VIETNAM NATIONAL UNIVERSITY – HOCHIMINH CITY Full name: ................................................................

UNIVERSITY OF SOCIAL SCIENCES AND HUMANITIES Student ID: ...............................................................

FACULTY OF ENGLISH LINGUISTICS & LITERATURE
Class code: ..................... Test Room: .....................
DEPARTMENT OF ENGLISH LINGUISTICS

SAMPLE 2-FINAL EXAMINATION

INTRODUCTION TO ENGLISH LINGUISTICS

---------

Time allotted: 60 minutes Exam date:

Proctor
Approved by Chair Examiner Total Score
(CBCT)

1. 1. Score in figures:

2. 2. Score in words:

Note: No materials or dictionaries are allowed.

SECTION 1 TRUE/FALSE
• Read each statement carefully and decide whether it is True or False.
Instructions
Number of questions 10
Point/correct question 2
Maximum points 20

1. Allophones are phonetic variations – different pronunciations – of the same phoneme.

The maxim of quantity requires information provided in conversations to be genuine
2.
and justified.
Lateral approximant consonant sounds are made by releasing air past the sides of the
3.
tongue while making a block in the middle.
4. ‘Source’ is the semantic role of the place to which something moves.
In Semantics, conceptual meaning covers basic, essential components of meaning that
5.
are conveyed by the literal use of the word.
A phoneme is the smallest unit of language that has its own meaning, either a word or
6.
a part of a word.
7. Labiodental refers to a consonant articulated with the tongue against the upper teeth.
Derivation is the process of creating a new word out of an old word, usually by
8.
adding a prefix or suffix.

1
 Hyponymy is a lexical relation in which the meaning of one word contains the
9.
meaning of the other.
Displacement in human language refers to the fact that the meaning of linguistic sign
10.
is not predictable from its own form.

SECTION 2 PHONETICS
• Read the phonetic descriptions carefully and decide which phoneme is being
Instructions referred to.
• Form the phonemic structure from the description.
• Write the word for each of the transcription.
Number of questions 10
Point/correct question 2
Maximum points 20

Phonemic structure Word

voiced
0 velar e t /ɡet/ get
plosive

0 b ɡ /bʌɡ/ bug

Phonemic
Word
structure

1. h t

labial voiced
2. ‘schwa’ nasal eɪ fricative
primary stress alveolar
voiceless
lateral
3. velar
approximant
plosive

voiceless s
4. n
affricate

glottal b
fricative
5.

Tense
voiceless t ‘schwa’
affricate
6. Primary Stress

2
 bilabial s
7. k
approximant

semi-vowel
8. s
palatal

voiced
9. affricate ɔɪ z

voiceless
s
10. post-alveolar k
fricative

WORD FORMATION PROCESSES

SECTION 3
MORPHOLOGY
Instructions • Circle the correct option.
Number of questions 10
Point/correct question 2
Maximum points 20

1. Which word-formation process was involved in the creation of phone?

A. blending B. clipping C. backformation D. conversion
2. ‘Georgie is getting married’. Which word-formation was involved in the creation of the underlined
word?
A. conversion B. derivation C. hypocorism D. blending
3. ‘I am petting a spider’. Which word-formation was involved in the creation of the underlined word?
A. blending B. clipping C. backformation D. conversion
4. Which word-formation process was involved in the creation of WIFI?
A. derivation B. blending C. acronym D. coinage
5. Which word-formation process was involved in the creation of internationalization?
A. blending B. compounding C. derivation D. coinage
6. Which word-formation process was involved in the creation of deli?
A. blending B. clipping C. backformation D. conversion
7. Which of the following words DOES NOT contain an inflectional morpheme?
A. most intelligent B. actor C. the hairdresser’s D. better
8. Which of the following words contains a bound morpheme?
A. classmate B. doctor C. enable D. honest
9. Which of the following words contains NO free root?
A. telephone B. caretaker C. unknown D. active
10. How many functional morphemes are there in the sentence: “This massive storm obviously had a
huge impact on air travelers”
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

3
SECTION 4 SYNTAX
• The following sentences are either structurally or semantically ambiguous (i.e.
Instructions more than one interpretation is possible).
• Read the sentences carefully and explain the ambiguity by writing complete
explaining sentences.
Number of questions 4 interpretations
Point/correct question 2.5
Maximum points 10

“Mano met a woman with a wooden leg named Aminah.”

Example
Interpretation 1 • Mano met a woman who had a wooden leg that had the name "Aminah".
Interpretation 2 • Mano met a woman who had a wooden leg and had the name "Aminah".

Question 1 “I want everything ready for the wedding next week.”

Interpretation 1 •

Interpretation 2 •

Question 2 “The chicken is ready to eat.”

Interpretation 1 •

Interpretation 2 •

SEMANTICS
SECTION 5
SEMANTIC ROLES
• Identify the semantic role of the underlined noun phrase in each of the
Instructions following sentences.
Number of questions 5
Point/correct question 2
Maximum points 10

1. John eats a sandwich every morning.

2. Danny seemed to enjoy the movie.

3. He was killed by cancer.

4. She graduated from a famous university.

5. He cooked me lunch.

4
 SEMANTICS
SECTION 6
LEXICAL RELATIONS
Instructions • Identify the lexical relation between the underlined words.
Number of questions 5
Point/correct question 2
Maximum points 10

He is truly a bore.
1.
I saw a boar yesterday.

She is Head of Marketing.

2.
She nodded her head in agreement.

That was a very courageous decision.

3.
He is a brave soldier.

I would love a hot drink.

4.
It is cold outside.

He works as an English teacher.

5.
Please state your name, age and occupation below.

SECTION 7 PRAGMATICS
Instructions • Identify one core presupposition of each of the following sentences.
Number of questions 5
Point/correct question 2
Maximum points 10

1. I lived another year in Japan.

2. If he were rich, he would buy a new car.

3. Tom pretended to be sick.

4. Please answer the aforementioned question.

5. He finally succeeded in getting into university.

END OF TEST
5