PSG 208

1. Male reproductive system includes

A. Only the primary sex organs
B. Both the primary sex organs and accessory sex organs
C. Either the primary sex organs and accessory sex organs
D. Neither the primary sex organs and accessory sex organs
ANSWER: B
2. The accessory sex organs contain all but ONE of the following seminal vesicles,
prostate gland, urethra and penis.
A. Seminal vesicles
B. Prostate gland
C. Testes
D. Urethra
ANSWER: C
3. Testes is about the size of
A. Olives
B. Wallnut
C. Wheat
D. Orange
ANSWER: A
4. Testes are secured at either end in the scrotum by a structure called
A. The spermatic cord
B. The Ejaculatory cord
C. Seminiferous tubule
D. None of the above
ANSWER: A
5. In human beings each testis weighs about _________ and measures about _________
A. 11-19g, 1*3 cm.
B. 11-20g, 1*3 cm.
C. 12-19g, 1*3 cm.
D. 12-20g, 1*3 cm.
ANSWER: A
6. The testes are responsible for making all but one of the following
A. Testosterone
B. The primary male sex hormone
C. Sperm
D. Fluid
ANSWER: D
7. The testes contain____________
A. 700 coiled masses of tubes called seminiferous tubules.
B. 800 coiled masses of tubes called seminiferous tubules.
C. 900 coiled masses of tubes called seminiferous tubules.
D. 1000 coiled masses of tubes called seminiferous tubules.
ANSWER: C
8. The Penis has how many parts
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
ANSWER: B
9. _______________ transports and stores sperm cells that are produced in the testes
A. Ejaculatory duct
B. Seminiferous duct
C. Epididymis
D. Spermatic duct
ANSWER: C
10. Ejaculatory ducts is formed by the fusion of __________ and __________
A. The vas deferens and the seminal vesicles
B. The vas deferens and the testicular vesicles
C. None of the above
D. All of the above
ANSWER: A
11. The ejaculatory ducts empty into___________
A. Bladder
B. Urethra
C. Scrotum
D. Penis
ANSWER: B
12. _________are chemicals that regulate the activity of many different types of cells or
organs
A. Sperm
B. Substance
C. Hormone
D. Glands
ANSWER: C
13. The entire male reproductive system is dependent on_________
A. Chemicals
B. Substances
C. Hormone
D. Glands
ANSWER: C
14. The primary hormones involved in the male reproductive system are all EXCEPT
A. Follicle-stimulating hormone
B. Luteinizing hormone
C. Testosterone
D. Progesterone
ANSWER: D
15. The primary hormone involve in spermatogenesis is
A. Follicle stimulating hormone
B. Luteinizing hormone
C. Testosterone
D. Progesterone
ANSWER: A
16. ______________ hormone is responsible for the development of male primary
characteristics
A. FSH
B. LH
C. Oestrogen and progesterone
D. Testosterone
ANSWER: D
17. ______________is the process in which SPERMATOZOA are produced from
SPERMATOGONIAL STEM CELLS by way of mitosis and meiosis
A. Oogenesis
B. Gametogenesis
C. Spermatogenesis
D. Spertogametogenesis
ANSWER: C
18. Spermatogenesis is the male is the samething as ___________ in female
A. Oogenesis
B. Ovugenesis
C. Meiosis
D. Mitosis
ANSWER: A
19. At the initial cells pathway of spermatogenesis, SPERMATOGONIA yield primary
SPERMATOCYTES by
A. Meiosis
B. Mitosis
C. Gametogenesis
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
20. Secondary spermatocyte divides into two spermatids by
A. Mitosis II
B. Meiosis II
C. Meiosis I
D. Mitosis I
ANSWER: B
21. Mature spermatozoa is also know as
A. Germ cells
B. Sartoli cell
C. Spertogonia
D. Sperm cells
ANSWER: D
22. In spermatogenesis, the secondary spermatocytes and the two secondary
spermatocytes by their subdivision produce
A. Two spermatozoa
B. Three spermatozoa
C. Four spermatozoa
D. Five spermatozoa
ANSWER: C
23. The initial stages spermatogenesis occur within the
A. Testes
B. Epididymis
C. Testicle
D. None of the above
ANSWER: A
24. spermatogenesis requires a lower temperature to produce viable sperm, specifically
_________ lower than normal body temperature of 37oC
A. 2-8oC
B. 3-8oC
C. 1-8oC
D. 0.5-8oC
ANSWER: C
25. The human eyeball is ________cm diameter spherical fluid filled structure
A. 2.2
B. 2.3
C. 2.4
D. 2.5
ANSWER: D
26. The outer supporting layer that consists of tough outer layer of connective tissue that
covers most of eyeball is called________
A. The Retina
B. The sclera
C. The choroid
D. The cone
ANSWER: B
27. The sclera covers about ________ of the eyeball posteriorly
A. 5/6th
B. 4/6th
C. 3/6th
D. 2/6th
ANSWER: A
28. The anterior 1/6th of the outermost layer of the eyeball is called
A. Cornea
B. Retina
C. Sclera
D. Eyelid
ANSWER: A
29. The middle vascular layer of the eyeball is called
A. Iris
B. Sclera
C. Choroid
D. Cornea
ANSWER: C
30. The most vascularised part of the eye that nourishes the retina is called
A. Cornea
B. Eyelid
C. Sclera
D. Choroid
ANSWER: D
31. The inner nervous layer of the eye contains
A. Rod and cone
B. Rod and choroid
C. Cone and cornea
D. None of the above
ANSWER: A
32. The interior of the eye consists of _______ fluid filled cavities
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
ANSWER: A
33. The anterior cavity between the cornea and lens contains a clear watery fluid called
_________
A. The vitrous humour
B. The aqueous humour
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
34. The larger posterior cavity between the lens and retina contains _________
A. Aqueous humour
B. Vitrous humour
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
35. Aqueous humour is produced by a capillary network within the ciliary body at a rate
of about ________
A. 2ml/day
B. 3ml/day
C. 4ml/day
D. 5ml/day
ANSWER: D
36. A problem of drainage of the aqueous humour which result in accumulation of the
fluid in the anterior chamber causes_______
A. Decrease intraocular pressure
B. Increase intraocular pressure
C. Moderate intraocular pressure
D. Normal intraocular pressure
ANSWER: B
37. The condition of raised intraocular pressure is known as _________
A. Catarract
B. Astygmatism
C. Glaucoma
D. Presbiopia
ANSWER: C
38. The eyeball is moved by a set of ___________ muscles in the eye socket
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
ANSWER: D
39. The smooth intrinsic muscles of the eye are all but ONE
A. The ciliary muscle
B. The circular muscle of the iris
C. The radial muscle
D. The spherical muscle
ANSWER: D
40. The photoreceptors in the eye are sensitive only to wavelengths between _____ and
_____ nanometers
A. 300 and 700
B. 400 and 800
C. 400 and 700
D. 300 and 800
ANSWER: C
41. The degree to which the details and contours of objects are perceived is called
A. Visual acuity
B. Accomodation
C. Refraction
D. Vision
ANSWER: A
42. The muscles of the eye are innervated by Cranial Nerves
A. III, IV, and VI
B. III, V, and IV
C. III, VII, and VI
D. III, VI,and VII
ANSWER: A
43. The fertilization of an egg by a sperm, normally occurs in the ____________
A. Uterus
B. Ampulla
C. fallopian tubes
D. Vagina
ANSWER: C
44. The female reproductive structures perform all but ONE of the following functions
A. Produces eggs (ova)
B. Secretes sex hormones
C. Receives the male spermatazoa during sexual intercourse
D. Destruction of weak sperm
ANSWER: D
45. The main External Genitals of the female reproductive system include all EXCEPT
A. The Vulva
B. Mons Veneris
C. Vagina
D. Clitoris
ANSWER: C
46. The Internal Genitals of the female reproductive system include all but ONE
A. Cervix
B. Hymen
C. Mammary glands
D. Fallopian tubes
ANSWER: B
47. _______________ is a pro gestational hormone that maintains the uterine lining
during pregnancy
A. Progesterone
B. Oestrogen
C. ganadotrophin
D. Testestorone
ANSWER: A
48. Premenstrual Syndrome include all but one of the following
A. depression
B. irritability
C. Headache
D. Confusion
ANSWER: D
49. Menopause is sometimes referred to as
A. End stage phenomenon
B. Climacteric
C. painful phenomenon
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
50. Menopause can be surgically induced by such procedures as ______________
A. Ophretomy
B. Hysterectomy
C. Salphigectomy
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
51. The second phase of sexual response cycle in human being is
A. Resolution
B. Excitement
C. Plateau
D. Orgasm
ANSWER: C
52. Fertilization is also known as
A. conception,
B. Fecundation
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
ANSWER: C
53. The sperm must undergo _________ processes before fertilization
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
ANSWER: B
54. Placenta produces how many types of oestrogen hormones
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
ANSWER: A
55. During pregnancy, placenta produces all but one of the following oestrogen hormones
A. oestradiol and oestriol
B. oestriol and FSH
C. Inhibin and oestradol
D. FSH and LH
ANSWER: A
56. Basically, birth process involves ___________ stages
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
ANSWER: B
57. Which is the longest stage of birth process
A. First stage
B. Second stage
C. Third stage
D. First and second stage
ANSWER: A
58. The first stage of delivery often last for
A. less than 3hours
B. Less than or equal to 6hours
C. 3 to 12 hours or upto 18hours
D. 2 to 11 hours or upto 24 hours
ANSWER: C
59. From full dilation until delivery, the second stage of labour last for
A. about 15 min to 1 hr
B. about 30 min to 1 hr
C. about 20 min to 2 hr
D. about 20 min to 1 hr
ANSWER: D
60. The delivery of the placenta usually occurs within ______ min of the delivery of the
baby
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 30
ANSWER: B
61. The three main types of papillae are all but one of the following
A. The fungi form papillae
B. The circumvallated
C. The filiform papillae
D. The crimiform papillae
ANSWER: D
62. The crevices of the papillae has approximately __________ receptor organs for the
sense of taste
A. 9000
B. 10000
C. 11000
D. 12000
ANSWER: B
63. Mature taste receptor cells live for only about _________ before they die and they
can be replaced in about ________
A. 12days/12 hours
B. 10days/12 hours
C. 10 days/10 hours
D. 11days/10hours
ANSWER: C
64. There are _______ generally recognized basic taste modalities
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
ANSWER: A
65. Taste perception can be affected by all the following factors EXCEPT
A. Texture
B. Temperature
C. Odour of food
D. Social factor
ANSWER: D
66. Bitter substances are mostly tasted on
A. The back of the tongue
B. Edges of the tongue
C. Tip of the tongue
D. Almost all over the tongue
ANSWER: A
67. Bitter taste is caused by the presence of
A. H+
B. Cl+
C. Alkaloids
D. Na+
ANSWER: C
68. To smell a substance it must be
A. Sufficiently volatile
B. Sufficiently water soluble
C. Lipid soluble
D. Alkaline
ANSWER: D
69. Factors that affect odour discrimination include
A. Hunger
B. Cold
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
ANSWER: C
70. Abnormalities of taste include all but one of the following
A. Ageusia
B. hypogeusia
C. dysgeusia
D. Oligeusia
ANSWER: D
71. The absence of the sense of smell is called
A. anosmia
B. Hyposmia
C. Hynosmia
D. None of the above
ANSWER: A
72. The external ear is about ________cm in diameter
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
ANSWER: A
73. Too much cerumen in the ear can
A. Increase sound transmission
B. Decrease sound transmission
C. Moderate sound transmission
D. Block sound transmission
ANSWER: D
74. The function of the eustachian tube is to
A. Equalize pressure on one side of the eardrum
B. Equalize pressure on both sides of the eardrum
C. Equalize pressure on either sides of the eardrum
D. Equalize pressure on the outer part of the eardrum
ANSWER: B
75. The smallest bone in the human body are found in the
A. Nose
B. Ear
C. Eye
D. Mouth
ANSWER: B
76. The smallest bone in the human body are the
A. Ossicles
B. Anvil
C. Stape
D. Stirrup
ANSWER: A
77. The inner ear is innervated by
A. cranial nerve VI
B. cranial nerve VII
C. cranial nerve VIII
D. cranial nerve VX
ANSWER: C
78. The resistance offered by a medium to sound waves is called
A. Pitch
B. Amptitude
C. Impedence
D. Resonance
ANSWER: C
79. The tendency of a system to oscillate with larger amplitude at some frequencies than
at others is called
A. Resonance
B. Attenuation
C. Frequency
D. Pitch
ANSWER: A
80. Reduction in the strength of a signal is called
A. AMptitude
B. Attenuation
C. Resonance
D. Frequency
ANSWER: B
81. ____________ is the neural perception of sound energy
A. Sound
B. Hearing
C. Waves
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
82. The Speed of sound in air is ________, in water is ________
A. 345m/sec/1482m/sec
B. 343m/s/1483m/sec
C. 344m/s/1482m/sec
D. 343m/s/1482m/sec
ANSWER: D
83. There are __________ major causes of Hearing impairments
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
ANSWER: A
84. Conductive deafness may be caused by the following EXCEPT
A. Wax
B. Foreign body
C. Aminoglycoside antibiotics
D. Trauma
ANSWER: D
85. The inner most layer of the eyeball which extends anteriorly almost to the ciliary
body and covers the entire posterior aspect of the eyeball is called
A. Choroid
B. Iris
C. Renina
D. Cone
ANSWER: C
86. The Retina is made up of the following Except
A. A pigment epithelium
B. Choridal nerves
C. Rods and cones
D. Layers of other neurons
ANSWER: B
87. The axons of the ganglion cells join together to form the ___________nerve that
leaves the retina
A. Glossopharyngeal
B. Optic
C. Facial
D. Olfactory
ANSWER: B
88. The point on the retina at which the optic nerve leaves and through which blood
vessels enter is called________
A. ganglion point
B. Neural disc
C. Neuronal point
D. Optic disc
ANSWER: D
89. The point at which no visual receptors overlie the area of optic disc so that no image
can be detected there is called______
A. The yellow spot
B. Brown spot
C. blind spot
D. Dead spot
ANSWER: C
90. Light pass through the neuronal cell layers before reaching the rods and cones on all
parts the retina except at the_____
A. Choroid
B. fovea
C. Optic disc
D. Neuronal point
ANSWER: B
91. The pinhead sized depression located at the centre of the retina is called________
A. Cone
B. Rod
C. Fovea
D. Neurons
ANSWER: C
92. The area which immediately surrounds the fovea is called the _______
A. macula
B. Papilla
C. Angulla
D. Rod
ANSWER: A
93. Both rods and cones are also known as________
A. Photoreceptors
B. Chemoreceptors
C. Retina body
D. Visual pathway
ANSWER: A
94. The photoreceptors, rods and cones, consist of how many parts
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
ANSWER: B
95. A photo pigment consists of an enzymatic protein called______
A. opsin and hetinene
B. Opsinene and retineen
C. Retinen and opsin
D. Opsin and retinene
ANSWER: D
96. In a normal human being, each eye contains about __________ rods
A. 12 millions
B. 250 millions
C. 130 millions
D. 120 millions
ANSWER: D
97. Rods contain only one photopigment called __________
A. photoreceptor
B. Opsin
C. Rhodopsin
D. photochemical
ANSWER: C
98. There are approximately __________ cones in each retina
A. 4 millions
B. 5 millions
C. 6 millions
D. 7 millions
ANSWER: C
99. The overall convergence ratio of photoreceptors to ganglion cell_______
A. 104:1
B. 105:1
C. 105:2
D. 104:2
ANSWER: B
100. Each optic nerve is supplied by __________ number of ganglion cell
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
ANSWER: A
 GST 222 (PEACE STUDIES)
Conflict can be said to arise when a person/group of people has __________ behaviour
towards other persons/group.
A. Protagonistic
B. Conflicting
C. Antagonistic
D. Neutral
ANSWER: C
The ability to successfully manage conflict within oneself and between persons
_____________hatred and disagreement.
A. Enhances
B. Promotes
C. Eliminates
D. Reduces
ANSWER: D
_________ are those who have learnt to manage their inner conflicts in a positive
way and then try to help manage others conflicts.
A. Peacekeepers
B. Reconcilers
C. Peacebuilders
D. Resolvers
ANSWER: B
Conflict management stresses the fact that conflict is bad hence it should not be
encouraged. TRUE OR FALSE.
A. True
B. False
C. Not sure
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
__________ assumes that conflict is a short term phenomenon that can be permanently
resolved through diverse intervention processes.
A. Mediation
B. Peacekeeping
C. Conflict Management
D. Conflict Resolution
ANSWER: D
The notion of conflict resolution indicates its goal to be the control of volatility rather
than dealing with the real source of the problem.TRUE OR FALSE
A. True
B. False
C. Not sure
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
Conflict litigation indicates that conflicts are _________ and hence all conflicts should be
_________
A. short term, resolved
B. inevitable, resolved
C. inevitable, managed
D. long term, managed
ANSWER: C
_________ has to do with creating an enabling environment for the parties to carry out
dialogue sessions resulting the resolution of a pending conflict
A. Mediation
B. Conflict resolution
C. Conflict management
D. Peacekeeping
ANSWER: A
_________ is the voluntary assistance by a third party where the parties to a conflict
admit that they are both committed to resolving their conflict.
A. Reconciliation
B. Communication
C. Dialogue
D. Conflict resolution
ANSWER: A
__________ is usually necessary for a peace enforcement operation to be considered
legitimate.
A. Cease fire
B. State sovereignty
C. International mandate
D. NATO
ANSWER: C
_________ is an intervention designed to resolve violent conflict by creating sustainable
peace, conflicts are resolved through official diplomacy.
A. Peace building
B. Peace enforcement
C. Resolution
D. Conflict management
ANSWER: A
While _______requires the issuance of official order , most _________ operations are
carried out without sovereign orders.
A. Peace enforcement, Mediation
B. Peace-building, Mediation
C. Peace enforcement, Peace-building
D. Peace-building, Peace enforcement
ANSWER: D
________ can be defined as a political condition that ensures justice and social stability
through formal and informal institutions, norms and practices.
A. Reconciliation
B. Conflict
C. Peace
D. Peacekeeping
ANSWER: C
_________ should be conceptualized and perceived in the sense of minimizing or
resolving conflicts as well as creating conditions of security,and psychic well-being for
the masses.
A. Mediation
B. Peace
C. Resolution
D. Reconciliation
ANSWER: B
For ___________, it is necessary to develop mechanisms to ensure that people achieve a
measure of control over the political processes which guide their lives
A. Good security
B. Proper mediation
C. Peacekeeping
D. Lasting peace
ANSWER: D
Reconstructing and strengthening legitimate and authoritative governance mechanisms
normally begins a strong peace-building strategy. TRUE or FALSE
A. True
B. False
C. None of the above
D. Not sure
ANSWER: A
A mediator can also be said to be a peace-builder. TRUE or FALSE.
A. True
B. False
C. None of the above
D. Not sure
ANSWER: B
An international mandate is normally necessary for peace-building to be considered
legitimate.TRUE or FALSE
A. True
B. False
C. None of the above
D. Not sure
ANSWER: C
Peace is either conceptualized in the positive sense of creating material conditions which
provide the people a minimum condition of security, or in the negative sense of
minimizing or resolving conflict.
A. True
B. False
C. None of the above
D. Not sure
ANSWER: C
Conflict management can also be refered to as
A. Conflict termination
B. Conflict containment
C. Conflict resolution
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
_______ is concerned with the search for a negotiated resolution of the perceived
conflicts of interests between the parties
A. Peace making
B. Peace building
C. Peace culture
D. Conflict resolution
ANSWER: A
Peacemaking activities bring together groups or individuals in dialogue about possible
ways to ________ the conflict
A. Contain
B. Terminate
C. Resolve
D. Reconcile
ANSWER: C
________ is the strategy usually employed to reverse the destructive processes that
accompany violence
A. Peace making
B. Peace building
C. Peace culture
D. Conflict resolution
ANSWER: B
Genuine peace mostly has to do with the absence of war in a society or nation at large.
TRUE or FALSE
A. True
B. False
C. None
D. Not sure
ANSWER: B
________ has to do with the concerned peoples philosophy, historical background,
traditional beliefs, and vision of the future.
A. Conflict resolution
B. Peace Culture
C. Peace making
D. Culture
ANSWER: D
Peace culture can be envisaged and brought to be within a short period of time. TRUE or
FALSE
A. True
B. False
C. None
D. Not sure
ANSWER: B
Both the culture of peace and the culture of war are needed to be worked at before they
can be established/rooted in a community. TRUE or FALSE
A. True
B. False
C. None
D. Not sure
ANSWER: A
To develop a peace culture, the society needs to rely on their _______, ________, and
_______ groups.
A. civic, educational and political
B. peacemaking, peacebuiding and conflict resolution
C. civic, educational and religious
D. peacemaking, peacebuilding and peacekeeping
ANSWER: C
The conditions for the existence of peace in a society includes the following except;
A. commitment to the peaceful resolution of disputes
B. functional social groups
C. higher expectation from peace than from war
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
An activity for ensuring the existence of peace can either be peacemaking activity or a
peacebuilding activity but cannot be both at the same time. TRUE or FALSE
A. True
B. False
C. None
D. Not sure
ANSWER: B
During conflict intervention, it is of great neccesity for each intervener to have contact
with all levels of the society. TRUE or FALSE
A. True
B. False
C. None
D. Not sure
ANSWER: B
When considering the levels of society in relation with conflict intervention, the most
important thing is for the intervention (not neccesarily the interveners) to reach all of the
levels. TRUE or FALSE
A. True
B. False
C. None
D. Not sure
ANSWER: A
To resolve any kind of conflict, the interveners must neccesarily be present at the place
the conflict ensued. TRUE or FALSE
A. True
B. False
C. None
D. Not sure
ANSWER: B
Local peace zones are those communities where against all odds, it is always ensured that
violence does not take root and remains peaceful. TRUE or FALSE.
A. True
B. False
C. Not sure
D. None
ANSWER: B
To ensure that peace projects reach the whole community or country at large,
__________ are put in place.
A. Peace interventions
B. Conflict resolution strategies
C. Local peace zones
D. None
ANSWER: C
Time, geographical scope and the level of society are intervention adresses are
A. Peace making strategies
B. Conflict resolution strategies
C. Conflict intervention strategies
D. All of the above
ANSWER: B
Conflict resolution strategies are all of the following except
A. Peace making
B. Peace building
C. Peace enforcement
D. None of the above
ANSWER: D
Over the years, our society has basically based solution to the problems it encounters on
________
A. War
B. Peace
C. Mediation
D. Reconciliation
ANSWER: B
In a society, the choice lies mainly with _________ to either choose actions resulting in
peace or war as the case may be.
A. The leaders
B. The mediators
C. The masses
D. None of the above
ANSWER: C
A _________ is one where everyone can maximize their potential to lead fulfilling lives
free from threats to their dignity
A. Civic culture
B. Peaceful society
C. Local community
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
In defining conflict, which of the following give its meaning?
A. Judging one another.
B. Arguing with one another.
C. Strike at one another.
D. Hatered feelings to one another.
ANSWER C.
When there is a fight with an enemy, it can be described as _________?
A. Misunderstanding
B. Misconstrual
C. Opposition
D. Conflict
ANSWER D.
When conflict is successfully manage within oneself and between persons will result into
which of the following ________?
A. It reduces antagonism
B. It reduces level of disagreement
C. It reduces the rate of hatred.
D. All of the above
ANSWER D.
The level of management of inner conflict in a person's life will have which of the
following effect ________?
A. It improves his level of income.
B. It controls his life and the way he relates with others.
C. It promote his career.
D. It gives him preferential treatment.
ANSWER B.
Antagonism towards others or to be in sharp disagreement with others best decribe
________?
A. Conflict
B. Rift
C. Rupture
D. Violence
ANSWER. A.
A variety of approaches aimed at terminating conflicts through the constructive solving
of problems is best known as ________?
A. Conflict Management
B. Conflict Transformation
C. Conflict reduction
D. Conflict Resolution
ANSWER D.
Which of the the following factor, adequately aid the success of process of conflict
resolution _______?
A. Addressing and resolving the deep rooted sources of the conflict.
B. Condemning one party and justifying one party.
C. Using violence or counter-attack
D. Preferential treatment
ANSWER A.
In the right sense of judgement, it is assume that _______?
A. Conflict resolution is a long term phenomenon
B. Conflict resolution is a short term phenomenon
C. Conflict resolution is an unresolvable phenomenon
D. Conflict can only be resolved by military enforcement approach.
ANSWER B.
Conflict management seen in the right perspective, correctly assumes that _______?
A. Conflicts are short term process that often can be quickly resolved
B. Conflicts are long term process that often cannot be quickly resolved
C. Conflicts are long term process that often can be quickly resolved
D. Conflicts are short term process that often impossible to be resolved
ANSWER. B
Which of the following correctly explain the concept of Conflict Management ______?
A. It indicate that people can be directed or controlled as though they are physical
objects.
B. It indicate that the goal is the reduction or control of volatility more than dealing with
the real source of the problem.
C. It indicate that there is conflict limitations
D. All of the above.
ANSWER. D

Which of the following is/are very relevant when planning or evaluating a non-violent
intervention in making peace, ________
A. Time of intervention
B. Levels of society the intervention addresses
C. Geographical scope of the intervention area
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
What is the agreement of most authors dealing with level of society in relationship to
conflict intervention?
A. That it is of paramount importance for interveners to reach all three levels.
B. That it is of no importance for interveners to reach all three levels.
C. That interveners can reach only two levels of society to resolve conflict.
D. That interveners can never reach all three levels of society to resolve conflict.
ANSWER: A
What can be responsible for the failure of an agreement made between top leaders and
peace mediators.
A. Success in carrying the masses along in mediation process.
B. Lack of support of the masses.
C. Disagreement between the mediators and the top leaders
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Intervention involves being part of the conflict.
B. All interventions involve going to the place where the conflict is.
C. Not all interventions involve going to the place where the conflict is.
D. All of the above.
ANSWER: C
Peace-making -is concerned with __________
A. The search for a negotiated resolution of the perceived conflicts of interests between
the parties
B. Hindering groups or individuals in dialogue about possible resolution of the conflict
C. Agreement of mediators on possible resolution to conflicts without bringing the
individual involved together
D. Bringing individual involved together in physical combat in order to resolve conflict
ANSWER: A
What is that strategy that directly tries to reverse those destructive processes that
accompany violence
A. Dialogue
B. Mediation
C. Peace Building
D. Conflict Making
ANSWER: C
Peace is not just the absence of war but involves ......
A. Everyone maximizing their potential to lead fulfilling lives free from threats to their
dignity.
B. Everyone minimizing their potential to lead fulfilling lives free from threats to their
dignity.
C. Everyone relegating potential to ground zero
D. Threatening of people's dignity.
ANSWER: A
Which of the following is not a strategy used in conflict resolution?
A. Peace making
B. Peace building
C. Dialogue
D. None of the above
ANSWER: D
Which of the following is not a condition for peace.
A. A civic culture
B. A commitment to the peaceful resolution of disputes
C. A strong institutions
D. None of the above
ANSWER: D
The following are condition for peace in a community except ______?
A. Deferment of timely justice
B. Strong institutions
C. An ethical code
D. Mutual legitimization
ANSWER: A
The primary root source of conflict is traced to ......
A. Snatching each other's wife
B. Dispute over landed property.
C. Clash of interests in the relationship between parties, groups or states.
D. Stepping on someone's right
ANSWER: C
The type of conflict in which abundance of weaponry and trained soldiers and untrained
volunteers available in a country is known as _______?
A. Conflict resulting from Foreign Intervention in a society
B. Conflict arising from the militarisation of the Society.
C. Conflict of Governance.
D. Boundary Confict.
ANSWER: B
State dictatorships trying to shore up ethnic autocracies are under attack by increasingly
militant opposition groups, this describe which type of confict?
A. Boundary Conflicts.
B. Conflict of Economic Development.
C. Conflict resulting from Foreign Intervention
D. Conflict of Governance.
ANSWER: D
The conflict which includes the crisis of production and distribution of resources and the
competition arising there-from is an example of which type of conflict?
A. Boundary Conflicts.
B. Conflict of Economic Development.
C. Conflict resulting from Foreign Intervention
D. Conflict of Governance.
ANSWER: B
Which of the following has the capacity of causing conflict
A. Inter-state borders
B. Ethnicity
C. Poor economic performance
D. All of the above.
ANSWER: D
Which of the following factors can cause the insurgent of dissidents in a state being
harboured in neighbouring countries and guerrillas armed and trained there
A. When the existing state structures do not satisfy variously the aspirations for cultural
identity.
B. When the economic and democracy aspiration of people are not satisfied.
C. When the state structures do not satisfy self-determination of different nationalities co-
existing with the contemporary states
D. All of the above.
ANSWER: D
Which of the following gives Stephen McCarthy’s definition of a nation?
A. A complex web of common cultural, social and economic interests among people.
B. A combination of people with the same religion and language.
C. A combination of people with different religion and language.
D. None of the above
ANSWER: A
The Stephen McCarthy's definition of a nation was an European concept of a nation, what
does his definition implies?
A. It implies that what people share in common is of no significant to their regional, tribal
or other differences.
B. It implies that what people share in common is greater than their regional, tribal or
other differences.
C. It implies that everybody has equal right in a nation.
D. All of the above.
ANSWER: B
The Idi Amins coup in Uganda in 1971, was caused by __________
A. Inter-ethnic rivalry among leading army officers, as well as by ethnic resentments
against the civil head of state.
B. Inter-State border rivalry among leading army officers, as well as border resentments
against the civil head of state.
C. Election crisis among various political groups in the country
D. High food scarcity crisis in the country.
ANSWER: A
The type of conflict that exist among political leadership is known as ________?
A. Elite conflict.
B. Factional conflict.
C. Communal and mass conflict.
D. Inter-state border confict.
ANSWER: A
Which of the following dual systems are very similar in 'ADR' pocess?
A. Negotiation and Mediation
B. Mediation and Conciliation
C. Conciliation and Arbitration
D. Mediation and Arbitration
ANSWER B.
Objectives of 'ADR' include the following EXCEPT?
A. Economic restructuring
B. Management of tensions and conflicts in communities.
C. To improve the administration of justice.
D. None of the above.
ANSWER D.
____________ is often used to describe a wide variety of dispute resolution mechanisms
that are short of, or alternative to, full-scale court processes.?
A. Alternative Dispute Reformation
B. Alternative Defformation Resolution
C. Alternative Dispute Resolution
D. Alternation Dispute Resolution
ANSWER C.
Which of the following system create a structure to encourage and facilitate direct
negotiation between parties to a dispute, without the intervention of a third party.
A. Negotiation system
B. Mediation system
C. Conciliation system
D. Arbitration system.
ANSWER A.
The type of Alternative Dispute Resolution system that interject a third party between the
disputants are _______?
A. Negotiation and Mediation
B. Mediation and Conciliation
C. Conciliation and Arbitration
D. Mediation and Arbitration
ANSWER B.
Which of the following is not a category of 'ADR'
A. Negotiation system.
B. Mediation System.
C. Arbitration systems.
D. None of the above.
ANSWER D.
Which of the following Alternative Dispute Resoluton systems do not give authority to
the third party to decide or rule on a settlement.
A. Negotiation and Mediation
B. Mediation and Conciliation
C. Conciliation and Arbitration
D. Mediation and Arbitration
ANSWER B.
Which of the following Alternative Dispute Resoluton systems gives authority to the
third party to decide or rule on a settlement.
A. Negotiation system.
B. Mediation System.
C. Arbitration systems.
D. None of the above.
ANSWER C.
Which of the following is/are not characteristics of ADR systems?
A. More direct participation by the disputants in the process and in designing settlements
B. More direct dialogue and opportunity for reconciliation between disputants
C. Potentially higher levels of confidentiality
D. None of the above
ANSWER D.
Which of the following is/are a binding form of Alternative Dispute Resolution system?
A. Negotiation
B. Mediation
C. Conciliation
D. None of the above.
ANSWER D.
NSC 206(BIOCHEM)

DNA is an acronym for________________

A. Deoxyrilbonucleic acid
B. DeoxyriboNucleic acid
C. deoxyribo Nucliec Acid
D. Deoxyl Ribonucleic Acid
ANSWER: B
DNA is made up of molecules called _______________
A. Guanine
B. Cytosine
C. Nucleotides
D. Deoxyl acid
ANSWER: C
The general chemical formular for carbohydrate is ______________
A. CnH2nO
B. (CH)nO
C. (CH2O)n
D. (CnH2O)
ANSWER: C
Plants and bacteria called cyanobacteria produce carbohydrates by the process of
________________
A. Fermentation
B. Photolysis
C. Chemosynthesis
D. Photosynthesis
ANSWER: D
Maltose is a dissacharides of______________
A. Glucose and galactose
B. Glucose and glucose
C. Glucose and fructose
D. Fructose and lactose
ANSWER: B
The class of biomolecule that is primarily used as a source of energy for living organisms
is_____________
A. Proteins
B. Carbohydrates
C. Lipids
D. Nucliec acid
ANSWER: B
The by-products of photosynthesis reaction are ________________ and
_________________
A. Glucose and Hydrogen
B. Glucose and glucose
C. Glucose and oxygen
D. Fructose and lactose
ANSWER: C
Carbohydrates are broken down to provide energy for cellular reactions. True/false
A. True
B. False
C. None of the options
D. All of the option
ANSWER: A
Starch is the body’s main store of carbohydrate. True/False
A. True
B. False
C. None of the options
D. All of the options
ANSWER: A
Sucrose is an example of a monosaccharide. True/False
A. True
B. False
C. None of the options
D. All of the options
ANSWER: B
Glycoproteins are combinations of carbohydrates and proteins that are important
structural components of connective tissues. True/False
A. True
B. False
C. None of the options
D. All of the options
ANSWER: A
Lipids are insoluble in _____________
A. Water
B. Oil
C. Gas
D. All of the options
ANSWER: A
The followings are natural sources of carbohydrtaes EXCEPT________________
A. Whole grains
B. Fruits
C. Vegetables
D. Fats or oils
ANSWER: D
RNA contains ribose, which is a monosaccharide with five carbons. True/False
A. True
B. False
C. None of the options
D. All of the options
ANSWER: A
DNA and RNA are built from the same bases but are combined with different sugars.
True/False
A. True
B. False
C. None of the options
D. All of the options
ANSWER: B
Fiber which is an insoluble part of carbohydrates binds and attaches to the cholesterol in
the small intestine and prevents the cholesterol particles from entering the
______________
A. Bloodstream
B. Body fluid
C. Liver
D. Stomach
ANSWER: A
Which of the following is a carbohydrates with no nutritional value?
A. Dextrin
B. Starch
C. Glycogen
D. Cellulose
ANSWER: D
Cholesterol is a waxy, fat-like substance that is found in all cells of the body and it exits
the body through faeces. True/false
A. True
B. False
C. None of the options
D. All of the options
ANSWER: A
Optical Activity of carbohydrates is the rotation of plane polarized light forming
_______________
A. Alpha and Gammar
B. Alpha and Beta
C. Alpha and electron
D. All of the options
ANSWER: B
The spatial configuration with respect to the first carbon atom in aldoses and second
carbon atom in ketoses is called________________
A. Steroisomerism
B. Optical Activity
C. Annomerism
D. Diastereo isomers
ANSWER: C
Compound of carbohydrates sharing the same structural formula but differ in spatial
configuration is called_______________
A. Steroisomerism
B. Optical Activity
C. Annomerism
D. Diastereo isomers
ANSWER: A
Examples of diastereo isomers include ___________ and ______________
A. Mannose and galactose
B. Mannose and Fructose
C. Galactose and fructose
D. None of the options
ANSWER: A
The class of carbohydrate from which all other carbohydrates are formed
is_______________
A. Glycolysis
B. Polyssacharides
C. disaccharides
D. Monosaccharides
ANSWER: D
The simplest carbohydrates are called oligosaccharide while the complex carbohydrates
are monosaccharides and polysaccharide. True/false
A. True
B. False
C. None of the options
D. All of the options
ANSWER: B
If the sugar has an aldehyde group, it is known as __________________
A. Aldose
B. Ketose
C. Aldehyde
D. Ketone
ANSWER: A
_________________ are the molecules that have the same chemical formula but different
structure
A. Polymers
B. Monomers
C. Isomers
D. None of the options
ANSWER: C
The general formula of tetrasaccharide is __________________
A. CnH2nO
B. (CH3)nO
C. (CH3O)n
D. Cn(H2O)n-3
ANSWER: D
Carbohydrate can be structurally represented in the following form
EXCEPT_______________
A. Open chain structure
B. Hemi-acetal structure and
C. Haworth structure
D. Open and close structure
ANSWER: D
The structure of carbohydrate that shows the presence of pyranose ring structure is
called______________
A. Open chain structure
B. Hemi-acetal structure and
C. Haworth structure
D. Open and close structure
ANSWER: C
RNA only differs from DNA in having a single polynucleotide chain.True/false
A. True
B. False
C. None of the options
D. All of the options
ANSWER: B
Lipids are a group of naturally occurring molecules that include fats, oil, waxes, sterols,
monoglycerides, diglycerides, triglycerides, phospholipids and comprises
about____________ dry mass of the cell
A. 5%
B. 7%
C. 8%
D. 9%
ANSWER: A
Oil is a type of lipid which is liquid or gas at ordinary room temperature while fat is a
lipid which is solid at room temperature. True/false
A. True
B. False
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
Generally fat with unsaturated fatty acids are __________ at room temperature (25
degree centigrade)
A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Solid in the presence of oxygen
D. Liquid in the absence of oxygen
ANSWER: B
Fats are abundantly found in _____________
A. Reproductive tissue
B. Vegetative tissue
C. All of the above
D. None of the option
ANSWER: B
Natural lipids are readily soluble in _______________
A. Oil
B. Mercury
C. Water
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
Which of the following statement is false about lipids?
A. Lipid acts as thermal conductor
B. Lipids act as metabolic deregulators
C. Lipids act as surfactants and detect collapse of lungs during expiration
D. Lipids used in emulsification and intestinal absorption of non-polar nutrients like fatty
acids and fat soluble vitamins
ANSWER: D
The diseases associated with abnormal chemistry or metabolism of lipids include the
following EXCEPT___________
A. Obesity
B. Atherosclerosis
C. Diabetes Mellitus
D. Hypertension
ANSWER: D
The type of biomolecule formed from chemical reaction between alcohol (glycerol) and
fatty acids through ester linkage is called _______________
A. Lipid
B. Fats and oils
C. Carbohydrates
D. Protein
ANSWER: A
Fatty acids are derivatives of aliphatic hydrocarbons that contain ______________ group
A. – COOH
B. -COH
C. -RCOOH
D. -ROH
ANSWER: A
The activation of log chain fatty acids requires which of the following components?
A. 2 ATP and CoA
B. 2 ATP
C. 2 ATP and CoA and fatty acyl Co A
D. Fatty acyl carnitine
ANSWER: A
The general formula of fatty acid is __________________
A. COOH-R (CH2)n
B. R-(CH2)n-COOH
C. R-(CnH2)n-COOH
D. R-(CH2)n-COH
ANSWER: B
The type of fatty acid that contains more than 10 carbon atoms and found in
hydrogenated oils, animal fats, butter and coconut and palm oils is
called_________________
A. Short chain saturated fatty acid
B. Long chain saturated fatty acid
C. Short chain unsaturated fatty acid
D. Long chain unsaturated fatty acid
ANSWER: B
Which of the following is an example of short chain saturated fatty acid?
A. Stearic (18 Carbon) with molecular formula CH3-(CH2)16-COOH
B. Lignoceric (24C ) with molecular formula CH3-(CH2)22-COOH
C. Palmitic(16 Carbon) with molecular formula CH3-(CH2)14-COOH
D. Caproic fatty acid (6 Carbon) with molecular formula CH3-(CH2)4-COOH
ANSWER: D
In which form are most lipids found?
A. Sterols
B. Phospholipids
C. Triglycerides
D. Monoglycerides
ANSWER: C
In order to consume adequate essential fatty acids we should_______________
A. Limit our intake of total fat to no more than 30% of total calories
B. Aim to consume about 25 grams of saturated fat daily
C. Try to consume the recommended number of servings from whole grains and
vegetables
D. Avoid fatty fish such as tuna and salmon
ANSWER: C
Monounsaturated fatty acids have only one double bond while polyunsaturated fatty acids
contain ____________
A. One double bond, two or more double bonds
B. two double bonds, One double bond
C. Two double bond, many double bonds
D. None of the options
ANSWER: A
The term C16:1?9 means____________
A. It has 16 carbon atoms and one double bond located at carbon number 9 and involving
carbon 10
B. it has 16 carbon atoms and one double bond located at carbon number 9
C. it has 16 carbon atoms and one double bond located at carbon number 9 and involving
carbon 9
D. it has 16 carbon atoms and two double bond located at carbon number 9 and involving
carbon 10
ANSWER: A
The most commonly fatty acid in natural fats is called________________
A. Palmitoleic acid
B. Oleic acid
C. Nervonic acid
D. Lignoceric acid
ANSWER: C
Which group of foods is highest in polyunsaturated fatty acid?
A. Hamburger, french fries, and cupcake
B. Margarine, salad dressing, and corn oil
C. Peanut oil, corn oil, cottonseed oil, soyabean oil and egg yolk
D. Eggs, cheese, and milk
ANSWER: C
Which of the following statement is NOT true?
A. Glycerol is a polyhydric alcohol
B. Glycerol is a colorless viscous oily liquid with sweet taste
C. Glycerol combines with three molecules of nitric acid to form trinitroglycerin that is
used as explosive and vasodilator
D. Glycerol has a nutritive value by conversion into glucose and enters in structure of
phospholipids
ANSWER: A
Which of the following is an example of derived lipids?
A. Steroids
B. Terpenes
C. Carotenoids
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
The specific gravity of lipid is _______________
A. 0.2
B. 0.8
C. 1.0
D. 1.5
ANSWER: B
The specific gravity of lipid is _______________
A. Less than unity
B. Greater than one
C. Equal to one
D. None of the options
ANSWER: A
Isomers which posses the same molecular and structural formula but differ in
arrangement of atoms or groups in space around the double bonds are known
as____________
A. Geometrical isomerism
B. Optical isomerism
C. Enantiomers
D. Diastereomers
ANSWER: A
These compounds possess the same molecular formula but differ from each other in
physical or chemical properties, are called ___________ and the phenomenon is termed
______________
A. Monomers, isomerism
B. Isomerism, isomers
C. Isomers, isomerism
D. Isomerism, monomers
ANSWER: C
Which of the following compounds will exhibit cis-trans isomerism?
A. 2-butene
B. 2-butyne
C. 2-butanol
D. Butanal
ANSWER: A
The isomers which can be inter converted through rotation around a single bond are
_____________
A. Conformers
B. Diastereomers
C. Enantiomers
D. Positional isomers
ANSWER: A
An isomer of ethanol is__________________
A. Methanol
B. Diethyl ether
C. Acetone
D. Dimethyl ether
ANSWER: D
The number of isomers of C6H14 is_____________
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
ANSWER: B
Compound can exist as a maximum of two structural isomers. True or false?
A. True
B. False
C. None of the options
D. All of the options
ANSWER: B
Structural isomers may come from different families of organic compound. True or false?
A. True
B. False
C. None of the options
D. All of the options
ANSWER: A
Cis-trans isomerism only occurs in compounds possessing double bonds. True or false?
A. True
B. False
C. None of the options
D. All of the options
ANSWER: B
Which of the following notations is not used to distinguish between pairs of enantiomers?
A. R and S
B. E and Z
C. R and E
D. S and Z
ANSWER: B
All twenty of the amino acids found in proteins are chiral. True or false?
A. True
B. False
C. None of the options
D. All of the options
ANSWER: B
Types of structural isomerism are_______________________
A. Position isomerism
B. Functional group isomerism
C. Chain isomerism
D. All of them
ANSWER: D
Compounds which have same molecular formula but different structural formula is
called____________
A. Structural isomer
B. Molecular isomer
C. Optical isomer
D. Position isomer
ANSWER: A
If different functional groups are present it is termed as________________
A. Position isomerism, functional group isomerism
B. Functional group isomerism, chain isomerism
C. Chain isomerism, position isomerism
D. All of them
ANSWER: B
If position of functional group varies in each of its isomer then its
is___________________
A. Position isomerism
B. Functional group isomerism
C. Chain isomerism
D. All of them
ANSWER: A
Two optical isomers are formed from carbon atoms to create ___________bond
A. 4 atoms
B. 2 atoms
C. 1 atom
D. 3 atoms
ANSWER: A
Only one particular optical isomer of amino acids are used in our body to
make_______________
A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids
C. Protein
D. Oxygen
ANSWER: C
There is a difference in effect of optical isomer on________________
A. Heat
B. Temperature
C. Polarized light
D. Pressure
ANSWER: C
Types of stereoisomerism are optical isomerism and __________________
A. Cis-isomerism
B. Trans-isomerism
C. Cis-trans isomerism
D. All of them
ANSWER: C
Compounds which have different arrangements of atoms in space while having same
atoms bonded to each other are said to have_______________
A. Position isomerism
B. Functional group isomerism
C. Chain isomerism
D. Stereoisomerism
ANSWER: D
Two isomeric forms of a saturated hydrocarbon_________________
A. Have the same structure
B. Have different compositions of elements
C. Have the same molecular formula
D. Have a different content of the isotopes of hydrogen
ANSWER: C
Which of the following hydrocarbons does not have isomers?
A. C7H16
B. C6H14
C. C5H10
D. C3H8
ANSWER: D
The name of the alkane isomer of cis-3-hexene is________________
A. 2-methylpentane
B. 3-methylpentane
C. n-hexane
D. Cyclohexane
ANSWER: D
How many aromatic isomers of dibromobenzene exist?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
ANSWER: B
Which one of the following compounds is an isomer of CH3CH2CH2CH2OH?
A. CH3CH2CH2OH
B. CH3CH(OH)CH3
C. CH3CH2CH2CHO
D. None of the above
ANSWER: D
Which of the following compounds is a functional group isomer of C2H5OH, ethanol?
A. Ethanal, CH3CHO
B. Acetic acid, CH3COOH
C. Diethyl ether, (C2H5)2O
D. Dimethyl ether, (CH3)2O
ANSWER: D
Which of the following does NOT exhibit geometric isomerism?
A. 4-octene
B. 2-pentene
C. 3-hexene
D. 1-hexene
ANSWER: D
Which of the following compounds displays optical isomerism?
A. CH2(OH)-CH2(OH)
B. CH3-CHCl-COOH
C. CH2=CHCl
D. CHCl=CHCl
ANSWER: B
How many isomeric alkanes of the molecular formula C5H12 are there?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
ANSWER: C
How many alcohols are structural isomers with the formula C5H11OH?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
ANSWER: D
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the reaction between Cl2 and
C2H6?
A. It is a substitution reaction
B. The reaction will give a single product of C2H5Cl
C. The reaction mechanism involves free radicals
D. The reaction can be initiated with either sunlight or heat
ANSWER: B
Which of the following will undergo an addition reaction with chlorine?
A. CH3CH2CH2CH3
B. CH3CH2CH=CHCH3
C. C6H6
D. CH3CH2COOH
ANSWER: B
What is the expected product formed from the reaction between 2-butene and Cl2?
A. 1-chlorobutane
B. 2-chlorobutane
C. 2,3-dichlorobutane
D. 2,2-dichlorobutane
ANSWER: C
The reaction of ethyne with which of the following gives CH2Br-CHBrCl?
A. HCl, then HBr
B. HCl, then Br2
C. Cl2, then HBr
D. Cl2, then Br2
ANSWER: B
Dehydration of an alcohol leads to the formation of an _________________
A. Alkene
B. Alkane
C. Alkyne
D. Alkyl halide
ANSWER: A
The reaction in which a carboxylic acid reacts with a base to form a salt and water is
called _________________
A. Ionization
B. Esterification
C. Hydrolysis
D. Neutralization
ANSWER: D
How many moles of sodium hydroxide will react with one mole of_________________
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 1
ANSWER: D
Ethanol can be oxidized stepwise. What is the first stable intermediate product when
ethanol is oxidized with a mild oxidation agent?
A. CH3COOH
B. CO2
C. CH3CHO
D. CH3CH2OH
ANSWER: C
Which of the following alcohols forms a ketone when oxidized?
A. 1-propanol
B. Methanol
C. 2-methyl-2-propanol
D. 2-propanol
ANSWER: D
What is the sum of the coefficients in the balanced equation for the complete combustion
of 2-methylbutane? Use smallest whole number coefficients. Do not forget coefficients of
1
A. 10
B. 13
C. 17
D. 20
ANSWER: D
The organic starting materials for the preparation of an ester could be
_________________
A. An acid and an alcohol
B. A ketone and an alcohol
C. An alkane and a ketone
D. Only an acid
ANSWER: A
Hydrolysis (saponification) of a fat would yield ________________
A. Water and an alkene
B. Ethanol and propanoic acid
C. Glycerol and soap
D. Ethanol and a soap
ANSWER: C
The segment -CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2- represents the polymer named
_________________
A. Polybutylene
B. Polyhexene
C. Polypropylene
D. Polyethylene
ANSWER: D
The digestion of proteins begins in the ______________
A. Mouth
B. Stomach
C. Small Intestine
D. Large intestine
ANSWER: B
_______________ enzyme stimulates the pancreas to release sodium bicarbonate.
A. CCK
B. Secretin
C. Renin
D. Elastase
ANSWER: B
In the small intestine, ____________ binds to trypsinogen and converts it into its active
form, trypsin
A. Enterokinase
B. Elastase
C. Chymotrypsinogen
D. All of the above
ANSWER: A
_______________ is an example of proteolytic enzyme
A. Chymotrypsinogen
B. Oligopeptidase
C. Enterokinase
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
Urea is normally eliminated through the _____________
A. Bile
B. Kidney
C. Lungs
D. Sweats
ANSWER: B
Glucogenic amino acids include all EXCEPT________________
A. Alanine
B. Cysteine
C. Glycine
D. Leucine
ANSWER: D

Tryptophan is an example of ketogenic amino acids

A. True
B. False
C. Not sure
D. May be
ANSWER: A
__________________is the enzyme that converts pyruvate into acetyl CoA.
A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
B. Pyruvate hydrogenase
C. Enterokinase
D. None of the above
ANSWER: A
Aerobic respiration oxidizes ________________to carbon dioxide and water
A. Lactic acid
B. Acetic acid
C. Pyruvic acid
D. All of the above
ANSWER: C
The amount of energy needed to make one molecule of glucose from six molecules of
carbon dioxide is
A. 18 molecules of ATP
B. 16 molecules of ATP
C. 24 molecules of ATP
D. 12 molecules of ATP
ANSWER: A
Each molecule of NADPH is energetically equivalent to __________molecules of ATP
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
ANSWER: B
_______________ enzyme transfers a phosphate group from ATP to another compound
A. Kinases
B. Phosphatase
C. Dehydrogenase
D. Isomerase
ANSWER: A
In glycolysis, ___________ enzyme converts C=C group to alcohol
A. Enolase
B. Synthase
C. Mutase
D. Isomerase
ANSWER: A
To start the Krebs cycle, citrate synthase combines acetyl CoA and oxaloacetate to form a
___________
A. 5-hyrogen molecule
B. 6-carbon citrate molecule
C. 4-nitrogen molecule
D. All of the above
ANSWER: B
Glycogen phosphorylase is activated by phosphoprotein, whereas glycogen synthase is
inhibited. True/false
A. True
B. False
C. None of the option
D. All of the above
ANSWER: B
Compensatory induction of gluconeogenesis occurs in the kidneys and intestine, driven
by _____________ and _______________
A. Glucagon and glucocorticords
B. Glucargon and glycerolysis
C. Glucocorticoids and glycerolysis
D. Acidosis and hypoglycemia
ANSWER: A
The process of glycogen synthesis in which glucose molecules are added to chains of
glycogen for storage is called____________
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Glycogenesis
D. Glycogenolysis
ANSWER: C
The metabolic pathway that results in the generation of glucose from non-carbohydrate
carbon substrates is called_______________
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Glycerolysis
D. Glycogenolysis
ANSWER: B
Non-carbohydrate carbon substrates include the following EXCEPT____________
A. Pyruvate
B. Lactate
C. Glycerol
D. Isomerism
ANSWER: D
The level of blood glucose is maintained through degradation of glycogen known
as_____________
A. Glycogenolysis
B. Glycerolysis
C. Gluconeogenesis
D. Hypoglycemia
ANSWER: A
Total ATP after electron transport chain is_______________
A. 34 ATP
B. 35 ATP
C. 36 ATP
D. 37 ATP
ANSWER: C
In gluconeogenesis, glucose is generated by______________
A. non carbohydrate carbon substrates
B. carbohydrate carbon substrates
C. sucrose
D. yeast
ANSWER: A
Fermentation takes place in_______________
A. absence of oxygen
B. presence of oxygen
C. presence of carbon
D. presence of nitrogen
ANSWER: A
Molecule generated in oxidative phase of pentose phosphate pathway
is________________
A. NADP
B. NADPH
C. ADP
D. ATP
ANSWER: B
In fermentation process, sugars are converted into_____________
A. acids
B. gases
C. alcohol
D. all of above
ANSWER: D
In gluconeogenesis, glucose is generated by_______________
A. non carbohydrate carbon substrates
B. carbohydrate carbon substrates
C. sucrose
D. yeast
ANSWER: A
Gluconeogenesis is often associated with_______________
A. ketosis
B. hexoses
C. pentoses
D. none of above
ANSWER: A
In humans, main gluconeogenic precursors are_____________
A. lactate
B. glycerol
C. alanine
D. all of above
ANSWER: D
In vertebrates, gluconeogenesis mainly takes place in_____________
A. stomach
B. liver
C. heart
D. intestine
ANSWER: B
Number of enzyme catalyzed reactions in gluconeogenesis are______________
A. 12
B. 13
C. 11
D. 10
ANSWER: C
Which of the following statements about gluconeogenesis is correct?
A. Muscles have a large glycogen store which gives rise to blood glucose during
prolonged starvation
B. Fatty acids are plentiful in the blood during starvation and are used for glucose
synthesis
C. The enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase hydrolyses glucose-6-phosphate and is present in
most cells
D. Gluconeogenesis enables the liver to maintain blood glucose levels during starvation
ANSWER: D
Which of the following statements about the use and synthesis of glucose in the body is
correct?
A. Brain can use fatty acids for all its energy needs
B. Red blood cells can use fatty acids for all their energy needs
C. The brain can use ketone bodies for all its energy needs
D. The brain can use glucose for all its energy needs
ANSWER: D
Which of the following statements about the process of gluconeogenesis is correct?
A. In gluconeogenesis pyruvate is first converted to phosphoenolpyruvate by
phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
B. In gluconeogenesis fructose-1:6-bisphosphatase converts fructose-1:6-bisphosphate
into fructose-1-phosphate
C. Glucose-6-phosphatase hydrolyses glucose-6-phosphate to release glucose into the
blood
D. Glucose-6-phosphatase hydrolyses glucose-6-phosphate and is found in liver and
muscle
ANSWER: C
Which of the following statements about the sources of pyruvate used by the liver for
gluconeogenesis is correct?
A. The main source of glucose carbons for gluconeogenesis is pyruvate synthesised from
acetyl-CoA
B. The main source of glucose carbons cannot occur from muscles as they do not undergo
gluconeogenesis
C. The main source of glucose carbons in gluconeogenesis is pyruvate released from
muscles
D. The main source of glucose carbons for gluconeogenesis is alanine derived from
breakdown of muscle
ANSWER: D
Which of the following statements about the effect of ethanol metabolism on
gluconeogenesis is correct?
A. The metabolism of ethanol by the liver decreases the NADH/NAD+ ratio reducing its
ability to perform gluconeogenesis
B. The reduction of ethanol by the liver increases the NADH/NAD+ ratio reducing its
ability to perform gluconeogenesis
C. The oxidation of ethanol by the liver increases the NADH/NAD+ ratio increasing its
ability to perform gluconeogenesis
D. The metabolism of ethanol by the liver increases the NADH/NAD+ ratio reducing its
ability to perform gluconeogenesis
ANSWER: D
What is achieved by the Cori cycle which involves metabolism of lactate?
A. Lactate is taken up by the liver for synthesis of glucose
B. Metabolic alkalosis is prevented by removing lactate from the blood
C. Lactate is removed from the blood as it inhibits glycolysis in the erythrocyte
D. Lactate is used by the muscle for fuel
ANSWER: A
What happens to the glycerol part of triacylglycerols when they are hydrolysed in the
capillaries of adipose tissue?
A. Glycerol enters the adipocyte and is phosphorylated so that re-esterification of the
released fatty acids can take place inside the cell
B. Glycerol is transported to the liver where it can enter the glycolytic or gluconeogenic
pathway
C. Glycerol is transported to the kidney where it can be used as a buffer for H+ released
in metabolism
D. Glycerol is transported to the muscle to be used as fuel
ANSWER: D
Which of the following statements about gluconeogenesis is not correct?
A. Lactate from muscle vigorous muscle activity can be used as a carbon source in
gluconeogenesis
B. Glycerol from the hydrolysis of triacylglycerols is converted to glucose in
gluconeogenesis
C. Lactate from red blood cells can be used as a carbon source in gluconeogenesis
D. Fatty acids from the hydrolysis of triacylglycerols can be used as a carbon source in
gluconeogenesis
ANSWER: D
Epinephrine not only activates glycogen phosphorylase but also inhibits glycogen
synthase. True/false
A. True
B. False
C. None of the option
D. All of the above
ANSWER: A
Glycogenolysis is regulated hormonally in response to blood sugar levels by glucagon
and insulin and stimulated by epinephrine during the fight-or-flight response. True or
False
A. True
B. False
C. None of the option
D. All of the above
ANSWER: A
GST 224(LEADERSHIP)
Leadership can be defined as the following except
A. the ability to achieve great personal and organizational results through others using
positive interpersonal relationships
B. the process of influencing an organized group toward accomplishing its goals
C. the process of helping a group of people engage and maximize their time properly
without degenerating to conflict
D. the process of helping a person egocentric and be successful
ANSWER: D
Leadership skills that a leader needs includes all the following except
A. Leadership tools
B. leadership abilities
C. Leadership behaviours
D. Leadership Man power
ANSWER: D
The following are the major skills a leader must possess to enhances effective leadership
except
A. Ability to motivate others
B. Planning
C. Commitment
D. Disbursement
ANSWER: D
The importance of leadership includes the following except
A. It makes a business organization grow and successful
B. It enables a non-profit organization fulfil its mission
C. It helps to point people in the same direction and harness their efforts jointly
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
ANSWER: E
Effect leaderships involves none of the following except
A. Not creating an inspiring vision of future
B. Motivates and inspires people to disengage from that vision
C. Mismanages delivery of the vision
D. Coaches and builds a team, so that it is more effective at achieving the vision
ANSWER: D
Forces that affect the four factors of leadership are all of the following except
A. The relationship between the leader and his followers
B. The skills of both the leader and his followers
C. How the organization is organized
D. Formal leaders within the organization
ANSWER: D
Which of the following is correct according to Dewett’s leadership rules
A. Reduce ambiguity
B. Be fair
C. Stay positive
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
ANSWER: E
The following are the factors that are involved in effective leadership except
A. Leader
B. Followers
C. Communication
D. Situation
E. Ruler
ANSWER: E
What is Leadership skills
A. Leadership skills are tools, behaviour and capabilities
B. Leadership skills are way of life
C. Leadership skills are the methods of running an organisation
D. Leadership skills are exhibited by a group of socialites
ANSWER: A
Leadership styles includes the foloowing except
A. Autocratic style
B. Bureaucratic style
C. Monachy Style
D. Democratic style
E. Laissez – faire style
ANSWER: C
The following are theories of leadership except
A. Participative theories
B. Genetic theories
C. Management theories
D. Relationship theories
E. Trait theories
ANSWER: B
From the leadership skill based model the most important constituent is
A. Competence
B. Individual attribute
C. Leadership outcome
D. Effective problem solving performance
E. Motivation
ANSWER: A
The leadership skill based model has five components except
A. Competencies
B. Individual attributes
C. Leadership outcomes
D. Environmental influences
E. Constitutional influences
ANSWER: E
From the leadership skill based model individual attribute encopasses the following
except
A. General cognitive ability
B. Crystalised cognitive ability
C. Motivation
D. Perception
E. None of the above
ANSWER: C
From the leadership skill based model competence encopasses the following except
A. Problem solving skill
B. Performance skill
C. Knowledge skill
D. Social judgement skill
E. All of the above
ANSWER: B
Diversity refers to the varieties of all the following except
A. Values
B. Worldviews
C. Personal experiences
D. Race
E. None of the above
ANSWER: D
Keys to managing diversity are all of the following except
A. Acceptance
B. Respect
C. Connection
D. Background
ANSWER: D
Diversity management is recognised in contemporary human resource management as all
of the following except
A. Client service delivery
B. Employee satisfaction
C. A key to life
D. A key to improving organisational performance
ANSWER: C
Diversity benefits encompasses all of the following except
A. Being recognised as an employer of choice
B. Recruiting and retaining the best candidates from a broader talent pool
C. Increase loses
D. Better knowledge and understanding of the community we serve
E. Reduced turnover
ANSWER: C
Diversity Areas encopasses all of the following except
A. Generational diversity
B. Gender diversity
C. Cultural diversity
D. Workplace flexibility
E. None of the above
ANSWER: E
The predicted five critical forces that would shape leadership competencies in the future
are all of the following except
A. Global competition
B. Groups
C. Differing employment needs
D. Rapid and flexible organisations
E. Teams
ANSWER: B
The following are various roles based on human behaviours that can be played by one or
more people within a group or team except
A. Group roles
B. Task roles
C. Interactive roles
D. Self oriented roles
E. None of the above
ANSWER: A
Essentials of teamwork is achieved when all members of the team exhibit the following
skills except
A. Ability to help and be helped
B. Respect
C. Support
D. Openess
E. Self will
ANSWER: E
Advantages of team work is none of the following except
A. Idea loss
B. Decreased efficiency
C. Lack of learning experience
D. Enhanced communication
E. Bulk workload
ANSWER: D
Benefit of communication in team work comprises of all of the following except
A. Clarifies responsibility
B. Increases interraction
C. Enhances trainning
D. Eliminates problems
E. Reduces conflicts
ANSWER: D
The following are a few simple ways to prevent and resolve conflicts except
A. If the team leaders are unable to resolve the dispute the management team leader
should then be informed so that further conflicts resolution steps can be taken
B. Team leader should try as much as possible to effectively resolve all conflicts by
addressing complaints objectively and offering constructive criticism
C. Provide a clear set of rules and responsibilities as a necessity for team members to
follow
D. Ensure each team member is shouldering an equal share of the work so that no one
feels frustrated or resentful
E. Allow criticism and placing/shifting blame
ANSWER: E
Emotion inteligience can be defined as all of the following except
A. It is the ability to use emotions in positive ways to relieve stress communicate
effectively empathize with others overcome challenges and defuse conflict
B. It is the ability to defend policy
C. It is the ability to manage emotions in positive ways to relieve stress communicate
effectively empathize with others overcome challenges, and defuse conflict
D. It is the ability to understand positive ways to relieve stress, communicate effectively,
empathize with others, overcome challenges, and defuse conflict
E. All of the above
ANSWER: B
The most critical attribute that makes a leader great and sucessful is
A. Intelligient quotient
B. Best trainning
C. Analytical mind
D. Emotional intelligience
E. Endless supply of smart ideas
ANSWER: D
The following are the attributes of better leaders except
A. The ability to understand what motivates others
B. Higher intelligient quotient
C. Higher emotional intelligence
D. Relate in a positive manner
E. Building stronger bonds with others in the workplace
ANSWER: B
An effective leader encourages higher performances and work place satisfaction by
A. Recognizing the needs of his people and meeting them
B. Creating a good work plan
C. Creating Synergy among the workers
D. Team work
E. All of the above
ANSWER: A
An emotionally perceptive and intelligent leader is able to build stronger teams by
A. Encouraging Team work
B. Diversifying ideas
C. Strategically utilizing the emotional diversity of their team members to benefit the
whole team
D. Constant contact
E. All of the above
ANSWER: C
The core attributes that sums up emotional intelligence are all of the following except
A. Motivation
B. Empathy
C. Self awareness
D. Self examination
E. Self regulation
ANSWER: D
The qualities of leaders with high emotional intelligience includes all of the following
except
A. They are gracious
B. They are generous
C. They are curious
D. They are balanced
E. They are not perfectionist
ANSWER: B
The Keys that build emotional intelligience are all of the following except
A. The ability to connect emotionally with others
B. The ability to recognize your emotions and keep them from overwhelming you
C. The ability to quickly reduce immediate stress in differing settings
D. The ability to resolve conflicts positively and with confidence
E. None of the above
ANSWER: E
The following are the importance of emotional intelligience except
A. Encouragement
B. Mental well being
C. Physical health
D. Relationship
E. Conflict resolution
ANSWER: A
The set of traits and behaviors labelled as masculine includes the following except
A. Assertive
B. Self-reliant
C. Independent
D. Loyal
E. None of the Above
ANSWER: D
The set of traits and behaviors labelled as feminine includes the following except
A. Sympathetic
B. Affectionate
C. Compassionate
D. Makes dicision easily
E. Warm and tender
ANSWER: D
The baggage woman bring to leadership include the following infleuntial factors except
A. Socialization
B. Culture of origin
C. Organisational culture
D. All of the Above
ANSWER: D
The following are the main reasons preventing women from being promoted into top
organization except
A. Prejudice
B. Background
C. Human capital differencies
D. Gender differences
E. None of the above
ANSWER: B
The similarities between coaching and mentoring includes the following except
A. Use of questioning strategies to draw a person out
B. Use of honest feedback to simulate growth
C. Focus on learning and Growth
D. Provide a source of guidiance
E. All of the above
ANSWER: E
Leadership can be defined as none of the following except
A. Process of social influence which maximizes the effort of others towards the
achievement of a goal
B. Process of collective influence which combines the effort of others towards goal
achievement
C. Process of achieving goals by combined efforts
D. Process of combined achievement for goal getting plans
ANSWER: A
Components of Leadership includes all of the following except
A. Planning
B. Organising
C. Staffing
D. Delibration
E. Motivating
ANSWER: D
Benefits of effective leadership includes all of the following except
A. It leads to effective utilization of available resources
B. It eliminates stress and fatigue thereby making work interesting
C. It increases patronage and profitability of the organization
D. It results in growth development and expansion of the organization
E. None of the above
ANSWER: E
One of the following is not a reason why organizational success or failure hinges on
leadership effectivenes
A. Lack of leadership traits, process and credibility
B. Not Making Time for the Team
C. Accepting help
D. Inability to face the power dynamics of leadership
E. Poor Communication and Presentation skill
ANSWER: C
Challenge is all of the following except
A. An invitation to rise to another level
B. An invitation to test yourself and improve in the process
C. An invitation to show that you can accomplish something that may seem difficult
D. An invitation to enlarge
E. An invitation to accomplish possible task
ANSWER: D
Challenges to effective leadership are all of the following except
A. Natural disasters
B. Uninformed public criticism
C. Opposition
D. Sociopolitical constraints
E. None of the above
ANSWER: E
Solutions to the Challenges of Effective Leadership involves all of the following except
A. Retain organisation vision and goal
B. Sensitization
C. Ask for feedback and effect changes accordingly
D. Be proactive
E. Face conflict squarely
ANSWER: B
The leadership skill based model has five components except
A. Competencies
B. Individual attributes
C. Leadership outcomes
D. Environmental influences
E. Constitutional influences
ANSWER: E
From the leadership skill based model individual attribute encopasses the following
except
A. General cognitive ability
B. Crystalised cognitive ability
C. Motivation
D. Perception
E. None of the above
ANSWER: C
Which of the following is correct according to Dewett’s leadership rules
A. Reduce ambiguity
B. Be fair
C. Stay positive
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
ANSWER: E