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CHEMISTRY REVIEW QUESTION

A. THEORY OF ATOMS AND MOLECULES
1. Which of the following has a positive charge?
a) proton
b) neutron
c) anion
d) electron
e) atom

2. Rutherford carried out experiments in which a beam of alpha particles was directed at a thin piece of metal foil. From
these experiments he concluded that:
a) electrons are massive particles.
b) the positively charged parts of atoms are moving about with a velocity approaching the speed of light.
c) the positively charged parts of atoms are extremely small and extremely heavy particles.
d) the diameter of an electron is approximately equal to that of the nucleus.
e) electrons travel in circular orbits around the nucleus.

3. Consider the species 72Zn, 75As and 74Ge. These species have:
a) the same number of electrons.
b) the same number of protons.
c) the same number of neutrons.
d) the same number of protons and neutrons.
e) the same mass number.

4. The neutral atoms of all of the isotopes of the same element have
a) different numbers of protons.
b) equal numbers of neutrons.
c) the same number of electrons.
d) the same mass numbers.
e) the same masses.

5. What is the atomic weight of a hypothetical element consisting of two isotopes, one with mass = 64.23 amu (26.0%),
and one with mass = 65.32 amu?
a) 65.3 amu
b) 64.4 amu
c) 64.9 amu
d) 65.0 amu
e) 64.8 amu

6. Naturally occurring rubidium consists of just two isotopes. One of the isotopes consists of atoms having a mass of
84.912 amu; the other of 86.901 amu. What is the percent natural abundance of the heavier isotope?
a) 15%
b) 28%
c) 37%
d) 72%
e) 85%

7. What is the frequency of light having a wavelength of 4.50 x 10-6 cm?

a) 2.84 x 10-12 s-1
b) 2.10 x 104 s-1
c) 4.29 x 1014 s-1
d) 1.06 x 1022 s-1
e) 6.67 x 1015 s-1

8. The emission spectrum of gold shows a line of wavelength 2.676 x 10-7 m. How much energy is emitted as the excited
electron falls to the lower energy level?
a) 7.43 x 10-19 J
b) 5.30 x 10-20 J
c) 6.05 x 10-19 J
d) 3.60 x 10-20 J
e) 5.16 x 10-20 J

9. Which of the responses contains all the statements that are consistent with the Bohr theory of the atom (and no others)?
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(1) An electron can remain in a particular orbit as long as it continually absorbs radiation of a definite frequency.
(2) The lowest energy orbits are those closest to the nucleus.
(3) An electron can jump from the K shell (n = 1 major energy level) to the M shell (n = 3 major energy level) by emitting
radiation of a definite frequency.
a) 1,2,3
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1,2
e) 2,3

10. The Heisenberg Principle states that _____________.

a) no two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers.
b) two atoms of the same element must have the same number of protons.
c) it is impossible to determine accurately both the position and momentum of an electron simultaneously.
d) electrons of atoms in their ground states enter energetically equivalent sets of orbitals singly before they pair up in any
orbital of the set.
e) charged atoms (ions) must generate a magnetic field when they are in motion.

11.Which statement about the four quantum numbers which describe electrons in atoms is incorrect?
a) n = principal quantum number, n = 1, 2, 3, ......
b) l = subsidiary (or azimuthal) quantum number, l = 1, 2, 3, ... , (n+1)
c) ml = magnetic quantum number, ml = (-l), .... , 0, .... , (+l)
d) ms = spin quantum number, ms = +1/2 or -1/2.
e) The magnetic quantum number is related to the orientation of atomic orbitals in space.

12. Which atomic orbital is spherical in shape? (Note: you should know and be able to recognize the shapes of the s
orbital, px, py, and pz orbitals, and dxy, dyz, dxz, dx2-y2 and dz2 orbitals.)
a) 2s
b) 3p
c) 3d
d) 4f
e) they are all spherical

13. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a sublevel for which l = 3 is:
a) 2
b) 10
c) 6
d) 14
e) 8

14. The ground state electron configuration for arsenic is:

a) [Ar] 4s2 4p13
b) [Kr] 4s2 4p1
c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d12 4s2 4p1
d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d8 4p5
e) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p3

15. Which of the following electron configurations is correct for nickel?

a) [Ar] 4s1 3d8
b) [Kr] 4s1 4d8
c) [Kr] 4s1 3d8
d) [Kr] 4s2 3d8
e) [Ar] 4s2 3d8

16. The outer electronic configuration ns2np4 corresponds to which one of the following elements in its ground state?
a) As
b) Ca
c) Cr
d) Br
e) S

17. In the ground state of a cobalt atom there are _____ unpaired electrons and the atom is _____.
a) 3, paramagnetic
b) 5, paramagnetic
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c) 2, diamagnetic
d) 0, diamagnetic
e) 2, paramagnetic

18. Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers could be those of the distinguishing (last) electron of Mo?
a) n = 4, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = +1/2
b) n = 5, l = 1, ml = 9, ms = -1/2
c) n = 4, l = 2, ml = -1, ms = +1/2
d) n = 5, l = 2, ml = +2, ms = -1/2
e) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 0, ms = +1/2

19. How many p electrons are there in an atom of rubidium?

a) 12
b) 18
c) 24
d) 9
e) 6

20. A neutral atom of an element has 2 electrons in the first energy level, 8 in the second energy level and 8 in the third
energy level. This information does not necessarily tell us:
a) the atomic number of the element.
b) anything about the element's chemical properties.
c) the total number of electrons in s orbitals.
d) the total number of electrons in p orbitals.
e) the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom of the element.

21. According to Dalton’s Atomic Theory, matter consists of indivisible _______

a) Molecules
b) Atoms
c) Ions
d) Mixtures

22. Atoms of different elements differ in mass.

a) True
b) False

23. What did Dalton’s Theory couldn’t explain?

a) gaseous volumes
b) conservation of mass
c) chemical philosophy
d) indivisible atoms

24. What is the name of Dalton’s publication?

a) A New system of atomic Philosophy
b) An old system of Chemical Philosophy
c) A New System of Chemical Philosophy
d) A New System of Chemical Prophecy

25. Which of the following may not be explained by Dalton’s atomic theory?
a) reason for combining atoms
b) conservation of mass
c) chemical philosophy
d) indivisible atoms

26. Law of conservation of mass isn’t explained in Dalton’s atomic theory.

a) True
b) False

27. What is 1 Dalton?

a) a unified mass unit, 1.360539040(20)×10−27kg
b) a unified mass unit, 1.640539040(20)×10−27kg
c) a unified mass unit, 1.660539040(20)×10−27kg
d) a unified mass unit, 1.660539040(20)×10−27kg
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28. Could Dalton’s atomic theory explain the laws of chemical combinations?
a) No
b) Yes
c) Only a few
d) Except one

29. They are no limitations to Dalton’s atomic theory.

a) True
b) False

30. All atoms of a given element have identical __________ including identical _________
a) Properties, mass
b) Weight, volume
c) Volume, properties
d) Temperature, pressure

B. CALCULATION OF CHEMICAL CHANGES AND ENERGY

31. Enthalpy change associated with the formation of 1 mole of a compound from its constituent elements and products in
their standard state is called
a) Standard Heat of Formation
b) Heat of Reaction
c) Heat of Combustion
d) None of the mentioned

32. The heat of formation as ______ in the standard state for each stable element.
a) Zero
b) Cannot be calculated
c) Negative
d) positive

33. Standard heats of formation are _________ for exothermic reaction.

a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Zero
d) None of the mentioned

34. Standard heats of formation are _________ for endothermic reaction.

a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Zero
d) None of the mentioned

35. _________________ is the enthalpy change that is associated with a reaction.

a) Standard Heat of Formation
b) Heat of Reaction
c) Heat of Combustion
d) None of the mentioned

36. Heating value is the negative of the ______________

a) Standard Heat of Formation
b) Standard Heat of Reaction
c) Standard Heat of Combustion
d) None of the mentioned

37. For enthalpy reference state is at which the enthalpy is

a) Zero
b) Positive
c) Negative
d) None of the mentioned

38. Value of the negative of the heat of combustion when the product water is a vapour, is
a) Higher Heating value
b) Lower Heating value
c) Neither Higher nor Lower Heating value
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d) None of the mentioned

39. Value of the negative of the heat of combustion when the product water is a liquid, is
a) Higher Heating value
b) Lower Heating value
c) Neither Higher nor Lower Heating value
d) None of the mentioned

40. Enthalpy change for the oxidation of 1 mole of a compound at standard condition is
a) Standard Heat of Formation
b) Standard Heat of Reaction
c) Standard Heat of Combustion
d) None of the mentioned

41. 1. Find out whether the following reaction is spontaneous or not at 127 degrees centigrade? N2(g) +
3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g); ΔH = 92.22 kJ/mol and ΔS = -198.75 J/K-mol.
a) it is spontaneous
b) it is not spontaneous
c) it may be spontaneous
d) cannot predict

42. Calculate the Gibbs free energy for the reaction of conversion of ATP into ADP at 293 Kelvin the change in enthalpy
is 19.07 Kcal and the change in entropy is 90 cal per Kelvin.
a) 7.3 cal
b) -5.3 Kcal
c) 7.3 Kcal
d) -7.3 Kcal

43. In a reaction, the change in entropy is given as 2.4 cal/K and the change in Gibbs free energy is given as 3.4 kcal,
calculate the change in heat at the temperature of 20-degree centigrade?
a) 3.4 kcal
b) 3.4 cal
c) 3.4 kJ
d) 3.4 J

44. The melting of ice into liquid water is an example of tube _______________ reaction.
a) endergonic
b) exergonic
c) exothermic
d) endothermic

45. Which of the following is not a type of exergonic reaction?

a) formation of table salt from Sodium and chlorine
b) combustion reaction
c) chemiluminescence
d) photosynthesis

46. The Gibbs free energy is positive when a change in enthalpy and change in entropy are positive at ____________
a) high temperatures
b) low temperature
c) all temperatures
d) only at 0 Kelvin

47. Calculate the Gibbs free energy for the conversion of oxygen to Ozone at room temperature if KP is given as 2.47 x
10-29.
a) 163 kJ/mol
b) 163 J/mol
c) 163 kJ
d) 163 k/mol

48. In the equation, ΔG = – 2.303 RT logK, what is K?

a) change in temperature
b) kelvin
c) equilibrium constant
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d) change in enthalpy

49. What is the relation between Gibbs free energy and the EMF of the cell?
a) ΔG = -nFEcell
b) G = -nFEcell
c) ΔG = -nEcell
d) ΔG = -nFcell

50. Write 1 Faraday in terms of coulombs.

a) 96500 C
b) 95600 C
c) 9560 C
d) 9650 C

C. CHEMICAL BONDING
51. 1. Atoms obtain octet configuration when linked with other atoms. This is said by _________
a) Lewis
b) Kossel
c) Langmuir
d) Sidgwick

52. Find out the correct Lewis symbol for the atom carbon among the following options.
a) .C:
b) :C.
c) :C:
d) .C.

53. What’s the group valance of atoms in the halogen family?

a) 2
b) 1
c) 9
d) 7

54. Highly electropositive Alkali metals are separated from highly electronegative halogens by _________
a) noble gases
b) oxygen family
c) f-block elements
d) 7th period

55. Sharing or transfer of electrons from one atom to the other to attain stable octet configuration follows _______
a) Duet rule
b) Triplet rule
c) Octet rule
d) Septet rule

56. In the covalent bond, atoms share electrons to achieve octet configuration.
a) True
b) False

57. Which of the following molecule doesn’t involve covalent bond?

a) H2O
b) CCl4
c) NaCl
d) O2

58. Calculate the formal charge of C in CH4.

a) 4
b) 1
c) -4
d) 0

59. Which of the following doesn’t follow octet rule?

a) CH4
b) CCl4
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c) HCl
d) NO2

60. Calculate the formal charge of the middle atom in the ozone molecule.

a) 1
b) -1
c) 0
d) -2

61. A chemical bond formation that involves the complete transfer of electrons between atoms is _______
a) ionic bond
b) covalent bond
c) metallic bond
d) partial covalent bond

62. Formation of a compound through ionic bond ______ the ionization energy of the metal ion.
a) does not depends on
b) depend on
c) is independent regarding
d) may or may not depend on

63. The enthalpy change that occurs when an atom in the ground state gains an electron, is electron gain enthalpy.
a) True
b) False

64. Electron gain enthalpy may be ________

a) exothermic
b) endothermic
c) both exothermic and endothermic
d) always zero

65. Ionic bonds easily form when electron when ionization energy of the metallic atom is _____ comparatively.
a) negative
b) constant
c) more
d) less

66. What is the energy that is released upon the formation of an ionic compound known as?
a) Ionization energy
b) Lattice energy
c) Electron gain enthalpy
d) Electropositivity

67. What’s the amount of lattice energy of NaCl?

a) 788 KJ mol-1
b) 688 KJ mol-1
c) 588 KJ mol-1
d) 488 KJ mol-1

68. Which of the following molecule’s formation doesn’t include ionic bond?
a) LiCl
b) MgO
c) SnCl4
d) H2O

9. Ionization energy is always endothermic in nature.

a) False
b) True
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70. Ionic bond formation depends on the arrangement of __________

a) molecule
b) atom
c) lattice
d) kernal

71. Which of the following cannot be used to measure bond lengths?

a) Spectroscopy
b) X-ray diffraction
c) Electron diffraction
d) Young’s Double-slit method

72. The covalent radius in a chlorine molecule and van der Waal’s radius between chlorine molecules respectively can be
________ & _________
a) 99pm, 198pm
b) 198pm, 99pm
c) 198pm, 198pm
d) 99pm, 99m

73. What are the units of measuring the bond angle?

a) meters
b) kilograms
c) degree
d) mole

74. The bond angle between the hydrogen atoms is _________

a) 104.5°
b) 104°
c) 105.4°
d) 105°

75. Strength of the bond between the two atoms can be known from bond dissociation enthalpy.
a) True
b) False

76. The bond enthalpy of H2O and OH are 502 KJ mol-1 and 427 KKJ mol-1. Then what is the average bond enthalpy?
a) 502 KJ mol-1
b) 464.5 KJ mol-1
c) 427 KJ mol-1
d) 75 KJ mol-1

77. What is the bond order of CO?

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 4

78. All the __________ species(molecules and ions) have the same bond order.
a) isotopic
b) isoelectronic
c) isobaric
d) isoneutronic

79. Resonance does stabilize the molecule.

a) False
b) True

80. Which of the following molecules may have a dipole movement?

a) N2
b) CH4
c) BeF2
d) H2O
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D. NUCLEAR CHEMISTRY
81. The "magic numbers" for atoms are
a) numbers of electrons that confer atomic stability.
b) numbers of protons and/or neutrons that confer nuclear stability.
c) n/p ratios that confer nuclear stability.
d) atomic masses that confer nuclear stability.
e) atomic masses that indicate fissile isotopes.

82. The actual mass of a 37Cl atom is 36.966 amu. Calculate the mass defect (amu/atom) for a 37Cl atom.
a) 0.623 amu
b) 0.388 amu
c) 0.263 amu
d) 0.341 amu
e) none of these

83. The mass defect for an isotope was found to be 0.410 amu/atom. Calculate the binding energy in kJ/mol of atoms. (1 J
= 1 kg m2/s2)
a) 3.69 x 1010 kJ/mol
b) 1.23 x 1020 kJ/mol
c) 3.69 x 1013 kJ/mol
d) 1.23 x 103 kJ/mol
e) 1.23 x 1023 kJ/mol

84. Calculate the binding energy per nucleon (in units of MeV) for 9Be, for which the atomic mass is 9.01219 amu.
Particle masses in amu are: proton = 1.007277; neutron = 1.008665; electron = 0.0005486. Conversion factor for E =
mc2 is 931 MeV/amu.
a) 6.46 MeV
b) 6.33 MeV
c) 6.23 MeV
d) 11.39 MeV
e) 56.93 MeV

85. Which isotope below has the highest nuclear binding energy per gram? No calculation is necessary.
a) 4He
b) 16O
c) 32S
d) 55Mn
e) 238U

86. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a) Mass defect is the amount of matter that would be converted into energy if a nucleus were formed from initially
separated protons and neutrons.
b) Nuclear binding energy is the energy released in the formation of an atom from subatomic particles.
c) Nuclei with highest binding energies are the most stable nuclei.
d) Einstein postulated the Theory of Relativity in which he stated that matter and energy are equivalent.
e) Mass number is the sum of all protons and electrons in an atom.

87. A positron has a mass number of _____, a charge of _____, and a mass equal to that of a(an) _____.
a) 0, 1+, proton
b) 1, 2+, proton
c) 0, 1+, electron
d) 1, 2+, electron
e) 0, 0, proton

88. Emission of which one of the following leaves both atomic number and mass number unchanged?
a) positron
b) neutron
c) alpha particle
d) gamma radiation
e) beta particle

89. Which type of radiation is the least penetrating?

a) alpha
b) beta
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c) gamma
d) x-ray
e) neutron

90. A radioisotope of argon, 35Ar, lies below the "band of stability: (n/p ratio too low). One would predict that it decays
via _____.
a) neutron emission
b) beta emission
c) positron emission
d) alpha emission
e) fission

91. A Geiger-Muller tube is a _____ .

a) gas ionization detector
b) cloud chamber
c) fluorescence detector
d) spectrophotometer
e) photographic detector

92. The half life of 231Pa is 3.25 x 104 years. How much of an initial 10.40 microgram sample remains after 3.25 x
105 years?
a) 0.0102 micrograms
b) 0.240 micrograms
c) 2.18 micrograms
d) 0.0240 micrograms
e) 1.04 micrograms

93. Consider the case of a radioactive element X which decays by electron (beta) emission with a half-life of 4 days to a
stable nuclide of element Z. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a) After 8 days the sample will consist of one-fourth element Z and three-fourths element X.
b) Element Z will weigh exactly the same as element X when decay is complete (weighed to an infinite number of
significant figures).
c) 2.0 g of element X is required to produce 1.5 g of element Z after 8 days (to 2 significant figures).
d) If element X as an atomic number equal to n, then element X has an atomic number equal to n-1.
e) None of the above.

94. Carbon-11 is a radioactive isotope of carbon. Its half-life is 20 minutes. What fraction of the initial number of C-11
atoms in a sample will have decayed away after 80 minutes?
a) 1/16
b) 1/8
c) 1/4
d) 7/8
e) 15/16

95. How old is a bottle of wine if the tritium (3H) content (called activity) is 25% that of a new wine? The half-life of
tritium is 12.5 years.
a) 1/4 yr
b) 3.1 yr
c) 25 yr
d) 37.5 yr
e) 50 yr

96. A Geiger counter registered 1000 counts/second from a sample that contained a radioactive isotope of polonium. After
5.0 minutes, the counter registered 281 counts/second. What is the half-life of this isotope in seconds?
a) 87
b) 110
c) 164
d) 264
e) 2.18

97. The 14C activity of some ancient Peruvian corn was found to be 10 disintegrations per minute per gram of C. If
present-day plant life shows 15 dpm/g, how old is the Peruvian corn? The half-life of 14C is 5730 years.
a) 1455 years
b) 1910 years
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c) 3350 years
d) 3820 years
e) 9080 years

98. Which of the following describes what occurs in the fission process?
a) A heavy nucleus is fragmented into lighter ones.
b) A neutron is split into a neutron and proton.
c) Two light nuclei are combined into a heavier one.
d) A proton is split into three quarks.
e) A particle and anti-particle appear in an area of high energy density.

99. Which of the following statements about nuclear fission is always correct?
a) Very little energy is released in fission processes.
b) Nuclear fission is an energetically favorable process for heavy atoms.
c) Due to its instability, 56Fe readily undergoes fission.
d) In fission reactions, a neutron is split into a proton and an electron.
e) All nuclear fission reactions are spontaneous.

100. Which one of the following would be most likely to undergo thermonuclear fusion?
a) 2H
b) 4He
c) 56Fe
d) 141Ba
e) 235U

101. Which one of the following statements about nuclear reactions is false?
a) Particles within the nucleus are involved.
b) No new elements can be produced.
c) Rate of reaction is independent of the presence of a catalyst.
d) Rate of reaction is independent of temperature.
e) They are often accompanied by the release of enormous amounts of energy.

102. Complete and balance the following equation. The missing term is _____ .
239
Pu + alpha particle _____ + neutron
a) 2 115Ag
b) 2 106Rh
c) 235U
d) 233Pa
e) 242Cm

103. When 59Cu undergoes positron emission, what is the immediate nuclear product?
a) 59Ni
b) 58Ni
c) 58Cu
d) 59Zn
e) 58Zn

104. As a result of the process of electron capture ("K-capture") by 211At, the new isotope formed is:
a) 210At
b) 212At
c) 211Po
d) 211Rn
e) 207Bi

105. When 235U is bombarded with one neutron, fission occurs and the products are three neutrons, 94Kr, and _____ .
a) 139Ba
b) 141Ba
c) 139Ce
d) 139Xe
e) 142I