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost.
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0027. A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights , when operating in controlled airspace classified as ;
a) B.
b) B , C and D.
c) B and C.
d) B , C , D and E.
Answer ;
a) B.
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0028. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and
distance from clouds ;
a) 8 km below 3050 m ( 10.000 ft ) AMSL , 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.
b) 5 km below 3050 m ( 10.000 ft ) AMSL and clear of clouds.
c) 5 km below 3050 m ( 10.000 ft ) AMSL , 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.
d) 5 km visibility , 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.
Answer ;
c) 5 km below 3050 m ( 10.000 ft ) AMSL , 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.
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0029. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and
distance from clouds ;
a) 8 km at or above 3050 m ( 10.000 ft ) AMSL , 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.
b) 8 km at or above 3050 m ( 10.000 ft ) AMSL , and clear of clouds.
c) 5 NM at or above 3050 m ( 10.000 ft ) AMSL , 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.
d) 5km at or above 3050 m ( 10.000 ft ) AMSL ,1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.
Answer ;
a) 8 km at or above 3050 m ( 10.000 ft ) AMSL , 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.
Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 4 Air Law
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0030. Abbreviations ( Doc 8168 )
In Pans-Ops , the abbreviation DER stands for ;
a) Distance error in routing.
b) Direct entry route.
c) Displaced end of runway.
d) Departure end of runway.
Answer ;
d) Departure end of runway.
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0031. Abbreviations ( Doc 8168 )
What does the abbreviation OIS mean ?
a) Obstacle in surface.
b) Obstacle identification slope.
c) Obstacle identification surface.
d) Obstruction in surface.
Answer ;
c) Obstacle identification surface.
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0032. Accident , incident notification and reporting
After landing , while taxiing towards the apron , the landing gear of your aircraft sinks into a hole. Nobody gets injured , but
the aircraft sustains structural damage. This obliges the crew to delay the departure.
a) This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within the next 48 hours.
b) Since there is no person injured and the flight is terminated , a damage report has to be made out with the
services of the aerodrome in charge of the runway and taxiways for the insurance company.
c) This is an irregularity in the operation.The crew must inform the operator of the aerodrome and establish a
report.
d) This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
Answer ;
d) This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
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0033. Accident investigation
Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation ?
a) The aircraft manufacturer.
b) The Operators of the same aircraft type.
c) The Authority of the State in which the accident took place.
d) The State of design and manufacturer.
Answer ;
c) The Authority of the State in which the accident took place.
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0034. Accident investigation - objective
The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the ;
a) prevention of accidents or incidents and establish the liability.
b) prevention of accidents or incidents and to provide legal evidence for subsequent court cases.
c) prevention of accidents or incidents.
d) prevention of accidents or incidents and provide the manufacturer with investigation data for the
improvement of the design.
Answer ;
c) prevention of accidents or incidents.
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0035. According to Annex 7 , the registration mark shall be letters , numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be
that assigned by ;
a) the International Civil Aviation Organisation.
b) the International Telecommunication Union.
c) the state of registry or common mark registering authority.
d) the state of registry only.
Answer ;
c) the state of registry or common mark registering authority.
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0036. According to ICAO Annex 8 , a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to the ;
a) laws of the State in which is operated.
b) laws of the State of registry and operation.
c) laws of the State of registry.
d) requirements laid down by ICAO.
Answer ;
c) laws of the State of registry.
Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 5 Air Law
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0037. According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic ;
a) when the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West.
b) in upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° North or 60° South.
c) before landing and take-off.
d) when an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch office ( MWO ) or at specified points transmits a
PIREP.
Answer ;
c) before landing and take-off.
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0038. According to JAR-FCL , a professional flight crew licence issued by a non JAA State may be rendered valid for use on
aircraft registered in a JAA Member State ;
a) at the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year ,
provided that the basic licence remains valid.
b) at the discretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding the period
validity of basic licence.
c) at the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year.
d) at the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year ,
provided that the basic licence remains valid.
Answer ;
d) at the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year ,
provided that the basic licence remains valid.
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0039. According to JAR-FCL , an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and completed an integrated flying
training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA
Member State at least ;
a) 150 hours of flight time.
b) 200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time.
c) 150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time.
d) 200 hours of flight time.
Answer ;
a) 150 hours of flight time.
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0040. According to JAR-FCL , an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A) including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall
have completed at least 50 hours ;
a) instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes.
b) cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in
aeroplanes.
c) instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours
shall be in aeroplanes.
d) cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be
in aeroplanes.
Answer ;
d) cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be
in aeroplanes.
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0041. According to JAR-FCL , an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 1.500 hours of flight
time , including ;
a) 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or
JAR/FAR 23.
b) 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or
JAR/FAR 23 , of which up to 150 hours may be as flight engineer.
c) 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or
JAR/FAR 23 , as pilot-in-command.
d) 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or
JAR/FAR 23 , including 200 hours of night flight as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot.
Answer ;
a) 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or
JAR/FAR 23.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 6 Air Law

0042. According to JAR-FCL , an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command , the
procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for ;
a) operations by pilots under training.
b) the carriage of passengers at night.
c) a minimum crew of two pilots under IFR.
d) a minimum crew of two pilots plus a flight engineer.
Answer ;
c) a minimum crew of two pilots under IFR.
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0043. According to JAR-FCL , an examiner’s authorisation is valid for ;
a) the period of validity of the class/type rating.
b) not more than two years.
c) not more than three years.
d) the period of validity of the medical certificate.
Answer ;
c) not more than three years.
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0044. According to JAR-FCL , an instrument rating is valid for ;
a) indefinitely.
b) the period of validity of the licence.
c) one year.
d) two years.
Answer ;
c) one year.
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0045. According to JAR-FCL , class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating , including ;
a) all self-sustaining gliders.
b) all types of single-pilot , single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine.
c) any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.
d) microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all three dimensions.
Answer ;
a) all self-sustaining gliders.
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0046. According to JAR-FCL , Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for ;
a) 24 months until age of 40 , 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter.
b) 24 months until age of 40 , 12 months thereafter.
c) 60 months until age of 40 , 24 months until age of 50 , 12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter.
d) 60 months until age of 30 , 24 months until age of 40 , 12 months thereafter.
Answer ;
c) 60 months until age of 30 , 24 months until age of 50 , 12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter.
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0047. According to JAR-FCL , establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria.
One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has ;
a) handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training.
b) handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member.
c) a certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.
d) a certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.
Answer ;
a) handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training.
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0048. According to JAR-FCL , licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences , related ratings or authorisations at
any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those
privileges. They shall without undue delay seek the advice of the authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic
admissions for ;
a) more than one week.
b) more than 12 hours.
c) more than 12 days.
d) any period.
Answer ;
b) more than 12 hours.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 7 Air Law

0049. According to JAR-FCL , medical certificates classes are ;
a) 1 and 2.
b) class 1 only.
c) 1 , 2 and 3.
d) 1 , 2 , 3 and 4.
Answer ;
a) 1 and 2.
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0050. According to JAR-FCL , single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for ;
a) one year.
b) two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter.
c) five years after licence issue.
d) two years.
Answer ;
d) two years.
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0051. According to JAR-FCL , successful completion of multi-crew co-operation ( MCC ) training shall be required to ;
a) obtain a professional pilot licence.
b) revalidate any rating or licence.
c) obtain the first class rating on multi-engine aeroplanes.
d) obtain the first type rating on multi-pilot aeroplanes.
Answer ;
d) obtain the first type rating on multi-pilot aeroplanes.
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0052. According to JAR-FCL , the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are ;
a) FE(A)/TRE(A)/CRE(A)/IRE(A) and SFI authorisation.
b) FI(A) and IRI(A).
c) FI(A)/TRI(A)CRE(A)/IRE(A) and SFI authorisation.
d) FI(A)/TRI(A)/CRI(A)/IRI(A) ratings , SFI and MCCI authorisation.
Answer ;
d) FI(A)/TRI(A)/CRI(A)/IRI(A) ratings , SFI and MCCI authorisation.
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0053. According to JAR-FCL , the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor are restricted to carrying out instruction under
the supervision of a FI(A) , approved for this purpose. The restrictions may be removed from the rating ;
a) on the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has completed
a competency test.
b) on the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has completed
at least 100 hours flight instruction and , in addition , has supervised at least 25 student solo flights.
c) on the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has supervised
at least 100 solo flights.
d) on the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has supervised
at least 100 solo flights and completed a competency test.
Answer ;
b) on the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has completed
at least 100 hours flight instruction and , in addition , has supervised at least 25 student solo flights.
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0054. According to JAR-FCL , the privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating are to conduct flight instruction for the
issue of a CPL(A) ;
a) provided that the FI(A) has completed not less than 15 hours on the relevant type in the preceding 12 months.
b) provided that the FI(A) has completed 200 hours of flight instruction.
c) provided that the FI(A) has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot of aeroplanes including at
least 200 hours of flight instruction.
d) without restriction.
Answer ;
c) provided that the FI(A) has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot of aeroplanes including at
least 200 hours of flight instruction.
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0055. According to JAR-FCL , the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date ;
a) of the last medical certificate.
b) of issue.
c) of the skill test.
d) the application is received by the Authority.
Answer ;
b) of issue.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 8 Air Law

0056. According to the “Aerodrome Reference Code” , the “Code Letter E” shall identify an aircraft wing span of ;
a) 36 m up to but not including 52 m.
b) 24 m up to but not including 36 m.
c) 52 m up to but not including 65 m.
d) 15 m up to but not including 24 m.
Answer ;
c) 52 m up to but not including 65 m.
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0057. According with the “Aerodrome Reference Code” the “Code number 4” shall identify an aircraft reference field length of ;
a) 1200 m.
b) 1800 m and over.
c) 1500 m.
d) 1600 m.
Answer ;
b) 1800 m and over.
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0058. Aerdrome Control Service - Priority for landing
If an aircraft enters the traffic circuit without proper authorisation ;
a) it shall only be permitted to land after having received proper authorisation from the aeodrome authority.
b) it shall be permitted to land if its actions indicate that it so desires.
c) it shall not be permitted to land.
d) it shall not be permitted to land unless it becomes evident that the aircraft is in a state of emergency.
Answer ;
b) it shall be permitted to land if its actions indicate that it so desires.
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0059. Aerodrome - General
A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available , prepared as a suitable area in which an
aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off , is called ;
a) Runway end safety area.
b) Stopway.
c) Clearway.
d) Obstacle free zone ( OFZ ).
Answer ;
b) Stopway.
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0060. Aerodrome Identification Beacon
The light shown by an “Aerodrome Identification Beacon” of a land aerodrome shall be flashing , giving the aerodrome
identification by Morse Code. The colour of this light is ;
a) Blue.
b) White.
c) Yellow.
d) Green.
Answer ;
d) Green.
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0061. Aerodrome traffic is ;
a) All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.
b) All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
c) All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
d) All traffic on the manoeuvring area.
Answer ;
b) All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
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0062. Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration ;
a) mandatory instruction signs , black background with red inscriptions.
b) mandatory instruction signs , red background with black inscriptions.
c) information signs , yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.
d) information signs , orange background with black inscriptions.
Answer ;
c) information signs , yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 9 Air Law

0063. Aeronautical Ground Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off , provided that they can be brought back
into operation before the expected arrival of an aircraft in at least ;
a) 30 minutes.
b) one hour.
c) 5 minutes.
d) 15 minutes.
Answer ;
d) 15 minutes.
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0064. Aeronautical Information Service
Name the accronym signifying the system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates , of circumstances
that necessitate ignificant changes in operating practices.
a) NOTAM RAC
b) ATS NOTAM
c) AIRAC
d) Advisory NOTAM
Answer ;
c) AIRAC
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0065. AIP
SIGMET information can be found in which part of the AIP ?
a) MET
b) GEN
c) AD
d) ENR
Answer ;
b) GEN
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0066. AIP
Which part contains a brief description of areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided ?
a) METEO
b) AD
c) GEN
d) ENR
Answer ;
c) GEN
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0067. AIP
Which part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and rescue ?
a) ENR
b) AD
c) SAR
d) GEN
Answer ;
d) GEN
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0068. AIP
Which part of the AIP contains a list with “Location Indicators” ?
a) ENR
b) AD
c) LOC
d) GEN
Answer ;
d) GEN
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0069. AIP
Which part of the AIP contains information about holding , approach and departure procedures ?
a) ENR
b) MAP
c) AD
d) GEN
Answer ;
a) ENR
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 10 Air Law

0070. AIP
Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited , restricted and danger areas ?
a) ENR
b) The AIP does not contain this information
c) GEN
d) AD
Answer ;
a) ENR
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0071. AIP
Which part of the AIP gives detailed information about refuelling facilities and the fuel grades available ?
a) AD
b) FAL
c) GEN
d) ENR
Answer ;
a) AD
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0072. Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of ;
a) preventing collisions between aircraft , between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and
expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.
b) applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.
c) preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air
traffic.
d) avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.
Answer ;
a) preventing collisions between aircraft , between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and
expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.
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0073. Air Traffic Service unit means: ;
a) Air Traffic Control units , Flight Information Centres or Air Services reporting offices.
b) Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centres.
c) Flight Information Centres and Air Services reporting offices.
d) Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices.
Answer ;
a) Air Traffic Control units , Flight Information Centres or Air Services reporting offices.
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0074. Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to
within plus or minus ;
a) 10 seconds of UTC at all times.
b) 15 seconds of UTC at all times.
c) 1 minute of UTC at all times.
d) 30 seconds of UTC at all times.
Answer ;
d) 30 seconds of UTC at all times.
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0075. Aircraft “A” with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft “B” with no ATC clearance
is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way ?
a) Aircraft “A” regardless of the direction which “B” is approaching.
b) Aircraft “B” if “A” is on its left.
c) Aircraft “B” regardless of the direction “A” is approaching.
d) Aircraft “A” if “B” is on its right.
Answer ;
b) Aircraft “B” if “A” is on its left.
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0076. Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the
aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or
descend ;
a) 15 NM.
b) 20 NM.
c) 12 NM.
d) 10 NM.
Answer ;
d) 10 NM.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 11 Air Law

0077. Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace , but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service ;
a) shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be notified.
b) may file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.
c) need to file a flight plan.
d) shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that
service.
Answer ;
d) shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that
service.
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0078. Airspace Classification - Services
During a “Visual Approach” in Controlled Airspace Class C ;
a) ATC will provide separation with other traffic.
b) ATC will provide separation with arriving but not with departing traffic.
c) ATC will provide separation between flights under IFR , pilots are responsible for separation between flights
under VFR.
d) Pilots are responsible for separation with arriving and departing aircraft.
Answer ;
a) ATC will provide separation with other traffic.
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0079. Alert phase is defined as follows ;
a) An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger.
b) A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
c) A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.
d) A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency.
Answer ;
b) A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
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0080. Altimeter setting ( change during climb )
On flights in accordance with IFR , the change of the altimeter setting from QNH to Standard shall be made at the ;
a) transition level.
b) level specified by ATC.
c) transition layer.
d) transition altitude.
Answer ;
d) transition altitude.
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0081. Altimeter setting procedures – Definitions
The Transition Level ;
a) shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established.
b) is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP.
c) shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
d) is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command.
Answer ;
c) shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
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0082. Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Altitude
The transition altitude of an aerodrome shall be as low as possible but normally not less than ;
a) 1500 ft.
b) 2500 ft.
c) 3000 ft.
d) 1000 ft.
Answer ;
c) 3000 ft.
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0083. Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Altitude/Level
In the vicinity of an aerodrome of intended landing or used for take-off , the vertical position of aircraft shall be expressed in
term of ;
a) altitude above mean sea level at or below the transition altitude.
b) flight level at or below the transition level.
c) altitude above mean sea level at or above the transition altitude.
d) flight level at or below the transition altitude.
Answer ;
a) altitude above mean sea level at or below the transition altitude.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 12 Air Law
0084. Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Layer
Unless instructed otherwise by an air traffic controller , when passing through the transition layer , a pilot shall report the
vertical position of the aircraft as ;
a) either altitude or flight level in climb.
b) altitude in climb.
c) flight level in a descent.
d) altitude in a descent.
Answer ;
d) altitude in a descent.
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0085. Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Layer
When flying through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as ;
a) either altitude or flight level during climb.
b) flight level during descent.
c) altitude during climb.
d) altitude during descent.
Answer ;
d) altitude during descent.
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0086. Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Level
The transition level ;
a) is calculated by the Pilot-in command.
b) will be passed to aircraft by ATS units.
c) is published and updated in the NOTAM.
d) is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome.
Answer ;
b) will be passed to aircraft by ATS units.
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0087. Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Level
The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level with altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa has to be reported ;
a) as Altitude.
b) as Height.
c) according to pilot’s choice.
d) as Flight Level.
Answer ;
d) as Flight Level.
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0088. Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Level
With altimeter setting of 1013.2 hPa , the vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level has to be reported ;
a) as Altitude.
b) as Height.
c) according to pilot’s choice.
d) as Flight Level.
Answer ;
d) as Flight Level.
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0089. An air traffic control unit ;
a) may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion
between two or more similar call signs.
b) may require to change the call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more
similar call signs providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan.
c) may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting the flight plan.
d) must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign.
Answer ;
a) may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion
between two or more similar call signs.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 13 Air Law

0090. An AIRAC is ;
a) a package which consists of the following elements ; AIP , supplements to the AIP , NOTAM , AIC ,
checklists and summaries.
b) a publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical information of a lasting
character essential to air navigation.
c) a notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment ,
condition or change in any aeronautical facility service , procedure or hazard , the timely knowledge of which
is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
d) an Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates , of circumstances
necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.
Answer ;
d) an Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates , of circumstances
necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.
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0091. An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived level information
indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by ;
a) more than 300 ft.
b) +/- 300 ft.
c) 300 ft.
d) more than 200 ft.
Answer ;
a) more than 300 ft.
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0092. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting
aircraft on the following frequncies ;
a) 243 MHz – 125.5 MHz.
b) 121.5 MHz – 282.8 MHz.
c) 121.5 MHz – 125.5 MHz.
d) 121.5 MHz – 243 MHz.
Answer ;
d) 121.5 MHz – 243 MHz.
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0093. An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated
that it is within ;
a) +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.
b) +/- 200 ft of the assigned level.
c) +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.
d) +/- 250 ft of the assigned level.
Answer ;
c) +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.
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0094. An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less
than ;
a) 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
b) 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
c) 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
d) 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
Answer ;
a) 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
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0095. An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear ( free of
clouds ) , when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is ;
a) adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination.
b) descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations.
c) continue flight onto destination , complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan.
d) land on the closest appropriate aerodrome , then advise Air Traffic Services of landing.
Answer ;
d) land on the closest appropriate aerodrome , then advise Air Traffic Services of landing.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 14 Air Law

0096. An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to
descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be
expected ?
a) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120.
b) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140.
c) When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70.
d) When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130.
Answer ;
d) When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130.
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0097. An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach , if the position or
identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for
significant interval during the last ;
a) 2 NM.
b) 3 NM.
c) 4 NM.
d) 1 NM.
Answer ;
a) 2 NM.
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0098. An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible
on the radar display for any significant interval during the ;
a) last 5 NM of the approach.
b) last 3 NM of the approach.
c) last 2 NM of the approach.
d) last 4 NM of the approach.
Answer ;
c) last 2 NM of the approach.
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0099. An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been
received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of ;
a) 5 NM from the touchdown.
b) 2 NM from the touchdown.
c) 4 NM from the touchdown.
d) 1.5 NM from the touchdown.
Answer ;
b) 2 NM from the touchdown.
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0100. An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport’s circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the
aircraft must ;
a) give way to another aircraft.
b) return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.
c) not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.
d) not land because the airport is not available for landing.
Answer ;
d) not land because the airport is not available for landing.
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0101. An aircraft shall display , if so equipped , an anti-collision light ;
a) while taxiing , but not when it is being towed.
b) outside the daylight-period in flight , but not on the ground when it is being towed.
c) on the ground when the engines are running.
d) outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not
applicable.
Answer ;
c) on the ground when the engines are running.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 15 Air Law

0102. An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ( hijacked ) and is forced to divert from the cleared track or
cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to ;
a) declare an emergency.
b) continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet
when lower than FL 290.
c) fly the emergency triangle.
d) as soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimise the difference between cabin pressure
and outside pressure.
Answer ;
b) continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet
when lower than FL 290.
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0103. An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighbouring state. Which freedom of the Air will be
exercised ?
a) 2nd freedom.
b) 3rd freedom.
c) 1st freedom.
d) 4th freedom.
Answer ;
a) 2nd freedom.
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0104. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ;
a) 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of
aeroplanes.
b) 150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command.
c) 200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command.
d) 200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command.
Answer ;
a) 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of
aeroplanes.
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0105. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ;
a) 15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than
540 km ( 300 NM ).
b) 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than
540 km ( 300 NM ).
c) 10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than
540 km ( 300 NM ).
d) 25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than
540 km ( 300 NM ).
Answer ;
b) 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than
540 km ( 300 NM ).
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0106. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ........ hours of cross country flight
time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km ( ........ NM ) , in the course of which full
stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred are ;
a) 10 hours and 270 km ( 150 NM )
b) 15 hours and 540 km ( 300 NM )
c) 20 hours and 270 km ( 150 NM )
d) 20 hours and 540 km ( 300 NM )
Answer ;
d) 20 hours and 540 km ( 300 NM )
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0107. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ;
a) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time.
b) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time.
c) 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command.
d) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground time.
Answer ;
b) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 16 Air Law

0108. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold ;
a) a current class I medical assessment.
b) a current class III medical assessment.
c) a current class II medical assessment.
d) a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence.
Answer ;
a) a current class I medical assessment.
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0109. An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours ,
either as pilot in command or made up by not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot
performing , under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of pilot in command provided that the method of
supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively ;
a) 200 hours and 75 hours
b) 250 hours and 100 hours
c) 200 hours and 100 hours
d) 150 hours and 75 hours
Answer ;
b) 250 hours and 100 hours
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0110. An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ;
a) 150 hours of instrument time , of which not more than 75 hours of instrument ground time.
b) 75 hours of instrument time , of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time.
c) 100 hours of instrument time , of which not more than 30 hours of instrument ground time
d) 75 hours of instrument time , of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time.
Answer ;
b) 75 hours of instrument time , of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time.
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0111. An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ;
a) 100 hours of night flight only as pilot in command.
b) 75 hours of night time only as pilot in command.
c) 75 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot.
d) 100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot.
Answer ;
d) 100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot.
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0112. An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating , shall have
completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority ,
of which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours , are respectively ;
a) 40 hours and 15 hours
b) 50 hours and 10 hours
c) 40 hours and 10 hours
d) 50 hours and 15 hours
Answer ;
b) 50 hours and 10 hours
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0113. An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if ;
a) the aircraft gets radar vectors.
b) the pilot is following the published approach procedure.
c) the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight.
d) all mentioned answers are correct.
Answer ;
d) all mentioned answers are correct.
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0114. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested , is classified as ;
a) Airspace G.
b) Airspace F.
c) Airspace C.
d) Airspace E.
Answer ;
a) Airspace G.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 17 Air Law

0115. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated
from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical , is classified as ;
a) Airspace A.
b) Airspace B.
c) Airspace E.
d) Airspace D.
Answer ;
c) Airspace E.
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0116. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted , all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are
separated from each other is classified as ;
a) Airspace C.
b) Airspace B.
c) Airspace D.
d) Airspace E.
Answer ;
b) Airspace B.
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0117. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted , all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights
are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights , VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information
in respect of other VFR flights , is classified as ;
a) Airspace E.
b) Airspace C.
c) Airspace D.
d) Airspace B.
Answer ;
b) Airspace C.
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0118. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted , all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory
service and all flights receive flight information service if requested , is classified ;
a) Airspace D.
b) Airspace G.
c) Airspace E.
d) Airspace F.
Answer ;
d) Airspace F.
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0119. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights
are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information
in respect of all other flights , is classified as ;
a) Airspace A.
b) Airspace D.
c) Airspace E.
d) Airspace B.
Answer ;
b) Airspace D.
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0120. An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-
route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the
forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or subarea thereof is ;
a) a SIGMET information.
b) a NOTAM.
c) an AIRMET information.
d) an En-Route Meteo Report.
Answer ;
c) an AIRMET information.
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0121. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements ;
a) AIP , supplements to AIP , NOTAM and PIB , AIC and checklist summaries.
b) AIP , including amendment service , supplements to AIP , NOTAM , AIC , AIRAC.
c) AIP , including amendment service , supplements to AIP , NOTAM , AIC and checklist summaries.
d) AIP , including amendment service , supplements to AIP , NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin
( PIB ) , AIC , checklists and summaries.
Answer ;
d) AIP , including amendment service , supplements to AIP , NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin
( PIB ) , AIC , checklists and summaries.
Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 18 Air Law
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
0122. Annex 2 - Light signals for aerodrome traffic
A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft on ground means ;
a) Stand by , clearance for take off will be given in short time.
b) Cleared to taxi.
c) Accelerate taxi speed.
d) Slow down taxi speed , but continue.
Answer ;
b) Cleared to taxi.
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0123. Annex 2 - Light signals for aerodrome traffic
A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft in flight means ;
a) Expedite and make a short aproach and land as soon as possible.
b) Return for landing , clearance to land and will be given in due course.
c) Cleared to land.
d) Continue circling and give way to other aircraft.
Answer ;
b) Return for landing , clearance to land and will be given in due course.
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0124. Annex 12 - Search and Rescue - Signals at night
The pilot of an aircraft , observing a luminous signal requesting help , will indicate to the persons in difficulty that he has
received the ground signals by ;
a) fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.
b) switching his landing lights on and off twice or , if the aeroplane is not so equipped , his navigation lights
twice.
c) make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty.
d) transmit , by luminous Morse signal , a series of the letter “R” using his navigational lights.
Answer ;
b) switching his landing lights on and off twice or , if the aeroplane is not so equipped , his navigation lights
twice.
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0125. Annex 17 - Security
Each Contracting State shall ensure that the appropriate authority arranges for the supporting resources and facilities required
by the aviation security services to be available ;
a) on a common basis for all airports within the State.
b) at each airport serving international civil aviation.
c) for administrative staff of each airport within that State.
d) for every airline operating in that State.
Answer ;
b) at each airport serving international civil aviation.
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0126. Anti collision lights
Aircraft equipped with red anticollision lights may display them ;
a) outside the daylight-period in flight , but not on the ground when being towed.
b) outside the daylight-period at engine start.During the daylight-period this procedure is not applicable.
c) on the ground when the engines are running.
d) while taxiing , but not when being towed.
Answer ;
c) on the ground when the engines are running.
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0127. Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall , upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by
any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by ;
a) the Rome Convention.
b) the Warsaw Convention.
c) the Chicago Convention.
d) the Montreal Convention.
Answer ;
a) the Rome Convention.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 19 Air Law

0128. Approach Control Service
An Expected Approach Time/EAT will be transmitted by the most exeditious means to the aircraft when it is expected that it
has to hold ;
a) for 20 minutes or more.
b) for 30 minutes or more.
c) for 10 minutes or more.
d) for 15 minutes or more.
Answer ;
b) for 30 minutes or more.
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0129. Approach Procedures - Arrival and approach segments
In an instrument approach procedure , the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called ;
a) Arrival segment.
b) Initial approach segment.
c) Final approach segment.
d) Intermediate approach segment.
Answer ;
c) Final approach segment.
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0130. Approach Procedures - Arrival and approach Segments
The minimum obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment for an instrument approach procedure is
at least ;
a) 150 m ( 492 ft ).
b) 300 m ( 984 ft ).
c) 450 m ( 1476 ft ).
d) 600 m ( 1968 ft ).
Answer ;
b) 300 m ( 984 ft ).
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0131. Approach Procedures - Arrival and Approach Segments - Intermediate approach segment
What is the minimum obstacle clearance requirement at the end of the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in
an instrument approach procedure ?
a) 150 m ( 492 ft ) reducing to 0 m.
b) 450 m ( 1476 ft ) reducing to 150 m ( 492 ft ).
c) 300 m ( 984 ft ) reducing to 0 m.
d) 300 m ( 984 ft ) reducing to 150 m ( 492 ft ).
Answer ;
d) 300 m ( 984 ft ) reducing to 150 m ( 492 ft ).
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0132. Approach Procedures - Circling
A circling approach is ;
a) a visual flight manoeuvre that may be carried out as long as visual ground contact can be maintained.
b) a visual flight manoeuvre to be performed when radar vectoring is available.
c) a visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.
d) a visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway environment in sight while at MDA/H.
Answer ;
d) a visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway environment in sight while at MDA/H.
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0133. Approach Procedures - Circling
It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual
manoeuvring ( circling ) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised , the published
procedure ;
a) permits circling only in VMC.
b) recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
c) prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
d) prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway.
Answer ;
c) prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 20 Air Law

0134. Approach Procedures - Circling
The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach , to bring an aircraft into
position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach , is ;
a) Visual approach.
b) Visual manoeuvring ( circling ).
c) Contact approach.
d) Aerodrome traffic pattern.
Answer ;
b) Visual manoeuvring ( circling ).
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0135. Approach procedures - Circling
The visual contact with the runway is lost on the down-wind leg , while circling to land following an instrument approach.
You have to initiate a go-around ;
a) if you have other visual cues of the aerodrome environment , continue with visual ground contact.
b) turn towards the runway , maintain altitude and request ATC instructions.
c) make a turn of 90 degrees towards the runway and try to regain visual contact.
d) make an initial climbing turn towards the runway and initiate the missed approach.
Answer ;
d) make an initial climbing turn towards the runway and initiate the missed approach.
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0136. Approach procedures - Final approach segment
In a precision approach ( ILS ) , generally glide path interception occurs at heights above runway elevation from ;
a) 300 m ( 984 ft ) to 900 m ( 2955 ft ).
b) 150 m ( 492 ft ) to 900 m ( 2955 ft ).
c) 150 m ( 492 ft ) to 300 m ( 984 ft ).
d) 300 m ( 984 ft ) to 600 m ( 1968 ft ).
Answer ;
a) 300 m ( 984 ft ) to 900 m ( 2955 ft ).
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0137. Approach procedures - Final approach segment
In a precision approach ( ILS ) , the final approach segment begins at the ;
a) FAP.
b) FAF.
c) IF.
d) MAP.
Answer ;
a) FAP.
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0138. Approach procedures - Final approach segment - Precision approach - ILS
The ILS obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline more than ;
a) a quarter of a scale deflection after being established on the track.
b) half a scale deflection after being established on the track.
c) one full scale deflection after being established on the track.
d) one and a half of a scale deflection after being established on the track.
Answer ;
b) half a scale deflection after being established on the track.
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0139. Approach procedures - Instrument Approach Area
The primary area of an instrument approach segment is ;
a) the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully.
b) a defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which the Minimum Obstacle
Clearance is provided.
c) the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from zero ft to the appropriate
minimum.
d) the first part of the segment.
Answer ;
b) a defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which the Minimum Obstacle
Clearance is provided.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 21 Air Law

0140. Approach procedures - MDH / OCH
For a non-precision or circling approach , the Minimum Descent Height ( MDH ) cannot be lower than ;
a) 400 ft.
b) 200 ft.
c) the Obstacle Clearance Height ( OCH ).
d) 350 ft.
Answer ;
c) the Obstacle Clearance Height ( OCH ).
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0141. Approach procedures - Minimum Sector Altitudes / MSA
Minimum Sector Altitudes are established for each aerodrome. The MSA provides an obstacle clearance of at least 300 m
( 984 ft ) within a circle , associated with the homing facility for the approach procedure of that aerodrome. How many NM is the
radius of this circle ?
a) 10 NM
b) 25 NM
c) 5 NM
d) 20 NM
Answer ;
b) 25 NM
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0142. Approach procedures - Missed approach climb
Normally the missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of ;
a) 2%.
b) 5%.
c) 3.3%.
d) 2.5%.
Answer ;
d) 2.5%.
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0143. Approach procedures - Missed approach - Phases
A complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases ;
a) Arrival , Intermediate and Final.
b) Initial , Intermediate and Final.
c) Initial and Final.
d) Arrival , Initial , Intermediate and Final.
Answer ;
b) Initial , Intermediate and Final.
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0144. Approach procedures - Non-precision - straight-in
A so-called “straight-in-approach” is considered to be acceptable for a non-precision approach , if the angle between the final
approach track and the runway centreline is ;
a) 20° or less.
b) 40° or less.
c) 10° or less.
d) 30° or less.
Answer ;
d) 30° or less.
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0145. Approach segments
In an instrument aproach procedure , the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called ;
a) Final approach segment.
b) Initial approach segment.
c) Arrival segment.
d) Intermediate approach segment.
Answer ;
a) Final approach segment.
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0146. Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of ;
a) achieving separation between IFR flights.
b) providing flight Information Service.
c) providing advisory service.
d) achieving separation between controlled flights.
Answer ;
d) achieving separation between controlled flights.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 22 Air Law

0147. Arrival and Approach segments - General
What are the names of all separate segments that can be part of an instrument approach procedure ?
a) Initial , intermediate , final.
b) Descend , holding arrival , initial , intermediate , final , missed approach.
c) Arrival , holding , initial , intermediate , final , missed approach.
d) Arrival , initial , intermediate , final , missed approach.
Answer ;
d) Arrival , initial , intermediate , final , missed approach.
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0148. “ASDA” ( Acceleration Stop Distance Available ) is ;
a) the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.
b) the length of the runway plus the length of stopway available ( if stopway provided ).
c) the length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway ( if stopway provided ).
d) the length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway ( if provided ) .
Answer ;
c) the length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway ( if stopway provided ).
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0149. At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals , the
pilot must ;
a) switch his landing lights on and off twice or , if he is not so equipped , his navigation lights twice.
b) fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.
c) make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty.
d) transmit , by luminous Morse signal , a series of the letter “R” using his navigational lights.
Answer ;
a) switch his landing lights on and off twice or , if he is not so equipped , his navigation lights twice.
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0150. At the commencement of final approach , if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components , significant
changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant
change is ;
a) 8 KT.
b) 5 KT.
c) 10 KT.
d) 3 KT.
Answer ;
b) 5 KT.
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0151. At the commencement of final approach , if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components , significant
changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant
change is ;
a) 5 KT.
b) 8 KT.
c) 4 KT.
d) 10 KT.
Answer ;
d) 10 KT.
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0152. At the commencement of final approach , if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components , significant
changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant
change is ;
a) 2 KT.
b) 3 KT.
c) 4 KT.
d) 5 KT.
Answer ;
a) 2 KT.
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0153. ATIS broadcast ;
a) shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS.
b) shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR.
c) shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS , on a discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of
a VOR.
d) Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency.
Answer ;
a) shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 23 Air Law

0154. ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover , when the clouds are ;
a) cumulonimbus.
b) below 1500 m ( 5000 ft ) or below the highest minimum sector altitude , whichever is the greater.
c) below 900 m ( 3000 ft ) or below the highest minimum sector altitude , whichever is the greater.
d) below 2000 m ( 600 ft ) or below the highest minimum sector altitude , whichever is the greater.
Answer ;
b) below 1500 m ( 5000 ft ) or below the highest minimum sector altitude , whichever is the greater.
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0155. ATS airspace’s where IFR and VFR flights are permitted , all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are
separated from each other is classified as ;
a) Class A.
b) Class B.
c) Class E.
d) Class D.
Answer ;
b) Class B.
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0156. Authority
The final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft has the ;
a) ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace.
b) Pilot-in-command.
c) Aircraft owner.
d) Operator.
Answer ;
b) Pilot-in-command.
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0157. Avoidance of collisions
The highest priority for landing has ;
a) an aircraft that is compelled to land ( Emergency landing ).
b) an aircraft on a diplomatic flight ( Head of state ).
c) an Air Ambulance carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention.
d) a military aircraft.
Answer ;
a) an aircraft that is compelled to land ( Emergency landing ).
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0158. “Cabotage” refers to ;
a) domestic air services.
b) a flight above territorial waters.
c) a national air carrier.
d) crop spraying.
Answer ;
a) domestic air services.
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0159. Change from IFR to VFR will always take place ;
a) on the initiative of the aircraft commander.
b) as instructed by an air traffic control unit.
c) at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions.
d) when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC.
Answer ;
a) on the initiative of the aircraft commander.
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0160. Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible ;
a) only when leaving controlled airspace.
b) if instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 60 minutes.
c) if the commander so requests.
d) if instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutes.
Answer ;
c) if the commander so requests.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 24 Air Law

0161. Characteristics of T-VASIS
Each wing bar has ;
a) 4 lights.
b) 3 lights.
c) 5 lights.
d) 2 lights.
Answer ;
a) 4 lights.
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0162. Chicago Convention - Obligation to inform
Contracting States have the obligation to inform ICAO about ;
a) changes in the national regulations.
b) new liceses and ratings for flight crew and ground personnel and any suspended validity of such licenses.
c) differences or non-compliance with standards in any of the Annexes to the convention.
d) the pricing policy and agreements or passenger tickets and freight in international air transport.
Answer ;
c) differences or non-compliance with standards in any of the Annexes to the convention.
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0163. Circling approach
One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is ;
a) the landing runway and an alternative landing possibility ( runway ) are in sight.
b) the Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.
c) the horizontal Visibility is at least 5 NM and the Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.
d) the required visual references have been established and can be maintained.
Answer ;
d) the required visual references have been established and can be maintained.
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0164. Classification of Airspace
Above 3050 m ( 10.000 ft ) AMSL , the VMC minima for VFR flights in all classes of airspace are ;
a) Visibility : 8 km , Distance from clouds : 1500 m horizontal , 1000 ft vertical.
b) No minima defned , VFR flights are not permitted.
c) Visibility : 8 km , clear of clouds.
d) Visibility : 5 km , Distance from clouds : 1500 m horizontal , 1000 ft vertical.
Answer ;
a) Visibility : 8 km , Distance from clouds : 1500 m horizontal , 1000 ft vertical.
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0165. Clearance for descent
An aircraft flying under IFR , maintaining FL 150 has requested clearance for descent. Another aircraft flying below ,
maintaining FL 140 receives the clearance ; “Descend to FL 70 , report passing FL 100”. The earliest moment the pilot of the aircraft
at the higher level can expect to receive a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below is , when the pilot of the aircraft at the lower level
has reported ;
a) that he has passed through FL 100.
b) that he has descended through FL 130.
c) that he has reached FL 70.
d) that he has left FL 140.
Answer ;
d) that he has left FL 140.
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0166. Clearance on Final Approach
A pilot may expect to receive the clearance to land or any alternative clearance before the aircraft reaches a distance of ;
a) 3 NM from touchdown.
b) 2 NM from touchdown.
c) 5 NM from touchdown.
d) 4 NM from touchdown.
Answer ;
b) 2 NM from touchdown.
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0167. Clearance to land or any alternative clearance received from the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the
aircraft before it reaches a distance of ;
a) 3 NM from touchdown.
b) 5 NM from touchdown.
c) 4 NM from touchdown.
d) 2 NM from touchdown.
Answer ;
d) 2 NM from touchdown.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 25 Air Law
0168. Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of ;
a) achieving separation between controlled flights.
b) providing flight Information Service.
c) providing alerting services.
d) providing advisory services.
Answer ;
a) achieving separation between controlled flights.
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0169. “Clearway” is defined rectangular area established to ;
a) permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.
b) protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.
c) reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.
d) permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.
Answer ;
d) permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.
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0170. “Code letter D” shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m.
The taxiway width shall be ;
a) 23 m.
b) 18 m.
c) 25 m.
d) 15 m.
Answer ;
b) 18 m.
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0171. Communication Failure
After experiencing a communication failure on a flight accordance with IFR , the aircraft shall comply with the
communication failure procedures. When flying in VMC , the aircraft shall ;
a) continue on to destination , complying with last received and confirmed clearances or with filed flight plan.
b) continue to fly in VMC , land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report its arrival by most expeditious
means to the appropriate ATS unit.
c) adopt a VFR flight level and continue according to VFR to the flight plan destination.
d) descend to Minimum Safe Altitude/Level , continue to the nearest aerodrome with instrument approach
procedure.
Answer ;
b) continue to fly in VMC , land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report its arrival by most expeditious
means to the appropriate ATS unit.
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0172. Communication Failure - Flight Procedures
You are on a flight in accordance with IFR in IMC , exactly on the current flight plan route. At 18:36 UTC you receive and
acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller ; “Turn immediately , fly heading 050° until further advised”. At
18:37 UTC you discover a communication failure. Two way radio communication cannot be established again.
a) You continue on Heading 050 for 15 minutes.
b) You continue on Heading 050.
c) You continue on Heading 050 for 30 minutes.
d) You have to return to your current flight plan route.
Answer ;
d) You have to return to your current flight plan route.
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0173. Concerning to RNP ( Required Navigation Performance ) types , the indication RNP 4 , represents a navigation accuracy of ;
a) plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis.
b) plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis.
c) plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis.
d) plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis.
Answer ;
d) plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis.
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0174. Control Area ( CTA ) is defined as follows ;
a) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.
b) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1000 feet above the earth.
c) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit.
d) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the earth.
Answer ;
a) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 26 Air Law

0175. Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level ( FL ) ;
a) above the transition altitude when applicable.
b) if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet.
c) only in airspace class A.
d) when QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa.
Answer ;
a) above the transition altitude when applicable.
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0176. Definitions
The movement area of an airfield , the adjacent terrain and buildings or portions thereof with controlled access are called ;
a) Security program.
b) Manoeuvring area.
c) Airside.
d) Terminal.
Answer ;
c) Airside.
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0177. Definitions
What is ;
A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the
aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track.
a) Race track
b) Procedure turn
c) Reversal track
d) Base turn
Answer ;
b) Procedure turn
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0178. Definitions - Aerodrome
A defined rectangular area , selected o prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial
climb to a specific height is called ;
a) Runway end safety area ( RESA ).
b) Stopway.
c) Take-off run available ( TORA ).
d) Clearway.
Answer ;
d) Clearway.
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0179. Definitions - Aerodrome
Non-precision approach runways and precision approach runways CAT I , II and III are defined as ;
a) Non-instrument runways.
b) Instrument runways.
c) Movement area.
d) Parallel runways.
Answer ;
b) Instrument runways.
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0180. Definitions - ( ICAO Doc 8168 )
What is ;
A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the
intermediate or final approach track. The tracks are not reciprocal.
a) Base turn
b) Procedure turn
c) Reversal procedure
d) Race track
Answer ;
a) Base turn
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 27 Air Law

0181. Definitions - Visual Approach
A so called “Visual Approach” can be peformed ;
a) during IFR and VFR approaches in VMC.
b) during IFR approaches , if the cloud base is 1000 ft higher than the apprpriate DA or MDA for that
procedure , and the visibility is at least 5.5 km.
c) during IFR approaches if the cloud base is 1000 ft higher than the apprpriate DA or MDA for that procedure.
d) when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in
visual reference to terrain.
Answer ;
d) when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in
visual reference to terrain.
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0182. Departure procedure - Design
The main factor/s that dictate/s in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is/are ;
a) ATC availability and requirements.
b) airspace restrictions applicable and in force.
c) availability of navigation aids.
d) the terrain surrounding the aerodrome.
Answer ;
d) the terrain surrounding the aerodrome.
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0183. Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that the missed approach track for one
approach diverges by ;
a) at least 15° ( degrees ) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach.
b) at least 30° ( degrees ) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach.
c) at least 45° ( degrees ) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach.
d) at least 25° ( degrees ) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach.
Answer ;
b) at least 30° ( degrees ) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach.
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0184. Deviation from Flight Plan
Pilots of controlled flights are requested to inform the appropriate ATS whenever the average TAS at cruising level between
reporting points varies or is expected to vary from the TAS given in the flight plan by ;
a) 2%.
b) 3%.
c) 4%.
d) 5%.
Answer ;
d) 5%.
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0185. During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions , traffic avoidance is the responsibility of ;
a) the approach controller.
b) the radar controller.
c) the pilot in command.
d) the airport controller.
Answer ;
c) the pilot in command.
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0186. During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will ;
a) land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC.
b) descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight.
c) land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC.
d) select A7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination.
Answer ;
c) land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC.
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0187. During radar-control , a “radar-controller” shall issue a missed-approach instruction , in case the “tower-controller” has not
issued a “landing-clearance” at the moment the aircraft is ;
a) 2 NM from touch-down.
b) 4 NM from touch-down.
c) 3 NM from touch-down.
d) 1 NM from touch-down.
Answer ;
a) 2 NM from touch-down.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 28 Air Law

0188. Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service ( AIS ) in its territory and for areas in which the
state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory , and this shall include the preparation and origination of ;
a) AIP , NOTAMs , Circular and AIRAC.
b) Integrated Aeronautical Information Package.
c) Only NOTAMs and Circulars.
d) Only AIP and NOTAMs.
Answer ;
b) Integrated Aeronautical Information Package.
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0189. Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development
implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply ;
a) to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to
domestic flights at the discretion of each member state.
b) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights.
c) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights.
d) only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo.
Answer ;
a) to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to
domestic flights at the discretion of each member state.
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0190. Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security programme ;
a) at each airport.
b) only for administrative staff of airport.
c) for every airline operating in the State.
d) that is common for all airports within State.
Answer ;
a) at each airport.
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0191. Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of ;
a) 100 NM or more.
b) 60 NM or more.
c) 50 NM or more.
d) 75 NM or more.
Answer ;
b) 60 NM or more.
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0192. Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach ( SRA ) shall be terminated at
a distance from the touchdown of ;
a) 2 NM.
b) 3 NM.
c) 5 NM.
d) 4 NM.
Answer ;
a) 2 NM.
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0193. Except when a clearane is obtained from an ATC unit , a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less
than ;
a) 1000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km.
b) 1000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km.
c) 1500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km.
d) 2000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km.
Answer ;
c) 1500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km.
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0194. Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements , aircraft under radar-control shall not be vectored
closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than ;
a) 2.5 NM.
b) 3 NM.
c) 5 NM.
d) 1.5 NM.
Answer ;
a) 2.5 NM.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 29 Air Law

0195. Expeted Approach Time / EAT
A pilot receives an EAT as soon as practicable , when an expected approach delay is ;
a) 20 minutes.
b) 10 minutes or more.
c) 10 minutes.
d) 15 minutes or more.
Answer ;
b) 10 minutes or more.
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0196. Final approach segment
During a precision approach ( ILS ) , glide path interception occurs normally at heights above runway elevation between ;
a) 300 m ( 984 ft ) to 900 m ( 2955 ft ).
b) 300 m ( 984 ft ) to 600 m ( 1968 ft ).
c) 150 m ( 492 ft ) to 300 m ( 984 ft ).
d) 150 m ( 492 ft ) to 900 m ( 2955 ft ).
Answer ;
a) 300 m ( 984 ft ) to 900 m ( 2955 ft ).
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0197. Flight Information Region ( FIR ) is an airspace within which the following services are provided ;
a) Flight Information Service , Alerting Service and Advisory Service.
b) Flight Information Service only.
c) Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.
d) Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.
Answer ;
c) Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.
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0198. Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to
aircraft operating in airspace classes ;
a) A to E ( inclusive ).
b) F and G.
c) C to G ( inclusive ).
d) A to G ( inclusive ).
Answer ;
c) C to G ( inclusive ).
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0199. Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace
classes ;
a) F only.
b) A , B , C , D , E , F and G.
c) F and G only.
d) C , D , E , F and G.
Answer ;
d) C , D , E , F and G.
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0200. Flight Plan
For flights in accordance with IFR within advisory airspace a flight plan ;
a) shall be submitted. There is no obligation to report changes.
b) shall be submitted. Changes to the flight plan have to be reported.
c) may be submitted at the pilots discreation.In case a flight plan is submitted all changes shall be reported as
soon as practible to the appropriate ATS unit.
d) does not have to be submitted.
Answer ;
b) shall be submitted. Changes to the flight plan have to be reported.
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0201. Flight Plan - Inadvertent track changes
In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its track given in the current flight plan , action should be
taken in order to ;
a) maintain VMC , wait for instructions from the appropriate ATS unit.
b) adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable.
c) notify the appropriate ATS unit immediately notifying the new track and to comply with instructions from
ATS.
d) climb or descent by 500 ft , inform the appropriate ATS unit.
Answer ;
b) adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 30 Air Law
0202. For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids , the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the
aircraft ;
a) will arrive overhead the initial approach fix.
b) will leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach.
c) will land.
d) will stop on the parking area.
Answer ;
a) will arrive overhead the initial approach fix.
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0203. For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the
licence are to be exercised at night ;
a) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot.
b) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings as pilot in command.
c) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command.
d) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 5 landings as pilot in command.
Answer ;
b) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings as pilot in command.
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0204. For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport , separation minima may be reduced ;
a) only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight.
b) if the commander of the involved aircraft so requests.
c) at the discretion of the air traffic controller.
d) when the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own
separation.
Answer ;
d) when the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own
separation.
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0205. For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as ;
a) the boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion.
b) boarding prior to all passengers.
c) boarding after to all other passengers.
d) the boarding has to be done at the state discretion.
Answer ;
b) boarding prior to all passengers.
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0206. General provisions - amended clearance
If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft ;
a) the PIC may request an amended clearance from the ATC. Amended clearances will only be given when
VMC prevails.
b) the PIC has to accept the ATC clearance. The clearance is based on the flight plan filed with ATC.
c) the PIC may request and , if practicable , obtain an amended clearance.
d) the PIC may propose another clearance. ATC has to amend the clearance in accordance with the pilots
request.
Answer ;
c) the PIC may request and , if practicable , obtain an amended clearance.
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0207. General provisions - change from IFR to VFR
A change from instrument flight rules ( IFR ) to visual flight rules ( VFR ) is only acceptable , when VFR is permitted in that
air space and when ;
a) the PIC has requested and btained an ATC CLR for the change and has filed a special VFR flight plan.
b) the position of the change has been noted on the ATC flight plan. The cancellation of the IFR flight will then
be made automatically by ATC.
c) the change is initiated by the PIC with a message containing the specific expression “cancelling my IFR
flight”.
d) ATC invites the PIC to change from IFR to VFR.
Answer ;
c) the change is initiated by the PIC with a message containing the specific expression “cancelling my IFR
flight”.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 31 Air Law

0208. General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delay
In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted , the flight plan should be
amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled , when the delay is exceeding the original ;
a) estimated departure time by 30 minutes.
b) estimated off-block time by 30 minutes.
c) estimated off-block time by 60 minutes.
d) estimated departure time by 60 minutes.
Answer ;
c) estimated off-block time by 60 minutes.
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0209. General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delay
In the event of a delay of a controlled flight , the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan
submitted when the delay is in excess of ;
a) 30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks.
b) 30 minutes of the estimated time of departure.
c) 60 minutes of the estimated time off blocks.
d) 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.
Answer ;
a) 30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks.
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0210. General provisions - Responsibility for terrain clearance
Who is in general responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance ?
a) The aircraft operator.
b) The pilot-in-command.
c) The ATS reporting office accepting the flight plan.
d) The ATC.
Answer ;
b) The pilot-in-command.
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0211. General provisions for ATS - Content of voice position reports ( according Doc4444 )
A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in the order
listed ;
a) 1) Aircraft identification , 2) position , 3) time , 4) flight level or altitude , 5) next position and time over ,
6) ensuing significant point.
b) 1) Aircraft identification , 2) position , 3) flight level or altitude , 4) time , 5) next position and time over ,
6) ensuing significant point.
c) 1) Aircraft identification , 2) position , 3) time , 4) true air speed , 5) flight level or altitude , 6) next position
and time over.
d) 1) Aircraft identification , 2) position , 3) time , 4) flight level or altitude , 5) next position , 6) time over.
Answer ;
a) 1) Aircraft identification , 2) position , 3) time , 4) flight level or altitude , 5) next position and time over ,
6) ensuing significant point.
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0212. General provisions for ATS - Ostacle clearance
When does Air Traffic Control Services have the responsibility to prevent collisions with terrain ?
a) ATS never prevent collisions with terrain.
b) When a flight in accordance with IFR is vectored by radar.
c) ATS only provides prevention when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC.
d) Always when ATS are provided.
Answer ;
b) When a flight in accordance with IFR is vectored by radar.
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0213. Given ;
AGL = above ground level
AMSL = above mean sea level
FL = flight level
Within uncontrolled airspace , the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels ;
a) 3000 ft AMSL or 1000 ft AGL.
b) FL30 or 100 ft AGL.
c) FL30 or 1500 ft AGL.
d) 3000 ft AMSL or 1500 ft AGL.
Answer ;
a) 3000 ft AMSL or 1000 ft AGL.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 32 Air Law

0214. High intensity obstacle lights should be ;
a) fixed red.
b) flashing white.
c) fixed orange.
d) flashing red.
Answer ;
b) flashing white.
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0215. Holding procedures
If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any particular holding
pattern , he should ;
a) follow the radio communication failure procedure.
b) advise ATC as early as possible.
c) execute a non-standard holding pattern in accordance with the performance of his aeroplane.
d) remain within the protected area , but may deviate from the prescribed holding.
Answer ;
b) advise ATC as early as possible.
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0216. Holding Procedures - Buffer Area
How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area ?
a) 5 NM.
b) 3 NM.
c) 5 km.
d) 3 km.
Answer ;
a) 5 NM.
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0217. Holding procedures - Entry
Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern , there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries
of ;
a) 15°.
b) 5°.
c) 10°.
d) 20°.
Answer ;
b) 5°.
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0218. Holding procedures - Entry
You have received instructions to hold over a radio fix. The published procedure is ; All turns to the right , 1 minute
outbound , inbound Magnetic Track 052°. You are approaching the fix on Magnetic Track 232°. Select the appropriate entry
procedure ;
a) parallel or direct.
b) either offset or parallel.
c) offset only.
d) direct only.
Answer ;
b) either offset or parallel.
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0219. Holding procedures - Offset Entry
Above 14.000 ft in still air , the outbound time on a 30° offset track is limited to ;
a) 2 minutes.
b) 1 minute.
c) 1 minute 30 seconds.
d) 3 minutes.
Answer ;
c) 1 minute 30 seconds.
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0220. Holding procedures - Outbound time
The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14.000 ft in still air conditions is ;
a) 2 minutes 30 seconds.
b) 2 minutes.
c) 1 minute.
d) 1 minute 30 seconds.
Answer ;
d) 1 minute 30 seconds.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 33 Air Law
0221. Holding procedures - Outbound time
The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14.000 ft or below in still air conditions is ;
a) 1 minute.
b) 30 seconds.
c) 2 minutes.
d) 1,5 minutes.
Answer ;
a) 1 minute.
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0222. Horizontal separation - Independent parallel approaches
A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS
final approach track. This minimum is , when independent parallel approaches are being conducted ;
a) 1.0 NM.
b) 2.0 NM.
c) 3.0 NM.
d) 5.0 NM.
Answer ;
c) 3.0 NM.
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0223. Horizontal separation - Independent parallel approaches
Such approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that , the missed approach track for one approach diverges
from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach by at least ;
a) 30º ( degrees ).
b) 25º ( degrees ).
c) 45º ( degrees ).
d) 20º ( degrees ).
Answer ;
a) 30º ( degrees ).
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0224. How many red lights must a pilot see , whose aircraft , in final approach , is following a normal glide path defined by a
PAPI ?
a) None.
b) 3.
c) 1.
d) 2.
Answer ;
d) 2.
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0225. ICAO Annex 1
When a Contracting State renders valid a licence issued in accordance with Annex 1 by another Contracting State , the
validity of the authorisation ;
a) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.
b) depends on the regulations of the contracting state which renders valid the licence.
c) shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and CPL.
d) is only considered for PPL.
Answer ;
a) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.
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0226. ICAO Annex 1 - JAR FCL1 - Cross Country flight time requirements for the ATPL.
As part of the total flight time requirement of 1500 hours , the applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane
shall have completed not less than 200 hours of cross-country flight time on aeroplanes. How much of this shall be pilot-in-command
time or co-pilot time under the supervision of the pilot in command , performing the duties and functions of a pilot in command ,
provided that the method of supervision empoyed is acceptable to the licensing authority ?
a) 75 hours.
b) 10 hours.
c) 100 hours.
d) 50 hours.
Answer ;
c) 100 hours.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 34 Air Law

0227. ICAO Annex 2 - Definitions
Who is charged with the safe conduct of a flight ?
a) The pilot-in-command.
b) The aircraft owner.
c) The ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace.
d) The airline operator.
Answer ;
a) The pilot-in-command.
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0228. ICAO Annex 7 - Nationality and registration
The registration mark shall be letters , numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by the ;
a) Ministry of Transport and the Ministry of Defense in the state of registry.
b) the International Telecommunication Union.
c) the International Civil Aviation Organisation.
d) the state of registry or common mark registering authority.
Answer ;
d) the state of registry or common mark registering authority.
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0229. ICAO Annex 7 - Nationality and registration
When letters are used for the registration mark , combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the ;
a) letters used for ICAO identificaton documents.
b) five letter combinations used in the international code of signals.
c) four letter combinations beginning with Q.
d) three letters combinations used in the international code of signals.
Answer ;
b) five letter combinations used in the international code of signals.
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0230. ICAO Annex 12 - Search and Rescue
The procedure for the pilot-in-command of an aircraft to be followed in case of interceping a distress transmission is ;
a) record the position of the transmission , proceed according to the flight plan , complete the SAR report form
at the next airport , indicating where you can be reached in order to supply further information.
b) hold at the position where the distress signal and/or message is received , co-ordinate the SAR operation by
using the appropriate VHF and/or HF frequencies until released by a SAR unit.
c) record the position of the craft in distress if given , if possible take a bearing of the transmission , inform the
appropriate RCC or ASS and , while awaiting instructions , proceed at your discretion towards the position
given in the transmission.
d) record the position of the craft in distress , take a bearing of transmission , inform the appropriate RCC or
ATS using the appropriate VHF and/or HF frequencies , proceed on the most expeditious way towards the
position given in transmission.
Answer ;
c) record the position of the craft in distress if given , if possible take a bearing of the transmission , inform the
appropriate RCC or ASS and , while awaiting instructions , proceed at your discretion towards the position
given in the transmission.
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0231. ICAO Annex 13 - Accident/Incident notification and reporting
The aircraft has made a complete stop on the apron. When leaving the aircraft , one of the passengers walks into the trailing
edge of the wing and gets seriously injured.
a) This is an incident. The pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within the next 48 hours.
b) This is a matter of passenger insurance as the flight is terminated and the aeroplane doors are open. The
airport operator or the company in charge of the handling shall establish a report for the insurance company.
c) This is an irregularity in the handling. The handing agent must inform his insurance company.
d) This is an accident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant for this case.
Answer ;
d) This is an accident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant for this case.
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0232. ICAO Annex 13 - Notification and reporting
During the climb-out phase of a flight the pilot-in-command becomes incapacitated. The co-pilot takes over control of the
aircraft and decides that he will return for landing. What action has to be taken after landing ?
a) This is an irregularity in the operation. The operator must inform the Authority by writing and Irregularity
Report.
b) This is an irregularity. The pilot-in-command or the Operator must deposit a report on behalf of the involved
airport Authority within the following 48 hours.
c) This is a serious incident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant to an incident.
d) This is an accident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant to an accident.
Answer ;
c) This is a serious incident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant to an incident.
Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 35 Air Law
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
0233. ICAO Annex 14 - Visual aids for navigation - Lights
Runway edge lights shall consist of at least ;
a) flashing lights showing variable yellow.
b) flashing lights showing variable green.
c) fixed lights showing steady green.
d) fixed lights showing variable white.
Answer ;
d) fixed lights showing variable white.
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0234. ICAO Annex 14 - Visual aids for navigation - Lights - Displaced Threshold
When a threshold is displaced , what colour shall the lights have in approach direction between the beginning of the runway
and the displaced threshold ?
a) flashing red , intermittent with flashing white.
b) white.
c) red.
d) blue , this portion of the runway is considered as taxiway.
Answer ;
c) red.
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0235. ICAO Annex 14 - Visual aids for navigation - Runway End Lights
The colour of fixed , undirectional Runway End Lights is ;
a) white.
b) red.
c) yellow.
d) green.
Answer ;
b) red.
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0236. If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to illness , the authority must
be informed ;
a) if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires.
b) after 21 days of consecutive “illness”.
c) after one calendar month of consecutive illness.
d) as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21days.
Answer ;
b) after 21 days of consecutive “illness”.
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0237. If a pilot is carrying out single pilot commercial passenger transport operations how does the validity of his class 1 medical
change on his 40th birthday ?
a) from 12 months to 3 months.
b) from 36 months to 24 months.
c) from 24 months to 12 months.
d) from 12 months to 6 months.
Answer ;
d) from 12 months to 6 months.
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0238. If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any direction ;
a) until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway.
b) until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway.
c) until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway.
d) until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway.
Answer ;
b) until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway.
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0239. If an international commercial air service is operated with a single pilot aircraft , what is the maximum age of the pilot ?
a) 65
b) 60
c) 69
d) 59
Answer ;
d) 59
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 36 Air Law

0240. If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport ( box 16 ) of a flight plan form ;
a) write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 ( additional information ) ALTN/followed by the name of the
airport.
b) write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 ( additional information ) DEGT/followed by the name of the
airport.
c) write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 ( additional information ) DEGT/followed by the name of the
airport.
d) write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 ( additional information ) ALTN/followed by the name of the
airport.
Answer ;
d) write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 ( additional information ) ALTN/followed by the name of the
airport.
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0241. If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible ,
which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing ?
a) Descend
b) Descend for landing
c) You land
d) Let down
Answer ;
a) Descend
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0242. If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible , which
phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received ?
a) CAN NOT
b) UNABLE TO COMPLY
c) CAN NOT COMPLY
d) NOT POSSIBLE
Answer ;
a) CAN NOT
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0243. If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report “field in sight” , a clearance for “visual
approach” may be given under certain conditions ;
a) the meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km.
b) continued approach will be according to VFR.
c) the air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic.
d) the approach must be passing the FAF.
Answer ;
c) the air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic.
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0244. IFR cruising levels within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level ( FL ) ;
a) when the QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa.
b) only in airspace class A.
c) if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet.
d) above the transition altitude when applicable.
Answer ;
d) above the transition altitude when applicable.
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0245. In a precision approach Category I lighting system , the centre line and crossbar lights shall be ;
a) fixed lights showing variable white.
b) fixed lights showing variable green.
c) flashing lights showing variable green.
d) flashing lights showing variable white.
Answer ;
a) fixed lights showing variable white.
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0246. In a precision approach Category I lighting system , the single , two and three light sources on the centre line have a length
of ;
a) 150 m.
b) 250 m.
c) 200 m.
d) 300 m.
Answer ;
d) 300 m.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 37 Air Law

0247. In case of parallel runways , each runway designation number shall be supplemented ;
a) by a letter for 2 parallel runways.
b) by a number like “0” and “01” for 2 parallel runways.
c) by a letter - for example 3 parallel runways “L” and “R” and the central has no letter.
d) by a letter - for example 2 parallel runways “L” and “R” - for 3 “L” , “C” and “R”.
Answer ;
d) by a letter - for example 2 parallel runways “L” and “R” - for 3 “L” , “C” and “R”.
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0248. In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority , provided that
such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed ;
a) a single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial
operations.
b) two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in
non commercial operations.
c) a single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial
operations.
d) in the case of a private pilot , a single period of 12 months.
Answer ;
c) a single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial
operations.
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0249. In order to avoid confusion , the identification numbers given to each prohibited area , restricted area and danger area shall
not be re-used for a period of ;
a) at least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer.
b) at least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer.
c) at least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer.
d) at least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer.
Answer ;
c) at least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer.
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0250. In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria , what minimum separation should be applied when a Medium aircraft is taking
off behind a Heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway ?
a) 4 minutes
b) 1 minute
c) 3 minutes
d) 2 minutes
Answer ;
d) 2 minutes
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0251. In order to meet wake turbulence criteria , for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches , what minima shall be applied to
aircraft landing behind a Heavy or a Medium aircraft ?
a) Light aircraft behind Medium aircraft - 4 minutes.
b) Medium aircraft behind Heavy aircraft - 2 minutes.
c) Medium aircraft behind Heavy aircraft - 3 minutes.
d) Medium aircraft other Medium aircraft - 2 minutes.
Answer ;
b) Medium aircraft behind Heavy aircraft - 2 minutes.
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0252. In the “Aerodrome Reference Code” the code element 2 shall identify ;
a) the length of the aircraft fuselage.
b) the width of the aircraft wing.
c) Oonly the aircraft wing span.
d) the aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.
Answer ;
d) the aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.
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0253. In the case of parallel runways , each runway designation number shall be supplemented ;
a) by a letter - for example 3 parallel runways “L” and “R” and the central has no letter.
b) by a number like “0” and “01” for 2 parallel runways.
c) by a letter for 2 parallel runways.
d) by a letter - for example 2 parallel runways “L” and “R” - for 3 “L” , “C” and “R”.
Answer ;
d) by a letter - for example 2 parallel runways “L” and “R” - for 3 “L” , “C” and “R”.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 38 Air Law

0254. In the event of being hijacked in an area where regional procedures have not been established the pilot should ;
a) fly a standard racetrack pattern at the next reporting point on track and await ATC instructions.
b) fly a left-hand racetrack pattern at the next reporting point on track and await ATC instructions.
c) fly a right-hand orbit and await ATC instructions.
d) proceed at a level whih differs from the cruising levels normally used for IFR flight in the area by 300 m
( 1000 ft ) above FL290 in non-RVSM airspace or 150 m ( 500 ft ) above FL290 in RVSM airspace or below
FL290.
Answer ;
d) proceed at a level whih differs from the cruising levels normally used for IFR flight in the area by 300 m
( 1000 ft ) above FL290 in non-RVSM airspace or 150 m ( 500 ft ) above FL290 in RVSM airspace or below
FL290.
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0255. In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flght plan , the appropriate ATS unit has to be
informed ;
a) it is a deviation from the track.
b) the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.
c) the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan.
d) of an emergency.
Answer ;
c) the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan.
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0256. In the “PAPI” system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest
from the runway as white when ;
a) only on the approach slope.
b) below the approach slope.
c) above the approach slope.
d) on or close to the approach slope.
Answer ;
d) on or close to the approach slope.
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0257. In the “VASIS” , how many light units are in each wing bar ?
a) 4.
b) 3.
c) 5.
d) 2.
Answer ;
a) 4.
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0258. In which section of AIP are contaned information elements relating to prohibited , restricted and dangerous areas ?
a) ENR
b) AGA
c) GEN
d) MAP
Answer ;
a) ENR
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0259. Inadvertent changes from a Flight Plan
The appropriate ATS unit has to be informed ;
a) about any track deviation.
b) about any deviation in TAS.
c) if the time estimate for the next reporting point is found to be in error in excess of more than ten minutes
from that notified to ATS.
d) if the average TAS at cruising level varies or is expected to vary by ±5% from that given in the flight plan.
Answer ;
d) if the average TAS at cruising level varies or is expected to vary by ±5% from that given in the flight plan.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 39 Air Law

0260. Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that ;
a) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° ( degrees ) from the missed approach
track of the adjacent approach.
b) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° ( degrees ) from the missed approach
track of the adjacent approach.
c) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° ( degrees ) from the missed approach
track of the adjacent approach.
d) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° ( degrees ) from the missed approach
track of the adjacent approach.
Answer ;
c) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° ( degrees ) from the missed approach
track of the adjacent approach.
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0261. Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone / NTZ is
established equidistant between the extended runway centre lines ;
a) 610 m.
b) 500 m.
c) 600 m.
d) 710 m.
Answer ;
a) 610 m.
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0262. Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone ( NTZ ) of at
least ;
a) 500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display.
b) 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display.
c) 600 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display.
d) 710 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display.
Answer ;
b) 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display.
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0263. Information on holding , approach and departure procedures. Which part of the AIP contains this information ?
a) GEN
b) ENR
c) MAP
d) AD
Answer ;
b) ENR
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0264. Instrument Departure Procedures - Obstacle Clearance
The minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals ;
a) 35 ft.
b) 0 ft.
c) 0.8 % gradient.
d) 3.3 % gradient.
Answer ;
b) 0 ft.
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0265. Instrument Departure Procedure - Wind correction
Flying an Instrument Departure Procedure pilots are expected to ;
a) request a clearance from ATC with regards to a wind correction to be applied.
b) ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track.
c) request from ATC an adequate heading to cater for wind direction and strength.
d) correct the track for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.
Answer ;
d) correct the track for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.
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0266. “Instrument runways” are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach
procedures ;
a) Instrument approach runways , precision approach runways category I , II and III.
b) Precision approach runways in general.
c) Precision approach runways category I , II and III.
d) Non precision approach runways , precision approach runways category I , II and III.
Answer ;
d) Non precision approach runways , precision approach runways category I , II and III.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 40 Air Law
0267. Interception
An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately , unless otherwise
instructed by the appropriate air traffic service unit , select Mode A ;
a) Code 7000.
b) Code 7700.
c) Code 7600.
d) Code 7500.
Answer ;
b) Code 7700.
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0268. Interception
An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio-communication with the
intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit , by making a general call on the frequency ;
a) 121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established , and if practicable , repeat this call on the frequency 125.5
MHz.
b) 121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established , and if practicable , repeat this call on the frequency 243
MHz.
c) 243 MHz. If no contact has been established , and if practicable , repeat this call on the frequency 125.5
MHz.
d) 121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established , and if practicable , repeat this call on the frequency 282.8
MHz.
Answer ;
b) 121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established , and if practicable , repeat this call on the frequency 243
MHz.
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0269. Interception
If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual signals ,
the intercepted aircraft shall ;
a) select transponder mode A , squawk 7600 , fly holding patterns until having received instructions from the
appropriate ATS unit.
b) ignore the signals of the intercepting aircraft and request instructions from the appropriate ATS unit.
c) ignore the signals of the intercepting aircraft and continue in accordance with the last clearance received and
confirmed by the appropriate ATS unit.
d) follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft and request immediate clarification.
Answer ;
d) follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft and request immediate clarification.
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0270. Interception
If radio contact is established during interception but communication in a common language is not possible , attempts shall
be made to convey instructions and essential information by using standard phrases and pronunciations , transmitting each phrase
twice . The standard phrase with the meaning “descend for landing” for use by INTERCEPTING aircraft is ;
a) YOU LAND.
b) DESCEND FOR LAND.
c) LET DOWN.
d) DESCEND.
Answer ;
d) DESCEND.
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0271. Interception , DAY or NIGHT
Which manoeuvre will be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot of this aircraft wants to communicate to the
intercepted aircraft “YOU MAY PROCEED” ?
a) Rocking aircraft and flashing navigational lights at regular intervals.
b) Circling the intercepted aircraft in a counter-clockwise pattern for aeroplanes , in a clockwise pattern for
helicopter.
c) Rocking aircraft twice in front of the intercepting aircraft , after acknowledgement by intercepted aircraft a
slow level turn ( normally to the left ).
d) An abrupt break-away manoeuvre from the intercepted aircraft consisting of a climbing turn of 90 degrees or
more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.
Answer ;
d) An abrupt break-away manoeuvre from the intercepted aircraft consisting of a climbing turn of 90 degrees or
more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 41 Air Law

0272. JAR FCL 1
In accordance with JAR FCL 1 the credit for MPA co-pilot time is ;
a) 100% of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.
b) 50% of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.
c) 75% of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.
d) 100 hours of the flying time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.
Answer ;
a) 100% of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.
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0273. JAR-FCL 1
Instructor categories are ;
a) FI(A) , TRI(A) , CRI(A) , IRI(A) ratings , SFI and MCCI authorisation.
b) FI(A) and IRI(A) ratings.
c) FI(A) , TRI(A) , CRE(A) , IRE(A) ratings and SFI authorisation.
d) FE(A) , TRE(A) , CRE(A) , IRE(A) ratings and SFI authorisation.
Answer ;
a) FI(A) , TRI(A) , CRI(A) , IRI(A) ratings , SFI and MCCI authorisation.
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0274. JAR-FCL 1 , Minimum flight experience requirements for the IR
The applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL(A) including a night qualification or a CPL(A) and shall have completed at least;
a) 50 hours instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes.
b) 50 hours cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours
shall be in aeroplanes.
c) 50 hours instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least
10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
d) 50 hours cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
Answer ;
b) 50 hours cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours
shall be in aeroplanes.
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0275. JAR-FCL 3 , Information of the Authority in case of illness
The holder of a pilot’s licence shall inform the Auhority of any illness , which involves the incapacity to undertake licence
related functions for a certain number of days. The number of days is ;
a) 90.
b) 60.
c) 21.
d) 30.
Answer ;
c) 21.
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0276. Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off , provided that they can be again brought into operation ;
a) at least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft.
b) at least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft.
c) at least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft.
d) at least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft.
Answer ;
c) at least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft.
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0277. Light signals
A red flare addressed to an aircraft in flight means ;
a) Return for approach , clearance to land to be expected on final.
b) Aerodrome unsafe , do not land.
c) Slow down speed to minimum , give way to other aircraft in the circuit and continue circling.
d) Not with standing any previous instructions , do not land for the time being.
Answer ;
d) Not with standing any previous instructions , do not land for the time being.
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0278. Light signals for aerodrome traffic
A series of red flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft on ground means ;
a) Give way to other aircraft taxiing.
b) Taxi clear of landing area in use.
c) Stop and taxi back , you are on the wrong taxiway.
d) Slow down taxi speed.
Answer ;
b) Taxi clear of landing area in use.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 42 Air Law
0279. Longitudinal separation
The longitudinal separation minimum for 2 aircraft when both are utilizing the same “on track” DME station is ;
a) 10 NM.
b) 5 NM.
c) 20 NM.
d) 15 NM.
Answer ;
c) 20 NM.
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0280. Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track , provided that
each aircraft utilises “on track” DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings , is ;
a) 40 NM.
b) 25 NM.
c) 20 NM.
d) 10 NM.
Answer ;
c) 20 NM.
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0281. Longitudinal separation minima based on time
The minimum longitudinal separation between two aircraft flying on the same track , the preceeding one maintaning a true
airspeed of 37 km ( 20 kt ) faster than the succeeding aircraft , departed from the same aerodrome or having reported exactly over the
same significant point , is ;
a) 5 minutes.
b) 10 minutes.
c) 2 minutes.
d) 3 minutes.
Answer ;
a) 5 minutes .
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0282. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent
determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 kt or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft will be ;
a) 2 minutes.
b) 5 minutes.
c) 3 minutes.
d) 10 minutes.
Answer ;
b) 5 minutes.
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0283. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent
determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 kt or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft will be ;
a) 2 minutes.
b) 3 minutes.
c) 10 minutes.
d) 5 minutes.
Answer ;
b) 3 minutes.
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0284. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent
determination of position and speed will be ;
a) 10 minutes.
b) 3 minutes.
c) 5 minutes.
d) 15 minutes.
Answer ;
a) 10 minutes.
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0285. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be ;
a) flashing red.
b) fixed orange.
c) flashing yellow.
d) fixed red.
Answer ;
d) fixed red.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 43 Air Law
0286. Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be ;
a) flashing red or preferably yellow.
b) fixed red or preferably orange.
c) fixed red or preferably blue.
d) flashing blue.
Answer ;
a) flashing red or preferably yellow.
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0287. Lower Limit of Controlled Airspace
The lower limit of a Control area/CTA shall be etablished not less than ;
a) 1000 ft AGL.
b) 3000 ft AGL.
c) 700 ft AGL.
d) 1500 ft AGL.
Answer ;
c) 700 ft AGL.
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0288. Mandatory instruction signs
Information signs other than location signs shall consist of ;
a) black background with red inscriptions.
b) black inscriptions on yellow background.
c) orange background with black inscriptions.
d) yellow inscriptions on black background.
Answer ;
b) black inscriptions on yellow background.
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0289. Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially
disruptive passengers defined below ;
a) Deportees and persons in lawful custody only.
b) Deportees , inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody.
c) Deportees and inadmissible persons only.
d) None of the answers is correct.
Answer ;
b) Deportees , inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody.
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0290. Minimum and maximum age for ATPL holders
According to ICAO Annex 1 , the minimum/maximum age for the holder of an ATPL is ;
a) 16 and 60 years.
b) 17 and 59 years.
c) 21 and 59 years.
d) 18 and 60 years.
Answer ;
c) 21 and 59 years.
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0291. Minimum level IFR
Over high terrain or mountainous areas , where no minimum flight altitude has been established , flights in accordance with
IFR shall be flown at a level which is at least ;
a) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 10 NM of the estimated position of the aircraft.
b) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.
c) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 10 NM of the estimated position of the aircraft.
d) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.
Answer ;
b) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.
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0292. Minimum level IFR
When not flying over high terrain or mountainous areas and where no minimum flight altitude has been established , flights
in accordance with IFR shall be flown at a level which is at least ;
a) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 10 NM of the estimated position of the aircraft.
b) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.
c) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 10 NM of the estimated position of the aircraft.
d) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.
Answer ;
b) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 44 Air Law

0293. Minimum Radar Separation on final approach
The minimum radar separation provided between aircraft established on the same localizer course shall be ; ( plus additional
longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence )
a) 2.5 NM.
b) 2 NM.
c) 5 NM.
d) 3 NM.
Answer ;
a) 2.5 NM
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0294. Non Radar Wake Turbulence separation minima for departing aircraft.
The minimum separation that shall be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft taking off behind a HEAVY aircraft
and both are using the same runway is ;
a) 1 minute.
b) 2 minutes.
c) 3 minutes.
d) 4 minutes.
Answer ;
b) 2 minutes.
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0295. Normal vectors to an ILS final give a 30º intercept. What is the maximum intercept angle according to ICAO Doc 4444 ?
a) 50º.
b) 40º.
c) 45º.
d) 30º.
Answer ;
c) 45º
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0296. OCA
An OCA is referenced to: ;
a) the Aerodrome Reference Point.
b) an Aerodrome Elevation.
c) Mean Sea Level.
d) the relevant Runway Threshold.
Answer ;
c) Mean Sea Level.
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0297. On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to ;
a) other converging aircraft.
b) aircraft taking off or about to take off.
c) all vehicles moving on the apron except the “follow me” vehicle.
d) other vehicles and pedestrians.
Answer ;
b) aircraft taking off or about to take off.
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0298. One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least ;
a) 30° immediately after take-off.
b) 25° immediately after take-off.
c) 45° immediately after take-off.
d) 15° immediately after take-off.
Answer ;
c) 45° immediately after take-off.
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0299. One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is ;
a) to conduct surveillance radar approaches.
b) to apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR flights and VFR flights.
c) to provide instructions in order to reduce separations minima, if accepted by the pilots.
d) to apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
Answer ;
a) to conduct surveillance radar approaches.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 45 Air Law

0300. One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is ;
a) to provide instructions to reduce the separation minima.
b) to apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR and VFR flights.
c) to apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
d) to conduct precision radar approach ( PAR ).
Answer ;
d) to conduct precision radar approach ( PAR ).
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0301. One of the main objectives of ICAO is to ;
a) approve new international airlines.
b) approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies.
c) develop principles and technique for international aviation.
d) approve new international airlines with jet aircraft.
Answer ;
c) develop principles and technique for international aviation.
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0302. Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with ;
a) AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC.
b) NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a number.
c) AIP supplements and shall be clearly identified.
d) AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed by a number.
Answer ;
a) AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC.
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0303. Procedures related to communication failure - IFR in VMC
Which procedure do you follow after having experienced a two way communication failure during a flight in accordance
with IFR in VMC ?
a) Maintain the assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome where VMC conditions prevail.
b) Continue to fly in VMC and return to the aerodrome of departure.
c) Continue to fly in VMC , land at the nearest suitable aerodrome , report the arrival by the most expeditious
means to the appropriate Air Traffic Control unit.
d) Continue the flight at the assigned level and route , carry out level changes as indicated in the filed ATC
flight plan , start the approach to the flight plan destination at the planned ETA.
Answer ;
c) Continue to fly in VMC , land at the nearest suitable aerodrome , report the arrival by the most expeditious
means to the appropriate Air Traffic Control unit.
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0304. Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC.
These adjustments shall never be more than ;
a) 25 knots at any stage.
b) 20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold.
c) 15 knots at any stage.
d) 10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold.
Answer ;
b) 20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold.
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0305. Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end
of the runway. Identification has to be achieved within ;
a) 1 NM.
b) 5 NM.
c) 3 NM.
d) 2 NM.
Answer ;
a) 1 NM.
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0306. Radar Services - Precision Surveillance Radar
At what distance from the end of the runway may a pilot expect that his aircraft can be identified on departure when ATC is
equipped with and using PSR ?
a) 5 NM
b) 1 NM
c) 2 NM
d) 3 NM
Answer ;
b) 1 NM
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 46 Air Law

0307. Radar Services - Radar Separation Minima
When radar capabilities at a given location so permit , the minimum radar separation of 5 NM may be reduced , but shall not
be less than ;
a) 2.0 NM.
b) 1.5 NM.
c) 3.0 NM.
d) 5.0 NM.
Answer ;
c) 3.0 NM.
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0308. Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service ( AFIS ) ;
a) its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground.
b) its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state organisation.
c) it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC organisation but its activity is neither continuous nor
regular.
d) it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services.
Answer ;
d) it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services.
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0309. Registration mark
Some letter combinations shall not be used in registration marks.Which of the following combinations might be confused
with an urgent or distess signal ?
a) III
b) XXX
c) DDD
d) RCC
Answer ;
b) XXX
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0310. Repetitive flight plans ( RPLs ) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and ;
a) on at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days.
b) on at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days.
c) on at least 20 occasions.
d) on at least 20 days consecutively.
Answer ;
a) on at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days.
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0311. Required Navigation Performance ( RNP ) shall be prescribed ;
a) by regional air navigation agreements.
b) by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements.
c) by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements.
d) by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements.
Answer ;
d) by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements.
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0312. Right of way - Avoidance of collisions
When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is a danger of collision , each shall ;
a) alter its heading to the left.
b) alter its heading to the right.
c) turn , climb or descent as appropriate in order to avoid.
d) switch on all available lights in order to warn the other traffic.
Answer ;
b) alter its heading to the right.
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0313. Right of way - Converging
Two aircraft are approaching each other in a controlled airspace class D in VMC at approximately the same level on
converging courses. Aircraft “A” is flying under IFR , Aircraft “B” is flying under VFR. Who has the right of way ?
a) Aircraft “B” regardless of the direction from which “A” is approaching.
b) Aircraft “A” regardless of the direction from which “B” is approaching.
c) Aircraft “A” , providing it has “B” on its right.
d) Aircraft “B” , providing it has “A” on its right.
Answer ;
d) Aircraft “B” , providing it has “A” on its right.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 47 Air Law

0314. Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be ;
a) fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.
b) flashing white.
c) fixed lights showing variable white.
d) fixed lights , white or yellow colour.
Answer ;
a) fixed lights showing variable white or yellow
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0315. Runway end lights shall be ;
a) fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.
b) fixed lights showing variable white.
c) fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.
d) fixed lights showing variable red.
Answer ;
c) fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.
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0316. Runway-lead-in lighting should consist ;
a) of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway.
b) of an arbitrary amount of green lights.
c) always of a straight row of lights towards the runway.
d) of flashing lights only.
Answer ;
a) of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway.
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0317. Runway threshold identification lights , when provided , should be ;
a) flashing white.
b) flashing green.
c) fixed green.
d) fixed white.
Answer ;
a) flashing white.
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0318. Runway threshold lights shall be ;
a) fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.
b) fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.
c) fixed lights green colours.
d) fixed lights showing green or white colours.
Answer ;
b) fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.
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0319. Search and Rescue
The colour of droppable containers and streamers for food and water is ;
a) red.
b) blue.
c) yellow.
d) black.
Answer ;
b) blue.
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0320. Search and Rescue
The colour of droppable containers and streamers for medical supply and first aid equipment is ;
a) black.
b) red.
c) blue.
d) yellow.
Answer ;
b) red.
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0321. Search and Rescue
The unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue service is the ;
a) Flight Information Centre.
b) Alerting Centre.
c) Area Control Centre.
d) Rescue Co-ordination Centre.
Answer ;
d) Rescue Co-ordination Centre.
Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 48 Air Law
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
0322. Search and Rescue - Organisation
The unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue service in each SAR region is the ;
a) Flight Information Centre.
b) Alerting Centre.
c) Rescue Co-ordination Centre.
d) Area Control Centre.
Answer ;
c) Rescue Co-ordination Centre.
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0323. Search and Rescue signals
The ground - air visual code for “REQUIRE ASSISTANCE” is ;
a) V.
b) Y.
c) N.
d) X.
Answer ;
a) V.
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0324. Search and Rescue signals
The ground - air visual code for “REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE” is ;
a) X.
b) V.
c) N.
d) Y.
Answer ;
a) X.
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0325. Search and Rescue signals
The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground to indicate “AFIRMATIVE” is ;
a) X.
b) Y.
c) V.
d) N.
Answer ;
b) Y.
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0326. Search and Rescue signals
The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground to indicate “NEGATIVE” is ;
a) V.
b) N.
c) X.
d) Y.
Answer ;
b) N.
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0327. Search and Rescue signals - Droppable containers
Containers or packages containing survival equipment for dropping should have the general nature of the content indicated
by a colour code. The colour for blankets and protective clothing is ;
a) red.
b) yellow.
c) black.
d) blue.
Answer ;
b) yellow.
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0328. Search and Rescue signals - Droppable containers
Containers or packages containing survival equipment for dropping should have the general nature of the content indicated
by a colour code. The colour of droppable containers and streamers for food and water is ;
a) blue.
b) black.
c) yellow.
d) red.
Answer ;
a) blue.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 49 Air Law
0329. Search and Rescue signals - Droppable containers
Containers or packages containing survival equipment for dropping should have the general nature of the content indicated
by a colour code. The colour of droppable containers and streamers for medical supply is ;
a) black.
b) yellow.
c) red.
d) blue.
Answer ;
c) red.
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0330. Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition ; a special NOTAM series notifying , by means of a specific
format , an important change for the aircraft operations , due to a volcano activity , a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud ;
a) GVATAM
b) VULTAM
c) ASHTAM
d) NAVTAM
Answer ;
c) ASHTAM
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0331. Separation - VMC and own separation
The “Clearance to fly maintaining own separation while in visual meteorological conditions” may be given by the
appropriate ATS authority. This has to be requested by the pilot of a controlled flight and has to be agreed by the pilot of the other
aircraft. The conditions are ;
a) Airspace Class C , VMC , hours of daylight.
b) Airspace Class B , C , D and E , VMC.
c) Airspace Class D and E , VMC , hours of daylight.
d) Airspace Class C , D , VMC.
Answer ;
c) Airspace Class D and E , VMC , hours of daylight.
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0332. Separation in the vicinity of aerodromes - Timed approaches
A “Timed Approach Procedure” may be utilized as necessary in order to expedite the approaches of a number of arriving
aircraft. This will be obtained by requesting aircraft to ;
a) notify the time when passing a specified point.
b) pass a specified point inbound at the previously notified time.
c) keep distance and time equal between aircraft in the approach.
d) maintain a specified airspeed during the approach procedure.
Answer ;
b) pass a specified point inbound at the previously notified time.
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0333. Separation methods and minima - Essential traffic
A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights , when operating in controlled airspace classified as ;
a) B and C.
b) B , C , D and E.
c) B , C and D.
d) B.
Answer ;
d) B.
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0334. Separation methods and minima - Essential traffic information
Essential traffic is ;
a) Controlled Traffic separated from other controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima.
b) Uncontrolled IFR flights separated from uncontrolled VFR flights within advisory airspace.
c) Controlled Traffic not separated from another controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima.
d) Controlled IFR flights separated from uncontrolled flights within advisory airspace.
Answer ;
c) Controlled Traffic not separated from another controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima.
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0335. Separation methods and minima - General
What are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC ?
a) Vertical and horizontal separation.
b) Time separation and track separation.
c) Composite separation.
d) Vertical , horizontal and angular separation.
Answer ;
a) Vertical and horizontal separation.
Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 50 Air Law
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
0336. Separation methods and minima - Vertical separation
Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum ( VSM ) between aircraft flying in the same direction is ;
a) 4000 feet.
b) 3000 feet.
c) 1500 feet.
d) 2000 feet.
Answer ;
a) 4000 feet.
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0337. Separation methods and minima - Vertical separation
Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum ( VSM ) shall be ;
a) 4000 feet.
b) 3000 feet.
c) 1500 feet.
d) 2000 feet.
Answer ;
d) 2000 feet.
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0338. Separation methods and minima - Vertical separation
The Vertical Separation Minimum ( VSM ) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace above FL 290 is ;
a) 4000 feet ( 1200 m ).
b) 2000 feet ( 600 m ).
c) 1000 feet ( 300 m ).
d) 500 feet ( 150 m ).
Answer ;
b) 2000 feet ( 600 m ).
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0339. Separation methods and minima - Vertical separation
The Vertical Separation Minimum ( VSM ) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL 290 is ;
a) 2000 feet ( 600 m ).
b) 2500 feet ( 750 m ).
c) 1000 feet ( 300 m ).
d) 500 feet ( 150 m ).
Answer ;
c) 1000 feet ( 300 m ).
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0340. Signal from a signalman to an aircraft
A signalman requests the pilot engage brakes with the following signal ;
a) Raise arm and hand , with fingers extended , horizontally in front of body , then clench fist.
b) Horizontally moving his hands , fingers extended , palms towards ground.
c) Crossing arms extended above his head.
d) Arms down , palms facing inwards , moving arms from extended position inwards.
Answer ;
a) Raise arm and hand , with fingers extended , horizontally in front of body , then clench fist.
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0341. Special VFR flights may the authorised to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than
1500 metres , even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class ;
a) C , D and E airspace.
b) E airspace.
c) D and E airspace.
d) D airspace.
Answer ;
b) E airspace.
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0342. SSR - Special codes
ATC has assigned you the transponder code 5320. In case of loosing two way radio communication , you have to squawk ;
a) Mode A Code 7700.
b) Mode A Code 5320.
c) Mode A Code 7500.
d) Mode A Code 7600.
Answer ;
d) Mode A Code 7600.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 51 Air Law

0343. SSR - Transponder
Pilots shall not SQUAK IDENT unless they ;
a) operate within controlled airspace.
b) are requested by ATC.
c) operate a transponder with Mode C.
d) operate outside controlled airspace.
Answer ;
b) are requested by ATC.
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0344. SSR - Transponder
When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions , pilots shall ;
a) read back the mode and code to be set.
b) read back the code to be set and SQUAK IDENT.
c) use the word ROGER.
d) use the word WILCO.
Answer ;
a) read back the mode and code to be set.
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0345. SSR - Transponder
When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder , the pilot shall operate the transponder ;
a) at all times during flight , regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used
for ATS purposes.
b) only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
c) only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
d) only when directed by ATC.
Answer ;
a) at all times during flight , regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used
for ATS purposes.
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0346. SSR - Transponder
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference , the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the
transponder to Mode A , Code ;
a) 7700.
b) 7600.
c) 7000.
d) 7500.
Answer ;
d) 7500.
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0347. SSR - Transponder
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder , the pilot shall continuously operate this mode ;
a) regardless of ATC instructions.
b) unless otherwise directed by ATC.
c) only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
d) only when directed by ATC.
Answer ;
b) unless otherwise directed by ATC.
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0348. Standard Instrument Departure Procedures - Straight Departures
A straight departure is one in which the initial departure track does not deviate from the alignment of the extended runway
centre line by more than ;
a) 30°.
b) 15°.
c) 45°.
d) 12.5°.
Answer ;
b) 15°.
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0349. Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority , a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to
adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than ;
a) +/- 15 kt.
b) +/- 20 kt.
c) +/- 10 kt.
d) +/- 8 kt.
Answer ;
b) +/- 20 kt.
Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 52 Air Law
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
0350. Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be ;
a) fixed lights showing green.
b) fixed lights showing white.
c) fixed lights showing blue.
d) fixed lights showing yellow.
Answer ;
a) fixed lights showing green.
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0351. Taxiway edge lights shall be ;
a) flashing showing blue.
b) fixed showing yellow.
c) fixed showing green.
d) fixed showing blue.
Answer ;
d) fixed showing blue.
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0352. Temporary changes of “long duration” and information of “short duration” with extensive text and/or graphics are published
as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration ;
a) six months or longer.
b) three months or longer.
c) one year or longer.
d) two months or longer.
Answer ;
b) three months or longer.
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0353. The abbreviation PAPI stands for ;
a) Precision Approach Power Index.
b) Precision Approach Path Indicator.
c) Precision Approach Power Indicator.
d) Precision Approach Path Index.
Answer ;
b) Precision Approach Path Indicator.
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0354. The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on ;
a) the over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width.
b) the over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight.
c) the over-all length of the longest aeroplane.
d) the longest aeroplane maximum width only
Answer ;
a) the over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width.
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0355. The “Aerodrome Reference Code” is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance
characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed ;
a) 4F.
b) 5E.
c) 2B.
d) 6D.
Answer ;
c) 2B.
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0356. The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than ;
a) 17 years of age.
b) 16 years of age.
c) 18 years of age.
d) 21 years of age.
Answer ;
c) 18 years of age.
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0357. The air traffic control unit has reported “radar contact” , what does that mean to the pilot ?
a) The radar identity of the aircraft has been established.
b) The aircraft is subject to positive control.
c) The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft.
d) Position reports may be omitted.
Answer ;
a) The radar identity of the aircraft has been established.
Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 53 Air Law
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
0358. The aircraft commander , when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit , on
board the aircraft , an offence against penal law ;
a) may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person.
b) may request such person to disembark.
c) may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members.
d) may deliver such person to the competent authorities.
Answer ;
d) may deliver such person to the competent authorities.
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0359. The Alerting Service is provided by ;
a) the Area Control Centres.
b) the ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment , when it is provided with 121.5 MHz.
c) the ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.
d) only by ATC units.
Answer ;
c) the ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.
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0360. The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ......... hours of cross-
country flight time , of which not less than ......... hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing , under the supervision of
the pilot in command , the duties and functions of a pilot in command , provided that the method of supervision employed is
acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively ;
a) 200 hours and 75 hours
b) 250 hours and 10 hours
c) 200 hours and 100 hours
d) 150 hours and 75 hours
Answer ;
c) 200 hours and 100 hours
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0361. The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in ....................aeroplanes shall prove , according to
Annex I , PERSONNEL LICENSING , his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by instrumental rules and an engine
.............................
a) multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative.
b) amphibious / inactive or simulated inactive.
c) land / inactive.
d) single-engine / inactive.
Answer ;
a) multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative.
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0362. The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is , or is expected to
be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in
progress or volcano dangerous , eruption likely , with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250 ,
the level of alert colour code is ;
a) YELLOW.
b) GREEN.
c) RED.
d) ORANGE.
Answer ;
c) RED.
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0363. The ATIS broadcast message should , whenever practicable , not exceed ;
a) 3 minutes.
b) 30 seconds.
c) 2 minutes.
d) 1 minute.
Answer ;
b) 30 seconds.
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0364. The closure of a runway for a year , because of maintenance , will be published ;
a) only in AIP.
b) in NOTAM and AIP , inclusive Supplement.
c) NOTAM , AIP and MAL.
d) only in NOTAM.
Answer ;
b) in NOTAM and AIP , inclusive Supplement.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 54 Air Law
0365. The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the
form of coloured streamers according to the following code ;
a) Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
b) Red for food and water.
c) Black for food and water.
d) Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.
Answer ;
d) Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.
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0366. The Convention defining the duties of the parties relating to the carriage of passengers , baggage and cargo and the liability
of the carriers and extent of compensation for damage is the ;
a) Convention for the unification of certain rules for international carriage by air , Montreal 1999.
b) Convention on Jurisdiction and the Enforcement of Judgements in Civil and Commercial Air Transport ,
Brussels 1968.
c) Convention on Offences and Certain Other Acts Commited on Board Aircraft , Tokyo 1963.
d) United Nations Conference on the Law and Treaties , Vienna 1969.
Answer ;
a) Convention for the unification of certain rules for international carriage by air , Montreal 1999.
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0367. The Convention of Rome 1933/1952 for the Unification of certain Rules Relating to Damage caused by Aircraft was
established in order to define the liability in case of damage ;
a) to third parties on the surface.
b) to other aircraft in case of midair collision.
c) to other aircraft while operating on ground.
d) caused by Dangerous Goods that have been carried by an aircraft.
Answer ;
a) to third parties on the surface.
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0368. The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft , is ;
a) the convention of Chicago.
b) the convention of Rome.
c) the convention of Tokyo.
d) the convention of Paris.
Answer ;
c) the convention of Tokyo.
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0369. The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage
caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is ;
a) the Paris Convention.
b) the Rome Convention.
c) the Warsaw Convention.
d) the Tokyo Convention.
Answer ;
b) the Rome Convention.
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0370. The convention which deals with offences against penal law , is ;
a) the convention of Tokyo.
b) the convention of Warsaw.
c) the convention of Madrid.
d) the convention of Rome.
Answer ;
a) the convention of Tokyo.
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0371. The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be , ( except that
appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion ) ;
a) +/- 200 ft.
b) +/- 150 ft.
c) +/- 250 ft.
d) +/- 300 ft.
Answer ;
d) +/- 300 ft.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 55 Air Law

0372. The documents for entry and departure of aircraft ;
a) are accepted in hand-written block lettering in ink.
b) has to be typewritten.
c) are accepted at the contracting state discretion.
d) has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data processing techniques.
Answer ;
a) are accepted in hand-written block lettering in ink.
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0373. The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date ;
a) the licence is issued or renewed.
b) the medical assessment is issued.
c) the licence is delivered to the pilot.
d) the licence is issued or validated.
Answer ;
b) the medical assessment is issued.
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0374. The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible , in case the expected delay is ;
a) 15 minutes or more.
b) 10 minutes.
c) 20 minutes.
d) 5 minutes or more.
Answer ;
b) 10 minutes.
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0375. The “estimated total time” in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time ;
a) required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight
( block time ).
b) required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.
c) required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing.
d) of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day.
Answer ;
b) required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.
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0376. The first freedom of the air is ;
a) the opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states.
b) the right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state.
c) the right to overfly another State without landing.
d) the right to land for a technical stop.
Answer ;
c) the right to overfly another State without landing.
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0377. The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer with additional
longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence ;
a) 3 NM.
b) 5 NM.
c) 2 NM.
d) 2.5 NM.
Answer ;
a) 3 NM.
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0378. The height of the marks on the fuselage ( or equivalent structure ) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft
shall be ;
a) at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres.
b) at least 20 centimetres.
c) at least 40 centimetres.
d) at least 30 centimetres.
Answer ;
d) at least 30 centimetres.
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0379. The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be ;
a) at least 75 centimetres.
b) at least 50 centimetres.
c) at least 60 centimetres.
d) at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres.
Answer ;
b) at least 50 centimetres.
Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 56 Air Law
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
0380. The holder of a pilot licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to
undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days
is ;
a) 21.
b) 30.
c) 60.
d) 90.
Answer ;
a) 21.
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0381. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot , shall be entitled to
be credit with not more than ;
a) 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.
b) 60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards , the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence.
c) 40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards , the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence.
d) 100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence.
Answer ;
a) 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.
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0382. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions
and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit ;
a) in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot
licence.
b) 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence.
c) the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance with the
requirements of the licensing authority.
d) in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence.
Answer ;
d) in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence.
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0383. The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers ;
a) and baggage.
b) checked baggage , cargo and other goods , access control and airport design.
c) cabin baggage , checked baggage , cargo and other goods , access control and airport design.
d) checked baggage , cargo and other goods.
Answer ;
c) cabin baggage , checked baggage , cargo and other goods , access control and airport design.
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0384. The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is ;
a) Annex 8.
b) Annex 16.
c) Annex 9.
d) Annex 15.
Answer ;
c) Annex 9.
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0385. The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is ;
a) Annex 6.
b) Annex 15.
c) Annex 9.
d) Annex 8.
Answer ;
c) Annex 9.
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0386. The identification of each prohibited , restricted and danger area shall be composed by ;
a) the nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory , followed the letters P , R and
D and figures.
b) the letters P ( Prohibited ) , R ( Restricted ) and D ( Dangerous ) for the area concerned and figures.
c) the letters P ( Prohibited ) , R ( Restricted ) and D ( Dangerous ) followed by figures.
d) the nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state , followed by P , R and D.
Answer ;
a) the nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory , followed the letters P , R and
D and figures.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 57 Air Law

0387. The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel
Licensing is ;
a) Annex 1.
b) Annex 12.
c) Annex 11.
d) Annex 2.
Answer ;
a) Annex 1.
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0388. The International Civil Aviation Organisation ( ICAO ) establishes ;
a) aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
b) proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
c) standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states , signatory to the Chicago
Convention.
d) standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.
Answer ;
d) standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.
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0389. The International Civil Aviation Organisation ( ICAO ) was established by the international convention of ;
a) Chicago.
b) Montreal.
c) Warsaw.
d) the Hague.
Answer ;
a) Chicago.
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0390. The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of
passengers , baggage and freight is the ;
a) Warsaw Convention.
b) Tokyo Convention.
c) Hague Convention.
d) Montreal Convention.
Answer ;
a) Warsaw Convention.
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0391. The letter “L” is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an
aircraft is less than or equal to ;
a) 14.000 kg.
b) 20.000 kg.
c) 7.000 kg.
d) 5.700 kg for aeroplanes and 2.700 kg for helicopters.
Answer ;
c) 7.000 kg.
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0392. The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has
approved , is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of ;
a) 100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument flight trainer.
b) 100 hours , of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic
instrument flight trainer.
c) 100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic
instrument flight trainer.
d) 75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic
instrument flight trainer.
Answer ;
b) 100 hours , of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic
instrument flight trainer.
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0393. The light shown by an “Aerodrome Identification Beacon” at a land aerodrome shall be ;
a) white and green colour identification given by Morse Code.
b) green colour identification given by Morse Code.
c) blue colour identification given by Morse Code.
d) white colour identification given by Morse Code.
Answer ;
b) green colour identification given by Morse Code.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 58 Air Law

0394. The loading limitations shall include ;
a) all limiting mass , mass distributions and centres of gravity.
b) all limiting mass and centres of gravity.
c) all limiting mass , centres of gravity position , mass distributions and floor loading.
d) all limiting mass , centres of gravity position and floor loading.
Answer ;
c) all limiting mass , centres of gravity position , mass distributions and floor loading.
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0395. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME , and each aircraft “on track” uses DME stations , is ;
a) 20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft.
b) 5 NM.
c) 20 NM.
d) 10 NM.
Answer ;
c) 20 NM.
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0396. The longitudinal separation minima based on DME , and each aircraft “on track” uses DME stations , is ;
a) 20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft.
b) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft.
c) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft.
d) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft.
Answer ;
b) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft.
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0397. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit
frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft , is ;
a) 5 minutes.
b) 10 minutes.
c) 3 minutes.
d) 15 minutes.
Answer ;
a) 5 minutes.
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0398. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit
frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft , is ;
a) 5 minutes.
b) 6 minutes.
c) 10 minutes.
d) 3 minutes.
Answer ;
d) 3 minutes.
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0399. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit
frequent determination of position and speed , is ;
a) 3 minutes.
b) 15 minutes.
c) 10 minutes.
d) 5 minutes.
Answer ;
c) 10 minutes.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 59 Air Law

0400. The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track , and
the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft , is ;
a) 2 minutes.
b) 5 minutes.
c) 3 minutes.
d) 10 minutes.
Answer ;
b) 5 minutes.
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0401. The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track , and
the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft , is ;
a) 3 minutes.
b) 5 minutes.
c) 10 minutes.
d) 8 minutes.
Answer ;
a) 3 minutes.
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0402. The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is ;
a) 17 years.
b) 16 years.
c) 21 years.
d) 18 years.
Answer ;
a) 17 years.
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0403. The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be ;
a) 5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
b) 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
c) 2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
d) 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.
Answer ;
b) 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
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0404. The movement area of an airfield , the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is called ;
a) Terminal.
b) Manoeuvring area.
c) Aeronautical part.
d) Security program.
Answer ;
c) Aeronautical part.
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0405. The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by ;
a) ECAC.
b) each contracting state.
c) ICAO.
d) ICAO and other organisations including the contracting state concerned.
Answer ;
b) each contracting state.
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0406. The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the ;
a) Geneva convention 1936.
b) Warsaw convention 1929.
c) Chicago convention 1944.
d) Geneva convention 1948.
Answer ;
c) Chicago convention 1944.
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0407. The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the
moment such person has been definitely admitted in other Contracting State of destination.
a) The obligation is for the Contracting State of the operator.
b) The obligation of the operator terminates as soon as the person leaves the aeroplane.
c) The stated above is correct.
d) The operator has no obligation.
Answer ;
c) The stated above is correct.
Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 60 Air Law
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
0408. The “PAPI” shall consist of ;
a) two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
b) a wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
c) two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
d) a wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.
Answer ;
b) a wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
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0409. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are: ;
a) uncertainty phase , urgency phase , distress phase.
b) uncertainty phase , alert phase , distress phase.
c) uncertainty phase , distress phase , urgency phase.
d) uncertainty phase , alert phase , distress phase and urgency phase.
Answer ;
b) uncertainty phase , alert phase , distress phase.
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0410. The pilot in command of an aircraft ;
1. must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC.
2. is responsible only if he is the “pilot flying”.
3. may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.
4. may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction.
5. may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance.
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements ?
a) 3 , 4 , 5.
b) 3 , 5.
c) 2 , 3 , 5.
d) 1 , 4.
Answer ;
b) 3 , 5.
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0411. The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a
flight plan form. This speed is the ;
a) true air speed ( TAS ).
b) indicated air speed ( IAS ).
c) estimated ground speed ( G/S ).
d) true air speed at 65% power.
Answer ;
a) true air speed ( TAS ).
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0412. The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical examination facilities
may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority , provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall
not exceed ;
a) a single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial
operations.
b) a single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial
operations.
c) two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-
commercial operations.
d) two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-
commercial operations.
Answer ;
b) a single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial
operations.
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0413. The primary duty provided by a radar unit is ;
a) to assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment.
b) to assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory.
c) to assist aircraft on the location storms.
d) to provide radar separation.
Answer ;
d) to provide radar separation.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 61 Air Law

0414. The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be ;
a) none of the answers are correct.
b) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation.
c) to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation.
d) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other than in commercial air
transportation.
Answer ;
c) to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation.
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0415. The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous proficiency check was the 30th of
June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and can’t exceed ;
a) 15th of October the same year.
b) 30th of October the same year.
c) 30th of April the following year.
d) 31th of December the same year.
Answer ;
d) 31th of December the same year.
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0416. The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed ;
a) 3 NM from the threshold on final approach.
b) 5 NM from the threshold on final approach.
c) 2 NM from the threshold on final approach.
d) 4 NM from the threshold on final approach.
Answer ;
d) 4 NM from the threshold on final approach.
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0417. The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below ;
a) 1.5 NM.
b) 2.0 NM.
c) 3.0 NM.
d) 5.0 NM.
Answer ;
c) 3.0 NM.
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0418. The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with ;
a) regulation of transportation of dangerous goods.
b) offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft.
c) damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface.
d) damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface.
Answer ;
d) damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface.
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0419. The runway edge lights shall be ;
a) blue.
b) white.
c) green.
d) red.
Answer ;
b) white.
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0420. The second freedom of the air is the ;
a) right to “cabotage” traffic , ( trans-border traffic ).
b) right to overfly without landing.
c) right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states.
d) right to land for a technical stop.
Answer ;
d) right to land for a technical stop.
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0421. The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard
criteria is called ;
a) Composite separation.
b) Reduced separation.
c) Combined separation.
d) Essential separation.
Answer ;
a) Composite separation.
Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 62 Air Law
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
0422. The SIGMET service is in the AIP , in the following part ;
a) AGA
b) GEN
c) ENR
d) MET
Answer ;
b) GEN
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0423. The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B , when flying below 3050 m
( 10000 ft ) AMSL , is ;
a) 260 KT IAS.
b) 250 KT TAS.
c) not applicable.
d) 250 KT IAS.
Answer ;
c) not applicable.
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0424. The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C , when flying below 3050 m ( 10000 ft ) AMSL , is ;
a) 240 KT IAS.
b) not applicable.
c) 250 KT IAS.
d) 250 KT TAS.
Answer ;
b) not applicable.
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0425. The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E , when flying below 3050 m ( 10000 ft ) AMSL , is ;
a) 250 KT TAS.
b) 260 KT IAS.
c) 250 KT IAS.
d) not applicable.
Answer ;
c) 250 KT IAS.
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0426. The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C , when flying below 3050 m ( 10000 ft ) AMSL , is ;
a) 250 KT TAS.
b) 240 KT IAS.
c) not applicable.
d) 250 KT IAS.
Answer ;
d) 250 KT IAS.
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0427. The “Standards” contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered ;
a) binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference.
b) binding for all member states.
c) advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states.
d) binding for all air line companies with international traffic.
Answer ;
a) binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference.
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0428. The state of design shall ensure that , there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the
aeroplane , which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control , in respect of aeroplanes ;
a) over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass.
b) up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass.
c) over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass.
d) up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass.
Answer ;
a) over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 63 Air Law

0429. The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area
where ;
a) a landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.
b) a landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.
c) an aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.
d) an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
Answer ;
d) an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
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0430. The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as determined
by the appropriate ATS authority , the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM
from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at each ;
a) half NM.
b) half mile.
c) 1.5 NM.
d) 1 NM.
Answer ;
a) half NM.
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0431. The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation , based on
common effective dates , is identified by the acronym ;
a) IFPS.
b) EATCHIP.
c) NOTAM.
d) AIRAC.
Answer ;
d) AIRAC.
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0432. The temporary , long-term modification ( 3 months or more ) and the short-term extensive or graphical information are
published as follows ;
a) Trigger NOTAM
b) NOTAM
c) AIP Amendments
d) AIP Supplements
Answer ;
d) AIP Supplements
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0433. The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be ;
a) +/- 500 ft.
b) +/- 200 ft.
c) +/- 250 ft.
d) +/- 300 ft.
Answer ;
d) +/- 300 ft.
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0434. The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done ;
a) by agreement with the receiving unit.
b) through a central control unit.
c) automatically at the control zone boundary.
d) with the pilot’s consent.
Answer ;
a) by agreement with the receiving unit.
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0435. The units providing Air Traffic Services are ;
a) Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.
b) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower.
c) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and
Air Traffic Services reporting office.
d) Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower.
Answer ;
c) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and
Air Traffic Services reporting office.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 64 Air Law

0436. The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is ;
a) 6 months.
b) 5 years.
c) 1 year.
d) 2 years.
Answer ;
c) 1 year.
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0437. The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B , is ;
a) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m ( 10.000 ft ) AMSL and clear of clouds.
b) 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m ( 10.000 ft ) AMSL , 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud.
c) 5 NM visibility below 3050 m ( 10.000 ft ) AMSL , clear of clouds.
d) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m ( 10.000 ft ) AMSL , and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical
from clouds.
Answer ;
d) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m ( 10.000 ft ) AMSL , and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical
from clouds.
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0438. The VMC minima for an airspace classified as “B” above 10.000 feet MSL are ;
a) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from clouds , 8 km visibility.
b) 1500 metres horizontally , 1000 feet vertically from clouds , 8 km visibility.
c) 1 mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from clouds , 5 km visibility.
d) clear of clouds , 8 km visibility.
Answer ;
b) 1500 metres horizontally , 1000 feet vertically from clouds , 8 km visibility.
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ ----------------------------------------------------------------------------
0439. The VMC minima for an airspace classified as “G” above 10.000 feet MSL are ;
a) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from clouds , 5 km visibility.
b) 1500 m horizontally , 1000 feet vertically from clouds , 8 km visibility.
c) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from clouds , 8 km visibility.
d) 1500 m horizontally and 1000 feet verticaly from clouds , 5 km visibility.
Answer ;
b) 1500 m horizontally , 1000 feet vertically from clouds , 8 km visibility.
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0440. The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with ;
a) the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods.
b) limitation of the operator’s liability for damage caused to passengers and goods transported.
c) operator’s licence for international scheduled aviation.
d) the security system at airports.
Answer ;
b) limitation of the operator’s liability for damage caused to passengers and goods transported.
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0441. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that ;
a) this aerodrome is using parallel runways.
b) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways.
c) glider flying is performed outside the landing area.
d) landing , take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only.
Answer ;
b) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways.
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0442. To be able to execute a public transport flight , the minimum and maximum age ( with ATPL ) is ;
a) 18 and 60 years.
b) 17 and 59 years.
c) 21 and 59 years.
d) 16 and 60 years.
Answer ;
c) 21 and 59 years.
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0443. To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E ;
a) a clearance and/or two-way radio communication is required.
b) a clearance and two-way radio communication is required.
c) a clearance is required.
d) two way radio communication is not required.
Answer ;
d) two way radio communication is not required.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 65 Air Law
0444. “TODA” take-off distance available is ;
a) the length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available ( if provided ).
b) the length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available ( if provided ).
c) the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way.
d) the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way and clearway ( if provided ).
Answer ;
a) the length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available ( if provided ).
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0445. Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track , when ;
a) the preceding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
b) the preceding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
c) the preceding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
d) the preceding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
Answer ;
d) the preceding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
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0446. Type ratings shall be established ;
a) all the answers are correct.
b) only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots.
c) for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority.
d) only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of
helicopter.
Answer ;
c) for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority.
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0447. Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to ;
a) accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally applicable
to other cargo.
b) cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms.
c) cargo and is covered by a traffic document.
d) cargo but clearance documents provided by airlines shall be completed by the passenger prior to shipment.
Answer ;
a) accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally applicable
to other cargo.
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0448. Unlawful interference ( Hijacking ) in non RVSM airspace
If an aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference ( hijacked ) in non RVSM airspace and the pilot is forced to divert
from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS , he shall try to ;
a) proceed at a level which differs from the cruising level normally used for IFR flights an that area by 1000 ft if
the aircraft is operated above FL290 or 500 ft if the aircraft is operated below FL290.
b) slow the speed of the aircraft down to minimum , squawk A7700 and declare emergency on 121.5 MHz.
c) commence as soon as possible an emergency descent in order to minimise the difference between cabin
pressure and outside pressure.
d) fly the emergecy triangle and try to establish radiotelephony contact with the interference coordinator of the
appropriate ATS unit on 121.5 MHz.
Answer ;
a) proceed at a level which differs from the cruising level normally used for IFR flights an that area by 1000 ft if
the aircraft is operated above FL290 or 500 ft if the aircraft is operated below FL290.
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0449. Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority , the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be ;
a) 5.0 NM.
b) 3.5 NM.
c) 3.0 NM.
d) 10.0 NM.
Answer ;
a) 5.0 NM.
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0450. Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority , the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller
when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately ;
a) 8 NM.
b) 6 NM.
c) 10 NM.
d) 5 NM.
Answer ;
a) 8 NM.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 66 Air Law
0451. Unless otherwise prescribed , what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled
airspace ?
a) 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course.
b) 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft.
c) 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course.
d) 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course.
Answer ;
b) 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft.
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0452. Urgency signals
The crew of an aircraft uses the following signal in order to give notice of difficulties , which compel it to land without
requiring immediate assistance ;
a) Switching on and off three times he navigation lights.
b) Switching on and off of the landing lights in a sequence consisting of the letter group SOS.
c) Switching on and off three times the landing lights.
d) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights.
Answer ;
d) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights.
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0453. Use of Radar in the Approach Service - Vectoring to final approach track
When an aircraft is vectored by radar to the localizer course , the angle between the interception course and the localizer
course is normally 30 degrees. In accordance with Doc 4444 this angle shall not be greater than ;
a) 40º.
b) 35º.
c) 50º.
d) 45º.
Answer ;
d) 45º.
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0454. Visual aids for denoting obstacles
Low intensity obstacle lights on vehicles other than those associated with emergency or security shall be ;
a) flashing yellow.
b) fixed red.
c) flashing blue.
d) fixed blue.
Answer ;
a) flashing yellow.
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0455. Visual aids for navigation
Runway-lead-in lighting shall consist ;
a) always of a straight row of lights towards the runway.
b) of an arbitrary amount of green lights.
c) of groups of at least three white lights , flashing in sequence towards the runway.
d) of a group of at least 5 flashing yellow lights.
Answer ;
c) of groups of at least three white lights , flashing in sequence towards the runway.
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0456. Visual aids for navigation - Approach lights
The centre line and crossbar lights of a precision approach Category I lighting system shall be fixed lights , showing variable
intensity of the following colour ;
a) blue.
b) green.
c) white.
d) yellow.
Answer ;
c) white.
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0457. Visual aids for navigation - Lights
Runway threshold identification lights are ;
a) flashing white lights.
b) flashing green lights.
c) fixed white lights.
d) steady yellow lights.
Answer ;
a) flashing white lights.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 67 Air Law
0458. Visual aids for navigation - Lights
The colour of the fixed , unidirectional Runway End Lights shall be ;
a) green.
b) white.
c) red.
d) yellow.
Answer ;
c) red.
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0459. Visual aids for navigation - Lights
Which is the principal composition of a precision approach Catgory I lighting system ?
a) A row of lights on the extended centre line of the runway , extending over a distance of 420 m from the
runway threshold and a crossbar at a distance of 250 m from the runway threshold.
b) A row of lights on the extended centre line of the runway , extending over a distance of 600 m from the
runway threshold and a crossbar at a distance of 450 m from the runway threshold.
c) A row of lights on the extended centre line of the runway , extending over a distance of 900 m from the
runway threshold and a crossbar at a distance of 300 m from the runway threshold.
d) A PAPI or T-VASIS system.
Answer ;
c) A row of lights on the extended centre line of the runway , extending over a distance of 900 m from the
runway threshold and a crossbar at a distance of 300 m from the runway threshold.
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0460. Visual aids for navigation - Lights - PAPI
How does a pilot see the PAPI wing bar lights , when the position of the aircraft is far above the approach slope ?
a) All the four units are steady white.
b) The unit nearest to and the unit farthest from the runway are steady white , the two in the centre are flashing
white.
c) All the four units are flashing white.
d) The unit nearest to and the unit farthest from the runway are white , the two others are red.
Answer ;
a) All the four units are steady white.
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0461. Visual aids for navigation - Markings
On an aerodrome equipped with parallel runways, the designation number of each runway shall be supplemented as follows ;
a) In case of two parallel runways by the letter “L” and “R” in the sequence from left to right.
b) In case of three parallel runways by adding “L” to the designation of the runway farthest to the left , adding
one “R” to the central runway and adding two “R” to the designation of the runway farthest to the right.
c) In case of three parallel runways by the letter “L” and “R” for the outer runways and no letter supplement for
the central runway.
d) In case of two parallel runways by adding “10” to the left runway designation and by subtracting “10” from
the right runway designation.
Answer ;
a) In case of two parallel runways by the letter “L” and “R” in the sequence from left to right.
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0462. Visual aids for navigation - Runway threshold Lights
The colour of the fixed , unidirectional runway threshold and wing bar lights shall be ;
a) yellow.
b) flashing white.
c) white.
d) green.
Answer ;
d) green.
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0463. Visual ground signals
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates that ;
a) this area is unfit for the movement of aircraft.
b) special precautions is needed while approaching for landing on the runway in use.
c) the aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
d) special precautions must be observed due to the state of the taxiways.
Answer ;
c) the aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 68 Air Law

0464. Visual ground signals
A horizontal white dumb-bell with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft across each circular portion placed in the
signal area indicates that ;
a) aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways only , but other manoeuvres need to be confined to
runways or taxiways.
b) the aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed on a parallel runway.
c) a parallel runway system is used at this aerodrome.
d) aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways and all other manoeuvres need to be confined to
runways or taxiways.
Answer ;
a) aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways only , but other manoeuvres need to be confined to
runways or taxiways.
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0465. Visual ground signals
A right-hand arrow of conspicuous colour indicates ;
a) the position of the Aerodrome Reference Point / ARP.
b) that turns are to be made to the right before landing and after take-off.
c) that turns in the aerodrome circuit have to be made to the left , but gliders have to make the turns to the right.
d) that 180 degree turns on the runway for backtrack have to be made to the right.
Answer ;
b) that turns are to be made to the right before landing and after take-off.
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0466. Visual Flight Rules
Above an altitude of 10.000 ft , flights operating within airspace Class “G” in accordance with VFR shall observe the
following weather minima ;
a) a distance from cloud : 1 Nautical Mile ( NM ) horizontally , 1000 ft vertically , flight visibility : 8 km.
b) a distance from cloud : 1 Nautical Mile ( NM ) horizontally , 1000 ft vertically , flight visibility : 5 km.
c) a distance from cloud : 1500 m horizontally , 1000 ft vertically , flight visibility : 5 km.
d) a distance from cloud : 1500 m horizontally , 1000 ft vertically , flight visibility : 8 km.
Answer ;
d) a distance from cloud : 1500 m horizontally , 1000 ft vertically , flight visibility : 8 km.
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0467. Visual Flight Rules
An aircraft operating in accordance with VFR , above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL , outside
controlled airspace shall maintain at least ;
a) a distance from cloud of 600 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km.
b) a distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 8 km.
c) a distance from cloud of 1000 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km.
d) a distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km.
Answer ;
d) a distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km.
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0468. Visual Flight Rules
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit , VFR flights shall not take-off or land at an aerodrome within a CTR
or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when the ;
a) ceiling is less than 1000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 8 km.
b) ceiling is less than 1500 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
c) ceiling is less than 1000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
d) ceiling is less than 2000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
Answer ;
b) ceiling is less than 1500 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
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0469. Visual signals
In flight the pilot of an aircraft observes a series of projectiles discharged from the ground at intervals of 10 seconds , each
showing , on bursting , red and green lights or stars. The meaning of this signal is ;
a) the aerodrome nearby you have chosen for landing is unsafe , do not attemt to land.Proceed to your alternate.
b) give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
c) not with standing any previous instructions , stay in the circuit , do not land for the time being.
d) the unauthorised aircraft is flying in or about to enter a restricted , prohibited or danger area and the aircraft is
to take such remedial action as may be necessary.
Answer ;
d) the unauthorised aircraft is flying in or about to enter a restricted , prohibited or danger area and the aircraft is
to take such remedial action as may be necessary.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 69 Air Law

0470. VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace , above 3050 m ( 10000 ft ) AMSL , are ;
a) 5 km visibility , 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds.
b) 8 km visibility , 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds.
c) 8 km visibility , and clear of clouds.
d) No minima , VFR flights are not permitted.
Answer ;
c) 8 km visibility , 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds.
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0471. Wake turbulence - Seperation between departing aircraft
The minimum separation to be applied between a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft taking off behind a HEAVY aircraft or a
LIGHT aircraft taking off behind a MEDIUM aircraft using the same runway is ;
a) 3 minutes.
b) 2 minutes.
c) 1 minute.
d) 5 minutes.
Answer ;
b) 2 minutes.
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0472. What is a “barrette” ?
a) a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed.
b) three or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights.
c) a CAT II or III holding position.
d) a high obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.
Answer ;
b) three or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights.
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0473. What is meant when departure control instruct you to “resume own navigation” after you have been vectored to an airway ?
a) You are still in radar contact , but must make position reports.
b) Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.
c) You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
d) Radar Service is terminated.
Answer ;
c) You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
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0474. What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II ?
a) 300 m
b) 150 m
c) 600 m
d) 900 m
Answer ;
d) 900 m
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0475. What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on
intermediate and final approach ?
a) ± 10 KT
b) ± 15 KT
c) ± 20 KT
d) ± 25 KT
Answer ;
c) ± 20 KT
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0476. What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290 ?
a) 1500 feet
b) 500 feet
c) 1000 feet
d) 2000 feet
Answer ;
c) 1000 feet
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 70 Air Law

0477. What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a Light aircraft is taking off behind a Medium aircraft and
both are using the same runway ?
a) 5 minutes
b) 1 minute
c) 2 minutes
d) 3 minutes
Answer ;
c) 2 minutes
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0478. What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a “Heavy” aircraft preceding a “Light” aircraft ?
a) 2 km
b) 10 km
c) 3 NM
d) 6 NM
Answer ;
d) 6 NM
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0479. What is the speed limit ( IAS ) in airspace class E ?
a) 250 kt for IFR and VFR up to FL 100.
b) 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195.
c) 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100.
d) 250 kt VFR and IFR , all levels.
Answer ;
a) 250 kt for IFR and VFR up to FL 100.
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0480. When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorisation ;
a) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private flights.
b) shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence.
c) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.
d) the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own discretion.
Answer ;
c) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.
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0481. When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan , ATC has to be informed in case ;
a) it is a deviation from the track.
b) the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan.
c) the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.
d) of an emergency.
Answer ;
b) the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan.
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0482. When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at ;
a) 450 m from threshold.
b) 150 m from threshold.
c) 600 m from threshold.
d) 300 m from threshold.
Answer ;
d) 300 m from threshold.
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0483. When a member state allows police officers , security staff , bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in
their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight , permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon ;
a) notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft only.
b) agreement between the state of embarcation and the state of destination.
c) agreement between the state of embarcation and the airport of arrival.
d) prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign state in which the weapons will be carried on the
airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on
board his aircraft.
Answer ;
d) Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign state in which the weapons will be carried on the
airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on
board his aircraft.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 71 Air Law

0484. When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state , the
operator ;
a) shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his(her)
inadmissibility.
b) is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state.
c) and the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible.
d) shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his(her) inadmissibility.
Answer ;
a) shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his(her)
inadmissibility.
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0485. When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft ; “fly heading 030” , the pilot must fly heading ;
a) 030° true , in still air conditions ( thereby flying the true track ).
b) 030° true.
c) 030° magnetic.
d) 030° magnetic in still air conditions ( thereby flying the magnetic track ).
Answer ;
c) 030° magnetic.
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0486. When an aircraft has sustained damage , the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight , if ;
a) the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy.
b) the state of registry , the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still
airworthy.
c) the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy.
d) the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the
aircraft is still airworthy.
Answer ;
c) the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy.
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0487. When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties , triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of ;
a) air traffic control and flight information centres.
b) search and rescue co-ordination centres.
c) control centres only.
d) air traffic co-ordination centres.
Answer ;
a) air traffic control and flight information centres.
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0488. When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State
of registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to the ;
a) two aforementioned States , each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries , each State whose
citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO.
b) two aforementioned States , each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries , each State whose
citizens were detained as hostages , each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the
ICAO.
c) two aforementioned States , each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries on board the aircraft and
the ICAO.
d) two aforementioned States and the ICAO.
Answer ;
b) two aforementioned States , each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries , each State whose
citizens were detained as hostages , each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the
ICAO.
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0489. When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track , the following minimum longitudinal
separation shall be provided ;
a) 5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
b) 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
c) 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
d) 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
Answer ;
c) 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 72 Air Law

0490. When are ATIS broadcasts updated ?
a) Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value.
b) Upon receipt of any official weather , regardless of content change or reported values.
c) Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR , otherwise hourly.
d) Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or
instrument approach in use.
Answer ;
b) Upon receipt of any official weather , regardless of content change or reported values.
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0491. When conducting a surveillance radar approach , the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach , except
as determined by the appropriate ATS authority , at a distance of ;
a) 1 NM from touchdown.
b) 3 NM from touchdown.
c) 2.5 NM from touchdown.
d) 2 NM from touchdown.
Answer ;
d) 2 NM from touchdown.
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0492. When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final
approach track , the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach
track at an angle not greater than ;
a) 30 degrees.
b) 15 degrees.
c) 20 degrees.
d) 25 degrees.
Answer ;
a) 30 degrees.
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0493. When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer
course or MLS final approach track , the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or
MLS final approach track in level flight for ;
a) at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle.
b) at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle.
c) at least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle.
d) at least 3.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle.
Answer ;
b) at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle.
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0494. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty , the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the ;
a) flight information or control organisations.
b) search and rescue co-ordination centres.
c) operational air traffic control centres.
d) air traffic co-ordination services.
Answer ;
c) operational air traffic control centres.
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0495. When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for
example ;
a) LLL.
b) RCC.
c) FFF.
d) TTT.
Answer ;
d) TTT.
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0496. When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for
example ;
a) DDD.
b) LLL.
c) RCC.
d) PAN.
Answer ;
d) PAN.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 73 Air Law

0497. When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the ;
a) three letters combinations used in the international code of signals.
b) four letter combinations beginning with Q.
c) five letter combinations used in the international code of signals.
d) letters used for ICAO identification documents.
Answer ;
c) five letter combinations used in the international code of signals.
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0498. When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or
distress signals for example ;
a) DDD.
b) LLL.
c) XXX.
d) RCC.
Answer ;
c) XXX.
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0499. When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to
such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed ;
a) only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened.
b) the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be rescreened before boarding an aircraft.
c) the persons not subjected to security control shall be identified.
d) only the passengers are to be re screened.
Answer ;
b) the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be rescreened before boarding an aircraft.
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0500. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z , means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a
tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of ;
a) 25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL190.
b) 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200.
c) 22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250.
d) 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190.
Answer ;
d) 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190.
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0501. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y , means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a
tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of ;
a) 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL260.
b) 20 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL200.
c) 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200.
d) 25.0 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250.
Answer ;
c) 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200.
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0502. When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved , the radar controller shall ;
a) inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of SSR.
b) inform the aircraft only if communication’s load permits it.
c) not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions.
d) inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar.
Answer ;
d) inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar.
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0503. When “Secondary Radar” is used , an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures ;
a) To request pilot to set transponder on position “OFF”.
b) To request pilot to set transponder on position “ON”.
c) To request pilot to switch from “ON” to “STBY”.
d) Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from “ON” to “STBY” and back to
“ON”.
Answer ;
d) Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from “ON” to “STBY” and back to
“ON”.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 74 Air Law

0504. When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be
interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of ;
a) 1.5 NM from the touchdown.
b) 2 NM from the touchdown.
c) 4 NM from the touchdown.
d) 3 NM from the touchdown.
Answer ;
c) 4 NM from the touchdown.
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0505. When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th birthday the medical
examination shall be reduced from ;
a) 24 months to 12 months.
b) 12 months to 3 months.
c) none of the answers are correct.
d) 12 months to 6 months.
Answer ;
d) 12 months to 6 months.
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0506. When the Mach number technique ( MNT ) is being applied , and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a mach number equal
to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu
of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is ;
a) 70 NM.
b) 100 NM.
c) 80 NM.
d) 60 NM.
Answer ;
c) 80 NM.
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0507. When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is impossible , than ;
a) you must indicate the failure in the fight plan , after which the ATC will endeavour to provide for
continuation of the flight.
b) you are not allowed to commence the flight.
c) the flight can only continue in the most direct manner.
d) departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed.
Answer ;
d) departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed.
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0508. When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course , the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft
to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than ;
a) 20 degrees.
b) 25 degrees.
c) 15 degrees.
d) 30 degrees.
Answer ;
d) 30 degrees.
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0509. Whenever ATIS is provided , the broadcast information shall be updated ;
a) at least every half an hour independently of any significant change.
b) immediately a significant change occurs.
c) as prescribed by the meteorological office.
d) as prescribed by the state.
Answer ;
b) immediately a significant change occurs.
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0510. Whenever ATIS is provided , the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of ;
a) the air traffic services.
b) the unit as prescribed the states.
c) the meteorological office serving the aerodrome(s).
d) both air traffic services and the meteorological office.
Answer ;
a) the air traffic services.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 75 Air Law

0511. Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected , and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code
7500 and code 7700 is not provided , the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by ;
a) setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500.
b) setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700.
c) setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and thereafter to code 7500.
d) setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby and thereafter to code 7700.
Answer ;
b) setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700.
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0512. Where a “Secondary Surveillance Radar” ( SSR ) is not available , radar identification may be achieved by one of the
following procedures ;
a) to instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.
b) to instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more.
c) to instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more.
d) to instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°.
Answer ;
c) to instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more.
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0513. Where an upper flight information region ( UIR ) is established , the procedures applicable there in ;
a) have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings.
b) have to be as indicated by ICAO council.
c) need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region.
d) has to be the same as the underlying flight information region.
Answer ;
c) need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region.
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0514. Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes , the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over
high terrain , or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight ;
a) at least 1000 feet within 8 km of the estimated position.
b) at least 1000 feet within 5 km of the estimated position.
c) at least 2000 feet within 8 km of the estimated position.
d) at least 2000 feet within 5 km of the estimated position.
Answer ;
c) at least 2000 feet within 8 km of the estimated position.
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0515. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome , experiencing radio failure to indicate
difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance ?
a) Switching on and off four times the landing lights.
b) Switching on and off four times the navigation lights.
c) Switching on and off three times the landing lights.
d) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights.
Answer ;
d) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights.
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0516. Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices ( SARPS ) for submission for adoption ?
a) The Air Navigation Commission.
b) The Assembly.
c) The Council.
d) The Regional Air Navigation meeting.
Answer ;
a) The Air Navigation Commission.
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0517. Which “code letter” shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m ?
a) Code letter “E”.
b) Code letter “B”.
c) Code letter “C”.
d) Code letter “D”.
Answer ;
c) Code letter “C”.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 76 Air Law

0518. Which code shall be used on Mode “A” to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference ?
a) Code 2000.
b) Code 7600.
c) Code 7700.
d) Code 7500.
Answer ;
d) Code 7500.
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0519. Which code shall be used on Mode “A” to provide recognition of an emergency aircraft ?
a) Code 7500.
b) Code 7000.
c) Code 7700.
d) Code 7600.
Answer ;
c) Code 7700.
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0520. Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled ?
a) The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace.
b) The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone.
c) The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone ( CTR ) and provided with a Control Tower.
d) The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.
Answer ;
d) The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.
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0521. Which does ATC Term “Radar contact” signify ?
a) Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar
identification is terminated.
b) Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this
radar facility.
c) You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact
has been lost.
d) ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that
contact has been lost.
Answer ;
a) Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar
identification is terminated.
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0522. Which freedom of the air will be exercised by an airline planning a flight that will require a technical stop in a neighbouring
State ?
a) 4th freedom
b) 3th freedom
c) 1th freedom
d) 2th freedom
Answer ;
d) 2th freedom
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0523. Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts ( IAC ) in the AIP ?
a) OCA or OCH.
b) Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector.
c) Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate.
d) DME-frequencies.
Answer ;
c) Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate.
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0524. Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track ?
a) Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions.
b) If VMC , maintain this condition , waiting for the ATC instructions.
c) Inform the ATC unit immediately.
d) Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable.
Answer ;
d) Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 77 Air Law

0525. Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ( Calvert ) type of approach light system ?
a) 3 crossbars , centre line with 3 , 2 or 1 lamp per light unit.
b) 5 crossbars , centre line with 3 , 2 and 1 lamp per light unit.
c) 4 crossbars , centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit.
d) 3 crossbars , centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit.
Answer ;
b) 5 crossbars , centre line with 3 , 2 and 1 lamp per light unit.
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0526. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for
air traffic services ( ATS ) ?
a) Annex 14
b) Annex 11
c) Annex 17
d) Annex 6
Answer ;
b) Annex 11
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0527. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have
international validity ?
a) Annex 1
b) Annex 3
c) Annex 2
d) Annex 4
Answer ;
a) Annex 1
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0528. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes ?
a) Annex 14
b) Annex 6
c) Annex 11
d) Annex 10
Answer ;
a) Annex 14
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0529. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjuction with Secondary Surveillance
Radar ( SSR ) ?
a) Distress 7700 , Hijacking 7500 , Communication failure 7600.
b) Distress 7500 , Hijacking 7700 , Communication failure 7600.
c) Distress 7700 , Hijacking 7600 , Communication failure 7500.
d) Distress 7600 , Hijacking 7500 , Communication failure 7700.
Answer ;
a) Distress 7700 , Hijacking 7500 , Communication failure 7600.
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0530. Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO ?
a) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention.
b) ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses.
c) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations.
d) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections.
Answer ;
a) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention.
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0531. Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct ?
a) An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC , will be cleared to land if this is desirable.
b) Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the aerodrome controller.
c) The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions between aircraft
on the movement area.
d) ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicle.
Answer ;
a) An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC , will be cleared to land if this is desirable.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 78 Air Law

0532. Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct ?
a) Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit.
b) The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject
of unlawful interference.
c) Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful
interference , shall be informed about this.
d) The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an
aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been
received.
Answer ;
a) Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit.
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0533. Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT ?
a) Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical , ATC Clearance not required.
b) Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service , ATC Clearance required.
c) Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service , ATC Clearance not required.
d) Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical , ATC Clearance required.
Answer ;
a) Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical , ATC Clearance not required.
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0534. Which statement is correct ?
a) The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000 ft AMSL.
b) The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700 ft AGL.
c) The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level.
d) The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of at least 1500 ft AGL.
Answer ;
b) The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700 ft AGL.
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0535. Which statement is correct ?
During a “Visual Approach” in Controlled Airspace ( Class C ) ;
a) the pilot to apply separation with other traffic.
b) ATC will apply separation with other traffic.
c) ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic.
d) ATC will apply separation only with other IFR-traffic.
Answer ;
b) ATC will apply separation with other traffic.
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0536. Which statement regarding approach control service is correct ?
a) If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more , an Expected Approach Time will be
transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft.
b) An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact between aircraft
and approach control.
c) During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation.
d) Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure in any event
when they are expected to exceed 45 minutes.
Answer ;
a) If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more , an Expected Approach Time will be
transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft.
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0537. While on IFR flight , a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be
taken ?
a) Squawk 7700.
b) Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan.
c) Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours.
d) The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit.
Answer ;
d) The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit.
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0538. While taxiing an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal ; a series of green flashes. This signal
means that the aircraft ;
a) must return to its point of departure.
b) must stop.
c) is cleared for take-off.
d) may continue to taxi towards the take-off area.
Answer ;
d) may continue to taxi towards the take-off area.
Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 79 Air Law
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0539. While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower ; series of red flashes. This signal means
that the aircraft ;
a) may continue to taxi to the take-off area.
b) must return to its point of departure.
c) must vacate the landing area in use.
d) must stop.
Answer ;
c) must vacate the landing area in use.
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0540. Whilst flying in an aerodrome’s traffic circuit , an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft ;
a) is cleared to land.
b) must give way to another aircraft.
c) must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
d) must land immediately and clear the landing area.
Answer ;
c) must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
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0541. Who is responsible , under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention for the initation of an accident investigation ?
a) The law enforcement authorities of the state in which the aircraft is registered.
b) The aircraft manufacturer.
c) Operators of the same aircraft type.
d) The government of the state in which the accident took place.
Answer ;
d) The government of the state in which the accident took place.
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0542. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the
approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system ?
a) 900 metres
b) 1000 metres
c) 420 metres
d) 1200 metres
Answer ;
a) 900 metres
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0543. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is
the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4 ?
a) 40 metres
b) 35 metres
c) 45 metres
d) 50 metres
Answer ;
c) 45 metres
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0544. You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL ;
a) with an ATPL.
b) with a thoretical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating.
c) with a CPL.
d) with a PPL plus flight instructor rating.
Answer ;
b) with a thoretical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating.
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0545. You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL ;
a) with a CPL.
b) with a PPL plus flight instructor rating.
c) with a valid licence plus flight instructor rating.
d) with a PPL plus CPL theory.
Answer ;
c) with a valid licence plus flight instructor rating.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 80 Air Law

0546. You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating ; Clearance expires at 0920. What does it mean ?
a) If not airborne until 0920 , a new clearance has to be issued.
b) After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan.
c) Do not take off before 0920.
d) The take off clearance is expected at 0920.
Answer ;
a) If not airborne until 0920 , a new clearance has to be issued.
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Ateş Murat Üstünbıçak , ATPL 81 Air Law