BAPTIST HOSPITAL SCHOOL OF

NURSING EKU ENTRANCE

EXAMINATION PAST QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS 2014-2020

TABLE
CONTENTS
FIRST YEAR

English Language 2

Mathematics 5

Biology 10

Chemistry 14

Physics 18

Current Affairs 21

SECOND YEAR

English Language 24
Mathematics 27

Biology 31

Chemistry 35

Physics 39

Current Affairs 43

THIRD YEAR

English Language 46
Mathematics 50

Biology 54
Chemistry 58
Physics 61
Current Affairs 64
FOURTH YEAR

English Language 67
Mathematics 72

Biology 77

Chemistry 81

Physics 84

Current Affairs 88
FIFTH YEAR
English Language 91

Mathematics 96

Biology 100

Chemistry 104

Physics 107

Current Affairs 110

SIXTH YEAR

English Language 113

Mathematics 116

Biology 120

Chemistry 124

Physics 127

Current Affairs 13
SEV ENTH YEAR

English Language 134

Mathematics 138

Biology 142

Chemistry 146
Physics 149
Current Affairs 152

ANSWERS 154

FIRST YEAR
Time allowed: 1
▪ hour

▪ Do not open your question booklets until you are told to do so.
The examination consists of six section labelled A to F. All the questions irrespective of
▪ the sections carry equal mark.

Section A- English language 20

questions Section B- mathematics 20
questions Section C- Biology 20
questions Section D- chemistry 15
questions Section E – Physics 15
questions Section F – Current
affairs 10 question
▪ Answer all questions appropriately
▪
Use the answer sheet provided
▪
Use HB pencil to shade the correct answer for each question. Ensure that any shading
made in error is thoroughly erased.
▪
Write your NAME, EXAMINATION NUMBER and other needed information in the
appropriate space with the same number or letter as each digit or letter.
▪ Any candidate caught cheating in the course of the examination will be duly penalized.
▪
The interview date will be made known o the public as soon as possible.
 SECTION A

ENGLIS

LANGUAGE

In the following passage the numbered gaps indicate missing words. Against each
number in the list below each passage, five choices are offered in columns lettered A to
E. for each question choose the word that is the most suitable to fill the numbered gap in
the passage.

I made a visit to the University Teaching Hospital the other day. At the (1)
department, where accident (2) are treated, the doctors were battling to save the life of
a man who had just been knocked down in a road accident. They (3) the injured man
thoroughly with the aid of several (4) instruments such as the (5) used in measuring body
temperature and the (6) used in listening to the sound of the heart and the lungs. By
using (7) several internal parts of the patient’s body were photographed. (8) and pain killing
injections were given. His bleeding was stopped. The nurses (9) his wounds and he was
carried on a (10) to the special care (11) where those under (12) care are kept. The
doctor asked the nurse to keep the patient under close (13).

A B C D E

1. Mortuary Psychiatry Pediatrics Anatomy Casualty

2. Drivers Victims Motorists Convicts Culprits
3. Examined Inspected Tested Consulted Healed
4. Biology Laboratory Scientific Clinical Pathological
5. Barometer Odometer Speedometer Ammeter Thermometer
6. Microscope Heliotrope Stethoscope Horoscope Telescope
7. Xerox x-ray Xylophone Heat rays Sun ray
8. Anti-malaria Immunization Pathological Anti-tetanus Cerebral
9. Decorated Plastered Rinsed Bathed Dressed
10 Stretcher Trolley Bed Coffin Lift
11 House Ward Cell Compartment Room
.
12 Critical Fatal Potent Serious Intensive
.
13 Restriction Diagnosis Observation Inspection confinement
.

From the words lettered A to E choose the word or group of words that best
completes each of the following sentences.

14. The prices of cars have become

a) Painful
b) Unbearable
c) Stringent
d) Harsh
e) Exorbitant

15. I had trust in the boy before he woefully disappointed me

a) Essential
b) Flagrant
c) Absolute
d) Effective
e) Fruitful

16. The poor boy was when he stepped on a live wire

a) Blazed
b) Electrified
c) Radiated
d) Burnt
e) Electrocuted

17. The politician ran to another country to seek _

a) Refuge
b) Safequard
c) Retreat
d) Safety
e) Privacy
18. The governor ordered that the work done by any contractor should be properly
so as know the correct amount to pay

a) Processed
b) Investigated
c) Accounted
d) Screened
e) Probed

19. The University awarded doctorate degrees to four distinguished

member of the community

a) Honourable
b) Expensive
c) ceremonious
d) Ceremonial
e) Honorary

20. The students threatened to embark on of lectures if their demands were

not met

a) Condonation
b) Suspension
c) Rejection
d) Strike
e) Boycott.

SECTION C

BIOLOGY

1. The ability of the human eyes to focus both distant and near objects is called?
a) Normal adjustment
b) Visual pathway
c) Reflex blinking
d) Accommodations
2. The organ that supplies nutrient to a foetus and also plays a protective
role is called
a) Umbilical cord
b) Cervix
 c) Placenta
d) Uterus
3. The total number of theoracic vertebra in humans
is ? (a) 7 (b) 5 (c)13 (d) 12
4. The functional and basic unit of the mammalian kidney is the
a) Cortex
b) Nephron
c) Medulla
d) Pyramid

5. Odontold process is a feature of;

a) Atlas vertebra
b) Thoracic vertebrae
c) Sacral vertebrae
d) Axis verteb
6. What is the blood group of Mr bright if he donate blood anybody irrespective
of the person’s blood group.
(a) A (b) O (c)AB (d) B
7. The sense of balancing is a function of which part of the mammalian ear
a) Auditory meatus
b) Cochlea
c) Eardrum
d) Semicircular canals
8. Tapeworm has alimentary tract simply because
a) It si a pseudo multicellular organism
b) Its body can absorb already digested food from its host
c) It has piercing and sucking mouth part
d) All of the above
9. Dental formula
1-3/3; C-1/1; PM-4/4; M-2/3 denotes that of;
a) Human
b) A snake
c) Dog
d) Sheep
10. A disease condition that can be completely associated with the riverine areas is ?
a) Onchocerciasis
b) Malaria
c) Leprosy
d) Tuberculosis
11. The liquid portion of any cells called
a) Cytoplasm
b) Endoplasmic reticulum
c) Solvent
d) Isotonic solution

12. Enzymes are:

I. Proteins
II. Need cofactors for their activation
III. Specific in their actions
IV. Mostly active under high temperature which of the statements above
is /are correct
a) I&IV
b) I, II, III
c) II, III, & IV
d) All are correct
13. The character producing factors in living organisms are;
a) Genes
b) Chromosomes
c) Alleles
d) Chromatids
14. Magnesium aids the formation of;
a) Cambium
b) chlorophyII
c) ATP
d) Amino acids
15. Adrenalin is;
a) A growth hormone
b) A fight or flight enzyme
c) Secreted within the testes
d) A fight or flight hormone
e) None of the above
16. Ultra-filtration takes place in the renal
a) Nephron
b) Cortex
 c) Bowman’s capsule
d) Henle’s loop
e) Papillae
17. The deficiency of protein and carbohydrate in the body leads to &
respectively
a) Kwashiorkor & Marasmus
b) Marasimus & kwashiorkor
c) Beri-Beri & Marasmus
d) Marasimus & Beri-Beri

18. Bile is produced in the;

a) Gall bladder
b) Liver
c) Pancrease
d) Spleen
e) Duodenum
19. Secchi disc is used o determine or measure;
a) Turbidity
b) Wind velocity
c) Rainfall
d) Tides
20. If a tall variety (Tt) of pig is cross breed with a short variety (tt), the ratio of tall to
short in their off springs will be?
a) 1:1
b) 1:3
c) 3:1
d) 2:1

SECTION

CHEMIST

RY

1. Blood cells and plasma are separated by?

a) Centrifugality
b) Distillation
c) Electrophoresis
d) Centrifugation
 e) Options B and C
2. Which of the following represents the order in which orbitals should be filled.
a) S d f
b) S p d
c) S d p f
d) S f d
e) f s p d

3. Chlorine is used in water treatment as

a. An aerating agent
b. Alaxative
c. A germicide
d. A coagulant
4. and are the metallic ions commonly present
3 2+
+ and Ca
a. Al 2+
+
b. Na and Mg
2+ 2+
c. Ca and Zn
2 2+
+
d. Ca and
2 Mg
+ 3+
e. Cu and Al

5. Gases can be generated intermittently in the laboratory without the application

of heat with the aid of a device called
a. Scintillation apparatus
b. Liebig’s condenser
c. Cold-gas gauze
d. Kipp’s apparatus
e. Options C and D
6. I-High melting and boiling points
II- Good conductor of heat and electricity in the molten or aqueous state
a. I and III only
b. II and III only
c. I and II only
d. I, II and III
e. II only
7. An example of covalent compound is ?
a. Nacl
b. MgS04
c. C2H50H
 d. Ca0
e. Cacl2
8. The pH of 0.1 molar Hcl is equivalent
to? a. -1.0
b. 2.0
c. +1.0
d. -2.0
e. -0.1

9. What is the molecular

mass of NaNo3? a) 85.0
b) 75.0
c) 65.0
d) 55.0
e) 45.0
10. Which of the following is a property of a
transition metal? a) Easy malleability and
ductility
b) Dissolves easily in water
c) Conducts heat and electricity readily
d) Showing of variable oxidation states
e) Perfectly forms covalent compounds
11. An element X whose atom contains 11 protons, 11 protons, 11 electrons
and 12 neutrons has a mass number of
a) 23
b) 22
c) 21
d) 11
e) 12
12. Which of the following is mostly used in the determination of the age of
escavated human skeleton
a) Carbon tracker
b) Cosmic lodine
c) Carbon-dating
d) Radio-isotopy
e) C and D

13. Calculate the oxidation number of phosphorous in AI2 (PO4)3

 a) 18
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
e) -18
14. Hydrogenation of pentene yields
a) Pentone
b) Pentyne
c) Pentane
d) Pentanol
e) Pentanel

15. G=H-TS
I. - G = enthalpy change
II. - H = Free energy change
III. - T = Temperature
IV. - S =entropy change

Which of the above statement is / are correct.

a) III and IV only

b) I and III only
c) II and IV only
d) IV only
e) All of the above

SECTION E

PHYSICS

1. The diagram below shows the arrangement of three

different resistors. Find the total resistance of the
resistors
R1 R2 R3
2Ω 2Ω 2Ω
a) 14 Ohms
b) 7/8 Ohms
c) 8/7 Ohms
d) 1/14 Ohms
2. A typical instrument built by physicists for designers to obtain colour patterns is termed.
a) Astroscope
b) Periscope
c) Colouroscope
 d) Kaleidoscope
3. The weight of any object can be easily measured by;
a) A beam balance
b) A spring balance
c) Finding the force necessary to give it a certain accelebration
d) None of the above methods.
4. The exact valve of 59F in degree celcius?
0
a. 15 C
0
b. 45 C
0
c. 30 C
0
d. 60 C
5. A machine gun with a mass of 5kg fires a 50g bullet at a speed of 100m/s.
the recoll velocity of the machine guns is?
a) 0.5m/sec
b) 1.5 m/sec
c) 1.0 m/sec
d) 4 m/sec
6. An object 3cm high placed on the axis 7cm from a converging lens forms an
image 70cm from the lens.
a) 30cm
b) 3.0cm
c) 10cm
d) 1.0cm
e) 30mm
2
7. A 10.0kg car which was initially at rest traveled with an acceleration of
2m/sec , its kinetic energy after 2 seconds was?
a) 80.0J
3
b) 8.0x10 J
2
c) 7.5 x 10 J
2
d) 7.0 x 10 J
8. The anomalous behavior of water occurs between what and what temperature
range?
0 0
a) +4 C to -3 C
0 0
b) -4 C to 0 C
0 0
c) -100 C to + 100 C
0 0
d) -100 C to 0 C
9. The total number of images that can be seen by a man standing between two
parallel mirrors in a hair-dressing shop is?
a) Only two
b) Infinite
c) Just sixteen
 d) Multiple
e) None of the above
10. Provided an elastic limit is not exceeded, the
extension is
a) Inversely proportional to the load or applied force
b) Directly proportional to the load or applied force and temperature
c) Simply constant
d) Directly proportional to the load or applied force
e) Proportional to the sliding scale used.

11. The addition of impurities to semi-conductors to boost their activities is termed.

a) skimming
b) Dopping
c) Boosting
d) Catalyzing
e) None of the above
12. The ability of a body to set another body into vibration but in its own
fundamental frequency is termed
a) Superposition
b) Resonance
c) Forced vibration
d) Interference
e) Paraposition

13. An orange fruit 10m above the ground drops from the branch where it was attached.
2
Calculate its velocity just before it hits the ground. (take g= 10m/s )
a) 10 2 m/s
b) 10 m/s

c) 100 m/s
d) 5 2 m/s
e) 2
10
14. A simple pendulum with period of 2.0 sec has its lengh doubled its new period is?
a) 1.00 sec
b) 1.41sec
c) 0.35 sec
d) 2.83 sec
e) 4.00 sec
15. All of the following parameters are forced except
a) Weigh
b) Upthrust
c) Friction
d) Tension
e) Impulse

SECTION F
CURRENT AFFAIRS
1. Nelson Mandela died
on;
th
a) 5 October
th
2013
b) 5 December 2013
th
c) 7 December 2013
th
d) 7 October 2013

2. 2013 ASSUU strike began on;

a) June 1, 2013
b) July 1, 2013
c) January 1, 2013
d) June 1, 2013
3. One of the following is an ex-director general of NAFDAC
a) Dr Joshua Dariye
b) Prof. Eyitayo Lambo
c) Prof. Olikoye Ransom-Kuti
d) Dr Dora Akunyili
4. UN implies;
a) Unity Nursary
b) United Nigerians
c) United Nations
d) United Nurses
5. A citizen of Nigeria is called a Nigerian while that of Niger republic is
a) Nigerien
b) Nigger
c) Republican
d) Nigeriana
6. In the football game, a score of 2 & 3 by any player in any match are called and
respectively.
a) Brace & hat-trick
b) Hat-trick & brace
c) Duplet & hat-trick
d) None of the above
7. The capital city of Abia state is
a) Umuahia
b) Umaya
c) Yola
d) Owerri
e) Umuaha

8. NDDC means
a) Niger Delta Development Commission
b) Nigeria Dredger Due and Commission
c) Niger Delta Development Council
d) Nigeria and De Democratic republic of Congo

9. OPEC
10. NACA
 SECOND YEAR

TIME ALLOWED: 1

Hour

 Do not open your question booklets until you are told to do so.
 The examination consists of six sections labeled A to F. all the questions
irrespective of the sections carry equal mark.
 Section A- English language 20 questions
 Section B- mathematics 20 questions
 Section C- Biology 20 questions
 Section D- Chemistry 15 questions
 Section E- Physics 15 questions
 Section F- Current Affairs 10 questions
 Answer all questions appropriately
 Use the answer sheet provided
 Use HB pencil to shade the correct answer for each question. Ensure that any
shading made in error is thoroughly erased.
 Write your NAME, EXAMINATION NUMBER and other needed information in the
appropriate spaces on the answer sheet. Shade carefully the space with the same
number or letter as each digit or letter.
 Any candidate caught cheating in the course of the examination will be duly
penalized.
 The interview date will be made known to the public as soon as possible.
 SECTION A

ENGLISH

LANGUAGE

In the passage below, the numbered gaps indicate missing words against each number
in the list below the passage, four choices are offered in columns lettered A-D. for each
question, choose the word that is the most suitable to fill the numbered gaps in the
passage.

PASSAGE:

Science and technology have proved both the heat of the sun and waterfalls as
important natural (1) that can be (2) for the advantage of man. While it is possible to
exploit the heat of the sun for (3) it is also possible to (4) the force of falling water for
electricity.

Man can ‘create’ the (5) by building a (6) across a fast flowing river. This construction
obstructs and therefore (7) the flow of water for a special purpose.

The use of specially designed machines for the control and regulation of the flow
of water (8) the required electricity. Before the dam, electricity could only be generated
in power
(9) by burning (10) or oil.

A B C D

1. Form Ways Resources Sources

2. Exploited Neglected Remember Examined
3. Water Solar energy Heavenly Energy Hydro Energy
Energy
4. Process Examine Manufacture Harness
5. Lake Water fall Waterstred Contract
6. Obstacle Bridge Dam Pillar
7. Calculates Facilitates Stops Regulation
8. Generates Produces Forces Forms
9. Forces Stations Generators Mines
10 Fire Wood Coal Gas
From the options A-E, select a word that is nearly opposite in meaning to the
underlined word and that at the same time fills the blank space in the
sentence correctly.

11. He proved unreliable in his dealings with the electorate but would want
everybody to believe that he was quite
a) Resistible
b) Resolate
c) Resourceful
d) Responsive
e) Dependable
12. Tolu lost a lot of things in his school days because he was inpatient but
age and experience have taught him to be at all times
a) Anxious
b) Patient
c) Careful
d) Diligent
e) Intransigent
13. The story I heard on the radio was interesting but the one Aina Narrated was
rather

a) Monstrous
b) Dull
c) Truthfull
d) Realistic
e) Incredible
14. Although the events in the company showed that he was innocent the
management still insisted that he was
a) Nocent
b) Gullible
c) Guilty
d) Honest
e) Innocuous
 15. Although the president was the target of calumny after the election, he now
enjoys the of all and sundary
a) Defamation
b) Commendation
c) Aspiration
d) Condemnation
e) Backbiting

From the option A-D choose the appropriate word or word group that best completed
each of the following sentences.

16. The leader of the Red Cross team and Chairman of the political party in the state
my friend
a) Are
b) Is
c) Were
d) Have
17. Bread and butter our favorite meal
a) Were
b) Is
c) Are
d) Is bearing
18. When Musa arrived, Obi as well as the son in the shop
a) Were
b) Is
c) Are
d) Was
19. In order to succeed in life you very hard.
a) Must have work
b) Must have to work
c) Ought must have to work
20. The student said
a) He want
b) He wanted
c) That he want
d) What he wanted
 SECTION B

MATHEMATI

CS
1. Express the product of 0.09 in standard form
-3
a) 5.4 x 10
-2
b) 5.4 x 10
-1
c) 5.4 x 10
2
d) 5.4 x
103
e) 5.4 x 10
th term of the A.P-31,1………
2. What is the 8
a) 13
b) 11
c) -8
d) -11
e) 17

3. A sales boy gave a change of N1.15 to a customer instead of N1.25.

calculate his percentage error
a) 10%
b) 8.7%
c) 8.0%
d) 2.4%
e) 0.10%
4. A fair die s tossed once, what is the probability of having an even
number a) 1/3
b) 1/6
c) 1/2
d) 2/6
e) 5/6
5. If sin 0= 3/5, find tan 0 if 0<90
 a) 4/5
b) ¾
c) 5/8
d) 1/2
e) 3/8

1/3 2
6. Evaluate (27 )
a) 4 ½
b) 6
c) 9
d) 18
e) 81
7. For what value of y is the expression (y+2) undefined?
Y2-3y-10
a) Y=0
b) Y=2
c) Y=3
d) Y=5
e) Y=10
8. Express 0.0000814 in standard form
5
a) 8.14x10
5
b) 8.14x10
5
c) 814x10
d) None of the above
9. If the bearing of N from M is 500, what is the bearing of M from N
0
a) 230
0
b) 50
0
c) 40
0
d) -50
0
e) 90
2
10. Factorize 3p – 11p+6
a) (3p-2) (p-3)
b) (2p-2) (p-3)
c) (3p-2) (p+3)
d) (3p+2) (p-3)
 e) (2p-3) (p+2)
x x+2
11. Simplify ¼ (2 -2
)
x2 x
a) 2 -2
x-2 x
b) 2 – [1-2 ]
2
x
c) 2
d) 0.

9 27
12. Simplify: Log10- 10
a) -3 Log
b) 0
c)3
d) 9
e) -9
13. If 2y a+b= 7 and 3a-2b=3, by how much is 7 a greater than 10?
a) 1
b) 3
c)7
d) 10
e) 17
14. If the angle of elevation off A B is 300 and /AB/=40m, hoe high is A above the level
of B?
a) 10m
b) 20m
c) 20 3m
d) 40m
e) 50m
15. An arc of a circle of radius 7cm is 14cm long. What angle does the are
subtend at the centre of the circle? (take π=22/7)
0
a) 25.7
0
b) 44
0
c) 51.43
0
d) Ninrty8
0
e) 114.55
16. If 5times a certain integer is subtracted from twice the square of the interger, the
result is 63. Find the integer
a) 21
 b) 9
c) 7
d) 4
e)

17. If 3v=243,find the value of

y. Consider the
following data:
8,1,2,9,2,3,5,2,8,9,8,2
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) 6
18. What is the mode of the above data?
a) 8
b) 9
c) 2
d) 8 and 2
e) No answer
19. The median value of the data is ?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 8
d) 9
e) 5
20. The range of the data is?
a) 8
b) 2
c) 5
d) 9
e) 3
 SECTION C

BIOLOGY

1. is the site in a cell where energy is being produced.

a) Golgi Apparatus
b) Contractile Vacuole
c) Mitochondria
d) Lysosomes
2. The ability of any organism to maintain constant internal environment is termed.
a) Heamostasis
b) Dieresis
c) Plasmolysis
d) Homeostasis
3. Cretinism is a disease condition caused by the deficiency of;
a) Insulin
b) Glucagon
c) Oxytocin
d) Thyroxin
4. Akin swimmed in a river some weeks ago and later discovered that the urine
he has been passing since few days ago contained blood. This could be
due to?
a) Schistosomiasis
b) Elephantiasis
c) Plasmosium SP
d) Enterobiasis
5. A dwarf plant can be stimulated to grow to normal size and height by the application
of;
a) Prostaglandin
b) Ascorbic acid
 c) Gibberelin
d) Adrenalin
6. The skin and the hair are usually kept moist and lubricated by the
a) Perfumes and jellies
b) Sebum from sebaceous gland
c) Sweet from sweat gland
d) Erector muscles
7. A collection of similar cells performing the same function is termed?
a) Cells aggregate
b) Organ
c) Tissue
d) System

8. The left and right lungs have and number of lobe (s) respectively
a) 2 and 3
b) 3 and 2
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 2
9. The longest bone in the body is called
a) Humerus
b) Patella
c) Femur
d) Tibia
10. Sympathetic and parasympathetic are branches of the;
a) Central Nervous system
b) Somatic Nervous System
c) Autonomic Nervous System
d) All of the above
11. The end products of protein and fat/oil digestion are?
a) Amino acid and glycerine
b) Amino acid, fatty acid and glycerol
c) Albumin and fatty acid
d) Peptides and glycerol
12. The total number of bones in the skeletal system is
a) 310
b) 306
c) 206
d) 106
13. Deoxygenated blood enters the heart through
a) Superior and inferior venacavae
 b) Arch of Aorta and pulmonary vein
c) Jugular vein and inferior vena-cana
d) None of the above
14. Vitamin B12 is otherwise known as?
a) Cyanocobalamin
b) Retinol
c) Niacin
d) Thiamine
15. The number of ribs in male and female are and respectively
a) 12 and
b) 12 and 12
c) Nine and nine
d) and 12
16. In human, fertilization of Ovum occurs at the
a) Ampulla
b) Ovary
c) Uterus
d) Cervix
17. All veins carry deoxygenated blood except
a) Inferior Vena-Cana
b) Pulmonary Veins
c) Jugular Vein
d) Renal Vein
18. Which of the following organs has no known function s) in human
a) Gallbladder
b) Pancrease
c) Appendix
d) Spleen
19. Blood is produced in the
a) Thymus gland
b) Bone marrow
c) Liver
d) Intestine
20. Internal respiration implie?
 a) The exchange of gases between the blood and the tissues of the body
b) The exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood vessels
c) A and b
d) None of the above

SECTION

CHEMIST

RY

1. A typical example of shell in chemistry is?

a) F –shell
b) K-shell
c) S-shell
d) D-shell
e) Q-shell
2. Alkanes mainly
undergo?
a) Reduction reaction
b) Addition reaction
c) Substitution reaction
d) Hydrogenation reaction
e) Addition & substitution reaction
3
3. A liquid X of volume 8m has a pressure of 10.0pa. What is the volume of the liquid
when the pressure is reduced to
3
5.0pa? a) 16.00m
3
b) 160.0m
2
c) 80.0m
2
d) 8.00m
3
e) 16.00dm
3
4. What is the pH of an acid whose concentration is 0.001 mol/dm
a) 3.00
b) 1.00
c) 2.00
 d) -3.00
e) -1.00
5. The hardening of rubber through cross-linkages is termed
a) Rubberization
b) Vulcanization
c) Desulphurization
d) Restructurization
e) Hydrogenation
nd
6. The 22 element in the periodic table is?
a) Titanium
b) Scantium
c) Vanadium
d) Chromium
e) Aluminium
7. The “atomic radius” in the periodic table;
a) Increases down the grow the groups
b) Increases across the periods
c) Decreases down the group
d) Decreases across the periods
e) Is always unchanged
8. A+B C+D
In the equation above, increase in pressure will cause the equilibrium to shift;
a) To the right
b) To the left
c) To neither the left nor the right
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
9. If the mass of an element is denoted by “A” and its molar mass by “B” then its
number of mole is equivalent to?
a) n=A

b) n=B
A
 c) n=A-
1
B
d) n=B-1
A
e) n+1=
A
B
10. Element X has a valency of 3 and that of element Y is 2. What is the
formula of the compound formed by both X and Y
a) X2 Y3
b) X3 Y2
c) X2 Y3 or X3 Y2
d) X4 Y6
e) X6 Y4

11. The product obtained when starch is completely hydrolyzed is?

a) Coal
b) Maltose
c) Fructose
d) Galactose
e) Glucose
12. Coal tar, coal gas, coke and Ammoniacal liquor are obtained by;
a) Crystallization
b) Filtration
c) Destructive distillation
d) Fractional distillation
e) Evaporation
13. The number of replaceable hydrogen atom s) in an acid is called?
a) Basicity
b) Laxicity
c) Acidity
d) Conductivity
e) Relativity
14. I-SO2
II- H2O,
III –
CaO,
Iv –Co2
Which of the above is/ are acid anhydride s)
a) I, II & II only
b) II & IV only
c) I,II,III & IV
 d) I&IV
e) II&IV
st nd rd
15. A student obtain his 1 , 2 and 3 titre as 25.,26.1 and 26.0 respectively his average
titre value is ?
a)
3
26.00cm 3
b) 25.0cm
3
c) 26.10cm
3
d) 14.00cm

SECTION E

PHYSICS
0
1. The surface area of a thin metallic plate
c is 1.5m2 calculate its surface area
at 20
0 when

it finally cooled to exactly c. (the value for the linear expansivity of the metal is
20
2.5x10-5/k)
a) 1.503m2
b) 1.500m2
c) 1.48m2
d) 1.47m2
e) 1.40m2

2. The knowledge of one of the following is used in the management of a fractured

bone.
a) Pulley
b) Block and tackle
c) Mangnetism
d) Optics
3. The atomic and the mass numbers of the element 50 are and
respectively 20
a) 50 and 20
b) 20 and 50
c) 20 and 50
d) 30 and 20
e) 70 and 50
4. The three basic means of heat transfer are , and
a) Conduction, convection and radiation
b) Conduction, combustion and radiation
 c) Conduction, convection and radioactivity
d) Conduction, contraction and radioactivity
5. Which of the following is true about any luminous object?
a) It cannot produce its own light
b) It can generate its own heat
c) It can easily produce its own light
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
6. The definition of the mechanical advantage of a machine is?
a) Stress divided by stain
b) Effort divided by load
c) Strain divided by effort
d) Load divided but e effort applied
e) A and D
7. A spring of constant 0.5 N/m is stretched by 8m. what is the value of the force applied?
a) 4.5N
b) 3.5N
c) 2.5N
d) 4.0N
e) 1.5N
8. The formula for the decay constant of any radioactive element is give by;
a) λ = 0.6nine3
N0
b) λ = N0
0.6nine
3
c) λ = 0.6nine
3
T1/2

d) λ = T1/2
0.6nine
3
9. All of the following are derived units except
a) Unit of force
b) Unit of momentum
c) Unit of impulse
d) Unit of mass
e) Unit of capacitance
10. All he following physicist contributed immensely to the field of physics except
a) Michael farday
b) Henry Becquerel
 c) Marie Curie
d) Silvester Cannon
e) Isaac Newton
11. X and Y are two parameters in physics, if X is inversely proportional to Y then;
a) X increases as Y decreases
b) X increases as Y increases
c) X increases only when Y is kept constant
d) X increases wether Y increases or decreases
12. A cone resting on its slant edge is in a state of
a) Simple equilibrium
b) Stable equilibrium
c) Unstable equilibrium
d) Neutral equilibrium
e) Parallel equilibrium
13. Given that the refractive index of material x is 15, then the critical angel at the
air –x interface if x is made from glass is?
a) Sin-1 2/3)
b) Sin -1 ½)
c) Sin -1 3/4)
d) Sin -1 8/)
14. A D. celectric comprises of the following parts except
a) Transformer
b) Commutator
c) Armature
d) Field-magnet
15. The exact form of energy stored in a dry leclanche cell I s ?
a) Kinetic energy
b) Chemical energy
c) Heat energy
d) Leclanche energy value
e) Electro kinetic energy
 SECTION F

CURRENT

AFFAIRS

1. The most wanted terrorist in Nigeria is;

a) Abubakar Rime
b) Abubakar Shetima
c) Abubakar Ali
d) Abubakar Shekau
2. The approved rate for a liter of petrol in Nigeria in 2013 is
a) N97
b) N92
c) N97.50k
d) N96,50k
3. Which of the following is not an international organization?
a) UNICEF
b) UNDP
c) UNESCO
d) NAFDAC
e) WHO

4. is the present UN secretary general

a) Goodluck Jonathan
b) Kelvin Little
c) Henry Jones
d) Ban ki-moon
e) Julius Ephrame
 5. Nigeria won the 2013 edition to the under -17 world cup in:
a) United state of America
b) United Arab Emirate
c) United kingdom
d) Democratic Republic of Cango
e) Philadelphia

Write the full meaning of the following abbreviations;

6. NANNM
7. PATHS
8. ECWA
9. SIM
10. NCC
 DFID
 MJOS
 ILO
 NAFDAC
 HIV
 MTN
 WHO
 UNICEF
 UNESCO
 UAE
 THIRD YEAR

TIME ALLOWED: 1 Hour

 Do not open your question booklets until you are told to do so.
 The examination consists of six sections labeled A to F. all the questions
irrespective of the sections carry equal mark.
 Section A- English language 20 questions
 Section B- mathematics 20 questions
 Section C- Biology 20 questions
 Section D- Chemistry 15 questions
 Section E- Physics 15 questions
 Section F- Current Affairs 10 questions
 Answer all questions appropriately
 Use the answer sheet provided
 Use HB pencil to shade the correct answer for each question. Ensure that any
shading made in error is thoroughly erased.
 Write your NAME, EXAMINATION NUMBER and other needed information in the
appropriate spaces on the answer sheet. Shade carefully the space with the same
number or letter as each digit or letter.
 Any candidate caught cheating in the course of the examination will be duly
penalized.
 The interview date will be made known to the public as soon as possible.
 SECTION A

ENGLISH

LANGUAGE

From the words lettered A to E, choose the word that best completes each of the
following sentences

1. The kidnappers demanded a of N80,000 before they would release the

rich business man.
a) Fee
b) Reward
c) Freelance
d) Condition
e) Ransom
2. The governor scolded the contractors for the poor of the project
a) Vacation
b) Termination
c) Foundation
d) Execution
e) Installation
3. His decision to terminate the agreement was as he did not consult
the other party
a) Unnecessary
b) Blased
c) Cruel
d) Unilateral
e) Unequivocal
4. More often than not the law on individual’s freedom
a) Overrules
b) Oversteps
c) Encroaches
d) Oversteps
e) Ex-terminates
5. Simply because of the hard times, many workers now live in a state of poverty.
a) Serious
b) Absolute
c) Abject
d) Affluent
e) Imaginable

6. The threat that he would be expelled from school if he failed his examination
again him into seriousness.
a) Coaxed
b) Lured
c) Jolted
d) Hypnotized
e) Incensed
7. It is really a ; the more you look, the less you see,
a) Hyperbole
b) Simile
c) Paradox
d) Fact
e) stress
8. The new car is strikingly attractive but I very much doubt its
a) Hyperbole
b) Durability
c) Longevity
d) Complexity
e) Homogenixity
9. Francis should not have taken offence at collins’ seemingly comments.
a) Innocuous
b) Notorious
c) Ridiculous
d) Ludicrous
e) Raucous
10. As garuba was first offender, the magistrate merely and discharged him
a) Sanctioned
 b) Threatened
c) Cautioned
d) Bullied
e) Sentenced

From the words lettered A to E choose the word that RHYMES with the give word.

11. Corps
a) Queue
b) Corpse
c) Coup
d) Core

12. Fuel
a) Quail
b) Field
c) Duel
d) Freak
13. Table
a) Status
b) Label
c) Tablet
d) Cater
14. Chair
a) There
b) Fear
c) Fiery
d) Cheer
15. Sour
a) Pour
b) Sore
c) Drawer
d) Power
From the word lettered A to D choose the one that has the CORREDT STRESS.

16. Circumstances
a) CIR-cum-stan-ces
b) Cir-CUM-stan-ces
c) Cir-cum-STAN-ces
d) Cir-cum-stan-CES
17. Contribution
a) CON-tri-bu-tion
b) Con-TRI-bu-tion
c) Con-tri-BU-tion
d) Con-tri-bu-TION
18. Criticism
a) CRI-ti-ci-sm
b) cri-ti-CI-sm
c) cri-TI-ci-sm
d) cri-ti-ci-SM

19. Inadequate
a) in-ad-E-quate
b) IN-ad-e-quate
c) in-ad-e-QUATE
d) in-AD-e-quate
20. manipulate
a) MA-nip-u-late
b) ma-NIP-u-late
c) ma-nip-U-late
d) ma-nip-u-LATE
 SECTION B

MATHEMATI

CS

1. a chord is 4cm from the centre of a circle of radius 5cm. what is the exact
length of the chord?

a) 5.4cm
b) 4.0cm
c) 3.0cm
d) 6.0cm
2
2. Factorize 5b -11b+6=0
a) 1/5 and
6
b) 5/6 and
1
c) 5 and 6
d) 6/5 and
1

3. The fourth term of an A.P is 65 and its seventh term is 80. What is the sum of
its first term a) and common difference d)
a) 45
b) 55
c) 65
d) 75
4. The area A) of a square whose radius is 11mm is ?
2
a) 121mm
2
b) 22mm
2
c) 121cm
2
d) 22cm
5. Solve 7 75 -3 12 +1
a) 3- 2
b) 8+ 5
 c) 3 +1
d) 2 3+1
6. Express 0.000085 in standard form
5
a) Nine.85 x 10
5
b) 8.ninety5 x 10
-5
c) Ninety8.5 x
10
-5
d) Nine.85 x 10

7. The arithmetic means of 2,8,5,q, 18 and 12 is 10. What is the possible value of q?
a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 25
8. The distance measured along the great circle is give by;
a) 0 x 2πr
0
360
b) 0 x 2πr
0
360

c) 0 x 2πr
0
360

d) 0 x 2πr
0
360
9. Solve the
inequality
4q+20>8

3
a) q< 1
b) q >-1
c) q>1
d) q>1
10. which of the following is a factor of f[x]= 5x3 +2x2-6x-1.
a) X-1
b) X-1
c) X-1
d) -1
 X
0 0
11. If A [50 N, 62 S] and B [50N, 28W0] are two locations on the earth’s surface,
calculate the difference in their longitudes.
0
a) 50
0
b) –nine
0
c) -50
0
d) Nine

12. The locus of a point Q which is equidistant from two points M and N is?
a) A circle of chord /MN/
b) A tangent Q to /MN/
c) A straight line perpendicular to Q
d) A straight line perpendicular to /MN/
13. What is the probability that a man will not die on his birthday if 365 days equals a
year.
a) 1
36
5

b) 364
365

c) 1
12

d) 1
2
14. The sum of the angles at a point is;
e) Equal to zero
f) Is two times the sum of the angles on a straight line
g) Equivalent to 1800
h) None of the above
15. Solve the
simultaneous
equations: X+3y=1
-X+y=3
a) 1 and -1
b) 1 and -2
c) 2 and -2
d) 1 and 2
16. A is inversely proportional to the square-root of B. but when is 10, B just 81.
What is the relationship between A and B?
a) A= nine0
B+1

b) A = nine0
B

c) A = nine0
B

d) A =
nine0

17. If S represents the sum of all the interior angles of any polygon, then S equals?
0
a) 2n-4] 180
0
a) 4n-2] nine0
0
b) 2n-
4]nine0
n
0
c) [2n -4] nine0
18. a rectangle whose dimension is xcm by Ycm has a perimeter of

a) 2 [xY]
b) 4 [x+y]
c) 2 [x+y]
2
d) [xy]
Nineteen.A straight line drawn from one part of the circumference of a circle
through the centre to another part is called?
 a) Chord
b) Tangent
c) Parabola
d) Quadrant
e) Duaneter
21. Sine, consine and tangent values are all positive in which quadrant?
a) Forth quadrant
b) First quadrant
c) Second quadrant
d) Third quadrant

SECTION C

BIOLOGY

1. In the human eye, image is usually formed at the and it is usually

a) Optic nerve and inverted
b) Retina and inverted
c) Retina and erect
d) Lens and erect
e) Lens and inverted
2. is often refers to as the master gland in the endocrine system.
a) Hypothalamus
b) Corpus callosum
c) Adrenal gland
d) Thalamus
e) Pituitary gland
3. The first set of teeth in human are called
a) Infant dentition
b) Primitive dentition
c) Involuntary teeth
d) Milk or primary teeth
e) None of the above
4. I-Ultra filtration II-
Selective
reabsorption III-
Tubular secretion
Which of the processes above is/are involved in the urine formation?
a) I and II only
b) II and III only
c) I and III only
d) II only
 e) I, II and III
5. Parasites that live and feed inside their hosts are called
a) Tenoparasites
b) Ectoparasites
c) Holoparasits
d) Endoparasites
e) Indoparasites
6. The name given to the harmful substances produced by micro-organism are?
a) Poisions
b) Endorphins
c) Toxins
d) Venonms
e) Kinins
7. The three parts of the small intestine of man are , and
respectively
a) Ileum, jejunum and appendix
b) Duodenum, appendix and ileum
c) Duodenum, jejunum and ileum
d) Jejunum, appendix and caecum
e) Jejunum, duodenum and rumen
8. The right lung has number of lobes?
a) Two
b) Four
c) One
d) Three
e) Half
9. Enzymes are organic catalysts that;
a) Speed-up the rate of biochemical reactions
b) Slow-down the rate of biochemical reactions
c) Halt every biochemical reaction
d) Maintain equilibrium in any reaction
10. Blood from the legs, abdomen, pelvis, and perineum return to the hart through
a) Abbominal Aorta
b) Abdomno-pelvic veins
c) Inferior vena-cava
d) Superior vena-cave
 e) Hepatic portal vein
11. The outer and the inner parts of the kidney are called and respectively
a) Medulla & cortex
b) Pyramid & medulla
c) Cortex and nephron
d) Cortex and medulla
e) Medulla and nephron
12. The total number of bones in the skeletal system of
man is? a) 406
b) 306
c) 206
d) 56
13. The cerebrum is found in the;
a) Mid-brain
b) Hindbrain
c) Forebrain
d) Spinal cord
e) Peri-thalamus
14. An Important muscle of respiration is the;
a) Tricep muscler
b) Bicep muscle
c) Jugular sport
d) Diaphragm
e) C and D
15. Which of the following is not a member of the vitamin B family?
a) Vitamin B1
b) Vitamin B12
c) Vitamin B10
d) Vitamin B3
e) Vitamin B6
16. The functional unit of the nervous system is?
a) Nephron
b) Pneumocytes
c) Neuron
d) hepatocytes
e) nerve endings
17. are term the body soldiers
a) Leucocytes
b) Lymphocytes
c) Thrombocytes
d) Erythrocytes
e) Bone marrow
18. Eyes spot is a feature of:
a) Euglena viridis
b) Plasmodium sp
c) Amoeba proteus
d) Paramecium caudatum
e) Volvox colony
19. Cell was discovered by in the year _
a) Robert Hooke, 1nine66
b) Robert Hooke, 1665
c) Thomas Hooke, 1866
d) James Hooke, 1665
e) Albert Hooke, 1865
20. Deep knowledge of biology is important to the study of;
a) Nursing science
b) Medicine and surgery
c) Chemical engineering
d) Architecture
e) Options A and B
 SECTION

CHEMIST

RY

1. It was observed that substance X has the ability to lose mass when
exposed to air, then X is likely to be salt.
a) Efflorescent
b) Deliquescent
c) Hygroscopic
d) Effervescent
e) Fluorescent
2. An organic compound used as an aesthetic agent is?
a) CH4
b) C6 H5 cl
c) CHB3
d) CHcl3
e) CH3 OH
3. Consider the reaction given below;

0
If the reaction was carried out about 27 C & the enthalpy and entropy
changes were
+ 4500 J and + 12 J respectively. Then calculate the Gibb’s free energy
change a) + 800J
b) + nine00 J
c) –800J
d) – nine00 J
e) +700J
4. The common substance used in the manufacturing of photographic chemicals is?
a) Sodium chloride
b) Lead chloride
c) Ammonium chloride
 d) Zinc chloride
e) Silver chloride
5. What is the total number of carbons in every phenol ring?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
e) 3
6. The separation technique that suits the petroleum industry is?
a) Chromatography
b) Fractional chrystallization
c) Centrifugation
d) Distillation
e) Fractional distillation
7. The number of substitutable hydrogen atom[s] in an acid is called?
a) Acidity
b) Corrosity
c) Basicity
d) Activity
e) Reactivity
8. A substance that conducts electricity either in liquid or molten state is termed?
a) Ferrolyte
b) Lead accumulator
c) Electrode
d) Moltar
e) Electrolyte
9. The structure of benzene was drawn by
a) Benjamin Kekule
b) Thomas martins
c) Henry bexquerel
d) Graham
e) August Kekule
10. A metal that forms a dirty green precipitate when Na0H is added in drops is?
3+
a) Fe
3+
b) Al
2+
c) Pb
 2+
d) Fe
2+
e) Cu
11. Consider the reaction; 2NaN03 + H2SO4 2HN03 +Na2SO4+ it can be
concluded that the reaction is a?
a) Displacement reaction
b) Combination reaction
c) Decomposition reaction
d) Oxidation reaction
e) Combustion reaction

12. Bronze is an alloy of copper and

a) Lead
b) Zinc
c) Tin
d) Cobalt
e) Nickel
13. Ammonia is largely produced by;
a) Contact process
b) Solvey process
c) Bosh process
d) Haber process
e) Electrolysis
14. The name given to the acid present in all proteins is?
a) Citric acid
b) Palmitic acid
c) Uric acid
d) Amino acid
e) Alkanoic acid
15. The p0H of 0.1 molar Hcl is equivalent
to? a) 1.0
b) 2.0
c) -1.0
d) -2.0
e) 13.0
 SECTION E

PHYSICS

1. The ability of any fluid to move up in a narrow capillary tube is termed?

a) Capillary refill
b) Capillarology
c) Capillarity
d) Capillarity
e) Osmo-capillary
f) A and D only
2. It is now a true phenomenon that evaporation causes?
a) Regelation
b) Cooling
c) Tingling
d) Stainning
e) All of the above
3. The inverse of resistivity is called?
a) Conductivity
b) Impedance
c) Relativity
d) Elasticity
e) Phase angle
8
4. The velocity of radio waves is 3 m/s. what is the frequency of the wave if the
-2
x10wave length of the radio wares is just 1.5x10 m.
-10
a) 2.0 x 10 Hz
6
b) 2.0 x 10 Hz
10
c) 2.0 10 6
d) 0.2 x 10
-6
e) 2.0 x 10
5. Which of the following is true about cathode rays?
a) They are fast moving protons
b) They can be found in the electromagnetic field
c) They are just helium particles
d) Streams of electrons
e) Options B and D
6. Calculate the period of a wave whose frequency is 0.5Hz
a) 0.5sec
b) 1.0 sec
c) 1.5 sec
d) 2.0 sec
e) 2.5 sec
7. The ray commonly used In the hospital settings is?
a) Alpha rays
b) Gamma rays
c) Theta rays
d) Infrared rays
e) X-rays
8. Long sightedness can be easily corrected by using
a) A convex mirror
b) A plane mirror
c) A concave lens
d) A concave mirror
e) A convex lens
9. Three capacitors of capacitance 2uf, 4uf and 8uf are connected in parallel and
ap.d of 6v is maintained across each capacitor, the total energy stored is
-4
a) 2. 54 x 10 J
-4
b) 6. Nine0 x 10 J
-6
c) 2.52 x 10 J
-6
d) 6.nine0 x 10 J
4
e) 2.52 x 10 J
10. A well arranged open series circuit has a resistance which is equivalent to
a) Double the normal value of the series
b) Zero percentage of that of the actual value.
 c) Infinite
d) One quarter of the actual value expected
e) None of the above
11. The optimum range of accommodation of a normal human eye is
a) -25m to 25m
b) From infinite to about 25m
c) 0m to 0.25m
d) 0.25m to infinite
e) From infinite to infinite
12. Consider the series given below;
235R 235Q 235G 231P

Nine2 nine3 nine4 nine2

The particles emitted are respectively
a) a, B, Y Particles
b) B,B,Y Particles
c) B, B, a Particles
d) a, a, B Particles
13. which of the following is correct according to Albert Einstein
2
a) E =Mc
2
b) M = Ec
0
c) M = hf
2
d) f = Mc
e) E = Mf

14. Calculate the half life of a radio active element whose decay constant is 0.330/sec
a) 2.10sec
b) 0.50 sec
c) -2.10 sec
d) -0.50 sec
e) 1.20 sec
15. The process by which electron exit the surface of hot element is called?
a) Electro-ejection
b) Hot-targeting
c) Illumination
d) Thermionic emission
 e) Radicalization

SECTION F

CURRENT

AFFAIRS

1. A US drone strike in northwest Pakistan killed al-Qaida’s second in-command ?

a) Ayman al-zawahiri
b) Abu yahya al-libi
c) Hasan Qayid
d) Osama Bin Laden
2. The largest dam in Africa is located in
a) Akosombo, Cotonou
b) Ero, Nigeria
c) Aquarua, Warri
d) Akomombo, Ghana
3. MBBS is to medicine and surgery as is to nursing science
a) BSC
b) BRN
c) LLB
d) BNS
C e)
4. The richest man in Africa in the year 2012/2013 ranking is?
a) Bill gate
b) Obama
c) Otedola
d) Dangote
5. The tallest building in Oyo state is ?
a) Alafin’s palace
 b) Adedibu’s plaza
c) Cocoa house
d) New governor’s office
6. The following are the qualities of a good nurse except
a) Neatness
b) Punctuality
c) Arrogancy
d) Thruthfulness
7. The first federal capital of Nigeria was
a) Calabar
b) Ibadan
c) Jos
d) Lagos

8. The total number of the local governments Ekiti State is

a) 14
b) 18
c) 16
d) 12
9. The approved number of years for any political holder in Nigeria is?
a) 8 years for simple term
b) 4 years for single term
c) 6 years for single term
d) 2 years for single term
10. In recent times, Nigeria changed from military rule to civilian rule in the year
a) 1nine60
b) 1nine84
c) 1ninten ninety-nine
d) 2000
 FOURTH
YEAR

Time Allowed: 1 Hour

 Do not open your question booklets until you are told to do so.
 The examination consists of six sections labeled A to F. all the questions
irrespective of the sections carry equal mark.
 Section A- English language 20 questions
 Section B- mathematics 20 questions
 Section C- Biology 20 questions
 Section D- Chemistry 15 questions
 Section E- Physics 15 questions
 Section F- Current Affairs 10 questions
 Answer all questions appropriately
 Use the answer sheet provided
 Use HB pencil to shade the correct answer for each question. Ensure that any
shading made in error is thoroughly erased.
 Write your NAME, EXAMINATION NUMBER and other needed information in the
appropriate spaces on the answer sheet. Shade carefully the space with the same
number or letter as each digit or letter.
 Any candidate caught cheating in the course of the examination will be duly
penalized.
 The interview date will be made known to the public as soon as possible.
 SECTION A

ENGLISH

LANGUAGE

Read the following passage carefully and then answer the questions that follow.

PASSAGE

You would think that the common cold should be easy enough to study. But it is
not so east as its looks. Colds often seen to spread from one person to another, so it is
often assumed that the cold must be infectious, but there are some puzzling observations
which do not fit in with this theory. An investigator in Holland examined some eight
thousand volunteers from different areas and came to the conclusion that in each group
of thousand volunteers from different areas, the colds all appeared at the same time-
transfer of infection from case to case, could not account for that. Yet at the common cold
research unit in Salisbury, the infection theory has been tested out, two series of about
two hundred people each were inoculated, one with salt water and the other with
secretions from known cold victims. Only one of the salt-water group got a cold,
compared with seventy-three in the other group.

In the British medical journal the other day, there was a report of a meeting, “the
common cold-fact and Fancy” at which one of the speakers reported a study of colds made
in Cirencester over the last five years. Three hundred and fifty volunteer had kept dairy
records of their colds and on an average each had seven every year with annual
morbidity of seventy days. So nearly one fifth of our lives is spent in more or less misery,
coughing and sneezing, some widely held beliefs about the common cold have turned
out not to be true. It seems that old people are just liable to colds as he young. Sailors in
isolated weather ship have just as many colds while on board and not in contact with the
outside world as when on shore. It is a truism that common illnesses pose more problems
than the rare, the rare disease is but
comparism much easier to handle. There are not so many cases and all of them have
been intensively studied. Some have read up all the literature about the disease and
published a digest of it. There will be more facts and fewer fancies.
Questions:

1. Which of the following statements can be implied from the passage?

a) People catch more colds in winter
b) The origin of colds is inconclusive
c) People catch more colds in warm weather
d) People catch colds equally in warm and cold weather
2. A rare disease can be easily death with than the common cold because
a) Medical experts are fed-up with the rampant cases of common colds
b) People easily develop resistance to the common colds
c) Adequate research exists to uncover facts about such rare diseases
d) Common colds are easily not in the province of the orthodox medical experts.
3. According to the writer, some widely held beliefs about the common colds are:
a) Inevitable
b) Irreconcilable
c) Fallacious
d) Societal
4. From the information in the passage, there is evidence;
a) Against the theory that the common cold is infectious
b) For the theory that the common cold is indeed infectious
c) That old people are immune against common cold
d) That medical reports are silent on facts about common colds
5. The cirencester volunteers kept a record of their colds through;
a) The British medical journal
b) Morbidity rates
c) Temperature recordings
 d) Personal diaries.

SECTION B

Select a word from the options A-E that is nearest in meani g to the underlined word and a
the same tie fills te blank space in the sentence correctly

6. The dissidents held several CLANDESTINE meetings before the attack.

a) Secret Ticket Office
b) Important
c) Impromptu
d) Exclusive
7. The principal warned the final year students about the
implications of PROCRASTINATION
a) Haste
b) Delay
c) Protesting
d) Rioting
8. The guest speaker was described a man of very ALLURING personality
a) Tempestuous
b) Mercurial
c) Voluble
d) Intricate
9. The professor showed much ERUDITION in the lecture he delivered
a) Quotation
b) Learning
c) Ostentation
d) Acclamation
e) Tautology
 10. The evidence of the witness CORROBORATED that of the accused,
a) Contradicted
b) Prosecuted
c) Confirmed
d) Sentenced
e) Suspended

SECTION C

From the words lettered A to D, choose the word or group of words that best complete
each of the following sentences

11. The of all the states in the federation are having a meeting at Abuja
a) Attorney-generals
b) Attorney- generals
c) Attorney- generals
d) Attorney- generals
12. Toyin’s fever was so acute that she an injection
a) Had to have
b) Had to had
c) Must have
d) Ought to have
13. The press must cater for the needs of the public
a) Readers
b) Readable
c) Reading
d) Reader
14. People are always afraid to visit Mr Ade because he is
a) An army
b) A soldier
c) An army man
d) A military
From options A-E select a word that is nearly opposite in meaning to the
underlined word and at the same time fills the blank space in the sentence
correctly.

15. People enjoy stories with settings rather than those with FAR-
FETCHED background
a) Practical
b) Realistic
c) Artificial
d) Undefined

16. I thought that the comments made by the secretary were INNOCUOUS
but the chairman considered them
a) Polite
b) Inappropriate
c) Antagonistic
d) Unnecessary
e) Harmful
17. People who are normally often turn to be DAUNTLESS heroes in the
face of
red anger
a) Unsteadily
b) Colourless
c) Cowardly
d) Bashful
e) Unfriendly
18. The principal announced that the cleaning of the school garden
would be VOLUNTARY and not
a) Obligatory
b) Deliberate
c) Essential
d) Impromptu
e) Increased
19. On hearing that one of her colleagues had been promoted over her head, many
felt a great deal of RESENTMENT but derived some from the remarks
made by her boss.
a) Pleasure
b) Compensation
 c) Indebtendness
d) Superiority
20. A teacher’s job can often be very TAXING but sometimes it can be
a) Exasperating
b) Well paid
c) Inspiring
d) Boring
e) Easy

SECTION B

MATHEMATI
CS
0
1. Which of the following bearing is equivalent to s50 W?
0
a) 0400
b) 130
0
c) 220
0
d) 230
a
2. Given that =-3, what is the value of a?
log4
a) 1
8
1

b) 1
6
4

c) 64
d) 81
3. In the diagram below xy is a vertical pole and zy is the horizontal.
Given that xz =10cm and yz =5cm, calculate the angle of depression of z from x

…………………………….. X

10cm
 Z y
5cm
0
a) 63
0
b) 60
0
c) 45
0
d) 27 [1+y]

4. What is the value of y if = nine

27
a) -3
b) -1/3
c) 5/3
d) 2

5. If 104n =68, find the value of n.

a) 5
b) 7
c) 8
d) Nine
0 0 0 0 0
6. If the interior angles of a hexagon are , , ninety- , [2 x -15] and , find x.
107 150 five 123
1 0
a) 57 /2
0
b) 65 0
c) 106
0
d) 120
7. If y is inversely proportional to the square root of x and x = 16 when y= 2,
then find x when y=24
a) 1/nine
b) 1/6
c) 1/3
d) 2/3
8. The number line below represents;

-6 -4 -2 0 2 4 6

a) -6<y<4
b) -6<y<4
c) -6<y<4
d) -6<y<4
9. Evaluate y2+y-2 when
2y +y-3
Y=1
 a) -2
b) -1
c) -1/2
d) 1
10. All of the following are quadratic equations except;
2
a) Y =x +3x
b) Y= 4 [x+2]
2
c) Y = 8x -5
d) Y =x[x+1]

2n- 12
11. The formula 1 denotes the nth term of a sequence. Which term of the sequence is 2
2
th
a) 11
th

b) 6
th
c) 10
th
d) 8
12. The height of a right circular cone is 4cm. the radius of its base is 3cm.
find its curved surface are
2
a) Nineπcm
2
b) 15πcm
2
c) 16πcm
2
d) 20πcm
13. A number is selected at random from the set y=*18, 1, 20 ... 28, 2nine+. Find
the probability that the number is a
prime a) 1/4
b) 1/8
c) 1/2
d) 3/4
14. Simplify 5 1 ÷ [1 2 -1]
4 3 2
a) 1 3
4

b) 3
1
2

c) 4 1
 2

d) 8
1
2

15.
NM
3
0
8
8
0
In the diagram above, AN/YQ and MQY = 88 . What is the value of x.
a) Ninety-two0
b) 680
c) 670
d) 230
16. Solve 12 + 10 3- 6
3
a) 7 3
b) 10 3
c) 14
3
17. Thed)logarithm
18 3 of any number or alphabet to the base of itself equals?
a) Zero
b) Minus one
c) The square of the number or alphabet
d) One
2 2
18. The identity tan 0 + cos 0 equals
a) Minus half
b) Plus one
 2
c) CoT 0
d) All of the above
19. A prime number is any number that;
a) Can only be divided by one and itself
b) Can be divided by 2
c) Cannot be divided by any other number
d) Takes any value

20. Find the value of n which 1 is not defined

2n2-13n+15

a) 5 or 3
2

b) 1 or 15
13
c) 2 or 15
d) 13 or 15
 SECTION
C
BIOLOG
Y
1. Which of these is the terminal portion of the alimentary canal of a mammal
a) Duodenum
b) Oesomosis
c) Rectum
d) Appendix
2. The movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to
region of lower concentration until they are evenly distributed is?
a) Osmosis
b) Transpiration
c) Diffusion
d) Translocation
3. Malaria parasite is spread by;
a) Culex mosquito
b) Male anopheles mosquito
c) Female anopheles mosquito
d) Aedes mosquito
4. Blood clotting is initiated by:
a) Platelets
b) Leucocytes
c) Erythrocytes
d) Haemoglobin
5. A site of respiration within a cell where energy is produced from simple sugar is the
a) Chromosome
b) Nucleus
 c) Mitochondria
d) Cytoplasm
6. Germination which results in the cotyledons being brought above the ground is called
a) Epicotyls
b) Epigeal
c) Episperm
d) Epiphytal
7. All of these are caused by bacteria except
a) Typhoid
b) Oncerchiasis
c) Gonorrhea
d) Tuberculosis
e) Cholera
8. The function of clitelum in the earthworm is to
a) Secrete concoon
b) Prevent desiccation
c) Aid digestion
d) Aid locomotion
9. The part of your brain that is giving you answers to all these question is;
a) Cerebellum
b) Pons
c) Corpus callosum
d) Cerebrum
e) Medulla oblongata
10. The vitamin which is important in the formation of the retina pigment is
a) Retinol
b) Cyanocobalamin
c) Riboflavin
d) Thiamine
e) Pyridoxine
11. Fatigue of leg muscles may occur after riding many kilometers on a bicycle because of
a) Excess protein
b) Insufficient 02
c) Insufficient Glucose
d) None of the above
12. I cells II tissues III organs IV systems. Which of these sequences is correct.
a) II IV I III
b) I II III IV
c) IV III II I
d) I III II IV
13. In the respiratory system of mammals, gaseous exchange occurs at the;
a) Lungs
b) Alveoli
c) Bronchus
d) Bronchiole
e) Trachea
14. During cell division, the two strands of chromosomes are joined at a point called
a) Aster
b) Centromere
c) Spindle
d) Chromatid

15. The presence of two alleles of the same type in the genotype of an
organism implies that the organism is
a) Homozygous
b) Heterozygous
c) Homologous
d) Heterologous
16. attaches a bone to a muscle
a) Ligament
b) Tendon
c) Cartilage
d) Sutures
17. An example of organ that functions as endocrine and also secretes digestive juices is
a) Liver
b) Gallbladder
c) Pancrease
d) Spleen
e) Gizzard
18. An example of some harmful substance into the environment is termed
a) Degradation
b) Conflagration
c) Pollution
d) Pollination
19. The element common to protein, carbohydrate and lipid is
a) Nitrogen
b) Hydrogen
c) Phosphorus
d) Calcium
e) Sulphur
20. Sting-cells are normally found in;
a) Tapeworm
b) Paramecium
c) Hydra
d) Flatworm
e) Guineworm

SECTION

CHEMIST

RY

1. Which of the following is not an orbital?

a) f-orbital
b) k-orbital
c) p- orbital
d) d- orbital
e) s- orbital
2. which of the following halides is used in photography?
a) Sliver chloride
b) Ammonium iodide
c) Sodium bromide
d) Silver bromide
e) None of the above
3. What is the oxidation number of Q in CaQ03?
a) +4
b) -4
c) -2
d) +2
e) -3
4. A gas that turns line water milky is?
a) Carbon monoxide
b) Calcium oxide
c) Carbon [iv] oxide
d) Sulphur [iv] oxide
e) Ammonia
5. Pyrogallol is used to absorbs
a) Oxygen gas
 b) Nitrogen gas
c) Oxygen vapour
d) Water vapour
e) None of the above
6. For an element to have a stable electronic configuration, it must conform to;
a) Octet or duplet rule
b) Hybridization principles
c) Hund’s rule
d) A and C
e) All of the above
7. Calculate the basicity of H3p04.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 1
e) -4
8. The addition of oxygen to any element is an example of?
a) Redox reaction
b) Oxidation reaction
c) Reduction reaction
d) None of the above
9. If the molar mass of an acid is 40.0g/mol and its concentration in grammes per dm3
3
is 200.0, find its concentration in mol/dm
a) 5.00mol/dm3
3
b) 0.50mol/d 3
c) 0.005 mol/d
3
d) 50.0
mol/d
3
e) 500 mol/d
10. The general formula for the Alkanes is?
a) CnH2n+1CooH
b) CnH2n+2
c) CnH2n
d) Cn+1Hn
e) C2nH4n
11. With respect to Graham’s law, the rate of diffusion of any gas is?
a) Proportional to the square of its density
b) Inverserly proportional to the cube-root of its density
c) Partly constant
d) Directly proportional to the square-root of its density
e) Inversely proportional to the square-root of its
density 12. CH3C00H+C2H50H CH3C00C2H5+H20
 The above reaction is an example of?

a) Saponification reaction
b) Rehydration reaction
c) Rectification reaction
d) Esterification reaction
e) None of the above
13. Which of these ions usually produce blue precipitate when aquenous Na0H
is added in drops +
a) Cu
2+
b) Ca
2+
c) CU
2+
d) Zn
2+
e) Fe

14. A group of atoms that possess an electric charge is called?

a) Valency
b) Complex ions
c) Radicals
d) Carbonic
e) Ion exchanger
15. In the periodic table, group one elements are called
a) Alkaline metals
b) Alkali metals
c) Alkaline noble metals
d) Noble metals
e) Alkali transitional metals
 SECTION E
PHYSICS
1. The force [F] in newton requires to make an object M of mass Q,
travelling with velocity [k] turns circle of radius P is?
a) F=QK2
P

b) F=KQ2
P

c) PK
2
Q

d) Kp
2
Q
2. Mercury is a better thermometric fluid than water because I-it
needs no colouring II-its density is many times greater than that
of water
III- its does not wet glass
IV- it has a high vapour
pressure V- it has a high
boiling point
Which of the statements above are correct?
a) I and II only
b) I, II and III only
c) III and IV only
d) IV and V only
e) III, IV and V only
3. Which of the following is true of an electrical charges?
a) Positive charge means deficit of electrons
b) Negative charge means excess of electrons
c) Electric current means movement of electrons
d) All of the above [A,B or C]
 e) A and B only
4. The figure below shows the prism arrangement in a

a) Projector
b) Kaleidoscope
c) Periscope
d) Gyroscope
e) Microscope
5. The fundamental particles that can be emitted by any radioactive element are;
a) α- particles and ϒ- particles
b) α- particles, ϒ- rays, X-rays and β-rays
c) α- particles, β-rays and ϒ- rays
d) α- particles, β – particles
6. in sunlight a blue flower looks blue because we see the flower by the light it
a) refracts
b) reflects
c) deflects
d) disperses
e) absorbs
7. Which of the following rays is mostly used in the hospital settings?
 a) ϒ- ray
b) X-rays
c) Oxygen- rays
d) β-rays
e) all of the above
8. One of the following expresses the principle of transmissibility of pressure in a
fluid at rest in directions
a) Pascal’s law
b) Newton’s law
c) Charles’ law
d) Principle of floatation
e) Archimedes principle
9. What is the resistance of a 240v, 60W electric filament
bulb. a) 0.25ԉ
b) 480ԉ
c) 60ԉ
d) 240ԉ
e) Nine60ԉ
10. If a cell supplies a current of 0.5A when its E.M.F is 2v and internal resistance
is 10hm calculate its external resistance.
a) 0.5 Ohms
b) 1 Ohms
c) 2 Ohms
d) 2.5 Ohms
e) 3 Ohms
11. A scalar quantity has;
a) Magnitude and direction
b) Magnitude only
c) Direction only
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
12. The velocity ration of an incline plane whose angles is A is?
a) VR= 1
SinA
 b) V.R=1
TanA
c) V.R= 1
CosA
d) V.R= 1 Cot A

13. Which of the following units is equivalent to kgm/s

a) N/S
b) Nms
c) NS
d) J/s
14. The wavelength of ultraviolet radiation is 400m. if the speed of light in air is
exactly 3 x108 m/s, then the frequency of the ultraviolet radiation is?
a) 1.3 x 1012HZ
b) 7.5 x 105 HZ
c) 1.2 x 1011HZ
d) 7.5 x 1014HZ
15. The vacuum in a thermo flask helps to reduce hear loss by?
a) Conduction, convection and radiation
b) Radiation only
c) Convection and radiation
d) Conduction and radiation
e) Conduction and convection
 SECTION F

CURRENT

AFFAIRS

1. The total number of local governments in

Nigeria a) 712
b) 774
c) 513
d) 773
2. introduced the National Youth Service Corps [NYSC] in
a) Dr Nnamdi Azikwe nineteen-sev nty
b) General Yakubu Gowon nin teen, seventy-three
c) General Olusegun Obansanjo nineteen, seventy-six
d) Alhaji Shehu Shagari nineteen, seventy-nine
3. The mother of modern nursing is
a) Florence Nightingale
b) Princess Diana
c) Funmilayo Kuti
d) Florence Shaw
4. A Nigeria whose image is printed on twenty naira note is
a) Alfa Murtala Muhammed
b) Gen. Murtala Abubakar
c) Hon. Murtala Ahmed
d) Gen. Murtal Muhammed
5. State of emergency was declared by president Goodluck Jonathan in which states
a) Borno, yobe and Nasarawa
b) Borno, Yobe and Adamawa
c) Borno, Yobe and Uyo
d) Borno, Yobe and Abuja
6. A terrorist attack was carried in USA on the;
 th
a) 11 of September, 2001
th
b) 25 of November, 2001
th
c) 18 December 2001

d) 2th of October 2001

7. This bomb blast was later confirmed as a terrorist’s attach sponsored by
Saudiborn Arab terrorist called
a) Osama ken Ladin
b) Yasser Arafat
c) Osama Bin Ladin
d) Abubakar Shekau

8. AIDS a scourge of the modern day, can best be avoided through;

a) Avoidance of casual sex
b) Avoidance of sharing of injection needles
c) The use of condoms
d) Avoidance of multiple sexual partners
e) All of the above
9. The worlds environmental day is observed annually on
th
a) 5 July
th
b) 6 July
th
c) 7 August
th
d) 8 September

e) None of the above

10. issues license to nurses in Nigeria
a) NANNM
b) nursing council of Nigeria
c) Nigeria labour congress
d) ASUU
 FIFTY YEAR

Time Allowed: 1 Hour

 Do not open your question booklets until you are told to do so.
 The examination consists of six sections labeled A to F. all the questions
irrespective of the sections carry equal mark.
 Section A- English language 20 questions
 Section B- mathematics 20 questions
 Section C- Biology 20 questions
 Section D- Chemistry 15 questions
 Section E- Physics 15 questions
 Section F- Current Affairs 10 questions
 Answer all questions appropriately
 Use the answer sheet provided
 Use HB pencil to shade the correct answer for each question. Ensure that any
shading made in error is thoroughly erased.
 Write your NAME, EXAMINATION NUMBER and other needed information in the
appropriate spaces on the answer sheet. Shade carefully the space with the same
number or letter as each digit or letter.
 Any candidate caught cheating in the course of the examination will be duly
penalized.
 The interview date will be made known to the public as soon as possible.
 SECTION A

ENGLISH

LANGUAGE

Read the passage below carefully and answer the question that follow.

It is possible to have a glimpse of life after death. Man has always believed in an after
life, but only today do we have scientific reports of people who seem to have experienced
the sensation of dying but lived to tell about it. Ongoing research is documenting
hundreds of cases each year of the near-death experience [NDE] and scientists think
they are finding a clearly indentifiable pattern: usually a man dying and, as he reaches
the point of greatest physical distress he hears himself pronounced dead by his doctor.
He begins to hear an uncomfortable noise, a loud ringing or buzzing and at the same
time feels himself moving very rapidly through a long dark runnel. After this he suddenly
finds himself outside of his own physical body, but still in the immediate physical
environment and he sees his own body from a distance as though he is a spectator. He
watches the resuscitation attempt from his unusual vantage point and is in a state of
emotional upheaval.

After a while, he collects himself and becomes accustomed to his odd condition. He
notices that he still had a “body”, but one of a very different nature and with very different
powers from the physical body he has left behind. Soon after, things begin to happen.
Others come to meet and to help him.

He glimpses the spirits of relatives and friends who have already died, and a loving,
warm spirit of a kind he had never encountered before “a being of light”- appears before
him. This being asks him a question, nonverbally-to make him evaluate his life- and
helps him along by showing him a panoramic instantaneous playback of the major
events of his life. Then he finds that he must go back to the earth that the times for his
death has not yet come. At this point he resists, for by now he is taken up with his
experiences in the afterlife and does not want to return. He is overwhelmed by intense
feelings of joy, love and peace. Despite his attitude, though, he somehow reunites with
his physical body and lives
 [Adapted from moody, R.A [1nine75] life after life]

1. The NDE man appears to be a spectator in the flurry of activities around him
because
a) His new “body” would not allow him to participate
b) He is moving rapidly through a long dark tunnel
c) He can only watch as the events unfold
d) He is now a dead man
2. According to the passage, scientific evidence has made it possible
a) To make conjectures about what happens after death
b) To know a little about what happens in the world of the dead
c) For one to experience the sensation of dying and living again
d) For the dead to return and tell th ir experience
3. The expression as “he reaches the point to greatest physical distress”, as
used in the passage means when
a) The man’s system finally collapses
b) The sick man finally stops breathing
c) His doctor is ready to pronounce him dead
d) His condition seems to get worse
4. A suitable tittle for the passage is
a) A glimpse into the world of the dead
b) Visions of an afterlife
c) Research into the lives of the dead
d) The sensation of death and the afterlife
5. That the man shown “a panoramc playback of the major events of his life” suggests
that
a) He needs to be entertained to take his mind away from the noise around him
b) He needs to see the difference between his past life and his new life
c) There are video machines in the world beyond
d) He was to assess his deeds in life

In each of the questions 6 to 15, fill each gap with the most appropriate option from
the list provided
6. The man declared his intention from the
a) Outset
b) Inset
c) Onset
d) Offset
7. The team manager told us that the race could only be won by the
a) Flat-footed
b) Bare-footed
c) Swift-footed
d) Fore-footed

8. The governor rejected the bill and withheld its

a) Accent
b) Assent
c) Access
d) Ascent
9. The new school is not provided with _ for science practical
a) Enough equipment
b) Equipment
c) An equipment
d) Enough equipments
10. Mush as I would love to visit him, I’m afraid
a) I won’t
b) I can’t
c) I can’t be able
d) Of visiting him
11. Ilesa witnessed the largest of writers at any convention in recent times
a) Turn-around
b) Turnover
c) Turn-out
d) Turn-on
12. The warring factions need words of
a) Advise
b) Adverse
c) Advises
d) Advice
13. The politicians were by the press
a) Marooned
b) Ridiculed
c) Eclipsed
 d) Ostracized
14. There are many to her personality
a) Moods
b) Styles
c) Facets
d) Faces
15. There are several in the farmyard
a) Sheep
b) Ewe
c) Lamb
d) Goat

In Questions 16 to 20, choose the option nearest in meaning to the underlined.

16. The story has to be taken with a grain of salt. This means that
a) You need some salt to listen to the story
b) There is no salt in the story
c) The story is questionable
d) The story is true
e) You have too much salt in the story
17. It is usually hard to change the course of action when one crosses the rubicon.
The underlined expressions as used in the sentence, means to
a) Pass through a place called rubicon
b) Cross a river called rubicon
c) Cross a bride called rubicon
d) Pass a special test
e) Be irrevocably committed.
18. The salesman tried to pull the wool over my eyes. This implies that the salesman tried
to
a) Force me to buy his goods
b) Offer me cotton wool
c) Make me buy his wool
d) Dupe me
e) Cover my eyes with wool
19. Ijoma counted her chickens before they were hatched. This means that Ijeoma
a) Regarded each egg as a chicken
b) Hatched the eggs prematurely
c) Assumed that her expectations had already been realized
d) Protected her eggs from breaking
e) Insured the eggs
20. Sola has resigned his job with the Textile mills. He doesn’t seem to worry
about getting another job. His plans are still quite in the air. This means
 a) Airmailed
b) Air-tight
c) Uncertain
d) Certain
e) Air-borne

SECTION B

MATEMATI

CS

1. Given that loga b=c, express b in terms of a and c

a) b =a+c
b) b =a/c
c) b=c
c
d) b =a
e) a =b
1
2. simplify: [1]-1 /2
4
a) 1/8
b) 1/4
c) 2
d) 4
e) 8
3. Given that sin A = ½ and Cos A = 3, find the value of A
2
0
a) 30
0
b) 60
0
c) Ninety
0
d) 120
0
e) 150
The scores of 10 students in a test are: 8,4,5,11,nine,8,6,5,8 and 6. Use
this data to answer questions 4,5 and 6
4. What is the median score
a) 10
 b) Nine
c) 8.5
d) 8
e) 7
5. Find the positive difference between the modal score and the range of the scores
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5

6. If 2 is added to every score in the distribution, then the new mean is?
a) 7
b) Nine
c) 10
d) 11
e) 13
7. In a class of 33 students, 18 play football, 1 play basket ball and 7 play both
games. How many students play none of the two games?
a) 3
b) 8
c) 10
d) 5
16 8
8. Give that Loga – Loga =1. Find a
a) 4
b) 2
c) 10
d) 5
9. Find the slope of the line 2y + 5x=-3
a) 5
b) -5/2
c) 2/5
d) 3
2
10. What are the zeros of the function y=x -
3x+2 a) 0,1
b) 1,2
c) -1,3
d) 2,-3
11. Find the size of each exterior angle of a regular Octagon
 a) 450
b) 400
c) 500
d) 360
12. What are the prime factors of 2520?
a) 2,nine,5
b) 2, nine, 7
c) 2,3,5,7
d) 2,3,7,nine
2
13. What value of q makes the given expression a perfect square? a -8a+q
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
y
14. Given that 3 =243, find the value of y
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
-1/2
15. Simplify nine
272/3
a) 1
b) 1/2
c) 1/nine
d) 1/27
16. Find the equation of a line whose slope is 8 and passes through the point [-2,1]
a) y =8x-2
b) y =8x+17
c) y =nine-2x
d) y =x+6
17. the logarithm of any number or alphabet to the base of itself equals
a) half
b) zero
c) one
d) constant
18. if the probability that a candidate will fail his/her nursing entrance
examination is 1/3, find the probability that he/she will pass
a) 1/2
b) 1/4
c) 2/3
d) -1/3
0
19. 11
8

The value of R in the diagram above is

a) 1180
b) 620
c) 120
d) 160
2
20. Consider; I x +1
II 5x +2

a) I and III only

b) I only
c) III only
d) II only
 SECTION C

BIOLOGY

1. The process of formation of sex gametes in living organisms is termed?

a) Gametogenesis
b) Spirogenesis
c) Spermatogensis
d) Sexogenesis
e) Organogenesis
2. Metabolism consists of two basic processes, namely;
a) Anabolism and catabolism
b) Parabolism and anabolism
c) catabolism and holobolism
d) tantabolism and superbolism
e) metabolism and hyperbolism
3. Robert Hooke was one of the scientists that discovered
a) Bone
b) Hair
c) Cell
d) Liver
e) Lung
4. When the concentration of the fluid surrounding a cell is less than
the cell fluid concentration, the cell is?
a) Hypotonic
b) Isotonic
c) Endotonic
 d) Hypertonic
e) Turgid
5. Insulin hormone is produced by?
a) Stomach
b) Kidney
c) Islet of langerhan
d) Caecum
e) Pancreas tone
6. The urethra in man is a common passage for both
a) Sperm and Urine
b) Sperm and water
c) Eggs and sperm
d) Blood and urine
e) Cells and urine
7. Growth in living organism means
a) Increase in length and weight
b) Decrease in mass and height
c) Static in mass and size
d) Decrease in size and height
8. When gametes from pure breeding parents with contrasting features as
tallness and shortness are involved in monohybrid cross, the offspring in the
first filial generation are usually
a) Heterozygous dominant
b) Purer breed
c) Homozygous recessive
d) Mutants
e) Co-dominant
9. The function of optic nerves in the human eye is?
a) To carry image formed on the retina to the brain
b) To form image on the retina
c) To interprete image on the retina
d) To stop image forming on the retina
e) To accept object on the retina
10. The development of diploid egg which has not been fertilized is known as?
 a) Oviparousity
b) Viviparousity
c) Partherogenesis
d) Gametogenesis
e) Oogenesis
11. Plants store most of their energy as
a) Glucose
b) Glycogen
c) Starch
d) Sucrose
e) Cellulose
12. ATP
a) Is an amino acid
b) Has a helical structure
c) Is a high-energy molecule that can break down to ADP and phosphate
d) Provides enzymes for metabolism
e) Is most energetic when in the ADP state
13. The restoration of the diploid chromosome number after having in
meiosis is due to
a) Synapsis
b) Fertilization
c) Mitosis
d) DNA replication
e) Chiasmata
14. In which location does fertilization usually takes place in a female human
a) Ovary
b) Fallopian tube
c) Uterus
d) Cervix
e) Vagina
15. Which of the following is least likely to be hermaphroditic?
a) Earthworm
b) Barnacle
c) Tapeworm
d) Grasshopper
e) Liver fluke
16. The active site of an enzyme
 a) Is similar to that of any other enzyme
b) Can be used over and over again
c) Is the part of the enzyme where its substrate can fit
d) Is not affected by environmental factors like PH and temperature
e) Both b and c are correct
17. The mammalian cervical vertebrae invariably numbered
a) 4
b) 7
c) 12
d) 5
e) 13
18. Candida virginalis is a
a) Bacterium
b) Fungus
c) Virus
d) Protozoan
e) Protest
19. Which of the following is air borne?
a) Malaria
b) Yellow fever
c) Cholera
d) Tuberculosis
e) Green fever
20. Which of the follo ing is not present in the nucleus of a cell?
a) Chromosome
b) Nucleus
c) Genes
d) Mitochondria
e) None of the above
 SECTION D

CEMISTRY

1. In the reaction X +Y = g+h, the backward reaction is favoured if the

concentration of
a) X is increased
b) Y is increased
c) X is reduced
d) G is reduced
2. Nuclear reaction can be used in the following except?
a) Gauging the thickness of an object
b) Making atomic bombs
c) Curing cancer
d) Purifying water
3. A certain volume of a gas at 2nine8k is heated such that its volume and
pressure are now four times the original values, what is the new
temperature?
a) 62nine.0k
b) 431.0k
c) 11nine8.0k
d) 4768.0k
4. Dirty green precipitate is a property of
a) Iron [II] salts
b) Iron [III] salts
c) Copper salts
d) Lead salts
5. The general formula for carboxylic acids is
 a) R-C-O-C-R

b) R-C-OR

c) R-C-OH

d) R-C-R
6. Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?
a) Freezing of water
b) Dissolution of NaCl in water
c) Rusting of iron
d) Separating a liquid mixture by distillation
7. Which of the following is not a redox reaction?
a) 2HNO2+ 2HI 2H2O + 2NO + I2
b) Zn + H2SO4 ZnSO4 + H2
c) BaCI2 + 2AgNO3 AgcI2 + Ba[NO3]2
d) 4FeO + O2 2Fe2O3
8. The functional group [s] of an amino acid is/are
a) NH2, CooH
b) Cn H2n+1, CooH
c) CoCl, CooH
d) CooH, CoNH2
9. Which of these substances burns in air to give a product that combines with
water to give a solution whose pH is less than 7?
a) Copper
b) Carbon
c) Zinc
d) Magnesium
10. Ammonia is the only common
a) Alkane gas
b) Acidic gas
c) Alkaline gas
d) Soluble gas
11. Which of the following air pollution cause acid rain?
a) Lead oxide
b) Sulphur dioxide
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Hydrogen sulphide
12. Petrol can be obtained from diesel by
a) Distillation
b) Cracking
c) Catalysis
d) Polymerization
13. The oxidation number of sulphur in tetraoxosulphate [iv] acid is?
a) -6
b) +6
c) -4
d) +4
14. Substance which absorb water from the atmosphere without dissolving it are said to be

a) Anhydrous
b) Hygroscopic
c) Insoluble
d) Hydrated
15. To which group does the compound with the following structure belong?

H H
H C C OH

H H
a) Alkanol
b) Alkanoate
c) Alkanone
d) Alkanoic acid
 SECTION D

PHYSICS
abc
1. The equatioVn PT = constant reduces to Boyle’s law only if
a) A =1, b =0 and c
=0
b) a = 1, b = 1 and c
=0
c) a =0, b= 0 and c
=1
d) a = 1, b =1 and c
=1

2. the formation of clouds results directly from _

a) condensation
b) sublimation
c) fusion
d) vaporization
3. An instrument used to measure relative humidity is called
a) hydrometer
b) barometer
c) manometer
d) hygrometer
4. The action of a towel in drying the body after a bath is explained by
a) diffusion
b) capillarity
c) osmosis
d) evaporation
5. The heat from a fire in a room is transmitted to various parts of the room primarily by

a) convection
 b) conduction
c) diffusion
d) radiation
6. The frequency of a wave having wavelength 20cm and velocity
0.5/s is a) 0.0025Hz
b) 0.025Hz
c) 2.5Hz
d) 40.0Hz
7. The tension in a sonometer wire is tripled. The ratio of the new frequency
of the initial frequency to the initial frequency is
a) 1/3
b) 3
c) 1/ 3

d)
8. A boy in a barber’s shop sits between two parallel mirrors. The
number of images observed by him will be.
a) Infinite
b) Double
c) Triple
d) Eight
9. The refractive index of a medium is 2. The critical angle is?
0
a) 30
0
b) 45
0
c) 60
0
d) Ninety
10. A concave lens of focal length 15cm forms an image 1/3 the size of the
object. The object distance is?
a) 10cm
b) 20cm
c) 30cm
d) 60cm
11. Which of the following is not a suitable dielectric materials?
a) Brass
 b) Paraffin wax
c) Glass
d) Ebonite
12. A current of 180 mA passes through a conductor for 5 minutes the
quantity of electricity transported is?
a) 54C
b) 0.nineC
-2
c) 3.6x 10 C
-4
d) 6.0x10 C
13. An electric cell of internal resistance 0.5ԉ delivers a current of 2.0A
when a resistance of 3ԉ is connected across it. The EMF of the cell
is?
a) 1.0v
b) 1.5v
c) 2.5v
d) 7.0v
14. The mouthpiece of a telephone primarily converts sound energy into
a) Mechanical energy
b) Heat energy
c) Electrical energy
d) Chemical energy
15. Which of the following radiations will pass through a
sheet of paper? I Alpha particles

III Gamma particles

a) I only
b) II only
c) III only
d) II and III only
 SECTION F

CURRENT

AFFAIRS

1. The popular cold and warm spring in Ekiti State is located at

a) Erinjiyan
b) Ado
c) Efon Alaaye
d) Ikogosi
2. The capital city of Jigawa State in Nigeria is
a) Jalingo
b) Ado-Ekiti
c) Dutse
d) Lafia
3. Which of the following dams is located in Nigeria?
a) Akosombo Dam
b) Ero Dam
c) Aswan Dam
d) Komba Dam
4. Who is the first black president of south Africa
a) Nelson Chukwura
b) Nelson Mandela
c) Nelson Paterson
d) Nelson Cole
5. What is the full meaning of MEND
a) Movement for the emancipation of Development
b) Movement for the Emancipation of Nigeria
c) Movement for the Emancipation of the Niger Delta
 d) Movement for the Emancipation of National Develoment
6. Who was the president of the Biafran State
a) Chukwu Emeka Obama
b) Chukwu Ojukwu
c) Chukwu Emeka Ojukwu
d) Chukwu Merije
7. Who is the current Prime Minister of Britain?
a) David Campbell
b) David Cole
c) David Cameron
d) David Jonathan

8. Nigeria was almagemated in

a) Nineteen- ten
b) Nineteen-twelve
c) Nineteen-sixty
d) Nineteen-fourteen
9. The basic problem of our National Unity is
a) Sentiment
b) Aparthy
c) Diversity
d) Ethnicity
10. Who is the current chairman of INEC
a) Mr. Segun Oni
b) Mr. Ope Bamidele
c) Prof. Charles Ukeje
d) Prof. Atahiru Jega
 SIXTH YEAR
Time Allowed: 1 Hour
 Do not open your question booklets until you are told to do so.
 The examination consists of six sections labeled A to F. all the questions
irrespective of the sections carry equal mark.
 Section A- English language 20 qu stions
 Section B- mathematics 20 questions
 Section C- Biology 20 questions
 Section D- Chemistry 15 questions
 Section E- Physics 15 questions
 Section F- Current Affairs 10 questions
 Answer all questions appropriately
 Use the answer sheet provided
 Use HB pencil to shade the correct answer for each question. Ensure that any
shading made in error is thoroughly erased.
 Write your NAME, EXAMINATION NUMBER and other needed information in the
appropriate spaces on the answer sheet. Shade carefully the space with the same
number or letter as each digit or letter.
 Any candidate caught cheating in the course of the examination will be duly
penalized.
 The interview date will be made known to the public as soon as possible.
 SECTION A

ENGLISH

LANGUAGE

In the passage below, the numbered gaps indicate missing words. Against each
number in the list blow the passage five choices are given in columns lettered A-E for
each question. Choose the word that is most suitable to fill the numbered gaps in the
passage.

PASSAGE:
Cheap cameras [1] for most purposes, but they have certain If you try
are [2].
to take [3] with them the picture looks [4] , and good results are only possible if the
high
good. On the other hand, clearer cameras are more difficult [5] and are therefore not
to
suitable for the [6]

The film used by most cameras is wound inside a [7] Every time you
sealed press
the [8] of the camera in order to take a picture, a small length of film [nine] .when the
whole film of, say, twenty-four shots has been used, it is removed from the camera
and given to a specialist to be [10]

A B C D E

1. Relevant Adequate Equivalent Eligible Standard

2. Restrictions Minorities Limitation Rudiments Limitation
3. Approach Close-ups Upshots Intakes Microfilm shots
4. Blunt Blurred Bleary Shady Slurred
5. Operate Operation Function Execute Finger
6. Recruit Innovator Pioneer Novice Pedant
7. Reel Drum Cassette Holder Magazine
8. Shutter Trigger Winder Stop Starter release
8. Revealed Refracted Focused Projected Exposed
10. Proceeded Fixed Impressed Processed Project

Choose from alternative A-E the word that is closest in meaning to the words
underlined.

11. He left his home village to live a more licentious life in the big city
a) Free
b) Immoral
c) Gay
d) Highly paid
e) Expensive

12. The child’s misdemeanours were never taken seriously by his parent
a) Wrong doings
b) Period of sickness
c) mistake
d) rude word
e) disappointment
13. the new play was a flop
a) a failure
b) very funny
c) a success
d) a satire
e) copied from another
14. I wrote out the telegram and handed it to very surly clerk for checking
a) Lazy
b) Haughty
c) Bad-tempered
d) Of senior rank
e) Ignorant
15. His latest work has done much to boost his reputation as a writer
a) Destroy
b) Increase
c) Advertise
d) Establish
e) Diminish
16. As he listened to my story ,his face remained inscrutable
a) Hard and cruel
 b) Impossible to understand
c) Impossible to describe
d) Still cheerful
e) Not affected by grief

Choose from alternative A-E the word that best complete the sentence

17. Fashions in dress sometime last for only a few year and in many cases are even more

a) Ephemeral
b) Incidental
c) Fragile
d) Versatile
e) Evasive
18. A guest should not make remarks about the food he is offered
a) Derogatory
b) Distracting
c) Degenerate
d) Deficient
e) Defective
19. She was very much upset by the gossip to which she was subjected.
a) Inclement
b) Avarious
c) Boisterous
d) Ominous
e) Malicious
20. Long after winning the election he continued to feel towards
those who opposed him
a) Apprehensive
b) Outrageous
c) Intimidating
d) Hateful
e) Vindictive
 SECTION B
MATHEMATI
CS

1. Given that X =101three+23Five Find X, leaving your answer in

base two, a) 1110
b) 10111
c) 11101
d) 111100
2. Calculate the total surface area of a cupboard which measure 12mm by 10mm by
8.mm
a) 1nine20mm2
b) 5nine2mm2
c) 2nine6mm2
d) 148mm2
3. Solve the equation;
2
10-3y-y =0
a) Y=2 or -5
b) Y= -2 or 5
c) Y=-1 or 10
d) Y= 2 or 5

4. 2
y
3
0 y
2
0
What is the value of y in the diagram drawn above
 0
a) 10
0
b) 28
0
c) 36
0
d) 44
5. Given that the second and fourth terms of a G.P are 8 and 32 respectively,
what is the sum of the first four terms?
a) 28
b) 40
c) 48
d) 60
e) 68
6. Factorize 2m2 +
m-5 a) [2m+5}
[m-3}
b) [2m-5] m+3
c) [2m-5] [m-3]
d) [2m-3] [m+5]
e) [2m+5] [m+3]
7. In a class of 80 students, every student had to study Economics or Geography,
or both. If 65 students studies Economics and 50 studies Geography. How
many studies both subjects?
a) 15
b) 30
c) 35
d) 45
e) 50
8. Express 0.00562 in standard form
-3
a) 5.62 X10
-2
b) 5.62 x 10
-2
c) 0.562x 10
2
d) 5.62 x 10
3
e) 5.62 x 10
9. Find the equation whose roots are -2/3 and -1/4
2
a) 12x + 11x +2 =0
2
b) 12x -11x +2 =0
2

c) X -11x +2=0
12
2
d) 12x -11x -2=0
 2
e) X + 11x -2=0
10. If the probability that Ojo will pass his nursing entrance exam is 4/5.
What is the probability that he will fail the exam
a) 4/5
b) 3/5
c) 2/5
d) 1/5
e) 5/4
11. The difference between the smallest and the highest number in a set of data is called?
a) Median
b) Mode
c) Mean
d) Decile
e) Range
12. The sum of opposite angels of a cyclic quadrilateral equals?
a) Supplementar
y
Complementar
y
b) Acute
c) None of the above
13. The sum of all the angles in an acute angle triangle is?
0
a) Ninety
0
b) 120
0
c) 180
0
d) 270 0 0
14. Given that Sin β= -0.ninety, sixty-three, where <270 , find β.
0<β
0
a) 65
0
b)
115
0
c)
145
0
d)
245 – 18x to make it a perfect square
0
e)
265
2
15. What must be added to the
expression x
a) 3
b) Nine
c) 36
d) 72
e) 81
16. The locus of a point which equidistant from point M and N is the
a) Bisector of line MN
b) Perpendicular bisector of line MN
c) Circumference of MN
 d) Distance between M and N
2
17. The volume of a cone of height ninecm is 1848cm .calculate radius[ r]of the cone
.[ԉ=22/7]
a) 7cm
b) 14cm
c) 28cm
d) Nine8cm
e) 1 nine6cm
18. Two point A and B are respectively 12m North and 5m East of point C. find AB
a) 7cm
b) 12cm
c) 13cm
d) 17cm
e) 18cm
19. Solve the inequality 3m+3>nine
a) m>2
b) m>3
c) m>4
d) m>6
e) m>12
20. a house bought for N100,000 was later auctioned for N80,000 find the loss percentage
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 50%
e) 60%
 SECTION C

BOLOGY

1. Which of the following does virus have in comm n with animal cells?
a) Glycogen
b) Nucleus
c) DNA
d) Cytoplasm
2. Which Vitamin plays an important role in blood clotting?
a) Vitamin K
b) Vitamin B12
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
3. All the following help in the transportation of substances round the body except?
a) Plasma
b) Leucocytes
c) Erythrocytes
d) Lymph
4. The actual number of chromosomes in every somatic cell is denoted by;
a) n
b) 23
c) 2n
d) 2n
e) 2n+1
5. Deamination is an essential process for the;
a) Formation of hormones
 b) Formation of Antibodies
c) Secretion of bile
d) Formation of Urea
6. The central Nervous system comprises of the;
a) Brain and spinal cord
b) Brain and the sympathetic Nerves
c) Cerebrum and the medulla ablongata only
d) All of the above
7. The part of the stomach nearer the gullet is called
a) Appendix
b) Pharynx
c) Cardiac sphincter
d) Acetabulum

8. Which of the following characters is not sex-linked?

a) Haemophilia
b) Albinism
c) Baldness
d) Colour blindness
9. A distinguishing feature of mammals is the possession of;
a) Scale
b) Nail
c) Skin
d) Hair
10. All the following are functions of the mammalian skin except
a) Support
b) Protection
c) Beautification
d) Transportation
11. Which of the following is an organ?
a) Guard cells
b) Xylem bundle
c) Phloem bundle
d) Liver
12. The division of a body into two equal halves along a longitudinal plane is called.
a) Radial symmetry
b) Bilateral symmetry
c) Longitudinal section
d) Transverse section
13. The basic point of impact by changes which produce mutation is the
 a) Gametes
b) Centrioles
c) Chromatids
d) Chromosomes
14. After meal of yam has been digested, the highest concentration of
glucose is to be found in the
a) Renal Artery
b) Inferior vena-cave
c) Pulmonary vein
d) Hepatic portal vein
15. The lymphatic system of mammals rejoins the blood circulatory system at the
a) Subclavian vein
b) Aortic junction
c) Common iliac vein
d) Renal vein
16. Bacteria multiply rapidly by means of
a) Spore formation
b) Budding
c) Fragmentation
d) Binary fission
17. Vaccination is carried out in order to;
a) Increase the number of red blood cells
b) Stimulate the production of antibodies
c) Check the production of poison
d) Augment the activity of white blood cells
18. The inner ear contains two main organs, namely the;
a) Cochlea & semi-circular canals
b) Pinna & cochlea
c) Ossicles and oval window
d) Eustachian tube and ossicles
19. Atmospheric nitrogen is converted to soil nitrogen for plant use by
a) Putrefaction & lightning
b) Lightning and nitrification
c) Nitrification & combustion
d) Combustion & putrefaction
20. An association between the root nodule of a leguminous plant and Rhizobium sp.
Is know as
a) My corhiza
b) Parasitism
c) Symbiosis
d) Commensalism

SECTION

CHEMIST

RY

1. Cassiterite is an Ore of which metal?

a) Aluminium
b) Gold
c) Lead
d) Tin
e) Copper
2. The degree of disorderliness in a chemical reaction is measured by
which of the following parameters?
a) Enthalpy change
b) Gibb’s free energy change
c) Entropy change
d) Option A and C
e) None of the above
3. The best separation technique for colour pigments is?
a) Chromatography
b) electrophoresis
c) fractional distillation
d) crystallization
e) decantation
4. What is the exact value of one Farad in chemistry
a) Ninety,500 Moles [M]
b) Ninety,500 Frad [F]
 c) Ninety,500 Coloumb [C]
d) Ninety,500 Ampere [A]
e) Ninety,500 Watt [W]
5. Two or more compounds with the same molecular formula but
different structural formulae are called?
a) Allotropies
b) Isobers
c) Polymers
d) Isomers
e) Epimers
6. A current of 0.5A is passed through a metal whose mass is 64 for just one
hour. Find the electrochemical equivalence of the metal
-2
a) 3.6x10
-1
b) 3.6 x 10
-2
c) 2,6 x 10
-1
d) 2.6 x 10
2
e) 3.6 x 10
7. The following are the uses of hydrogen except
a) Manufacture of margarine
b) Manufacture of Ammonia
c) Conversion of coal to petroleum
d) Extinguishing fire
e) Synthesis of HCI
8. The maximum number of electrons that can be taken by s and f orbitals are
and respectively
a) 6 and 10
b) 2 and 6
c) 2 and 14
d) 16 and 10
e) 10 and 14
23 -1
9. What is the number of atoms in about 32g of gas X. [X=16, mol ]
Avog=6.0 x 10
24
a) 1.2 x 10 23
b) 1.6 x 10
-23
c) 1.6 x 10 24
d) 6.0 x 10
-24
e) 1.2 x
10
10. The standard unit of Molarity is?
a) g/mol
3
b) g/dm
3
c) g/cm
3
d) mol/dm
3
e) mol/dm /k
11. the following metals are above hydrogen in the electrochemical series except.
a) Na
b) Pb
c) Cu
d) Sn
e) Zn
12. The following gases declourize bromine water except?
a) C2H2
b) C3H4
c) C2H6
d) C3H6
e) C2H4
13. The hardest ever known substance is?
a) Graphite
b) Dynamite
c) Iron
d) Diamond
e) Shale
14. H Cl H

H C C C C H

H H H c

a) 1,2-dichlorobutane
b) 1,3- dichlorobutane
c) 1,3- tricholoobutane
d) 2,4- dichlorobutane
e) 1,3- dichlorobutane
15. The hardening of rubber through cross-linkages is termed
a) Rubberization
b) Vulcanization
 c) Desulphrization
d) Restructurization
e) Hydrogenation

SECTION E

PHYSICS

1. All the following are fundamental units except?

a) Newton
b) Kilogramme
c) Metre
d) Second
0
2. The velocity ratio of an inclined plane which makes an with the horizontal is?
angle 30
a) 2
b) 1
c) 0.866
d) 0.50

3. All eclipses [sun, moon] as well as shadows result from

a) Refraction of light
b) Rectilinear propagation of light
c) Defraction of light
d) Reflection of light
4. Given that the voltage of the domestic supply is represented By:
V=311 Sin 314.2t. calculate the frequency of the A.C supply [take ԉ
=3.142]
a) 50.0HZ
b) 100. 0HZ
c) 311. 0HZ
d) 314.2HZ
e) 500. 00HZ
 5. A body x of mass 0.2kg moving vertically upwards has its velocity increased
uniformly from 10m/s to 40m/s in just 4sec. neglecting air resistance, calculate the
upward vertical force acting on the body.
a) 15N
b) 20N
c) 35N
d) 45N
2
Note that g=10m/s
6. The similarity between light waves and the ripples on water is that both;
a) Have the same frequency
b) Can be refracted and diffracted
c) Are longitudinal waves
d) Have the same velocity
7. Which of these electromagnetic waves is sensitive to significant temperature change
a) Gamma-rays
b) X-rays
c) Visible-rays
d) Ultraviolet-rays
8. The heat from the sun reaches us by
a) Insulation
b) Emission
c) Conduction
d) Radiation
e) Cooling
9. It has been scientifically proven that electric charge could be transmitted through
a) Paper, rubber and stone
b) Paper, clay and plastic
c) Glass, acid and cloth
d) Human body, metals and water
e) None of the above
10. is the required lens to correct Myopic defects in the human eye.
a) A concave lens
b) A convex lens
c) Both convex and concave lenses
d) Normal prism
e) A concave mirror
2
11. The density of 400m of palm oil was before frying. If the density of the
3
0.ninekg/m 3

oil was exactly after frying, assuming no loss of oil due to spilling, its new
0.6kg/m
volume was.
 3
a) 360m
3
b) 600m
3
c) 240m
3
d) 800m
3
e) 450m
12. Which of the following is the correct definition of “Half-life”?
a) The average life-time of a radioactive material
b) The time it takes a radioactive material to decay to half of its original quantity
c) Half the period of a radioactive material to decay completely
d) Half of the decay constant
e) The decay constant times the life time
-2
13. A motor tyre is inflated to pressure of 2.0 x 105 Nm when the temperature of air
is
0 0
27 C. what will be the pressure in it at C assuming that the volume of the tyre
87 does not change
5 2
a) 2.6 x 10 N/m
5 2
b) 2.4 x1 N/m
5 2
c) 2.2 x01 5 N/m2
d) 1.3 x01 N/m
0 5 2
e) -2.4 x N/m
10
14. The purpose of a dielectric material in a parallel plate capacitor is to
a) Increase its capacitance
b) Decrease its capacitance
c) Insulate the plates from each other
d) Increase the magnetic field between the plates.
15. I-its velocity is constant II-
no work is done on the
body
III- it has constant acceleration directed away from the
centre. IV-the centripetal force is directed towards the
centre.
Which combination of the above is true of a body moving with constant
speed in a circular track?
a) I and III
b) I and Iv
c) II and III
d) II and IV
 SECTION F

CURRENT

AFFAIRS

1. The first federal capital of Nigeria was

a) Lokoja
b) Jos
c) Lagos
d) Abuja
2. E.P.I stand for
a) Extended progamme on immunization
b) Expanded programme on immunization
c) Expanded programme of immunization
d) Extended programme of immunization
3. The highest mountain in the world is _
a) Mount Owen
b) Mount Karmel
c) Mount Evarest
d) Mount tallest
4. The largest city in the United Arab Emirates is?
a) Abu Dhabi
b) Dubai
c) Quwain
d) Ajman
5. is the first executive president of Nigeria
a) Alhaji Shehu Shagari
b) Gen. Olusegun Obasanjo
c) Gen. Yakubu Gowon
 d) Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe
6. The most popular terrorist group in Nigeria is
a) ACF
b) OPC
c) Bakassi boys
d) Boko haram
7. The total number of senators at the national house of assembly is
a) 10nine
b) 108
c) 107
d) 106
e) 105

8. Kwara is to Ilorin as is to Bayelsa State

a) Yenagoa
b) Yenogoa
c) Yenagao
d) Yenogao
9. President Goodluck Ebele Jonathan contested and worn under which political party
a) APC
b) ANPP
c) UNCP
d) PDP
e) APP
10. Using rough
estimation i.
N160=$ 1
ii. N250 =E 1
iii. N45 = 1 Dirham

Which of the above statements is/are correct

a) i & ii
b) i, ii & iii
c) ii & iii
d) i & iii
 SEVENT
YEAR
Time Allowed: 1 Hour

 Do not open your question booklets until you are told to do so.
 The examination consists of six sections labeled A to F. all the questions
irrespective of the sections carry equal mark.
 Section A- English language 20 questions
 Section B- mathematics 20 questions
 Section C- Biology 20 questions
 Section D- Chemistry 15 questions
 Section E- Physics 15 questions
 Section F- Current Affairs 10 questions
 Answer all questions appropriately
 Use the answer sheet provided
 Use HB pencil to shade the correct answer for each question. Ensure that any
shading made in error is thoroughly erased.
 Write your NAME, EXAMINATION NUMBER and other needed information in the
appropriate spaces on the answer sheet. Shade carefully the space with the same
number or letter as each digit or letter.
 Any candidate caught cheating in the course of the examination will be duly
penalized.
 The interview date will be made known to the public as soon as possible.
 SECTION A

ENGLISH

LANGUAGE

The passage below has gaps numbered 1 to 10. Immediately followed each
gap, four options are provide. Choose the most appropriate option for each gap.

st
On the 21 of June ninety, ninety-four, the Director-general received in his office
a visitor, the first of its kind in his life. Even though he really could not make any
meaning out of
his name, the visitor’s second statement that he was a court [1]
[a] Baliff [b] messenger [c] litigant [d]
Clerk reality gave the Director-General a clear picture of the man’s purpose. He
immediately gave
the Director-General two sets of papers. The first [2]
was a
[a]write of summons [b] Subpoena [c] Call notice [d] Letter

Which was to notify the Director-General that he and the agency he represented were
being
sued for [3]
[a] Battery [b] Slander [c] Libel [d] Contempt

And that he should seek the services of a lawyer who would appear for him on the
th
6 of July when the case was for mention.

The second paper was on a motion [4]

of

[a] [b] Order [c]decisio [d] interlocutory injunction

Summons n
Which, if granted by the court would restrain [5]

[a] Defender [b] [c] litigant [d] prosecution

defendant
From publishing further anything on the staff of the ministry or the [6]
[a] witness [b] exhibits [c] plantiffs [d] perjurer
th
The motion was also slated for 6 July.
On the day of the mention and the motion the court became alive as early as 8:30am as
the [7]

[a] presiding judge [b] court clerk [c] justice [d] prosecutor

Was known for his punctuality. He would sit at exactly nineam. The plaintiffs and their
counsel were the first to come into the court room, then came the defence counsel. At
the dot of the hour, three bangs were heard, immediately after which the court clerk
announced the presence of the judge.

In no time the cout clerk read out the case and counsels announced their [8]

[a] presence [b] appearance [c] arrivals [d]

The counsel to the plaintiffs moved his motion rely on a six paragraph [nine]
[a] Oath [b] affidavit [c] presentation [d] argument

Which contained the fact of the case. In response, the offense counsel argued on the
premise of an eight-paragraph

[a] counter affidavit [b] declaration [c] submission [d]

The motion was granted according to the merit of the argument of the first lawyer.

In each of the question 11 to 15, fill each gap with the most appropriate option
from the list following the gap

11. Kindly me your book because my friend has me

a) Borrow/Borrowed
b) Borrow/Lent
c) Lend/ Borrowed
12. Three-quarters of the bench painted by members the previous day
a) Were
b) Was
c) Is
d) Are
13. Two young boys have been caught with parts of the stolen machine but
admitted stealing it.
a) Neither of them has
 b) Neither of them have
c) None of them has
d) None of them have
14. Watching carefully, I could see the fish along the bottom.
a) Doting
b) Crawling
c) Diving
d) Darting
15. Emeka is now a student but it took him years to
a) Matured/mature
b) Mature/mature
c) Mature/matured
d) Matured/matured

In each of questions 16 to 20 choose the most appr priate option opposite in

meaning to the word or phrase in italics.

16. To almost everyone in the little villag , Ada’s behavior was most
ODIOUS ODIOUS
a) Repulsive
b) Difficult
c) Attractive
d) Charming
17. Aduma was so vociferous during the meeting of the congregation that he
succeeded in incurring the WRATH of the chairman
a) Anger
b) Admiration
c) Displeasure
d) Sympathy
18. It was an INOPPROTUNE moment for you to make that suggestion.
a) An ideal
b) A wrong
c) An exact
d) A sad
19. He devoted too much time to the PERIPHERAL aspects
a) Unimportant
b) Superficial
 c) Minor
d) Main
20. The climate of Nigeria is an ENERVATING one
a) A weakening
b) An energy sapping
c) An invigorating
d) A sluggish

SECTION B

MATHEMATICS
y
1. If log1 =4, what is
y?0 a) 0.4
b) 40
c) 400
d) 1000
e) 10000
0 0 0 0
2. What is the difference in longitude between B N, 50 W] and T [50 N, 150 W]?
[50
0

a) 300
0
b) 200
0
c) 130
0
d) 100
0
e) 30
3. Find the probability of having an odd number in a single toss of a
fair die? a) 1/6
b) 1/3
c) 1/2
d) 2/3
e) 5/3
4. Evaluate 0.00nine ÷0.012, leaving your answer in standard form
2
a) 7.5 x 10
1
b) 7.5 x 10
-1
c) 7.5 x 10
-2
d) 7.5 x 10
-3
e) 7.5 x 10
5. Given that Sin A= ½ and Cos A= 3, find the value of A.
2
0
a) 30
0
b) 60
0
c) Ninety
0
d) 120
0
e) 150
6. The population of a country is just 5846. Express this number to three significant
figures.
a) 585
0
b) 584
6
c) 584
0
d) 585 2
7. W third term of a sequence whose formula is 2n -1
e) 584
hat is
the
a) 17
b) 16
c) 15
8. Calculate
d) 14 the slope of this line x =3y-7 with x and y axes
a)
e) 713
b) 3
c) 1
d) 1/3
e) 7/3
9. The intercept of the equation in question [8]
above is a) -7/3
b) 3/7
c) -3/7
d) 7/3
e) -1/3
10. Which of the following is the set of factors of a perfect
number? a) [1,2,4]
b) [1,7]
 c) [1,2,3,6]
d) [1,3,nine]
e) [1,2,7,14]
11. Three people A,B and C are to share 40 oranges in the ratio 1:3:4
respectively. How many oranges did B get?
a) 12
b) 18
c) 10
d) 15
x+
y =16 and
12. Solve the equations for x and y given that;
2
2x+y
3 =nine
a) X=2,y=3
b) X=4,y=-
1
c)
X=3,y=4 3
d) , calculate the total surface area of the cube
X=2,y=6
13. If the volume of a cube is
8cm
2
a) 12m
2
b) 24m
2
c) 16 m
2
d) 8 m
14. Find the equation of a line whose slope is 3 and passes through the point [-2,1]
a) Y=3x-2
b) y=3x+7
c) y=1-2x
d) y=x+2
15. what must be added to m2-7m to make a perfect
square? a) 3.5
b) 4nine/4
c) 4/4nine
d) 4nine
0 0
16. Give that Cos A=5/13, what is the value of Tan A for0 <A<ninety ?
a) 13
b) 5
c) 13/5
d) 12/5
0
17. The value of Sin 210 is?
 a) -1/2
b) - 3/2
c) ½
d) 3/2
18. Find the value of q in the diagram below

0
3
0
0
a) 60
0
b) 150
0
c) 30
0
d) Ninety
19. Express 0.005 as a
fraction a) 5/200
b) 1/200
c) 5/100
d) 5/1000
20. Factorize q2-4
completely a) [q+4]
[q+2]
b) [q-2] [q+2]
c) [q-4] [q+4
d) [q+2] [q+2]
 SECTION E

BIOLOGY

1. When an organism moves its whole body towards a stimulus, the organism
is said to exhibit
a) Trophic movement
b) Tropic movement
c) Tactic movement
d) Nastic movement
e) Tastic movement
2. All of these are vertebrates except?
a) Lizard
b) Rat
c) Star fish
d) Tilapia
3. The head of the femur articulates with the pelvic bone at the
a) Glenoid cavity
b) Olecranon process
c) Acetabulum
d) Carocoid process
4. Which of these is vestigial structure?
a) Appendix
b) Caecum
c) Pancreas
d) Sacculus motundus
5. Antibodies in mammalian blood are formed by
a) Platelets
 b) White blood cells
c) Red blood cells
d) Liver
6. In which of the following flower part does meiosis occurs?
a) Anther
b) Petal
c) Receptacle
d) Style
7. When two genes for the same character [allenles] are contained in the
same individuals, the character that shows is known as
a) Important character
b) Dominant character
c) Superior character
d) Controlling character
8. The sum total of the biotic and abiotic factors that affect living thing is referred to as;
a) Environment
b) Lithosphere
c) Hydrosphere
d) Atomosphere
9. Which of the following deaminates excess amino acids?
a) Duodenum
b) Ileum
c) Liver
d) Kidney
10. The cockroach and grasshoppers have mouth parts adapted for
a) Sucking
b) Piercing and sucking
c) Bitting and chewing
d) Bitting and lapping
11. Which of the following is not an example of a sex-linked character
a) Baldness
b) Color blindness
c) Haemophilia
d) Height
12. Which of the following liquids supplies cells in the tissues of a mammal with
oxygen and nutrients?
 a) Blood
b) Plasma
c) Serum
d) Blood vessels
13. Insulin hormone is produced by
a) Stomach
b) Kidney
c) Gonad
d) Pancreatisone
e) Islets of langerhan
14. The process of formation of sex gametes in male human is termed?
a) Gametogenesis
b) Spermatogenesis
c) Sexogenesis
d) Spirogenesis
15. Which of the following is not present in the cyt plasm of a cell?
a) Mitochondria
b) Golgi apparatus
c) Ribosomes
d) Chromosome
16. In aerobic respiration, oxidative phosphorylation takes place in the
a) Cytoplasm
b) Lysosome
c) Mitochondrion
d) Ribosomes
17. Which of the following components of an ecosystem has the greatest biomass?
a) Primary producers
b) Primary consumers
c) Secondary consumers
d) Tertiary consumers
18. The name of a bacterium which derives its energy from oxidizing nitrites into nitrates is
a) Nitrosomonas
b) Azotobacter
c) Nitrobacter
d) Escherichia coli
19. Which of the following organisms does not exist as a single free living cell?
a) Amoeba
b) Euglena
 c) Chalmydomonas
d) Volvox
20. Which of the following is the medium of transportation of nutrients
within unicellular organism
a) Lymph
b) Plasma
c) Protoplasm
d) Serum

SECTION

CHEMIST

RY

1. Which of these compounds is termed macromolecule?

a) Silica
b) Mica
c) Protein
d) Krypton
2. Vulcanization of rubber
a) Stops the growth of fungus on the rubber
b) Increase the solubility of the rubber
c) Hardens the rubber through cross linkage
d) Decrease the elasticity of the rubber
3. Which of the following statement is an exception in the kinetic
assumptions of the theory of gases?
a) The particles are of negligible size
b) The particles are in constant random motion
c) The particles are of negligible mass
d) Te particles collide with each other -

4. A saturated solution of Agcl was found to have a concentration of 3

1.30x10 mol/dm .
5
The solubility product of Agcl therefore is?
-5 2 6
a) 1.30x10 mol /dm
-12 2 6
b) 2.60x10 mol /dm
-7 2 6
c) 1.30x10 mol /dm
10 2 6
d) 1.6ninex10- mol /dm
5. Which of the following methods cannot be used to protect iron from
rusting?
a) Painting
b) Electroplating
 c) Oxidizing
d) Galvanizing
6. Atom R has an electronic configuration of 2:8:5. The most stable valency [ies] of R
is?
a) Colour 1,3
b) 2,5
c) 3,5
d) 5 only
3 3
7. 70cm of hydrogen are sparked with 25cm of oxygen at S.T.P. the total volume of
the residual gas is
3
a) 20cm
3
b) 25cm
3
c) 35cm
3
d) 45cm
8. Which of the following titration will have a solution with a pH greater than 7
at the end point of the titration?
a) Titration of sodium hydroxide with tetraoxo sulphate [vi] acid
b) Titration of sodium trioxocarbonate [iv] with hydrochlocric acid
c) Titration of sodium hydroxide with oxalic [ethanoic acid]
d) Titration of ammonium hydroxide and trioxonitrate [v] acid
9. Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?
a) Ch3 CH2 CH2 OH
b) CH3 CH2 CH2 CHO
c) CH3 CH2 CH3 CH2
d) CH3 CH2 OCH2 CH3
10. The following can be used in desiccators except
a) Fused calcium chloride
b) Silica gel
c) Copper II oxide
d) Calcium oxide
11. A change of state of matter directly from solid to gas is
a) Crystallization
b) Condensation
c) Sublimation
d) Lionization
12. The most common green house gas in the atmosphere is
a) Carbon [iv] oxide
 b) Carbon [II] oxide
c) Chlorofluoro carbon
d) Hydrogen bromide
13. Brine is a very strong solution of
a) Soap
b) Acid
c) Bases
d) Salt
14. Maltose equals
a) Glucose +glucose
b) Glucose + Fructose
c) Glucose + Galactose
d) Sucrose + Amylase
15. What amount of oxygen will be required for the co plete combustion of 3
moles of methane according to the following equations?

CH4 +202 C02 + 2H2O

a) 2 moles
b) 3 moles
c) 6 moles
d) 4 moles
 SECTION E

PHYSICS
1. The dimension of power is ?
2 -3
a) ML T
-2
b) MLT
2 -2
c) ML T
-2 3
d) ML T
2. A herdsman walks 10m due west and then 10m due south his displacement s?
0
a) 10m, S30 w
0
b) 10m, S60 w
0
c) 10 2m, S45 w
0
d) 10 2m, S60 w

3. A girl runs a distance of 1.0km in just 5 minutes. Her average

speed is? a) 20.0m/s
b) 16.7m/s
c) 3.3m/s
d) 0.3m/s
4. A 70kg married woman ascends a flight of stairs of height 4m in 7s. the
power expended by the woman is equivalent to
a) 40w
b) 100w
c) 280w
d) 400w
5. The velocity ratio of a plane inclined at an angle of β to the horizontal equals
a) Sin β
 b) Tan β
c) 1/Sin β
d) 1/Tan β
6. Which of the following has the highest surface tension?
a) Cold water
b) Hot water
c) Oily water
d) Soapy water
7. The relative density of the acid in a car battery can be measured with
a) Hydrometer
b) Hygrometer
c) Manometer
d) Battrometer
8. A thermocouple works on the principle of
a) Variation of resistance with current
b) Variation of volume with heat
c) Variation of temperature with pressure
d) Variation of EMF with temperature
9. A metal cube of volume V and linear expansivity α is heated through a
temperature rise of T. increase in volume of the cube is?
a) 3 α VT
b) 2α VT
c) α VT
d) α VT
3
10. The quantity of heat needed to raise the temperature of a body by 1k is the body’s
a) Internal energy
b) Specific heat capacity
c) Latent heat of fusion
d) Thermal capacity
11. The following phenomena are evidences of the particle nature of matter except
a) Diffusion
b) Brownian motion
c) Photoelectric effect
d) Diffraction
12. The state in which the average speed of the molecules of water is highest is
a) Ice
b) Water
c) Water-steam mixture
d) Steam
13. A wave of period 0.02sec has a frequency of
a) 0.02HZ
b) 0.2 HZ
c) 5 HZ
d) 50 HZ
14. The image in a simple microscope is?
a) Magnified, real and erect
b) Magnified, virtual and erect
c) Magnified, virtual and inverted
d) Magnified, real and inverted

-
ninteen C in an electric field
15. The force acting on an electron carrying a charge of 1.6x10
8
of intensity 5x10 v/m is?
-2nine
a) 3.2x10 N
-11
b) 8.0 x10 N
-8
c) 8.0 x 10 N
27
d) 3.1 x 10 N
 SECTION F

CURRENT

AFFIARS

1. The largest man-made lake in Africa is

a) Kainji
b) Volta
c) Malawi
d) Tana
2. General Murtala Mohammed died in
a) Ninety-76
b) Ninety-46
c) Ninety-65
d) Ninety-56
3. Which of the following link the common wealth countries together?
a) Currency
b) Political system
c) Electoral system
d) English language
4. The minister of health is
a) Prof. Onyebuchi Chukwu
b) Prof. Fasuba O.
c) Prof. Dibu Ojerinde
d) Prof. Fasasi Akinola
5. The following countries are OPEC members except
a) Kuwait
b) Venezuela
c) UAE
 d) Togo
6. The current senate president is
a) David Cameron
b) Aminu Tambwal
c) Okonjo Iweala
d) David Mark
7. The total number of local governments in Lagos state is
a) 20
b) 16
c) 18
d) 14

8. Naira was introduced on the to replace pound

st
a) 1 of January ninety-73
nd
b) 2 of February ninety-60
rd
c) 3 of March ninety-14
s
t

d) 1 of June ninety-5nine
9. The first female to drive a car in Nigeria is
a) Mrs. Oduah
b) Stella Abiola
c) Fumilayo Kuti
d) Florence Shaw
10. The popular cold and warm spring in Ekiti State is located at
a) Ipole-iloro
b) Erio
c) Efon-Alaaye
d) Ikogosi
 ANSWERS
ENGLISH
LANGUAGE
1S 2ND 3R 4T 5T 6T 7TH
T D H H H
YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR

1. E 1. C 1. E 1. D 1. D 1. B 1. B

2. B 2. A 2. D 2. C 2. A 2. C 2. A

3. A 3. B 3. D 3. C 3. A 3. B 3. C

4. D 4. D 4. C 4. A 4. D 4. B 4. D

5. E 5. B 5. C 5. D 5. B 5. A 5. B

6. C 6. C 6. C 6. A 6. A 6. D 6. C

7. B 7. B 7. C 7. B 7. C 7. A 7. A

8. D 8. A 8. B 8. A 8. B 8. A 8. A

8. E 8. B 8. A 8. B 8. A 8. D 8. B

10 A 10. C 10. C 10. C 10. A 10. D 10 A

. .
11 B 11. E 11. D 11. A 11. C 11. B 11 D
. .
12 E 12. B 12. C 12. A 12. D 12. A 12 C
. .
13 C 13. B 13. B 13. C 13. B 13. A 13 A
. .
14. E 14. C 14. A 14. B 14. C 14. C 14. D
15. C 15. B 15. D 15. A 15. A 15. B 15. B

16. E 16. B 16. A 16. E 16. C 16. C 16. C

17. A 17. B 17. C 17. C 17. E 17. A 17. B

18 C 18. A 18. A 18. A 18 D 18. A 18. A

18 E 18. D 18. D 18. A 18 C 18. E 18. D

20. E 20. D 20. B 20. E 20. C 20. E 20. C

ANSWERS
MATHEMATI
CS
1S 2ND 3RD 4T 5T 6T 7TH
T H H H
YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR

1. B 1. A 1. D 1. D 1. D 1. B 1. E

2. B 2. B 2. D 2. B 2. E 2. B 2. A

3. D 3. C 3. B 3. B 3. E 3. A 3. C

4. A 4. C 4. A 4. B 4. E 4. B 4. C

5. D 5. B 5. D 5. C 5. A 5. D 5. E

6. C 6. C 6. D 6. B 6. B 6. B 6. A

7. D 7. D 7. B 7. A 7. C 7. C 7. A

8. D 8. A 8. C 8. A 8. B 8. A 8. D

8. C 8. A 8. D 8. D 8. B 8. A 8. D

10 B 10. A 10. A 10. B 10. B 10 D 10 C

. . .
11 D 11. A 11. D 11. A 11. A 11 E 11 D
. . .
12 B 12. B 12. D 12. B 12. D 12 A 12 D
. . .
13 B 13. C 13. B 13. A 13. D 13 C 13 B
. . .
14. B 14. B 14. B 14. C 14. D 14. D 14. B
15. C 15. E 15. B 15. C 15. D 15. E 15. B

16. B 16. C 16. D 16. C 16. B 16. B 16. D

17. A 17. D 17. D 17. E 17. C 17. _ 17. A

18 E 18. C 18. C 18. B 18 C 18. C 18. C

18 D 18. A 18. E 18. A 18 A 18. A 18. B

20. B 20. A 20. B 20. A 20. C 20. _ 20. B

ANSWE
RS
BIOLOG
Y
1S 2ND 3R 4T 5T 6T 7TH
T D H H H
YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR

1. D 1. C 1. B 1. C 1. A 1. C 1. C

2. C 2. D 2. E 2. C 2. A 2. A 2. C

3. D 3. D 3. D 3. C 3. C 3. B 3. C

4. B 4. A 4. E 4. A 4. D 4. D 4. B

5. D 5. C 5. D 5. C 5. E 5. D 5. A

6. B 6. B 6. C 6. B 6. A 6. A 6. A

7. D 7. C 7. C 7. B 7. D 7. C 7. B

8. B 8. A 8. D 8. A 8. A 8. B 8. A

8. C 8. C 8. D 8. D 8. A 8. D 8. C

10 A 10. C 10. C 10. A 10. C 10 D 10 C

. . .
11 A 11. B 11. D 11. C 11. A 11 D 11 D
. . .
12 B 12. C 12. C 12. B 12. C 12 B 12 A
. . .
13 A 13. A 13. C 13. B 13. B 13 D 13 E
. . .
14. B 14. A 14. D 14. A 14. B 14. D 14. B
15. D 15. B 15. C 15. A 15. D 15. A 15. D

16. A 16. A 16. C 16. B 16. E 16. D 16. C

17. A 17. B 17. A 17. C 17. B 17. B 17. A

18 B 18. C 18. A 18. C 18 B 18. A 18. C

18 A 18. B 18. B 18. B 18 D 18. B 18. D

20. A 20. A 20. E 20. C 20. D 20. C 20. C

ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY

1S 2ND 3R 4T 5T 6T 7TH
T D H H H
YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR

1. D 1. B 1. A 1. B 1. C 1. D 1. C

2. A 2. C 2. D 2. D 2. D 2. C 2. C

3. D 3. A 3. B 3. A 3. D 3. A 3. C

4. D 4. A 4. E 4. C 4. A 4. C 4. D

5. D 5. B 5. C 5. A 5. C 5. D 5. C

6. D 6. A 6. E 6. A 6. C 6. A 6. C

7. C 7. A 7. C 7. A 7. D 7. D 7. A

8. C 8. C 8. E 8. B 8. A 8. C 8. C

8. C 8. A 8. E 8. A 8. B 8. A 8. C

10 A 10. A 10. D 10. B 10. C 10 D 10. C

. .
11 D 11. E 11. A 11. E 11. B 11 C 11. C
. .
12 C 12. C 12. C 12. D 12. B 12 C 12. C
. .
13 B 13. A 13. D 13. C 13. B 13 D 13. D
. .
14. C 14. D 14. D 14. C 14. B 14. E 14. A
15. A 15. A 15. E 15. B 15. A 15. B 15. C

ANSWE
RS
PHYSIC
S
1S 2ND 3R 4TH 5T 6T 7TH
T D H H
YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR

1. A 1. E 1. C 1. A 1. B 1. A 1. A

2. D 2. A 2. B 2. B 2. A 2. A 2. C

3. B 3. B 3. A 3. D 3. D 3. B 3. C

4. A 4. A 4. C 4. C 4. B 4. E 4. D

5. A 5. C 5. D 5. C 5. D 5. A 5. C

6. A 6. D 6. D 6. B 6. C 6. B 6. A

7. A 7. D 7. E 7. B 7. D 7. D 7. A

8. B 8. C 8. E 8. A 8. A 8. D 8. D

8. B 8. D 8. A 8. E 8. B 8. D 8. A

10 D 10. D 10. C 10 E 10. C 10. A 10. D

. .
11 B 11. A 11. C 11 B 11. A 11. B 11. D
. .
12 B 12. D 12. C 12 A 12. A 12. B 12. D
. .
13 A 13. A 13. A 13 C 13. D 13. B 13. D
. .
14. D 14. A 14. A 14. D 14. C 14. A 14. A
15. E 15. B 15. D 15. E 15. D 15. D 15. B

ANSWERS
CURRENT
AFFAIRS
1S 2ND 3R 4TH 5TH 6TH 7TH
T D
YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR YEAR

1. B 1. D 1. B 1. B 1. D 1. C 1. B

2. B 2. A 2. D 2. B 2. C 2. B 2. A

3. D 3. E 3. D 3. A 3. B 3. C 3. B

4. C 4. D 4. D 4. D 4. B 4. B 4. A

5. A 5. B 5. C 5. B 5. C 5. A 5. D

6. A 6. see below 6. C 6. A 6. C 6. D 6. D

7. A 7. see below 7. D 7. C 7. C 7. A 7. A

8. A 8. see below 8. C 8. E 8. D 8. A 8. A

8. see blow 8. see below 8. B 8. A 8. D 8. D 8. C

10. see below 10.see below 10. B 10. D 10. B 10. D

10. C

OPEC: ORGANIZATION OF PETROLEUM EXPORTING

COUNTRIES. NACA: NATIONAL AGENCY FOR THE CONTROL

OF AIDS.
NANNM: NATIONAL ASSOCIATION OF NIGERIAN NURSES AND

MIDWIVES PATHS: PARTNERSHIP FOR TRANSFORMING HEALTH

SYSTEM

ECWA: EVANGELICAL CHURCH OF WINNING ALL

SIM: SUBSCRIBER IDENTITY MODULE

NCC: NIGERIAN COMMUNICATION COMMISSION

DFID: DEPARTMENT FOR INTERNATIONAL DEVELOPMENT

NHIS: NATIONAL AGENCY FOR FOOD AND DRUG ADMINISTRATION

AND CONTROL ILO: INTERNATIONAL LABOUR ORGANIZATION

NAFDAC: NATIONAL AGENCY FOR FOOD AND DRUG ADMINISTRATION

AND CONTROL HIV: HUMAN IMMUNODEFICIENCY NETWORK

MTN: MOBILE TELECOMMUNICATION

NETWORK WHO: WORLD HEALTH

ORGANIZATION

UNICEF: UNITED NATIONS INTERNATIONAL EMERGENCY CHILDREN’S

FUND UNESCO: UNITED NATIONS ORGANIZATION FOR EDUCATION,

SCIENCE AND CULTURE UAE: UNITED ARAB EMIRATES