In an impulse steam turbine nozzle, the following events take place:

1) The steam pressure decreases

2) The enthalpy of the steam decreases
3) The velocity of the steam increases
4) The volume of the steam increases

a. 1, 2, 4
b. 1, 3, 4
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3
D
Turbine nozzles convert heat energy into:

a. Potential energy
b. Enthalpy
c. Eddy-currents
d. Kinetic energy
e. Pressure
D
The purpose of the bucket or moving blade on the rotor is to convert the ____________ energy of the steam into
________ energy.

a. heat, potential
b. kinetic, useful
c. kinetic, mechanical
d. heat, kinetic
e. mechanical, kinetic
C
In an impulse turbine as the steam passes through the moving blades the ________ drops but the ______
remains the same.
a. velocity, pressure
b. enthalpy, velocity
c. pressure, velocity
d. volume, velocity
e. velocity, kinetic energy
A
The pressure at the outlet from the moving blades is the same as the pressure at the inlet to the moving blades in
__________ turbine.

a. a topping
b. a reaction
c. a back-pressure
d. an impulse
e. an extraction
D
Steam turbine stationary nozzles serve to:
1) Decrease steam pressure
2) Increase steam enthalpy
3) Decrease steam friction
4) Increase steam velocity

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 3, 4
c. 1, 4
d. 2, 3
e. 2, 3, 4
C
On an extraction turbine the extraction pressure is:
a. Not critical
b. Varied according to turbine load
c. Maintained constant regardless of turbine load
d. Proportional to the turbine load
e. Reduced if load increases
C
A back-pressure turbine which exhausts steam to an old boiler header still supplying steam to an old lower
pressure turbine is called:
a. Condensing-bleeder turbine
b. Cross compound turbine
c. Condensing turbine
d. Topping turbine
e. Mixed pressure turbine
D
A topping turbine is a special application of a ________ turbine.

a. condensing
b. extraction
c. condensing-bleeder
d. tandem compound
e. back-pressure
E
_____________ turbines are large turbines consisting of two or more turbines in series coupled together as one
shaft and applied to one generator.

a. Topping
b. Tandem-compound
c. Condensing-bleeder
d. Cross-compound
e. Mixed pressure
B
A generator coupled on one shaft to a turbine consisting of two or more turbine in series is called?

a. Condensing-bleeder
b. Cross-compound turbine
c. Mixed pressure
d. Tandem-compound turbine
e. Topping
D
__________________ turbines are large turbines with parallel shafts with a generator on each shaft.
a. Condensing
b. Tandem-compound
c. Extraction-bleeder
d. Condensing-bleeder
e. Cross-compound
E
In a reaction turbine the steam pressure drops across both the fixed and moving blades while the steam's ______
velocity rises in the fixed blades and drops in the moving blades.

a. secondary
b. primary
c. stationary
d. moving
e. absolute
E

Absolute velocity is the velocity of the steam relative to the moving blades
The distinguishing feature of a reaction turbine is the fact that the pressure drop across the _________ blades.

a. cutting
b. moving
c. sectional
d. stationary
e. angular
B
In a steam turbine having pressure drop across the moving blades, an unbalanced ________ thrust will be
developed upon the rotor.

a. axial
b. centrifugal
c. radial
d. impulse
e. rotational
A
Reaction turbine blades (moving):

1) Convert the kinetic energy of the steam into mechanical energy

2) Convert heat energy into kinetic energy
3) Are nozzle shaped
4) Increase the absolute velocity

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 4
e. 1, 4
A
A reaction turbine results in a long machine due to a large number of alternate rows of:

a. Nozzles and moving blades

b. Nozzles and stationary blades
c. Fixed and moving blades
d. Stationary blades
e. Moving blades and nozzles
C
A turbine that expands the steam in two or more sets of nozzles in series, each set having velocity-compounded
blades to receive the steam issuing from the nozzles is called:

a. Extraction turbine
b. Velocity compounded turbine
c. Pressure compounded turbine
d. Pressure-velocity compounded turbine
e. Mixed-pressure turbine
D
In pressure compound steam turbine:

1) The expansion of steam from boiler pressure to exhaust pressure is carried out in a number of steps or stages
2) Each stage has a set of nozzles and a row of blades
3) All of the velocity available is developed in one set of nozzles
4) The rows of moving blades are separated from each other by partitions or diaphragms into which the nozzles
are set

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 4
d. Pressure-velocity compounded turbine
D

In a steam turbine using velocity compounding _____________ expand the steam from initial to exhaust pressure.

a. two sets of nozzles and moving blades

b. stationary blades
c. stationary and moving blades
d. moving blades
e. stationary inlet nozzles
E
In a condensing-bleeder turbine up to 20% of the total steam flow may be bled off. What is the bleed-steam used
for.

a. Building heating
b. Relieving pressure
c. Atomization of the fuel
d. To be reheated in boiler
e. Feed-water heating
E
A condensing-bleeder turbine can bleed up to ______ of the total steam flow.
a. 0.1
b. 0.15
c. 0.2
d. 0.25
e. 0.3
C
The primary purpose of a back-pressure turbine is electrical generation.

a. True
b. False
B - It is primarily used in process plants where the exhausted steam can be used for another purpose
In a back-pressure turbine the process steam pressure is:

a. Kept constant and the generator output depends on the demand for process steam
b. Varied and the generator output remains constant
c. Kept constant and the generator output remains constant
d. Not important
e. Dependant on the generator output
A
Extraction turbines are turbines where steam is extracted at one or more points at constant _________.

a. flow
b. pressure
c. load
d. temperature
e. efficiency
B - The extraction point depends on the pressure required by the process that you're extracting for
Labyrinth seals are:

1) Made of cast iron

2) A positive leak-proof seal arrangement
3) Design to have large clearances between the shaft and casing
4) Made of brass or stainless steel
5) Use on larger diameter turbine shaft

a. 1, 2, 5
b. 2, 4, 5
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 4, 5
e. 1, 2, 3
D - Used for sealing large turbines
A steam turbine water seal is used ________ to insure that no air leaks in along the shaft.

a. on start-up
b. at speed below 2000 rev/min
c. on shut-down
d. only on condensing turbine
e. at speed above 2000 rev/min
E
On larger turbines, the _________ is split in a horizontal direction.

a. shaft
b. governor
c. cylinder
d. rotor
e. drum
C - Horizontal split casing is the most common
It is general practice to let the thickness of the walls and flanges ___________ from inlet to exhaust end of a
steam turbine casing.

a. decrease
b. fluctuate
c. be the same
d. vary
e. increase
A
Materials at the given maximum temperature and under constant pressure continue to deform with very slowly
increasing strain of the material; this phenomenon is called _________________.

a. creep
b. elongation
c. deformation
d. jerking
e. movement
A
Steam turbine casing joints are made steam tight by matching _______ exactly.

a. thin high temperature gasket

b. bowel pins
c. alignment notches
d. flange faces
e. rubber gasket
D
A steam turbine assembled casing is machined off inside in a boring mill to:

1) Make grooves for shaft seals

2) Make grooves for diaphragms
3) Machine surfaces for bearings
4) Machine flange surfaces flat

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3
d. 1, 2, 4
e. 1, 4
A
A Hollow Drum Rotor, for good balance, is machined both outside and inside thus the drum must be open at one
end. How is the drum end cover with shaft installed in the rotor?

a. Press fitted
b. Welded on
c. Bolted
d. Press fit and belted
e. Shrink fit and welded
E
When disc rotors are assembled, the discs are heated until they are easily slid along the shaft and then located in
the correct position on the shaft and shaft key. A small clearance between the discs prevents ________ .

a. noises
b. slippage
c. thermal stress in the shaft
d. acceleration
e. vibrations
C
Rotors for high outputs and high temperatures are generally made of________ steels.

a. chromium
b. chromium-nickel
c. nickel-molybdenum
d. chromium-nickel-molybdenum
e. copper-nickel-bronze
D
The axial thrust in impulse turbines is eliminated by use of a balance or dummy piston.

a. True
b. False

B - Preferably there should still be a slight thrust towards the exhaust end. A balance pipe is used to achieve this

A balance piston on a steam turbine is used to:

a. Counteract vibration and therefore ensure a smooth running unit

b. Increase turbine output
c. Measure axial position
d. Counteract end thrust
e. Provide an area to install a labyrinth seal
D - Also known as a Dummy Piston
A steam turbine balance piston is fitted with rings to ensure a tight seal.

a. True
b. False
B - It is machined out of the rotor forging at the steam inlet end. Labyrinth seals are used to prevent leakage
around the circumference of the piston.
A steam turbine balance piston is fitted with ______ to ensure a tight seal.

a. carbon rings seal

b. blades seal
c. water seal
d. diaphragm
e. labyrinth seal
E
Reaction steam turbines often use __________________ seals as part of the shroud with the seal clearances
kept as small as possible.

a. radial
b. Water
c. radial and axial
d. Carbon
e. Axial
C
The purpose of a thrust bearing on large reaction steam turbine is to:

1) Give confidence to the operator

2) To keep the rotor in an exact position in the casing
3) Prevent any steam from escaping
4) To absorb any axial thrust on the rotor
5) Support the dummy piston

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 4, 5
c. 2, 4
d. 3, 5
e. 1, 4
C
Turbine nozzles convert heat energy into:

a. Potential energy.
b. Enthalpy.
c. Eddy-currents.
d. Kinetic energy.
e. Pressure.
D
Flange warming on a steam turbine decreases:
a. Creep.
b. Start up time.
c. Movement.
d. Radiation losses.
e. Noises.
B
What are turbine casings made of?
- Low Pressure
- Intermediate Pressures
- High Pressure / High Temperature
Low Pressure - Cast Iron
Intermediate Pressure - Cast Carbon Steel
High Pressure/Temperature - Cast Alloy Steel

What is the maximum allowable wetness for steam moving through a turbine? How can free water be removed?

14%
Free water can be removed from the casing by draining groves that lead to casing drains that expel water to the
condenser
In a steam turbine using velocity compounding the velocity is absorbed in:
a. Two rows of moving blades.
b. One set of nozzles.
c. Two or more rows of stationary blades.
d. Two sets of nozzles.
e. One set of nozzles and blades.
A

With velocity compounding, the total pressure drop occurs across the first stationary inlet nozzle. The velocity is
"absorbed" by the following 2 moving blades. The two moving blades are separated by a stationary blade.
In a/an _____ turbine there is a difference in pressure across the _____ blades. Therefore the steam will tend to
_____ around the periphery of the blades instead of passing through them.
1) Impulse.
2) Moving.
3) Reaction.
4) Drip.
5) Stationary.
6) Leak

a. 1, 2, 4.
b. 3, 5, 6.
c. 3, 2, 6.
d. 1, 5, 4.
e. 1, 5, 6.
C
The pressure at the outlet from the moving blades is the same as the pressure at the inlet to the moving blades in
a/an turbine.
a. Topping.
b. Reaction.
c. Back pressure.
d. Impulse.
e. Extraction
D
During start up of a steam turbine the thrust block is pushed against a stop in the direction of the exhaust for:
a. Maximum seal clearance.
b. Minimum seal clearance.
c. Maximum blade efficiency.
d. Maximum blade clearance.
e. Minimum blade clearance.
D
Proper expansion of steam through a turbine nozzle depends on what?
1. Operation at the design pressure.
2. Operation at the design rotational speed.
3. Operation at the design temperature.
4. Selection of the proper nozzle material.

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 1, 3
e. 2, 4
D
Carbon rings, when used for turbine shaft seal require:
a. Lubrication
b. Constant supervision
c. No lubrication
d. Monthly replacement
e. Soft packing between each ring
C
Typical applications for turbines could be:

1) Feedwater pumps.
2) Blowers.
3) Chemical feed pumps.
4) Electrical generation.

a. 1, 2
b. 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 1, 2, 4
e. 2, 3, 4
D
In a reaction turbine:

1) Velocity increases in the moving blades

2) Velocity decreases in the stationary blades
3) Pressure drops in the moving blades
4) Pressure drops in the stationary blades

a. 1, 2
b. 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
B
A reaction turbine has:
a. Rows of stationary nozzles and moving blades.
b. Rows of stationary blades alternating with rows of moving blades.
c. A force on the blades produced according to Newton's 2nd Law of Motion.
d. A pressure increase in the nozzles.
e. A velocity drop in the stationary blades.
B
Disc rotors:

1. May be made from a solid forging.

2. May be made up of separate discs and a shaft.
3. Have discs that are shrunk onto the shaft.
4. Have discs whose bore is 0.01 mm smaller than the shaft.

a. 1, 2
b. 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
C - The disc centre opening is 0.1% smaller than the shaft
In an impulse turbine the enthalpy of the steam as it passes through the stationary nozzles.
a. Stays the same.
b. Increases.
c. Fluctuates.
d. Disappears.
e. Decreases.
E
When the exit pressure of a steam turbine nozzle is less than _____ times the inlet pressure then a _____ nozzle
will be used.
a. 0.757, convergent
b. 0.577, convergent-divergent
c. 0.757, convergent-divergent
d. 0.757, convergent
e. 0.577, convergent or convergent-divergent
B
The distinguishing feature of a reaction turbine is the fact that the pressure drop across the _____ blades.
a. Cutting.
b. Moving.
c. Sectional.
d. Stationary.
e. Angular.
B
Which of Newton's Laws applies to a force being applied to an impulse turbine blade?
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th
e. 1st and 3rd
B
In a reaction turbine the steam pressure drops across both the fixed and moving blades while the steam's _____
rises in the fixed blades and drops in the moving blades.
a. Pressure.
b. Temperature.
c. Flow.
d. Level.
e. Velocity.
E
Disc rotors made from a solid forging are:
1) More efficient than built-up rotors.
2) Fully balanced.
3) Expensive.
4) Strong.

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3
e. 2, 3, 4
E
The entrance angle of a reaction blade is:
a. Parallel to the rotational direction.
b. Low so as to reduce frictional losses.
c. Almost 90 degrees.
d. Is the same as the exit angle.
e. Set at 45 degrees to the nozzle angle.
C
The purpose of compounding in a steam turbine is to:
a. Create pressure velocity compounding.
b. Reduce steam and blade velocity.
c. Create higher rotational speeds.
d. Allow the use of higher steam pressures.
e. Allow the use of smaller turbines.
B
When turbine blade velocity is equal to one half the steam velocity, then exiting steam:

a. Frictional losses are maximized.

b. Allows a smaller turbine to be used.
c. Permits higher steam pressure use.
d. Absolute velocity equals zero.
e. Creates pressure-velocity compounding.
D
When steam leaves the moving blades at zero absolute velocity:

a. Frictional losses are maximized.

b. A smaller turbine to be used.
c. Higher steam pressure use.
d. Turbine blade velocity equals one half the steam velocity.
e. Pressure velocity compounding is created.
D
Convergent-divergent nozzles are used when:
a. High rotational speeds are required.
b. Low rotational speeds are required.
c. Low pressure drops are required.
d. High pressure drops are required.
e. There is a requirement for moderate eddy currents.
D
In an impulse turbine, the nozzles:
a. Are formed by airfoil shaped blades.
b. Are found in the first stage.
c. Are mounted in diaphragms.
d. Cause a decrease in velocity.
e. Are located in the rotor.
C
A thrust adjusting gear:
a. Is found on impulse turbines.
b. Adjust the thrust generated by the turbine.
c. Positions the turbine rotor axially.
d. Compensates for steam pressure variations.
e. Is adjusted to provide minimum clearances on start up.
C
A dummy piston on a steam turbine is used to:
a. Counter vibration and ensure a smooth running unit.
b. Increase turbine output.
c. Measure axial position.
d. Counter end thrust.
e. Provide an area to install a labyrinth deal.
D
A steam turbine has a high capacity to _____ ratio:
a. Velocity.
b. Rotational speed.
c. Steam temperature.
d. Volume.
e. Weight.
E
A pressure-velocity compounded turbine may have:
1. Two velocity-compounded stages
2. One velocity-compounded stages
3. Several velocity-compounded stages
4. Pressure and velocity-compounded stages

a. 1, 3
b. 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
A
Couplings:
1. Transmit power from one shaft to another.
2. Depend on the shear force of the bolts to transmit the power.
3. Compensate for axial expansion and contraction of the rotor.
4. Are an integral part of the shaft on larger turbine.
a. 1, 2, 3, 4.
b. 1, 2, 3.
c. 1, 3, 4.
d. 1, 3.
e. 2, 3.
A
Advantages of the steam turbine include:
1. High rotational speed.
2. Low rub speed.
3. High efficiency.
4. Low size to output capacity.
5. Can be reversible.

a. 1, 2, 3.
b. 2, 3, 5.
c. 1, 3, 4.
d. 1, 2, 4.
e. 3, 4, 5.
C
A steam turbine balance piston is fitted with _____ to ensure a tight seal.
a. Carbon ring seals.
b. Blade seals.
c. Water seals.
d. Diaphragms.
e. Labyrinth seals.
E
Where would you expect to find a turbine that can be reversed:
a. Pulp mill.
b. Pas plant.
c. Amusement park.
d. Petroleum process plant.
e. Ships.
E
Of all the heat engines and prime movers the steam turbine is considered to be:
a. Nearest to the ideal.
b. Least efficient.
c. Too expensive to maintain.
d. Too slow in rotational speed.
e. Low in capacity to weight ratio.
A
The steam turbine is an ideal prime mover because:

1. Of its ability to use high pressure and high temperature steam.

2. It is quiet in operation.
3. Of its high capacity to weight ratio.
4. Of its high efficiency.
5. It is reversible.
a. 1, 2, 3.
b. 1, 3, 5.
c. 2, 3, 5.
d. 1, 3, 4.
e. 2, 3, 4.
D
The efficiency of the Rankine cycle (steam plant) that utilizes a steam turbine is:
a. 10-15 %
b. 20-25%
c. 30-35%
d. 40-45%
e. 50-55%
A
Steam turbine stationary nozzles serve to:
1. Decrease steam pressure
2. Increase steam enthalpy
3. Increase steam friction
4. Increase steam velocity

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 3, 4
c. 1, 4
d. 2, 3
e. 3, 4
C
Centrifugal forces increase with the _____ of the speed.
a. 10 to the 4th power
b. cube
c. 10 to the 5th power
d. square
e. 10 to the 1st power
D
Throttling of steam through a valve is an:

a. Isobaric process.
b. Isothermal process.
c. Polytropic process.
d. Isenthalpic process.
e. Polytropic process.
D
With a condensing turbine the _____ heat in the exhaust steam is transferred to the cooling water.
a. Residual
b. Latent
c. Leftover
d. Superheated
e. Sensible
B
Rotors for high outputs and high temperatures are generally made of _____ steels:
a. Chromium
b. Chromium-nickel
c. Nickel-molybdenum
d. Chromium-nickel-molybdenum
e. Copper-nickel-bronze
D
What are the two disadvantages of an impulse turbine?
1 - High centrifugal forces on the buckets

2 - Large friction losses (from steam velocity)

What are nozzles made of?
Monel metal - This is a nickel-copper alloy
What do the stationary blades in a reaction turbine do?
They act as nozzles. Pressure drops across them and velocity increases
What is the blade orientation in reaction turbines?
Stationary blades alternating with rows of moving blades
With regards to a reaction turbine, what are two problems that the pressure drop across the blades causes?
The pressure difference means that steam can leak around the edges and tips of the blades so clearances must
be small.

The pressure difference causes an unbalanced thrust on the rotor

What are labyrinth seals made out of?
Either brass, stainless steel, or other metal alloys
Are drum rotors hollow? If so, why?
Yes. To ensure good balance and reduce weight.
What type of turbine uses drum rotors and why?

Reaction turbines. If blades were attached to the rotor the disc design would create large axial thrust on the rotor.

Describe a Kingsbury Thrust Bearing (Also known as a Michell thrust bearing)

Tilting pads attached to a stationary plate. Oil is pumped through the bearing and as the shaft rotates, an oil
wedge is created which carries and distributes the thrust
What is the steam chest?
Passages outside the casing that direct steam to the nozzles
What is critical pressure? Where is it?
It is the outlet pressure being 0.577 times the inlet pressure.

Convergent Nozzle - At the exit of the nozzle.

Convergent-Divergent Nozzle - At the throat of the nozzle
How does the leading edge of an impulse blade differ from the leading edge of a reaction blade?
The impulse blade has a sharp leading edge

The reaction blade has a rounded leading edge

Describe the blade arrangement of pressure compounding.
There are two or more impulse stages

- Steam enters through a first set of nozzles.

- Passes through moving blades.
- Enters a 2nd set of nozzles set into a stationary partition
- Passes through another set of moving blades.
Advantages of pressure compounding (3)
- Increased efficiency due to reduced friction losses

- Reduced centrifugal forces

- Can be designed for a wide range of inlet steam conditions

When it comes to velocity compounding, how do the moving blades compare to each other?
The second set of rotating blades are twice the size of the first set.

The volume of steam is the same in the second set but the velocity is lower so the larger size allows for the same
impulse force to be applied
What is the advantage of pressure-velocity compounding?
High steam pressures can be utilized to obtain relatively low rotational speeds
What is a double flow turbine? What is the advantage?
Steam flows in two directions relative to the turbine shaft.
It eliminates end thrust.

What is the typical application for a condensing turbine?

As a driver for an electric generator
What is another term for a back pressure turbine?
Non-condensing
What is bleed steam used for?
Heating purposes such as feed water heating
What is a mixed pressure condensing turbine?
Steam is added to the turbine part way between the inlet and the exhaust. Allows for flexibility in turbine load
capability.
What are the two compounded turbine arrangements?
Cross Compounding

Tandem Compounding
What might be between the shafts of the LP and HP turbines in a tandem compounding arrangement?
A reducing gear because of the different speeds of the two sections.
What is a reheated turbine?
The entire steam flow is extracted part way through the turbine, reheated, then returned immediately downstream
of where it was extracted.
What are used to align the casing of a turbine when bolting it together?
Dowel pins
What are double casings used for?
Very high steam pressure applications
What is the purpose of sentinel valves?
To alert the operator of high pressure by a high pitched whistling sound.

They are not to prevent overpressure.

How are carbon ring shaft seals arranged?
Three segments held together by a garter spring
If more than one set of labyrinth seals are installed, what is between them?
Steam pockets (spaces). They carry away any leaked steam
What are "stepped" labyrinth seals as opposed to "straight" seals?
Longer rings that fit down into grooves in the rotating shaft
When are water seals used?
If a positive leak-proof seal is required.
What are tangs?
Tips of the blades in an impulse turbine that shrouding may be attached to.
Are there thrust forces in an impulse turbine?
Yes but they are very small. Even so, they must be eliminated. Simple thrust bearings are used for this.
What is a balance pipe?
Used on a dummy piston arrangement to maintain a slight thrust toward the exhaust end
Why are speed reduction gears needed?
Steam turbines run at very high speeds. These gears bring them down to the speed required by the driven
machine.
What are helical gears?
Gear set at an angle to each other. They reduce noise and vibration.
What is a disadvantage of helical gears?
They produce a thrust on the gears. This can be eliminated by a "double helical" or "V" design.
If left at a standstill, while the turbine is still hot, the lower half of the rotor will cool off faster than
the upper half and the rotor will ______________________ or "hog".

a. turn on it's own

b. bend upwards
c. twist
d. bend downwards
e. stall
B
A barring gear consists of an electric motor and several sets of reducing gears to turn the
turbine shaft at a low speed. It is used:

1) After stopping a hot turbine to prevent "hogging"

2) Only on small turbine
3) Continually when the turbine is not operating
4) Prior to start-up for approximately 3 hours

a. 1, 2, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 4
d. 2, 3
e. 2, 4
C
A jacking oil pump is used to:

1) Make slight adjustments to the turbine bearing housings during overhaul to maintain
alignment
2) Supply oil to a hydraulic motor for the turning gear
3) Supply oil to the bearings under the shaft at all times so lubrication is assured
4) Supply a high volume of oil at high pressure

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
e. None of the above
E - It supplies oil under the bearings but not "at all times." Only before startup. It is shut off
when the speed is above 50-60 rpm
In a nuclear power station a _____________ supplies heat through a _________ to the working
fluid in place of a steam plant boiler.

1) reactor
2) heat exchanger
3) burner
4) pump

a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 3, 2
d. 1, 4
e. 2, 4
A
In a nuclear power plant circulating coolant picks up heat in the reactor and rejects it to the
_______________ in the steam cycle by means of a heat exchanger.

a. hotwell
b. condenser
c. working fluid
d. turbine
e. feed pump
C
With _________ a series of nozzle valves opens in sequence as the load increases. This type
of governing is most efficient and is used for impulse turbines.

a. throttle governing
b. nozzle governing
c. speed governing
d. by-pass governing
e. overload governing
B
Throttle governing uses a single large control valve so when the steam is throttled the
_______ , thus increasing turbine efficiency.

a. superheat will increase

b. superheat will decrease
c. pressure will increase
d. pressure will stay the same
e. temperature will decrease
A
Overload governing is used on ________ turbines.

a. small
b. impulse
c. low pressure
d. reaction
e. impulse and reaction
E
_________________ is the percent change in speed required for load change equal to the
rated.

a. Speed governor
b. Governor speed drop
c. Governor speed increase
d. Throttle governing
e. Integral band
B
The two types of Governors used on steam turbines are:

1) Flow sensitive governor

2) Pressure sensitive governor
3) Temperature sensitive governor
4) Speed sensitive governor

a. 2, 4
b. 1, 3
c. 1, 2
d. 3, 4
e. 2, 3
A
Back pressure and extraction turbines use _________ in connection with ___________.

1) pressure sensitive governor

2) throttle governing
3) speed sensitive governor
4) by-pass governing

a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 3
d. 3, 4
e. 4, 1
B
In an/a ____________ , the spring loaded tripping bolt has a center of gravity slightly off the
centre of the shaft.

a. electric turning gear

b. nozzle
c. barring gear
d. shear pin coupling
e. overspeed trip
E
In an overspeed trip the spring loaded tripping bolt has a center of gravity:

a. Concentric with the shaft

b. Towards the nut end of the bolt
c. Towards the condenser end of the shaft
d. Towards the head end of the bolt
e. Towards the centre of the bolt
D
When a hydraulic overspeed trip operates:

1) High pressure oil forces the main steam valve shut

2) High pressure oil supply is shut off
3) The stop valve oil cylinder drain is closed
4) The stop valve oil cylinder drain is opened
5) A spring closes the main steam valve
6) The pilot drain is closed

a. 1, 3, 6
b. 2, 4, 5
c. 3, 4, 6
d. 2, 4, 6
e. 3, 4, 5
B
When starting up a turbine it is not necessary to open trap bypasses as the traps will remove
condensate as it is produced.

a. True
b. False
B - This must be done prior to startup
Sealing steam to the turbine glands is admitted ___________ is put in operation.
a. before the extraction pump
b. before the condenser circulating water pump
c. after the air ejector
d. after the extraction pump
e. after the throttle valve is open
D
The extraction (condensate) pump is put into operation ______ the ______.
1) before
2) after
3) air ejector
4) jack oil pump
5) condenser circulating water pump
a. 1, 3
b. 2, 3
c. 1, 4
d. 1, 5
e. 2, 5
A
The jacking oil pump supplies lubricating oil to the:

a. Side of the bearing

b. Top of the bearing
c. Center of the shaft
d. Bottom of the bearings
e. Thrust bearing
D
In a back-pressure turbine the governor is _____ sensitive.

a. Speed
b. Temperature
c. Flow
d. Time
e. Pressure
E
The overspeed trip a turbine is usually set to trip the mechanism when it reaches _____ of
operating speed.
a. 100%.
b. 105%.
c. 110%.
d. 115%.
e. 120%.
C - Book says 10 to 12% above normal operating speed
A jacking oil pump is used to:
1. Make slight adjustments to the turbine bearing housings during overhaul to maintain
alignment.
2. Supply oil under the shaft of the bearing for a specific time.
3. Supply oil to the bearings under the shaft at all times so lubrication is assured.
4. Supply a low volume of oil at high pressure.

a. 1, 2, 3.
b. 2, 3, 4.
c. 1, 3, 4.
d. 3, 4.
e. 2, 4.
E
Bypass governing allows:
a. Increased load at increased efficiency.
b. Decreased load at increased efficiency.
c. Increased load at decreased efficiency.
d. Decreased load at decreased efficiency.
e. No change on load and efficiency.
C
The jacking oil pump supplies oil at a pressure of _____ kPa.
a. 8000.
b. 9000.
c. 10,000.
d. 11,000.
e. 12,000.
C - There's a section in the book that says 8,000 to 10,000
The main oil pump supplies lubricating oil to the:
a. Side of the bearing
b. Center of the turbine shaft
c. Thrust bearing
d. Top of the bearings
e. Bottom of the bearings
D
Turbines used to drive auxiliary equipment are usually lubricated by:
a. Grease nipples.
b. Oil impregnated bushings.
c. Ring-oiled bearings.
d. Self-lubricated sealed bearings.
e. Hand.
C

Oil in a typical turbine lube oil system is supplied to various components at _____ pressure/s.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
B
Lubricating oil for a turbine may:
1. Lubricate bearings.
2. Lubricate gears.
3. Operate throttle valves.
4. Be supplied to a governor.

a. 1, 2
b. 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
A
The high-pressure oil system of a typical turbine supplies oil to:
a. Bearings.
b. Gears.
c. Emergency stop valves.
d. The oil purifier.
e. The auxiliary oil pump.
C
In order to supply oil at two different pressures, a typical turbine lube oil system has:
a. One centrifugal pump and one reciprocating positive displacement pump.
b. One shaft driven pump comprising both high and low pressure sections.
c. One shaft drive high pressure pump and an electric low pressure pump.
d. A pressure reducing valve.
e. A separate pump for each system.
D
A barring gear turns a turbine over via:
a. Reduction gears.
b. Direct drive.
c. A hydraulic coupling.
d. A limited slip clutch.
e. A hand operated crank.
A
The jacking oil pump is shut down when the turbine reaches a speed of approximately _____
rpm.
a. 5-10
b. 20-30
c. 40-50
d. 50-60
e. 0-80
D
Turbines fall under two general classes, _____ or _____.
1. Condensing.
2. Tandem.
3. Those that exhaust at or above atmospheric pressure.
4. Compound.

a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 1, 4
d. 2, 3
e. 2, 4
B
Steam that has passed through a turbine may pass directly to:
1. A superheater.
2. A reheater.
3. A feed heater.
4. An economizer.

a. 1, 2
b. 3, 4
c. 2, 3
d. 1, 2, 3
e. 2, 3, 4
C
In a turbine circuit, feed heaters and deaerators serve to:
a. Use up excess steam.
b. Increase efficiency.
c. Provide load during low demand periods.
d. Lighten the load on the condenser.
e. Increase turbine output.
B
The advantage of mechanical-hydraulic governors is:
a. No flyweights are required.
b. A separate high pressure oil system is not required.
c. A low amount of control air is required.
d. Mechanical losses are greatly reduced.
e. There is no direct linkage to the turbine shaft.
D
A simple mechanical governor uses a _____ attached to the end of the turbine shaft.
a. Governor.
b. Speed pickup.
c. Set of weights.
d. Gear.
e. Pressure sensor.
C
A speed sensitive governor may be:
1. Proportional.
2. Mechanical.
3. Mechanical-hydraulic.
4. Electronic-hydraulic.
a. 1, 2
b. 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
D
In a mechanical-hydraulic governor system, what is the purpose of the auxiliary oil pump?
a. It provides oil pressure in case of a main pump failure.
b. It provides oil pressure to the bearings.
c. It provides oil pressure to the governor system.
d. It provides oil pressure during start-up of the turbine.
e. It boosts the main pump's pressure.
D
An electronic-hydraulic governor system uses:
a. High pressure oil from the turbine oil system.
b. A separate fluid power unit for high pressure oil.
c. Oil pressure of approximately 3000-4000 kPa.
d. Pressure oil from the turbine oil system and boosts it to approximately 8200-11000 kPa.
e. Flyweights similar to a mechanical-hydraulic governor.
B
A mechanical overspeed trip is designed to _____ in the event of an overspeed condition.
a. Prevent the turbine's speed from exceeding 150% of its rated speed.
b. Activate an alarm.
c. Drop the turbine's load.
d. Shut off the turbine's steam supply.
e. Throttle the inlet steam.
D
When starting a large condensing or extraction turbine, the lubricating oil pump is usually
started:
a. Just before the turbine is rotated.
b. One half hour before the turbine is rotated.
c. 2-3 hours before the turbine is rotated.
d. 6-8 hours before the turbine is rotated.
e. The pump is left running at all times.
C
When starting a turbine, a speed of 200-300 rpm is maintained for what purpose?
a. To allow the barring gear time to disengage.
b. To allow the operator time to listen for rubbing or other unusual noises.
c. To ensure all controls are functioning.
d. To warm up the rotor and casing.
e. To ensure the lube oil system is operating correctly.
D
The warm-up time required of a turbine is dependent on:
a. How quickly the turbine is required.
b. The manufacturer's instructions.
c. The size of the turbine.
d. The type of turbine.
e. Whether the steam is dry or wet.
C
When shutting down a turbine, the first thing done is:
a. Turn off the lube oil cooling water.
b. Test the emergency trip.
c. Start the auxiliary oil pump.
d. Shut off the steam supply.
e. Reduce the load to zero.
E
The barring gear:
a. Is started when the lube oil temperature reaches 35-40C.
b. Is started when the jacking oil pump pressure reaches 3000-4000 kPa.
c. Is used only when starting a turbine.
d. Should disengage and automatically shut down steam admission starts the turbine shaft
turning.
e. Should be disengaged before turning over the turbine.
D
Overspeed trips:
a. Are an optional device on a turbine.
b. Are linked to the speed pickup.
c. Are independent of the governing system.
d. Can be disabled to test critical speeds.
e. May be mechanical, hydraulic, or mechanical-hydraulic.
C
When first starting a turbine, the purpose of admitting only enough steam to turn the turbine
over very slowly is to:
a. Allow the operator time to listen for rubbing or other unusual noises.
b. Eliminate hogging.
c. Ensure that the jacking oil system is up to pressure.
d. Warm up the turbine.
e. Make sure the control room is ready for the turbine.
A
On startup of a large condensing turbine, the cooling water to the oil cooler is turned on:
a. Before the jacking oil pump.
b. At the same time as the lubricating oil pump.
c. When the oil reaches normal operating temperatures.
d. When the jacking oil pump is shut down.
e. When it is convenient.
C
Nozzle governing is _____ throttle governing.
a. Less efficient than
b. Required with
c. More efficient than
d. Mandatory with
e. As efficient as
C
The two types of Governors used on steam turbines are:
1. Flow sensitive governor
2. Pressure sensitive governor
3. Temperature sensitive governor
4. Speed sensitive governor
a. 2,4
b. 1,4
c. 1,2
d. 2,3
e. 3, 4.
A
When steam is throttled through a valve:
1. Heat is gained
2. Heat is lost
3. Heat is neither gained nor lost
4. Superheat increases
5. Superheat decreases
6. Superheat neither increases nor decreases
7. Volume increases
8. Volume decreases
9. Volume neither increases nor decreases
10. Pressure increases
11. Pressure decreases
12. Pressure neither increases nor decreases
a. 3, 4, 7, 11
b. 1, 5, 8, 12
c. 2, 6, 9, 10
d. 3, 5, 8, 11
e. 4, 6, 8, 10.
A
If left at a standstill, while the turbine is still hot, the lower half of the rotor will cool of faster than
the upper half and the rotor will _____ or "hog"
a. Turn on it's own.
b. Bend upwards.
c. Twist.
d. Bend downwards.
e. Stall.
B
When a hydraulic overspeed trip operates:
1. High pressure oil forces the main steam valve shut
2. High pressure oil supply is shut off
3. The stop valve oil cylinder drain is closed
4. The stop valve oil cylinder drain is opened
5. A spring closes the main steam valve
6. The pilot drain is closed
a. 1,3,6
b. 2,4,5
c. 3,4,6
d. 2,4,6
e. 3,4,5.
B
In a back-pressure turbine the governor is _____ sensitive.
a. Speed
b. Temperature
c. Flow
d. Time
e. Pressure.
E
The overspeed trip a turbine is usually set to trip the mechanism when it reaches _____ of
operating speed.
a. 100%.
b. 105%.
c. 110%.
d. 115%.
e. 120%.
C
In an overspeed trip the spring loaded tripping bolt has a center of gravity:
a. Concentric with the shaft
b. Towards the nut end of the bolt
c. Towards the condenser end of the shaft
d. Towards the head end of the bolt
e. Towards the center of the bolt.
D
Throttle governing uses a single large control valve so when the steam is throttled the _____,
thus increasing turbine efficiency.
a. Superheat will increase
b. Superheat will decrease
c. Pressure will increase
d. Pressure will stay the same
e. Temperature will decrease.
A
A jacking oil pump is used to:
1. Make slight adjustments to the turbine bearing housings during overhaul to maintain
alignment.
2. Supply oil under the shaft of the bearing for a specific time.
3. Supply oil to the bearings under the shaft at all times so
lubrication is assured.
4. Supply a low volume of oil at high pressure.
a. 1, 2, 3.
b. 2, 3, 4.
c. 1, 3, 4.
d. 3, 4.
e. 2, 4.
E
Back pressure and extraction turbines uses _____ in connection with _____:
1. A pressure sensitive governor.
2. Throttle governing.
3. A speed sensitive governor.
4. By-pass governing.
a. 1, 2.
b. 1, 3.
c. 2, 3.
d. 3, 4.
e. 1, 4.
B
Overload governing is used on _____ turbines.
a. Small
b. Impulse
c. Low pressure
d. Reaction
e. Impulse and reaction.
E
A barring gear consists of an electric motor and several sets of reducing gears to turn the
turbine shaft at a low speed. It is used:
1. After stopping a hot turbine to prevent "hogging"
2. Only on small turbine
3. Continually when the turbine is not operating
4. Prior to start-up for several hours
a. 1, 2, 4
b. 1,2,3
c. 1,4
d. 2,3
e. 2, 4.
C
In an impulse turbine with _____ a series of nozzle valves opens in sequence as the load
increases.
a. Throttle governing.
b. Nozzle governing.
c. Speed governing.
d. By-pass governing.
e. Overload governing.
B
_____ is the percentage change in speed from no load to full load conditions.
a. Speed governor.
b. Governor speed droop.
c. Governor speed increase.
d. Throttle governing.
e. Integral band.
B
Bypass governing allows:
a. Increased load at increased efficiency.
b. Decreased load at increased efficiency.
c. Increased load at decreased efficiency.
d. Decreased load at decreased efficiency.
e. No change on load and efficiency.
C
In a nuclear power plant, circulating coolant picks up heat in the reactor and rejects it to the
_____ in the steam cycle by means of a heat exchanger.
a. Hotwell
b. Condenser
c. Working fluid
d. Turbine
e. Feed pump.
C
In a nuclear power station a _______ supplies heat through a _________ to the working fluid in
place of a steam plant boiler.
1. Reactor.
2. Heat exchanger.
3. Burner.
4. Pump.
a. 1, 2.
b. 1, 3.
c. 3, 2.
d. 1, 4.
e. 2,4
A
The jacking oil pump supplies oil at a pressure of _____ kPa.
a. 8000.
b. 9000.
c. 10,000.
d. 11,000.
e. 12,000.
C
The jacking oil pump supplies lubricating oil to the:
a. Side of the bearing.
b. Top of the bearing.
c. Center of the shaft.
d. Bottom of the bearings.
e. Thrust bearing.
D
In an/a _____, the spring loaded tripping bolt has a center of gravity slightly off the center of the
shaft.
a. Electric turning gear.
b. Nozzle.
c. Barring gear.
d. Shear pin coupling.
e. Overspeed trip.
E
The main oil pump supplies lubricating oil to the:
a. Side of the bearing
b Center of the turbine shaft
c. Thrust bearing
d. Top of the bearings
e. Bottom of the bearings.
D
Turbines used to drive auxiliary equipment are usually lubricated by:
a. Grease nipples.
b. Oil impregnated bushings.
c. Ring-oiled bearings.
d. Self-lubricated sealed bearings.
e. Hand.
C
Oil in a typical turbine lube oil system is supplied to various components at _____ pressure/s.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5.
B
Lubricating oil for a turbine may:
1. Lubricate bearings.
2. Lubricate gears.
3. Operate throttle valves.
4. Be supplied to a governor.
a. 1,2
b. 3,4
c. 1,2,3
d. 2,3,4
e. 1,2,3,4.
E
The high-pressure oil system of a typical turbine supplies oil to:
a. Bearings.
b. Gears.
c. Emergency stop valves.
d. The oil purifier.
e. The auxiliary oil pump.
C
In order to supply oil at two different pressures, a typical turbinelube oil system has:

a. One centrifugal pump and one reciprocating positive displacement pump.

b. One shaft driven pump comprising both high and low pressure sections.
c. One shaft drive high pressure pump and an electric low pressure pump.
d. A pressure reducing valve.
e. A separate pump for each system.
D
A barring gear turns a turbine over via:
a. Reduction gears.
b. Direct drive.
c. A hydraulic coupling.
d. A limited slip clutch.
e. A hand operated crank.
A
The jacking oil pump is shut down when the turbine reaches a speed of approximately _____
rpm.
a. 5-10
b. 20-30
c. 40-50
d. 50-60
e. 0-80.
D
Turbines fall under two general classes, _____ or _____.
1. Condensing.
2. Tandem.
3. Those that exhaust at or above atmospheric pressure.
4. Compound.

a. 1,2
b. 1,3
c. 1,4
d. 2,3
e. 2, 4
B
Steam that has passed through a turbine may pass directly to:
1. A superheater .
2. A reheater .
3. A feed heater .
4. An economizer.
a. 1,2
b. 3,4
c. 2,3
d. 1,2,3
e. 2,3,4.
C
In a turbine circuit, feed heaters and directors serve to:
a. Use up excess steam.
b. Increase efficiency.
c. Provide load during low demand periods.
d. Lighten the load on the condenser.
e. Increase turbine output.
B
The advantage of mechanical-hydraulic governors is:
a. No flyweights are required.
b. A separate high pressure oil system is not required.
c. A low amount of control air is required.
d. Mechanical losses are greatly reduced.
e. There is no direct linkage to the turbine shaft.
D
A simple mechanical governor uses a _____ attached to the end of the turbine shaft.
a. Governor.
b. Speed pickup.
c. Set of weights.
d. Gear.
e. Pressure sensor .
C
A speed sensitive governor may be:
1. Proportional.
2. Mechanical.
3. Mechanical-hydraulic.
4. Electronic-hydraulic.
a. 1,2
b. 3,4
c. 1,2,3
d. 2,3,4
e. 1,2,3,4.
D
In a mechanical-hydraulic governor system, what is the purpose of the auxiliary oil pump?
a. It provides oil pressure in case of a main pump failure.
b. It provides oil pressure to the bearings.
c. It provides oil pressure to the governor system.
d. It provides oil pressure during start-up of the turbine.
e. It boosts the main pump's pressure.
D
An electronic-hydraulic governor system uses:
a. High pressure oil from the turbine oil system.
b. A separate fluid power unit for high pressure oil.
c. Oil pressure of approximately 3000-4000 kPa.
d. Pressure oil from the turbine oil system and boosts it to
approximately 8200-11000 kPa.
e. Flyweights similar to a mechanical-hydraulic governor.
B
A mechanical overspeed trip is designed to _____ in the event of an overspeed condition.
a. Prevent the turbine's speed from exceeding 150% of its rated speed.
b. Activate an alarm.
c. Drop the turbine's load.
d. Shut off the turbine's steam supply.
e. Throttle the inlet steam.
D
When starting a large condensing or extraction turbine, the lubricating oil pump is usually
started:
a. Just before the turbine is rotated.
b. One half hour before the turbine is rotated.
c. 2-3 hours before the turbine is rotated.
d. 6-8 hours before the turbine is rotated.
e. The pump is left running at all times.
C
The extraction (condensate) pump is put into operation _____ the _____.
1. Before.
2. After .
3. Air ejector.
4. Jack oil pump.
5. Condenser circulating water pump.
a. 1, 3
b. 2, 3
c. 1, 4
d. 1, 5
e. 2, 5.
A
When starting a turbine, a speed of 200-300 rpm is maintained for what purpose?
a. To allow the barring gear time to disengage.
b. To allow the operator time to listen for rubbing or other
unusual noises.
c. To ensure all controls are functioning.
d. To warm up the rotor and casing.
e. To ensure the lube oil system is operating correctly.
D
The warm-up time required of a turbine is dependant on:
a. How quickly the turbine is required.
b. The manufacturer's instructions.
c. The size of the turbine.
d. The type of turbine.
e. Whether the steam is dry or wet.
C
When shutting down a turbine, the first thing done is:
a. Turn off the lube oil cooling water.
b. Test the emergency trip.
c. Start the auxiliary oil pump.
d. Shut off the steam supply.
e. Reduce the load to zero.
E
Sealing steam to the turbine glands is admitted _____ is put in operation
a. Before the extraction pump.
b. Before the condenser circulating water pump.
c. After the air ejector.
d. After the extraction pump.
e. After the throttle valve is open.
D
The barring gear:
a. Is started when the lube oil temperature reaches 35-40°C.
b. Is started when the jacking oil pump pressure reaches 3000-
4000 kPa.
c. Is used only when starting a turbine.
d. Should disengage and automatically shut down steam
admission starts the turbine shaft turning.
e. Should be disengaged before turning over the turbine.
D
Overspeed trips:
a. Are an optional device on a turbine.
b. Are linked to the speed pickup.
c. Are independent of the governing system.
d. Can be disabled to test critical speeds.
e. May be mechanical, hydraulic, or mechanical-hydraulic.
C
When first starting a turbine, the purpose of admitting only enough steam to turn the turbine
over very slowly is to:
a. Allow the operator time to listen for rubbing or other unusual
noises.
b. Eliminate hogging.
c. Ensure that the jacking oil system is up to pressure.
d. Warm up the turbine.
e. Make sure the control room is ready for the turbine.
A
On startup of a large condensing turbine, the cooling water to the oil cooler is turned on:
a. Before the jacking oil pump.
b. At the same time as the lubricating oil pump.
c. When the oil reaches normal operating temperatures.
d. When the jacking oil pump is shut down.
e. When it is convenient.
C
Nozzle governing is _____ throttle governing.
a. Less efficient than
b. Required with
c. More efficient than
d. Mandatory with
e. As efficient as.
C
Heat transfer takes place from a ________.

a. hotter to a cooler body except in refrigeration

b. hotter to cooler if the pressure on hot body is higher
c. cooler to a hotter body
d. cooler to a hotter body
e. hotter to a cooler body
E
The rate of heat transfer will depend on:

1) Temperature difference
2) Thermal resistance to heat flow at the material separating
the two fluids
3) Area of transmitting surface

a. 1
b. 1, 2
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 2, 3
e. 3, 1
C
In a steam turbine condenser the temperature difference from exhaust steam to cooling water
will:

a. Remain the same under all loads

b. Increase with a load decrease
c. Increase with a load increase for most loads
d. Remain the same under most loads
e. Decrease with a load increase
C
Power plant thermal efficiencies could be easily doubled by removing the _________ and using
the exhaust steam for heating.

a. hot well
b. condenser
c. feed pump
d. circulating pump
e. deaerator
B
If the cooling water for a condenser, taken from a cooling tower is high in dissolved oxygen, the
ability of the condenser to act as a deaerator is ____________ .

a. directly proportional to the level of dissolved oxygen

b. not impeded
c. inversely proportional to the level of dissolved oxygen
d. impeded
e. reduced
B
The _______________ cooling water is in direct contact with the turbine exhaust steam.
a. down flow condenser
b. central flow condenser
c. radial flow condenser
d. jet condenser
e. air ejector
D
In a ______________ the feed pump draws from the hot well only the quantity of feed water
required by the boiler, the remainder overflows into the cooling pond where it is cooled and
reused as cooling water.

a. surface condenser
b. counterflow condenser
c. down flow condenser
d. radial flow condenser
e. jet condenser
D
The purposes of a surface condenser is to:

1) Maintain a vacuum at the turbine exhaust

2) Conserve pure boiler feedwater
3) Act as a deaerator
4) Cool the condensate below saturation temperature

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 1, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
A
A surface condenser may be ________________ .

1) oval
2) triangular
3) cylindrical
4) rectangular
5) hexagon

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 5
e. 1, 3, 4
E

Allowances must be made for differential expansion of the tubes and shell. Packed tube-ends
may allow the tube to move ____________ .

a. through an expansion joint

b. through an expansion loop
c. very little
d. axially in the packing
e. radially in the packing
D
The classic material for water boxes has always been:

a. Admiralty brass
b. Cast iron
c. Muntz metal
d. Low carbon steel
e. Steel alloy
B
Air in a surface condenser:

1) Increases the pressure

2) Retards heat transfer
3) Enters with the high pressure ejector steam
4) Is cooled before being removed

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 4
e. 2, 3
D
The cooling water for the air ejectors on a surface condenser is _____________ .
a. row water
b. treated water
c. condensate
d. river water
e. distilled water
C

Text says it can be dedicated cooling water, boiler feedwater, or condensate

The methods to detect cooling water leaks in a surface condenser while it is in operation are:

1) pH test
2) electrical conductivity test
3) plastic wrapping test
4) silver nitrate test
5) fluorescing dye test

a. 2, 4
b. 1, 2, 5
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 3
e. 3, 4
A
Under normal operating conditions a surface condenser, the atmospheric relief valve is held
closed by ___________.

a. a spring
b. vacuum
c. atmospheric pressure
d. water pressure
e. pressure difference between the atmosphere outside and the vacuum in the shell
E
The _____________ function is to continually extract the condensate from the condenser
hotwell and pump it through the air ejector coolers.

a. extraction pump
b. circulating pump
c. vacuum pump
d. feed water pump
e. cooling water pump
A
The condenser extraction pump suction operates at pressures ______________.

a. slightly above atmospheric

b. just below atmospheric
c. near absolute zero
d. equal to 2 atmosphere
e. determined by the level of condensate in the condenser
C
In order to prevent air from entering the condenser when the condenser condensate extraction
pump is in stand-by position, the pump is equipped with:

a. Shaft sleeves
b. Labyrinth seals
c. Mechanical seals
d. Carbon rings
e. Water sealed glands
E
Feedwater heaters use _____________ of bleed steam to heat feedwater.

a. sensible heat
b. latent heat
c. super heat
d. sensible and latent heat
e. sensible and super heat
B
Low-pressure feedwater heaters are exposed on the waterside to the discharge pressure of the
_______________ pump.
a. circulating
b. extraction
c. cooling water
d. boiler feedwater
e. air ejector
B
High-pressure feedwater heaters are exposed on the waterside to the discharge pressure of the
______________ pump.

a. extraction
b. cooling water
c. boiler feedwater
d. circulating
e. air ejector
C
Low-pressure feedwater heaters commonly use a __________ design.

a. straight-tube
b. "U" tube
c. "c" tube
d. bent tube
e. low tube
A
High-pressure feedwater heaters commonly use a _______ design for thermal expansion and
contraction.

a. "c" tube
b. straight tube
c. low tube
d. "U" tube
e. bent tube
D
An extraction pump is usually a:
a. Single stage centrifugal pump.
b. Multi-stage centrifugal pump.
c. Positive displacement pump.
d. Turbine pump.
e. Double acting reciprocating pump.
B
Condenser tubes can be installed with:
1. Ferrules.
2. Metallic or fiber packing.
3. Roll expanders.
4. A combination of the above.
5. Collar bolts.

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 4, 5
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D
Silver nitrate can be used to detect condenser leaks:
a. If the leaks aren't too big.
b. If the cooling water is salty.
c. But a lab is required.
d. Using a sample drawn from the cooling water.
e. By indicating an increase in conductivity.
B
A group title "heat exchanger" would include:

1. Air heaters.
2. Oil coolers.
3. Oil burners.
4. Chimney.
5. Air heater.
6. Electrostatic precipitator.
7. Forced draft fan.
8. Deaerator.

a. 3, 5, 7.
b. 4, 6, 8.
c. 1, 2, 5, 8.
d. 1, 3, 6, 8.
e. 2, 4, 5, 7.
C
What are the main dangers that a condenser must be guarded against?
1. Rise in condensate.
2. Contamination of condensate.
3. Increase in backpressure.
4. Vibration.
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3
e. 2, 3, 4
D
The use of feedwater heaters results in less steam being exhausted to the condenser and:
a. Increases the cooling demand on the condenser.
b. Decreases the vacuum in the condenser.
c. The turbine works harder.
d. Decreases the cycle efficiency.
e. Increases the cycle efficiency.
E
Condenser tubes can be installed with/by:
1. Ferrules.
2. Metallic or fiber packing.
3. Roll expanding.
4. A combination of roll expanding and ferrules.
a. 1, 2, 3.
b. 2, 3, 4.
c. 1, 2, 4.
d. 1, 3, 4.
e. 1, 2, 3, 4.
E
Extraction pump seals on the pump's low-pressure side are usually sealed with what?

a. Grease.
b. Carbon seals.
c. Stuffing boxes.
d. Pump discharge water.
e. Nothing is required.
D
A condenser is most efficient when:
1. Only sensible heat is removed.
2. Only latent heat is removed.
3. No sensible heat is removed.
4. No latent heat is removed.
5. A combination of latent and sensible heat is removed.

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 3, 4
e. 5
B
Types of "contact" condensers include:

1. Central flow condensers.

2. Jet condensers.
3. Down flow condensers.
4. Barometric jet condensers.

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 1, 3
e. 2, 4
E
The cooling medium for surface condensers may be:
1. Water from a river.
2. Air.
3. Water from a cooling tower.
4. Refrigerant systems.

a. 1, 2
b. 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
C
In a steam plant, the condenser is:
a. Where the greatest increase in efficiency takes place.
b. Is slung underneath the turbine.
c. The largest single heat loss in the steam power cycle.
d. Takes water from the feed heaters.
e. Categorized as "contact" or "integral".
C
Jet condensers:
a. Deliver feedwater directly to the deaerator.
b. Are not in common service.
c. Require that the entire cooling water quantity be chemically treated.
d. Use an air ejector to remove air.
e. Require a pump to remove water from the condenser.
B
Surface water cooled condensers may be classified as:
1. Radial flow.
2. Cross flow.
3. Central flow.
4. Down flow.

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 4
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 1, 3, 4
e. 2, 3, 4
D
The difference between a jet condenser and a barometric jet condenser is:
a. Condensate is pumped from the barometric jet condenser.
b. The jet condenser operates at a pressure above barometric.
c. In a barometric condenser, the water is pumped out of the unit.
d. In a barometric condenser, the water flows out by gravity.
e. The length of the barometric leg.
D
In a low-level type jet condenser because of _____, water must be pumped out of the
condenser.
a. Code requirements.
b. Internal vacuum.
c. Operating procedures.
d. Internal baffles.
e. Induced water flow.
B
A high condensate level:
a. Is difficult to detect.
b. Decreases the backpressure of the turbine.
c. Could cause non-condensable gases to accumulate in the condenser.
d. Is caused by faulty extraction pumps.
e. Could be caused by a malfunctioning rupture disc.
C
How does air enter a condenser?
1. Air pumps.
2. Gland leaks.
3. Carried in with steam.
4. Leaky flanges.

a. 1, 2
b. 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
D
Thermal deaeration heats the condensate to the boiling point liberating all:
a. Suspended gases.
b. Suspended solids.
c. Dissolved solids.
d. Dissolved gases.
e. Dissolved ions.
A
With a condensing turbine the _____ heat in the exhaust steam is transferred to the cooling
water.
a. Residual
b. Latent
c. Leftover
d. Superheated
e. Sensible
B
To reduce cavitation what type of extraction pump is often used?
a. A pump with high net positive suction head.
b. A double acting reciprocating pump.
c. A vertical well type pump.
d. A positive displacement pump with a separate suction chamber.
e. A single stage centrifugal pump.
C
A condenser's tube arrangement that makes it possible to reheat and deaerate the condensate
with available steam in the condenser is termed
a. Regenerative.
b. Degenerative.
c. Progressive.
d. Cumulative.
e. Administrative.
A
Sub-cooling of the condensate in a surface condenser decreases the
a. Deaerating action.
b. Evaporation action.
c. Aerating action.
d. Oxygen absorption.
e. Heat losses.
A
When the condensate is sub-cooled in a surface condenser the
a. Thermal cycle efficiency remains the same.
b. Evaporation increases.
c. Thermal cycle efficiency increases.
d. Evaporation decreases.
e. Thermal cycle efficiency decreases.
E
A safety valve is fitted on the _____ side of a feedwater heater.
a. Under
b. Water
c. Water and steam
d. Top of the water
e. Steam
E
A pressure relief valve is fitted to the water, side of a feedwater heater in case:
a. The level control on the deaerator shuts-off.
b. Of expansion of the water when the waterside is isolated.
c. The temperature of the water becomes excessive.
d. The level in feed water heater is too high.
e. The steam pressure is excessive.
B
The deaerator is equipped with a loop-seal to prevent re-circulation of:
a. Non-condensables.
b. Water vapors.
c. Condensate.
d. Steam.
e. Cooling water.
B
If the condensate in a surface condenser is sub-cooled it will quickly absorb:
a. Nitrogen
b. Ammonia
c. Oxygen
d. Sulphur
e. Carbon dioxide
C
A _____ works on the principle of cool air contacting and removing heat from warm water.
a. Shell and tube exchanger.
b. Circulating pump.
c. Cooling tower.
d. Evaporator.
e. Deaerator.
C
The deaerator must be designed to heat the condensate to the boiling point at the rate at that it
is pumped by the _____ pump.
a. Circulating
b. Cooling
c. Extraction
d. Surge
e. Injection
C
If the drain from the first low pressure heater is drained back to the condenser, a considerable
amount of _____ is lost in the condenser.
a. Water
b. Latent heat
c. Sensible heat
d. Time
e. Steam
C
In a surface condenser, steam flow is directed by:
a. The hotwell location.
b. Baffles.
c. Supports.
d. The tube sheets.
e. Divisions in the shell.
B
A condenser shell may be fitted with an expansion joint if the:
a. Expected temperature differentials will be greater than 20 C.
b. Condenser tubes are U-shaped.
c. Condenser is of welded construction.
d. Condenser tubes are expanded into the tube sheets.
e. Tube sheets are made of Admiralty brass.
D
What is a side benefit of a condenser?
It acts like a deaerator in that it removes air and other non-condensible gases from the
steam/condensate.
What pressure should the condenser be capable of maintaining?
A vacuum of somewhere around 6.9 kPa absolute
How much is the efficiency of the turbine improved by with the addition of a condenser? How is
it achieved?
Efficiency is 50% improved.

This is achieved by allowing the steam in the turbine to expand to a lower pressure which
utilizes more of the heat energy.
What is the largest heat exchanger in a steam plant?
The condenser
Why is the condenser the largest heat loss in a steam cycle?
Because the latent heat is transferred to the cooling water and then lost to atmosphere via a
cooling tower
Thermal Efficiencies:
- Exhausting to atmosphere
- Condensing
- Exhaust steam used for heating or process work
20%
30%
80%
What is the most common type of condenser?
Surface Type (the other being the contact type)
How do jet condensers work?
They spray cooling water into direct contact with the incoming exhaust stream. The combined
cooling water and condensate drain into the hotwell
What is required when a "low-level jet condenser" is used and why?
A pump to remove water from the condenser. This is due to its lower elevation and vacuum in
the condenser which results in a lower pressure head.
What type of pump is connected to the top of jet condensers?
Air extraction pumps
If there is excess condensate in the hotwell of a jet condenser, where does it end up?
It overflows or is pumped into the cooling pond
What are two main differences with a barometric jet condenser as it relates to a standard jet
condenser?

Hotwell and condenser internals

The hotwell is a long pipe called a tailpipe. This length allows the water to flow out by gravity.

The steam rises up through trays and is met by falling cooling water.
What causes a vacuum in an ejector condenser?
The cooling water passes through a series of convergent nozzles. These increase the velocity
and that creates ares of low pressure.
In a water cooled condenser, where does the cooling water flow? Where does the steam flow?
Through the tubes. The steam flows through the shell.
What do steam lanes in a condenser do?
Act as passages to allow some of the steam to flow down to the hotwell to heat and deaerate
the condensate
What are radial flow condensers?
Condensers where the flow of steam is from the outside toward the centre of the condenser
When is a condenser shell fitted with an expansion joint to allow longitudinal movement?
When the design requires the tubes to be expanded into their tube sheets at both ends
What are condenser tube plates made out of?
Admiralty brass or Muntz metal
How do small diameter tubes in a condenser give a larger heating surface?
More tubes can be utilized.

Also since the diameter is small, wall thickness is less.

What is the usual method for extracting air from a condenser?
Using and air ejector
How does an air ejector work?
High pressure steam is expanded through a nozzle then into a Venturi tube. This creates a
lower pressure at the entrance to the ejector. This lower pressure draws air in from the
condenser and carries it out with the steam
How can you achieve an even higher vacuum with an air ejector?
Use multiple stages is series. Either a two stage or three stage.
How big can air leaks be before they interfere with the vacuum created by the air ejector?
Up to 5 mm in diameter
How can air leaks in a condenser best be located?
Shut down the the turbine and condenser.

Fill the condenser, including the steam space, with water

What are four methods to identify air leaks?
Taping all suspected flanges
Tightening all valve packing

Using smoke to detect the leakage point

Using ultrasonic listening devices

In normal operating conditions, how does an atmospheric relief valve ensure that the
atmosphere doesn't leak into the condenser?
It is held closed by the difference in pressure

The line is usually fitted with a water seal

Why is a conductivity test a way of testing for cooling water leaks?
Pure water (condensate) doesn't conduct electricity. Impure water (cooling water) does conduct
electricity. Changes in conductivity indicate cooling water leaks
What does silver nitrate do when it comes in contact with salt water?
Creates a milky-white silver chloride precipitate
What can fluorescein dye do with regards to leaks?
It can be added to the cooling water. Under an ultraviolet light it glows green
What are the severe conditions that an extraction pump must operate in?
It must pump nearly boiling water at near zero absolute pressure
What is the most common type of cooling water pump?
The vertical mixed flow pump
When it comes to the water side, what is the difference between low pressure feed water
heaters and high pressure feed water heater?
Low pressure feed water heaters have their water side exposed to the discharge pressure of the
extraction pump.

High pressure feed water heaters have their water side exposed to the discharge pressure of
the boiler feed pump
How long is the tailpipe on a barometric jet condenser?
10.5 meters
What is the difference between an ejector condenser and an air ejector?
Ejector Condenser - Cooling water flows down through the ejector condenser through a series
of convergent nozzles. This creates a vacuum and also condenses the steam by contact
between the steam and the cooling water.

Air Ejector - Steam is sprayed through a nozzle. The low pressure created draws in non-
condensible gasses
The gas turbine system is:

a. Ideal for large generator systems

b. Ideal to be used over a steam turbine
c. Ideal to be used for unmanned and remote locations
d. Ideal for all applications of a process plant
e. Ideal for large gas plant
c
Gas turbines are used in industry as prime movers for:
1) Portable generators
2) Fire pumps
3) Air compressors
4) Emergency equipment

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
e. 2, 3, 4
d
Gas turbine units are used:
1) For electrical generation
2) Where energy is produced for process plants
3) Where waste gases from the process may be used to drive the gas turbine
4) Where high thermal efficiency is required

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 3, 4
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 4
a
Gas turbines are used in large power plants to provide almost instant emergency power for:

a. Peak load shaving

b. High heating load
c. Water pumps
d. Exit lighting
e. Essential services
e
Some of the characteristics which make the gas turbine a better choice over other prime movers are:
1) Low maintenance
2) Minimum cooling water required
3) High thermal efficiency
4) Rapid start up and loading

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
b
Gas turbines are far superior to other types of engines in their:

a. Fuel consumption
b. Efficiency
c. Lubricating oil consumption
d. Power per mass ratio
e. Fuel usage
d
A closed cycle gas turbine system:

a. Does not use a starting motor

b. Has lower pressure used in system
c. Will use the same working fluid over again
d. Must use a cooler before the regeneration
e. Has a lower initial cost than that of the open cycle gas turbine
c
The compressor on a gas turbine:

a. Can be driven by the load turbine

b. Is always of the axial type
c. Is always a multi-stage compressor
d. Can be of the reciprocating type
e. Is always of the centrifugal type
a
In a dual shaft gas turbine arrangement:

a. The load turbine is down stream from the compressor turbine

b. The load turbine drives the prop on a turbo prop engine
c. Is always used in an open cycle
d. System flexibility is reduced
e. A larger starting motor is required
a
The advantages of a dual shaft gas turbine arrangement are:
1) Greater flexibility
2) It is cheaper
3) Smaller starting motor may be used
4) High pressures and temperatures may be obtained

a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 3
d. 2, 4
e. 1, 4
b
In a gas turbine cycle using an intercooler the following advantages are obtained:
1) The specific volume of the air is reduced 2) The cooler air recovers more heat from the regenerator
3) The temperature of the second stage compressor will be increased thus increasing thermal efficiency
4) More of the turbine power can be available for the output load

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
b
The advantages of using a reheater in a gas turbine cycle are:
1) More air can be compressed
2) A small combustor may be used
3) Less air will have to be compressed in order to do the same amount of work
4) The thermal efficiency of the cycle will be improved

a. 1, 3
b. 1, 4
c. 2, 3
d. 2, 3
e. 3, 4
e
The purpose of a regenerator in a gas turbine is:
a. To clean the exhaust gases
b. To improve the efficiency of the turbine
c. To decrease the temperature in the combustion chamber
d. To raise the air temperature before compression
e. To decrease the air temperature after compression
b
The regenerator in a gas turbine cycle is located:

a. Between the power and load turbine

b. Between the turbine outlet and compressor inlet
c. Between the compressor and combustor
d. Between the combustor and turbine
e. Between the power turbine and generator
c
The regenerator of a gas turbine cycle is a:

a. Second combustor
b. Heat exchanger
c. Vessel used to transfer heat from the exhaust gas to the working fluid before compression occurs
d. Increase the pressure of the working fluid in the system
e. Increase the temperature of the combustor's outlet
b
A gas turbine air compressor with an intercooler:
a. Has the intercooler located after the compressor
b. Increases the volume of air being supplied
c. Allows more output at the turbine
d. Used only with axial type compressors
e. Are not as efficient
c
The combustion chamber of a gas turbine:

a. Increases the pressure of the compressed air

b. Burns fuel with excess air
c. Is located between the load turbine and the compressor turbine
d. Is always of the multiple burner type
e. Utilizes 70 % of the air supplied by the compressor for actual combustion process
b
A gas turbine combustion chamber requires:

a. A cooling water jacket on the inner canister

b. A vacuum breaker
c. A safety pressure relief device
d. A high voltage ignition plug for initial ignition
e. An annual hydrostatic test
d
The capacity of a gas turbine will increase in cold weather because:
a. High grades of fuel oil burn better at cooler temperatures
b. The density of the air is increased
c. The volume if the air will increase
d. The temperature drop throughout the cycle will be less
e. The atmospheric pressure will increase
b
Which of the following are advantages of a gas turbine:
1) Simple design
2) Low cost
3) Minimal manpower
4) Minimum outage time
5) Rapid starting

a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 1, 3, 4, 5
d. 3 ,4 ,5
e. 1, 2, 4, 5
d
Which of the following are disadvantages of a gas turbine?
1) Complicated design
2) High manufacturing costs
3) Slow response to load change
4) Low efficiency
5) Suitable for low power applications
a. 1, 3, 5
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 4, 5
e. 1, 2, 3
e
The term peaking gas turbine refers to:

a. Gas turbines that produce max power

b. Gas turbines used with peak horsepower
c. Gas turbines used during major outages
d. Gas turbines used every day
e. Gas turbines used in heavy load situations
e
Industrial gas turbines compared to aero-derivative turbines are:

a. Light weight
b. Rapid load changers
c. More efficient
d. Use all different fuels
e. Fast starting
d
In simple gas turbines the air is compressed to the following maximum pressures:
a. 2000 kPa
b. 2500 kPa
c. 3000 kPa
d. 3500 kPa
e. 4000 kPa
c
Gas turbine final combustion temperatures in a simple gas turbine are:

a. 1500ºC
b. 1700ºC
c. 1800ºC
d. 2100ºC
e. 2200ºC
d
Gas Temperatures at the simple gas turbine inlet section are at maximum:

a. 580ºC
b. 770ºC
c. 875ºC
d. 920ºC
e. 1000ºC to 1500
e
Gas Temperatures at the exhaust of a simple gas turbine are at maximum:
a. 500°C
b. 540°C
c. 760°C
d. 680°C
e. 640°C
e
Aero-derivative engines are aircraft jet engines that:

a. Are converted from a turbo prop engine

b. Are heavier in construction than a jet engine
c. Are closer in design to industrial gas turbines
d. Are more rapid in their startup than jet engines
e. Use less power turbine blades
a
In dual shaft Gas Turbines the load is driven by:

a. The high pressure turbine

b. The starting motor and low pressure turbine
c. The low pressure turbine
d. The exhaust gases from the combustion chamber
e. The output shaft from the compressor
c
The term open cycle means:

a. The compressor inlet is open to atmosphere

b. The compressor outlet is open to the combustion chambers
c. The turbine exhaust is open to atmosphere
d. The working fluid is drawn from and returned to the atmosphere
e. Every cycle the inlet and the outlet are open
d
What part of the gas turbine is normally smaller in dual shaft Gas Turbines:

a. The load
b. The combustion chambers
c. The starting motor
d. The compressor
e. The turbine blades
c
Closed cycle means:

a. Compressor outlet is closed and the inlet is open

b. Combustion chamber is heated internally
c. Combustion chamber is heated externally
d. The regenerator is not open on either side
e. The exhaust gases are not open to atmosphere
e
An advantage of Closed cycle is:
a. Cooling water lowers cost
b. Fuel is cheaper
c. Working fluid supports combustion
d. Pressures are lower so stress is lower on all the equipment
e. Complexity is less
b
Exhaust systems are required on Gas Turbines to:
1) Allow the installation of silencers
2) Allow the installation of heat recovery equipment
3) Direct the flow to heat recovery systems 4) Minimize power losses
5) Protect operators

a. 1, 3, 5
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 4, 5
e. 1, 3, 4
b
Gas Turbines enclosures are used to:
1) Protect equipment from the elements 2) Allows the incorporation of heat and gas detectors
3) Contains the gas turbine DCS controls 4) Keep the turbine from cooling down, more efficient
5) Provides ventilation systems

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 5
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 5
e. 3, 5, 1
b
Auxiliary systems on Gas Turbines are needed to:
1) Provide fuel at the proper temperature and pressures
2) Clean and treat fuels
3) Provide hydraulic fluid for bearing lubrication
4) Inject steam to clean the ducts and housing
5) Provide anti-icing

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 5
e. 2, 4, 5
d
Reducing gears on gas turbines are used:

a. To control speeds
b. To drive slower lube oil pumps
c. To drive slower hydraulic pumps
d. To match turbine and generator speeds
e. To increase horsepower
d
Advantages of gas turbines intakes are:
1) Remove contaminants
2) Prevent damage from foreign objects 3) Allow addition of special cooling systems 4) Smooth air flow into
the compressor
5) Decrease the velocity of the incoming air

a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 3, 4, 5, 1
d. 4, 5, 1, 2
e. 5, 1, 2, 3
a
Gas Turbines are rated by:

a. Output shaft power output vs. fuel energy rate

b. Power produced at the output shaft
c. Horsepower
d. Ratio of rated power to the fuel energy rate
e. Ratio of rated power to the LHV of the fuel
b
Improving gas turbine efficiency is done by: 1) Regeneration
2) Precooling
3) Aftercooling
4) Intercooling
5) Reheating

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 4, 5, 1
e. 1, 2, 5
d
Regenerators are installed:

a. Between the Lp and the Hp compressor sections

b. Between the Lp and the Hp turbine sections
c. Between the outlet and the LP turbine sections
d. Between the hp compressor and the combustor sections
e. Between the combustors and the Hp turbine sections
c
The beneficial effect of intercoolers decreases with:

a. Combining with regeneration

b. Pressure ratio increase
c. Colder cooling water
d. Smaller sized turbines
e. Higher air throughput
b
Reheat is accomplished by:

a. Expanding and heating the gases in two stages

b. Heating the gases after the Lp compressor section
c. Heating the gases between the Hp and Lp turbine
d. Heating the air between the Lp and Hp compressor stages
e. Heating the air between the Hp compressor and the Hp turbine sections
c
How much of the energy provided by the fuel, is absorbed by the compressor:

a. Up to 2/3
b. Up to 1/3
c. Up to 1/2
d. Up to 3/4
e. Up to ¼
a
The purpose if a compressor diffuser is to:

a. Convert the compressed air exiting the casing

b. Convert the compressed air exiting the impellor
c. Convert the high pressure air into velocity for the casing
d. Convert the high velocity air to pressure energy
e. Convert high velocity air to high pressure
d
The advantages of centrifugal over axial compressors are: ,
1) High capacity
2) Short length
3) High flow rates
4) Strength
5) Adjustable flow

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 4, 5
e. 2, 4
e
In axial flow compressors, compression occurs by:

a. Adjusting the stationary blades

b. Adjusting the rotating blades
c. Adjusting both stationary and rotating blades
d. The use of nozzle blocks between stages
e. Adjusting only the moving blades
c
In the combustors, how much air is utilized for fuel combustion:
a. 0.1
b. 0.2
c. 0.3
d. 0.4
e. 0.5
b
In the combustors, how much air bypasses the combustion chambers:

a. 0.9
b. 0.8
c. 0.7
d. 0.6
e. 0.5
b
The air bypassing the combustors is used for:

a. Increasing the mass of gas products flowing

b. Ensuring enough air for complete combustion
c. Raising the product temperatures flowing into the turbine blades
d. Raising the combustion efficiency
e. Cooling the turbine blades
e
The combustion chamber exit gas temperatures will reach a maximum of:

a. 1550°C
b. 1570°C
c. 1650°C
d. 1670°C
e. 1750°C
d
The turbine exits gas temperatures will be a maximum of:

a. 600°C
b. 700°C
c. 750°C
d. 800°C
e. 850°C
b
Large volume combustors are used when:

a. Simplicity is required
b. Frontal area is no concern
c. A regenerator is being used
d. Less complicated design is called for
e. Air flow path is less convoluted
c
The advantage of the Can-Annular design is:
a. Uniform outlet temperatures
b. Multiple ignitors ensure combustion
c. Fuel lines distribute fuel more rapidly
d. Is a more efficient use of space
e. If one can quits the others will keep working
a
In a single can combustor the interconnected tubes:

a. Decreases the number of ignitors used

b. Decreases the number injectors required
c. Decreases the complexity of the turbine
d. Decreases the pressures differences in each tube
e. Decreases the number of flame tubes required
d
Power is extracted in a gas turbine by:

a. Expanding the gases through the turbine blades

b. Attaching a generator to the turbine
c. Changing pressure to velocity to drive the turbine blades
d. Changing velocity to pressure to drive the turbine blades
e. Decreasing the hot gas temperature and pressure
e
There are fewer turbine blades than compressor blades because:

a. Energy can be extracted more efficiently

b. Turbine blades are bigger so require fewer
c. Higher exhaust temperatures can be tolerated
d. The hot gases occupy more volume
e. Hot exhaust gases are required for the HRSG's
a
Gas turbine blades are cooled to:

a. Increase power output to the HRSG

b. Increase metal temperatures out of the turbine
c. Increase the longevity of the blades
d. Increase flow rates through each section
e. Cool the temperatures going into the next section
c
The greatest limitation on increased turbine output is:

a. Turbine blade configurations

b. Heat resisting steels
c. Design limitations of the turbine shafts
d. Casing designs that allow flexing
e. Cost of expensive fuels
b
The maximum run time before blade replacement is:
a. 75,000 hours
b. 100,000 hours
c. 150,000 hours
d. 125,000 hours
e. 50,000 hours
b
Control of a gas turbine is accomplished by:

a. Varying the loading station

b. The power turbine all speed governor
c. Varying load on the generator
d. Varying the fuel flow
e. Controlling the shaft speed
d
Automatic emergency trips shut off the main fuel valve in the event of:

a. High exhaust temperatures

b. Differential pressures are too high across the filters
c. Inlet air temperatures exceed maximum
d. Compressor discharge pressures are too high
e. Compressor discharge temperatures are too high
a
Vibration accelerometers are used:

a. If journal or tilt pad bearings are used

b. To trip the turbine on rapid acceleration
c. To control the ramp speed on startup
d. On large industrial gas turbines
e. For anti-friction bearings
e
Protective devices will shutdown the turbine if:

a. Lube oil pressure is too high

b. Governor oil pressure is too low
c. Compressor air flow is too high
d. Combustor gas temperature is too low
e. Exhaust gas temperature is too high
e
Operators are allowed to control______________.

a. the air ratios to the combustors

b. the turbine speeds
c. the burner logic for the combustors
d. the turbine ramp rates for start up
e. the shut down sequencing
b
The performance of a gas turbine is calculated by________________.
a. the turbine efficiency
b. heat rate vs. power output
c. gas flow in vs. kWh out
d. gas flow in vs. power output
e. gas flow and pressure in vs. power output
b
The number one factor limiting turbine efficiency increases is________________________.

a. the blade metallurgy

b. the low compressor discharge pressures
c. the blade design configuration
d. the compression ratio
e. the reduction of pressure losses
d
Turbine inlet air temperature increases __________________.

a. increases the work done by the turbine

b. decreases the amount of fuel used for the same output
c. decreases the mass of gas flow in the turbine
d. improves overall combustion in the combustors
e. increases the power output of the compressor section
c
Maximum power achieved by a gas turbine is a function of______________________.

a. the number of turbine stops and starts every year

b. the number of times base load power output is exceeded
c. the number of times peak load is obtained in a year
d. the number of times operational limits are exceeded
e. life expectancy of hot gas components
e
The operating output of a gas turbine is effected the most by _________________________.

a. changing inlet air temperature

b. changing the heat valve of the fuel
c. changing the gas pressure to the combustors
d. changing the combustion flame pattern
e. changing from base loading to peak loading
a
Lube oil systems provide two basic functions.

a. Filtration and antifriction.

b. Lubricating sliding surfaces in the bearings and cool the bearings.
c. An adequate supply of oil to machinery and cooling machine parts.
d. Filtration and lubricate sliding surfaces.
e. Vibration dampening and cooling the bearings.
b
All major oil systems consist of what basic components?
1) An oil reservoir to ensure an adequate supply of oil
2) Filters to ensure the oil is clean
3) Pumps to provide pressure
4) Coolers to ensure oil temperatures are kept within operating limits
5) Protective, monitoring and control devices

a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 5
c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 5
e. 5
c
Gas turbines use what two different types of bearings?
1) Antifriction (roller and/or ball) bearings 2) Radial (journal or tilt-pad) bearings
3) Axial (spherical) bearings
4) Take-up (frame) bearings
5) Swing (levered) bearings

a. 1, 4
b. 1, 2
c. 1, 3
d. 2, 4
e. 4, 5
b
Why is natural gas the best fuel for a gas turbines?

a. It promotes the most efficient combustion and produces the lowest environmental emissions.
b. It is less expensive than other fuel sources.
c. It has the highest efficiency of combustion.
d. It has less contaminants as compared to other fuels sources.
e. It is a lower explosion risk than other fuels.
a
Routine maintenance on a gas turbine should involve checking for fuel leaks on a __________ basis.

a. yearly
b. monthly
c. weekly
d. daily
e. hourly
d
An essential auxiliary in a gas turbine installation is:

a. A generator
b. A reheater
c. A starting motor
d. An air heater
e. A water pump
c
Introducing warm air into the gas turbine intake as a result of an anti-icing system will?

a. Reduce the capacity of the unit, because warm air is less dense than cold air.
b. Form ice in the air intake.
c. Cause major damage resulting in catastrophic destruction of the compressor section blading.
d. Bleed air from the compressor.
e. Increase hot turbine exhaust.
a
What is the final step in the sequence of starting a Gas Turbine?

a. Preparation for startup

b. Loading
c. Warmup
d. Crank and lightoff
e. Start initiation
b
What is the first step in the normal shutdown of a gas turbine?

a. Reduce the speed to idle so the gas turbine can cool down.
b. Open the breaker that connects the generator to the power system.
c. Close the fuel valve.
d. Stop the rotor.
e. Stop the lube oil system.
a
In order to keep the gas pass of a gas turbine clean the following must be done:
1) Inspect and clean air intake filters
2) Water washing of compressor blades 3) Inspect and clean air intake ducts
4) Good quality fuel must be used

a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 3, 4
d
Why do microturbines require only air bearings:
1) No governing oil system
2) Small overall size
3) Simplicity of components
4) Everything on one shaft
5) No oil systems

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 2, 5
d. 3, 4
e. 4, 5
c
Most aero derivative turbines lube oil systems require?

a. Two back lube oil pumps

b. Separate inlet and outlet filter systems
c. Separate lube oil tanks and coolers
d. Separate lube oil systems
e. Separate back up pumps
d
Thrust bearings on dual shaft gas turbines are positioned:

a. At the front of the compressor and next to the turbine bearing.

b. At the front of both the compressor and the turbine section.
c. At the back of both the compressor section and the turbine section.
d. At the back of the compressor and next to the turbine bearing.
e. At the front and back of the turbine section.
a
Tilt pad bearings are used:
1) In aero-derivative gas turbines
2) According to the manufacturers specifications
3) On duel shaft industrial gas turbines
4) In large industrial gas turbines
5) With pivot pins

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 4, 5
e. 5, 1
d
Aero-derivative lube oil systems use a scavenge pump to:

a. Recycle oil form the cleaning system

b. Collects oil from all users for recycling
c. Siphons off small amounts of oil for cleaning
d. Collects oil from the supply and return filters for cleaning
e. Returns the oil from the bearings to the supply
e
Natural gas is the best fuel for gas turbines because:
1) No onsite storage
2) Most efficient combustion
3) Simplest control system
4) Highest heat value
5) Cleanest burning

a. 1, 3
b. 2, 4
c. 3, 5
d. 2, 5
e. 2, 3
d
A fuel gas compressor must be used on gas turbines if?

a. The complexity of the gas system reduces the gas pressure to low
b. The gas supply pressure is less than the compressor last stage pressure
c. The total pressure drop across the combustors is too great
d. Multiple gas nozzles drops the burner gas pressure too low
e. The combustor outlet pressure is greater the compressor outlet pressure
b
The most important component of a fuel metering system is?

a. Fuel gas Hi/Lo pressure switches

b. Duplex filters/separators
c. Fuel metering valve
d. Primary and secondary shut off valves
e. Fuel gas scrubber
c
The use of a low heating value (LHV) fuel requires:
a. Special nozzles and combustors
b. Higher pressure gas supply
c. Higher pressure gas compressors
d. Higher pressures from the compressor
e. Larger bore piping for high flow rates
a
Typical fuel gas metering valves are:

a. Pneumatically actuated
b. A type of pneumatic gas metering control valve
c. Hydraulically actuated
d. Electro-pneumatically actuated
e. Becoming electrically actuated
e
Gas Turbines use duel fuels for:
1) Consistent power delivery
2) Use as backup
3) Increasing overall power output
4) Switching to cheaper fuels
5) Less complicated controls during operation

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 2, 4
d. 3, 4
e. 4, 5
c
Fuel system daily maintenance checks consist of:
1) Checking the treatment components
2) Checking for fuel leaks
3) Checking fuel pressures and temperatures
4) Checking Delta P across the filters
5) Checking the protective devices

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 2, 4
e. 3, 5
b
The most important requirement in a Duel fuel system is:
a. Two types of fuels
b. Ability to burn both fuels together
c. A complex control system
d. Proper design of the combustors
e. Special fuel nozzles
e
Fuel treatment systems consist of :

a. Centrifuges, filters , strainers , pumps and related instrumentation

b. Filters, dewatering and chemical treatment
c. Centrifuges, filters, dewatering and chemical treatment
d. Dewatering and chemical treatment
e. Mechanical and chemical treatment
c
Chemicals harmful to the turbine section are:

a. Calcium, magnesium and phosphate

b. Calcium, potassium and silica
c. Potassium, calcium and magnesium
d. Sodium, vanadium and silica
e. Sodium, potassium, and vanadium
e
Two ways to decrease NOx are:
1) Lower the combustion temperature
2) Use staged air in the combustors
3) Utilize special burners
4) Decrease the fuel to air ratio
5) Operate with a lean fuel mixture

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 2, 4
d. 4, 5
e. 3, 5
d
The main disadvantage to water or steam injection is:
a. Reduced thermal efficiency
b. Corrosion of the rotating blades
c. Corrosion of the stationary blades
d. Corrosion of hot section components
e. Require ultra-pure water or steam
a
Dry low NOx combustion systems operate on:

a. Staged fuel burning

b. Lean premixed combustion
c. Bypass air cooling the flame temperature
d. Alternating the spray patterns of the burners
e. Injection of dry scrubbing compounds
b
Control of the dry low NOx burners is done by:

a. Adjustable flow nozzles

b. Rotating fuel nozzles
c. Using three gas headers to inject the fuel
d. Extensive solenoid gas staging system
e. Computer controlled fuel staging valves
d
The practical limit for NOx with steam or water injection for natural gas is:

a. 5 ppm
b. 10 ppm
c. 15 ppm
d. 20 ppm
e. 25 ppm
e

The practical lower limit for NOx for liquid fuels is:

a. 22 ppm
b. 32 ppm
c. 42 ppm
d. 52 ppm
e. 62 ppm
c
Starter systems are disengaged when the turbine shaft reaches:

a. Once the shaft speeding up

b. Once the turbine speed overruns the starting motor
c. 30% speed
d. 50% rated speed
e. Fuel is ignited
e
Which device is not used to start a gas turbine:

a. Small gas engines

b. Small diesel engines
c. Pneumatic starters
d. Electric motors
e. Steam turbine expanders
a
Remote gas pipeline stations use ___________ for starting gas turbines.

a. small gas engines

b. small diesel engines
c. pipeline gas
d. compressed air tugger motors
e. electro-hydraulic motors
c
Turning gears are used to:

a. Rotate the shaft every hour

b. Rotate the shaft 90 degrees every hour
c. Lower the stress on the starting motor
d. Prevent the shaft from locking
e. Prevents the shaft developing flat spots
d
Turning gears require:

a. Extensive cooling systems

b. Warm up and cool down on usage
c. A method to engage and or disengage the shaft
d. Variable frequency drive motors
e. Hydraulic coupling
c
The first piece on an air intake system is:

a. Mesh screen
b. Cooling coils
c. Heating coils
d. Guard filter
e. Drift eliminators
a
The air intake duct is mounted above the gas turbine enclosure to:

a. Lower the inlet air flow resistance

b. Keep the intake duct a short as possible
c. Make the enclosure more compact
d. Provide support for the filters
e. Place it in cleaner air
e
Inlet air temperatures to the gas turbine are reduced by:

a. Spray cooling
b. Fog cooling
c. Evaporative pads
d. Evaporative cooling
e. Refrigeration coils
d
Anti-icing systems are used to prevent:

a. Plugging of filters with ice

b. Damage to the duct work from icing
c. Blade damage
d. Too low an intake air temperature
e. Compressor surging
c
Anti-icing systems can cause:

a. Wetting of the paper filter elements

b. Lowering of the unit pressure ratio
c. Higher temperatures on the back end of the turbine section
d. Less air flow throughput
e. Higher costs for little gain
d
The preparation for startup of a gas turbine usually assumes:

a. Subsystem checkout first

b. Turning on the cooling water
c. Starting some auxiliary systems
d. Automatic operation at remote sites
e. It is done by operator interaction
d
When the gas turbine start button is pressed what will start first:

a. Lubrication pump start

b. Hydraulic pump start
c. Ventilation fans start
d. Gas valves close
e. Permissives are checked
c
Purging starts when:

a. The compressor runs up

b. Air flow is established
c. Compressor reaches maximum
d. Air flow reaches peak
e. Starter motor disengages
b
Startup after a trip is done by:

a. Satisfying all the 'permissives'

b. The operator initiating a restart
c. The computers re-initiating the startup
d. Resetting of the system
e. Selecting the manual restart on the screen
d
The Recycle valve is used to:

a. Load the compressor

b. Recycle hot compressor air for inlet warming
c. Allow the turbine to rapidly increase loading
d. Control the combustion in the combustion chambers
e. Recycle cooling air back to the combustion chamber
a
Loading is started when:

a. The generator is at minimum

b. After the warm up
c. The recycle valve is fully open
d. Pressures stabilize
e. The bleed valves are fully open
b
A rapid decrease in gas turbine speeds can result in:

a. Overcooling the unit

b. High pressures in the compressor sections
c. High pressures in the turbine sections
d. Failure of the recycle valve
e. Combustion being interrupted
e
Prior to lighting off the turbine the operator must:

a. Allow the speed to drop to idle

b. Allow the bleed valves to fully open
c. Check the guide vane position
d. Warm the turbine slowly
e. Open the fuel valves
d
The first step in a normal gas turbine shutdown is:

a. Close the fuel valve

b. Cool down the turbine
c. Reduce speed to idle
d. Open the recycle valve
e. Take load of the generator
c
Fast shutdowns should be avoided because___________.

a. of the rapid cool down

b. of increased wear on the unit
c. most gas valves can not react quick enough
d. will cause other units to trip
e. can cause flexing of the compressor blades
b
Turbine rotor speed on shutdown decreases once___________.

a. the cool down timer times out

b. the shaft speed decreases below preset limit
c. the turning gear takes over
d. the fuel valve closes
e. the main oil pump shuts down
d
Once the turbine rotor stops on some models_____________.

a. the barring gear starts

b. the cool down timer times out
c. the auxiliary oil pump starts
d. the main oil pump shuts down
e. the jacking oil pump starts
a
The fuel valve closing first on a shutdown is a sign of_________________.

a. an operator error
b. an emergency shutdown
c. a failure of the postlube pump
d. a failure of the cool down timer
e. a failure of the recycle valve
b
The purpose of a gas turbine water wash is to __________________.

a. clean the unit front to back

b. clean the combustion blades
c. clean the gas headers injectors and burners
d. clean the combustion chambers
e. clean the compressor blading
e
The cleaning of a gas turbine is accomplished by_____________.

a. taking the unit offline and washing each section individually

b. injecting cleaners into the gas or fuel system to clean the internals
c. shutting down the rotor
d. running a liquid or abrasive through the blades
e. injecting cleaners while the unit is running under load
d
A carbo-blast cleaning consists of__________________.

a. using carbon black to clean the unit

b. removing all the carbon by blasting it off with solvents
c. removing all the dirt by scrubbing the blades with rice
d. removing dirt and carbon with high pressure water
e. removing carbon from the gas passages, blades, and nozzles
c
Water wash is accomplished by_____________________.

a. using hard water to scrub the blades

b. using scrub water mixed with sodium, potassium and vanadium
c. injecting water and cleaning solvents into the compressor
d. by adding cleaning solvents to the turbine at one half load
e. by scrubbing all parts with brushes and solvents
c
Off-line washing is performed by____________________.

a. having the unit isolated and the speed at zero

b. injecting cleaners into the inlet at 50% rated speed
c. injecting cleaners at 30% rated speed
d. injecting cleaners into the inlet at zero shaft speed
e. injecting cleaners at crank speed
e
Water or steam injection reduces NOX emissions from a gas turbine by:

a. Creating a reaction environment to bind the NOX compounds

b. Preventing corrosion
c. Dropping the combustion temperature
d. Facilitating the production of H2 NO3
e. Allowing the removal of excess steam from the combustion process chamber
c
An example of an internal combustion engine is:

a. A diesel engine
b. A steam engine
c. A steam turbine
d. A gas turbine
e. An air compressor
A
A two-stroke cycle engine has a power stroke every:

a. Two crank shaft revolutions

b. Four crank shaft revolutions
c. Crank shaft revolution
d. One half revolution
e. One half revolution
C
The distinguishing characteristics of the gasoline engine
are________________________________________.

a. vaporized gasoline mixed with air is drawn into the cylinder during the intake
stroke
b. ignition is achieved by means of a spark plug
c. governing takes place by throttling the air-fuel mixture
d. the fuel is injected at high pressure
e. four stroke cycle
B
The major differences of the diesel engine compared to the gasoline engine are:

1) The charge drawn into the cylinder is air only

2) The fuel is injected at high pressure at the beginning of the compression stroke
3) Ignition is due to the high temperature resulting from the compression of the air
4) The fuel is injected at high pressure at the end of the compression stroke
5) The fuel is injected into the engine cylinder at a high temperature

a. 1, 3, 4
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 4, 5
e. 2, 4, 5
A
Scavenging is:

a. The supplying of air for combustion

b. The removal of exhaust gases from the cylinder
c. Used in all diesel engines
d. Usually used in four-stroke cycle engines
e. Recirculation of exhaust gases to reduce emissions
B
A two-stroke cycle diesel engine:
a. Always has valves
b. Has difficulty removing exhaust gas from the cylinder
c. Are always of a uniflow type of action
d. Always use scavenging air
e. Requires oil mixed in the air for lubrication
B
During the compression stroke of a diesel engine, the temperature may be as high
as________.

a. 250°C
b. 350°C
c. 450°C
d. 650°C
e. 850°C
D
The oil scraper ring in a diesel engine is located:

a. Above the compression rings

b. On the crank shaft
c. On the bottom portion of the piston
d. Next to the camshaft
e. In between the two compression rings
C
The pistons used on a diesel engine are commonly made of _____ or _____.

1) stainless steel
2) aluminum alloy
3) carbon steel
4) cast iron

a. 1, 3
b. 1, 4
c. 2, 3
d. 1, 2
e. 2, 4
E
An engine that has a/an _____ has the oil contained within the engine crankcase.

a. wet sump type

b. dry sump type
c. gravity feed reservoir
d. outside storage
e. underground storage
A
Cylinder liners in diesel engines are usually constructed of
______________________.

a. cast iron
b. aluminum
c. white-metal
d. carbon steel
e. alloy steel
A
Diesel piston crowns are usually ____________.

a. convex
b. concave
c. flat
d. contoured
e. none of the above
B
Most pistons in large internal combustion engines are provided with
______________.
a. four rings
b. three rings
c. five rings
d. six rings
e. two rings
C
Connecting rods are hollow bored to convey lubricating oil to
the_______________________.

a. gudgeon pins
b. pistons
c. camshaft
d. cylinder walls
e. piston skirt
A
Connecting rods are usually made of_______________.

a. carbon steel
b. forged steel
c. aluminum
d. cast iron
e. aluminum alloy
B
The purpose of the rocker arm is to operate_______________.

a. the camshaft
b. the push rods
c. the oil pump
d. the inlet valves
e. the exhaust valves
D
The wet type of cylinder liner is________________.

a. water cooled
b. oil cooled
c. made of white-metal
d. submerged partly in oil
e. all of the above
A
The fuel injector_________________________________.

a. injects a mixture of fuel and air into the cylinder

b. injects fuel in the cylinder during the intake stroke
c. has a fuel injection nozzle
d. is used in conjunction with spark ignition
e. None of the above
C
The purpose of the carburetor is to:

1) Mix the fuel and air

2) Atomize the fuel
3) Heat the mixture of fuel and air
4) Control the amount of air-fuel mixture to the engine
5) Produce a vacuum to draw fuel into the engine

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 4, 5
e. 1, 3, 4, 5
D
The purpose of the coil in a battery ignition system is to:

a. Increase the voltage to the plugs

b. Decrease the voltage to the plugs
c. Prevent an arc across points
d. To protect the resistor
e. To interrupt the primary current quickly
A
The choke in a carburetor produces a very rich air-fuel mixture for cold engine
starts.

a. True
b. False
A
A magneto ignition system:

a. Does not require a coil

b. Produces ac power
c. Produces a hotter spark at high speeds
d. Does not require points
e. Does not require a condenser
C
In the distributor system for the injection of fuel into a diesel cylinder:

a. Two pumps are used

b. One pump is used
c. One pump is used for each cylinder
d. Only a metering pump is used
e. None of the above
A
In the common rail system used for injection of fuel into the diesel cylinder:

a. The fuel is injected into the cylinder by the fuel pump

b. The fuel is injected into the cylinder by the injector
c. The system requires two pumps
d. The system does not require a return from the injector
e. The excess fuel returns directly to the inlet of the pump
B
The solid injection method includes:

1) Individual pump system

2) Distributor system
3) Common rail system
4) Air injection system

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3
e. 1, 3, 4
D

The air injection system supplies air to the cylinder before compression.
In the common rail system of fuel injection, the fuel is pumped from the tank by a
________________________.

a. low pressure pump to the filter

b. low pressure pump to the distributor
c. high pressure pump to the injector
d. high pressure pump to the distributor
e. low pressure pump to the injector
E
Superchargers are _______________________________.

a. used to force more air-fuel mixture into the cylinder of a diesel engine
b. used to force more air only into the cylinder of a gasoline engine
c. are usually of the rotary screw or the centrifugal type
d. used to increase power output
e. are never used on gasoline engines
D

Superchargers are only on gasoline engines

In the turbo charger:

a. The exhaust gases are cooled before entering the turbine.

b. The air is cooled before it enters the turbo charger to increase its' density.
c. The air is cooled after the centrifugal blower to decrease the density of the air.
d. The air is cooled after the centrifugal blower to increase the density of the air.
e. The exhaust gases drive the centrifugal blower which drives the gas turbine.
D
The pressure at the discharge of a supercharger may be as high as__________.

a. 100 kPa
b. 120 kPa
c. 10 kPa
d. 30 kPa
e. 140 kPa
E

From 30 to 140 kPa

Diesel engines frequently employ extra cooling for the pistons by?

1) Circulating oil through passages in the piston

2) Spraying oil on the underside of the piston
3) Increasing the water flow in the cylinder water jackets
4) Decreasing the temperature of the cooling water

a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 3
d. 2, 4
e. 1, 2, 4
A
In a closed-cooling system for an internal combustion engine:

a. The pump is on the high water temperature side of the engine.

b. The pump is on the low water temperature side of the engine.
c. The expansion tank is on the water supply side of the engine.
d. The cooling water is circulated intermittently.
e. None of the above
B
Closed circuit cooling systems incorporate ____________.

a. a heat exchanger
b. a raw-water supply which passes through the engine
c. a check valve
d. an aluminum coil
e. mechanical coolers
A
Lubrication of the internal combustion engine is necessary in order to:

1) Reduce friction between moving parts

2) Reduce wear of parts
3) Provide cooling of engine parts
4) Keep parts clean
5) Increase the life of the valves
6) Seal between pistons and cylinder walls

a. 1, 2, 3, 5
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
c. 3, 4, 5, 6
d. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
e. 1, 3, 5, 6
B
The four-cycle engine is lubricated by thoroughly mixing a measured quantity of
lubricating oil with the gasoline.

a. True
b. False
B
The oil filter in a large diesel engine lubricating system is
________________________________.

a. placed on the suction side of the pump

b. between the pump and oil cooler
c. not always required
d. between the return line and the sump
e. None of the above
E

Oil is pumped from the bedplate then through an oil filter and cooler.
Large diesel engines most commonly use ________ for rotation of the engine during
starting.

a. compressed nitrogen
b. compressed natural gas
c. compressed air
d. compressed oxygen
e. All of the above
C
The approximate air pressure required for starting a large internal combustion
engine is ___________.

a. 21000 kPa
b. 1500 kPa
c. 1000 kPa
d. 210 kPa
e. 2100 kPa
E
When high-pressure air is used to start an internal combustion engine, the air is
applied to the _________ .

a. supercharger
b. turbo charger
c. intake valve
d. cylinders
e. crankcase
D
When high-pressure air is used to start an internal combustion engine, the air is
applied to the supercharger.

a. True
b. False
B
The governor in a spark ignition engine controls
_______________________________________.

a. the quantity of fuel entering the cylinders

b. the quantity of fuel-air mixture to engine cylinder
c. the spark
d. the quantity of air-fuel mixture entering the carburetor
e. None of the above
B
The governor in an internal combustion engine regulates
_________________________________.

a. the quantity of air to a gasoline engine

b. the quantity of air to a diesel engine
c. the quantity of air and fuel to a diesel engine
d. the quantity of fuel to a gasoline engine
e. None of the above
E

In a spark ignition engine it regulates the air-fuel mixture entering the cylinders

In a compression ignition engine it varies the amount of fuel entering the cylinder.
The amount of air stays the same
The fuel injection system used for diesel engines is called
the______________________________.

a. fluid injection system

b. spray injection system
c. continuous injection system
d. solid injection system
e. turbo injection system
D
In a diesel engine with a supercharging system, the amount of fuel burned is
______________.
a. increased
b. decreased
c. constant
d. increased during start up and decreased at operating speed
e. increased during shut down
A
By using exhaust gas to drive a turbo charge, the exhaust temperature is
__________________________.

a. increased
b. decreased
c. constant
d. decreased during start up and increased at operating speed
e. constant but decreased during shut down
B

A turbo charger can reduce the exhaust temperature by 200 degrees C

For high compression diesel engines:

a. 95% of the heat is converted to work and 5% to waste.

b. 80% of the heat is converted to work and 20% to waste.
c. 70% of the heat is converted to work and 30% to waste.
d. 50% of the heat is converted to work and 50% to waste.
e. 10% of the heat is converted to work and 90% to waste.
C
The coolant circulation method used for a cooling water system of a diesel engine is
the ____________________.

a. natural circulation method

b. condensate return system
c. return trap system
d. vacuum pump with a condensate return system
e. forced circulation with a centrifugal pump
E
A typical lubrication system for a medium sized diesel engine is a
_________________________.

a. natural feed
b. return circulation
c. splash feed
d. forced feed
e. spray feed
D
A supply of oil to a turbocharger is for reason of:

1) Heating the unit

2) Lubricating the high speed bearings
3) Cooling the rotor
4) Driving the turbocharger
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 1, 4
d. 2, 3
e. 2, 4
D
The cylinder lubrication of small diesel engines is generally_____________.

a. splash
b. spray
c. forced
d. natural
e. upfeed
A
The compressor supplying compressed air to the cylinder of a large diesel engine is
generally driven by_____________.

a. a steam engine
b. a steam turbine
c. a gas turbine
d. a turbo charger
e. an electric motor
E
An electric starter motor powered by a storage battery may start engines up
to_______________.

a. 1000 kw
b. 1500 kw
c. 2000 kw
d. 2500 kw
e. 3000 kw
A
In a hydraulic starting system for a diesel engine, to turn over the
engine___________________________.

a. oil flows from the filter to the hydraulic motor, causing rotation
b. oil flows from the accumulator to the hydraulic motor, causing rotation
c. oil flows from the reservoir to the hydraulic motor, causing rotation
d. oil flows from the engine driven hydraulic pump to the motor, causing rotation
e. oil flows from the hand pump to hydraulic motor, causing rotation
B
In order to keep a large diesel engine running smoothly and efficiently, the following
items must be continuously monitored:

1) Oil level, temperature and pressure

2) Cooling system, temperature and pressure
3) Engine speed
4) Cooling system, temperature and pressure
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
E
In the digital type of monitoring and control system for a large diesel engine, it
utilizes a/an ______________ to take input from the engine sensors.

a. G.P.S.
b. D.C.M.
c. I.C.M.
d. E.C.M.
e. T.C.M
D
An engine governor is used to regulate the ___________ of an internal combustion
engine.

a. speed
b. exhaust
c. pressure
d. temperature
e. life span
A
Before starting a large industrial diesel engine, special care should be taken to see
that the ___________________.

a. tires' pressure are correct

b. fuel tank is full
c. the engine room is well lit
d. the floor is free of oil spills
e. the fuel injection pump is primed
E
Before starting a large industrial diesel engine, to ensure that all valves work freely
in their guides, __________ is applied to the valve system.

a. a little clean kerosene

b. a little clean gasoline
c. a little clean water
d. a little clean diesel
e. a little clean sulphuric acid
A
While starting a large industrial diesel engine, the oil pressure may not go above the
low oil pressure trip setting until the engine has started up, therefore a/an
__________ switch is pushed in to override the trip.

a. crossover
b. overriding
c. interlocking
d. by-pass
e. equalizing
D
If possible, an industrial size diesel engine should start up with _________ load until
normal operating temperature has been reached.

a. no
b. high
c. medium
d. full
e. extra
A
Shortly after a large diesel engine is started up and the oil pressure is increased to
above the trip setting, the bypass switch is to be returned to the ____________
position.

a. off
b. run
c. hand
d. controlled
e. manual
B
The purpose of the push rod is to operate the:

a. Camshaft.
b. Rocker arm.
c. Oil pump.
d. Inlet valves.
e. Exhaust valves.
B

Push rod goes from the cam shaft to the rocker arm
The choke in a carburetor produces a _____ mixture for cold engine starts.
a. Lean air-fuel.
b. Rich air-fuel.
c. Wet air-fuel.
d. Dry air-fuel.
e. Rich air-oil.
B
The pressure of the air at the end of the diesel compression stroke may be as high
as:

a. 1,000 kPa.
b. 2,100 kPa.
c. 3,100 kPa.
d. 4,100 kPa.
e. 5,100 kPa.
A

Pressure at the end of the compression stroke will be from 2750 to 4100 kPa
The four-cycle engine is lubricated by:
a. Mixing lubricating oil with the gasoline.
b. An oil pressure system.
c. A drip oil system.
d. Brass bushings.
e. Semi-solid lubricants.
B
Some large internal combustion engine crankcases are equipped with:

a. Crankcase inspection doors.

b. Temperature wells.
c. Cooling water jackets.
d. Manholes.
e. Crankcase governors.
A

Might be referred to as "windows"

Internal combustion engines may be divided into _____ .

a. Two groups, type of fuel and method of ignition.

b. Four groups, type of fuel, method of ignition, two-cycle and four-cycle.
c. Three groups, type of fuel, method of ignition and working cycle.
d. Four groups, type of fuel, type of lubricant, two-cycle and four-cycle.
e. One group, working cycle.
C

"Working Cycle" means the number of strokes that constitute a working cycle
The solid injection system uses the following designs or variations:

1. Individual pump.
2. Air injection.
3. Distributor.
4. Common rail.

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 1, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
D
The major differences of the diesel engine compared to the gasoline engine are:

1. The charge drawn into the cylinder is air only.

2. The fuel is injected at high pressure at the beginning of the compression stroke.
3. Ignition is due to the high temperatures resulting from the compression of the air.
4. The fuel is injected at high pressure at the end of the compression stroke.
5. The fuel is injected in to the engine cylinder at a high temperature.

a. 1, 3, 4
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 4, 5
e. 2, 4, 5
A
The distinguishing characteristics of the gasoline engine are:

1. Vaporized gasoline mixed with air is drawn into the cylinder during the intake
stroke
2. Ignition is achieved by means of a spark plug
3. Governing takes place means of a spark plug
4. Ignition takes place by throttling the fuel air mixture
5. Ignition takes place by compressing the fuel

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 4, 5
e. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
A
The "V"-form of diesel engine has:

a. One camshaft.
b. Two camshafts.
c. Three camshafts.
d. No camshaft.
e. Two crankshafts.
B
The governor in a diesel engine controls the:

a. Supercharger.
b. Fuel pump.
c. Scavenging air.
d. Air/fuel mixture to the cylinder.
e. Air to the cylinder.
B
The oil priming pump in an internal combustion engine is used:

a. Before start up.

b. After shut down.
c. To lubricate the governor.
d. To lubricate the supercharger.
e. To lubricate the fuel pump.
A
A distinguishing characteristic of a gasoline engine is:

a. Vaporized gasoline mixed with air is drawn into the cylinder during the intake
stroke.
b. Ignition is achieved compression of air.
c. Governing takes place by throttling the fuel.
d. The fuel is injected at high pressure.
e. Four stroke cycle.
A
In the opposed piston diesel engine the power from the upper crankshaft is
transmitted to the lower crankshaft by:

a. A chain.
b. A belt.
c. A coupling.
d. Bevel gears.
e. Hydraulic fluid.
D
The two stroke gas engine finds application where:

a. Low speed is required.

b. Large sizes are required.
c. High torque at low speed is required.
d. Minimum size, weight and high speed is required.
e. Low speed and low torque applications.
D
Either of two basic systems can be used for the injection of the fuel, into the diesel
cylinder. They are:

a. Solid injection system and distributor system.

b. Solid injection system and air injection system.
c. Air injection system and common rail system.
d. Air injection system and distributor system.
e. Solid injection system and common rail system.
B
The purpose of the starter bypass in a battery ignition system is to:

a. Increase the current to the starter

b. Prevent the starter from being activated by mistake
c. Protect the battery
d. Increase the coil voltage
e. Protect the resistor
D
In a simple flyweight governor:

a. Decreasing spring tension increases the controlled speed.

b. Spring tension prevents weights from moving inward.
c. Increasing spring tension increases the controlled speed.
d. Increasing spring tension decreases the controlled speed.
e. The weights move inward on an increase in speed.
C
Overheating of an internal combustion engine is caused by:

a. Oil leaks.
b. Fuel injection occurring too late.
c. Using an unsuitable oil.
d. Operating with a light load.
e. The oil being diluted with fuel.
B
Some _____ may be operated in reverse rotation. The standard is anti-clockwise
looking on the free end.

a. Gas turbine engines

b. Steam turbine engines
c. Internal combustion engines
d. Centrifugal pumps
e. Alternators
C
If adequate cooling is not provided for an internal combustion engine:

a. Piston and cylinder may be damaged due to rapid condensation of the lubrication
oil.
b. Exhaust valves may become burned.
c. Pistons may seize due to contraction.
d. The carburetor will seize.
e. The crankshaft will over speed.
B
The pressure and temperature of the air at the end of the diesel compression stroke
may be as high as:

a. 50,000 kPa and 700 oC

b. 30,000 kPa and 600 oC
c. 40,000 kPa and 1000 oC
d. 3,000 kPa and 850 oC
e. 3,000 kPa and 540 oC
E

That's probably the most suitable answer since:

Temp: 540 to 650 degrees C
Pressure: 2750 to 4100 kPa
The four stroke engine finds application where:

a. Light weight is required

b. High torque at low speed is required
c. Portability is required
d. Light oils such as kerosene are used for fuel
e. High speed is required
B
Rough running of a diesel engine is caused by:

1. Injection timed to late

2. Overheated bearing surface
3. Injection timed to early
4. Light loads
5. Improper grade of fuel

a. 1, 3, 5
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 3, 4, 5
e. 2, 4, 5
A
The dual fuel engine may operate on:

a. 100% gas air mixture

b. Between 35% and 100% fuel oil
c. Between 50% and 100% fuel oil
d. Between 5% and 100% fuel oil
e. Between 75% and 100% fuel oil
D
A two stroke engine has a power stroke every:

a. Two crank shaft revolutions

b. Four crank shaft revolutions
c. One crank shaft revolution
d. One half crank shaft revolution
e. One quarter crank shaft revolution
C
Smoky exhaust from a diesel engine is caused by:

a. Weak compression
b. Excessive oil reaching the combustion chamber
c. Misfiring
d. Inadequate air supply
e. All of the above
E
The camshaft in large internal combustion engines is driven by a/an:

a. Belt.
b. Electric motor.
c. Eccentric gear.
d. Chain.
e. Hydraulic pump.
D
Co-generation can be defined as:

a. Having two steam generation units in one plant.

b. The utilization of steam for process and power generation purposes.
c. The utilization of waste heat of a steam boiler to heat feedwater.
d. The utilization of one form of input energy to generate two or more forms of output
energy.
e. The utilization of two forms of input energy to generate one single form of output energy.
D
The primary purpose of cogeneration is_____________________.

a. to reduce the equipment cost

b. to increase the life span of equipment
c. to reduce the prices of natural gas
d. to reduce staffing cost
e. to reduce the energy cost
E
The advantages as compared to conventional facilities of cogeneration at micro (local) level
include:

1) Reduction in the total energy bill when electricity is required at the site
2) It is generally more compact and less maintenance required as compared to the
conventional facilities
3) Reduction of load demand on heavier polluting, coal-fired facilities
4) Shorter start up time

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
B
The applications of cogeneration can befall into which of the following areas:

1) Institutional establishments
2) Large scale industries plants
3) Localized central and heating and cooling plant
4) Theatres and restaurants

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
A
Which of the following are the types of simple-cycle cogeneration used today:

1) Back Pressure Steam Turbine

2) Waste Heat Cogeneration
3) Heat Engine Cogeneration
4) Gas Turbine
5) Condensing steam turbine

a. 1, 2, 3, 5
b. 1, 2, 4, 5
c. 1, 3, 5
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
E
Which one of the following simple-cycle cogeneration systems best describes this process?
"Steam produced from a boiler drives a steam turbine, which in turn drives the electric
generator. The low pressure exhaust steam from the turbine is supplying the required heat
to the process. The condensed steam from the process is then returned to the boiler."

a. Back Pressure Steam Turbine

b. Condensing Steam Turbine
c. Waste Heat Cogeneration
d. Heat Engine Cogeneration
e. Gas Turbine
A
Which one of the following simple-cycle cogeneration systems best describes this process?
"The waste heat produced by the gas turbine passes through an exhaust heat boiler. The
steam produced by the boiler is used for heating purposes and for an absorption
refrigeration system".

a. Back Pressure Steam Turbine

b. Condensing Steam Turbine
c. Waste Heat Cogeneration
d. Heat Engine Cogeneration
e. Gas Turbine
E
Which one of the following simple-cycle cogeneration systems best describes the process?
"Fuel burned to produce heat for a process and then to use the waste heat from the
process to produce steam in the boiler. The steam from the boiler is fed to the steam
turbine to turn an electric generator. The low pressure exhaust steam from the steam
turbine is used to drive another turbine on to provide heat to the feedwater heaters."

a. Back Pressure Steam Turbine

b. Condensing Steam Turbine
c. Waste Heat Cogeneration
d. Heat Engine Cogeneration
e. Gas Turbine
C
Which one of the following simple-cycle cogeneration system best describes this process?
"The heat engine turns and electric generator and the exhaust gases from the heat engine
provides the heat source for the heat recovery unit".

a. Back Pressure Steam Turbine

b. Condensing Steam Turbine
c. Waste Heat Cogeneration
d. Heat Engine Cogeneration
e. Gas Turbine
D

"Heat Engine" cogeneration also known as "Internal Combustion (IC) engine cogeneration
Combined cycle cogeneration refers to the production of electricity from
__________________________________.

a. one source utilizing one fuel source

b. two sources utilizing two fuel sources
c. two sources utilizing one fuel source
d. one source utilizing two fuel sources
e. three sources utilizing one fuel source
C
Which one of the following cogeneration systems best describes this process? "The fuel is
burned in a conventional gas turbine combustor. The gas turbine is connected to an
electrical generator. The exhaust from the gas turbine is then used as combustion air to mix
with fuel burned in the boiler. The steam produced from the boiler is used to drive a steam
turbine which is connected to a second electrical generator".

a. Back Pressure Steam Turbine Cogeneration

b. Waste Heat Cogeneration
c. Gas Turbine Cogeneration
d. Combined-cycle Steam/Gas Turbine Cogeneration
e. Combined-cycle Gas/Steam Turbine Cogeneration
E
Which one of the following cogeneration systems requires neither an FD nor ID fans for the
boiler?

a. Back Pressure Steam Turbine

b. Condensing Steam Turbine
c. Open Cycle Gas Turbine
d. Combined-cycle Steam/Gas Turbine
e. Combined-cycle Gas/Steam Turbine
E
Which one of the following cogeneration systems best describes this process? "The
compressor driven by the gas turbine supplies pressurized combustion air to mix with fuel
and burned in the boiler. The steam produced by the boiler is used to drive a steam turbine
which is connected to an electrical generator. The exhaust gases from the boiler are then
fed to the gas turbine which is connected to a second electrical generator."

a. Back Pressure Turbine

b. Waste Heat
c. Gas Turbine
d. Combined-cycle Steam/Gas Turbine
e. Combined-cycle Gas/Steam Turbine
D
The term HRSG stands for:

a. High Return Steam Generator

b. Heat Recovery Superheated Generator
c. Hot Return Steam Generator
d. Heat Recovery Steam Generator
e. Heat Return Steam Generator
D
Which one of the following cogeneration systems best describes this? "The system
consists of a gas turbine, steam turbine, electrical generators (driven by the gas and steam
turbines) and a fixed HRSG unit."

a. Fully Fixed Combined-cycle

b. Steam/Gas Turbine Combined-cycle
c. Gas/Steam Turbine Combined-cycle
d. Back Pressure Steam/Gas Turbine Combined-cycle
e. Condensing Steam/Gas Turbine Combined-cycle
A

The book says "Fully-Fired Combined-Cycle"

A HRSG extracts most of its heat energy from the exhaust of a gas turbine and the
remainder of the required heat energy to run the steam turbine is supplied by:

a. The flue gases of the auxiliary boiler

b. Burning fuel in a series of auxiliary burners
c. The heat from the exhaust heat boiler
d. Increasing the input energy to the gas turbine
e. A separately fired heater independent of the HRSG
B
The advantages of a combined-cycle cogeneration plant as compared to a conventional,
steam generating plant:

1) Higher production of electrical energy

2) Higher thermal efficiency
3) Lower emissions to atmosphere
4) Lower fuel consumption

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
E
In Combined cycles systems the term pressurized
means___________________________________.

a. the HRSG is under steam pressure

b. the gas turbine exhaust is fed into the boiler
c. the combustion chamber is under air pressure
d. the boiler is fed by forced and induced draft fans
e. the gas turbine is pressurized from the boiler
B
A single shaft combined-cycle power plant can be arranged so
that________________________________.

a. the steam turbine is between the generator and the gas turbine
b. the gas turbine is between the generator and the steam turbine
c. the generator is between the gas turbine and the steam turbine
d. the generator is between the HRSG and the steam turbine
e. the generator is between the HRSG and the gas turbine
C
A single shaft combined-cycle power plant can be arranged so that
_________________________________.

a. the HRSG unit is between the gas turbine and the steam turbine
b. the HRSG unit is between the generator and the steam turbine
c. the generator is between the HRSG and the steam turbine
d. the gas turbine drives the generator and the exhaust gas from the gas turbine enters the
HRSG
e. the boiler flue gases enter the gas turbine which drives the generator with a HRSG
providing additional heat energy
D
The benefits of a combined-cycle with a single shaft gas/steam turbine arrangement are:

1) High level of thermal efficiency

2) Low capital cost
3) Fast start up and shut down
4) Short construction time
5) Low maintenance cost

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
E

Fast start up and shut down also refers to "higher operating flexibility"
The HRSG used to raise the temperature of the saturated steam before entering the steam
turbine in a dual shaft combined-cycle power plant
arrangement____________________________.

a. has a series of auxiliary burners

b. receives heat energy from the exhaust gas of the gas turbine
c. receives heat energy from the exhaust gas of the steam boiler
d. receives heat energy from a number of outside sources
e. has separately fired unit to increase heat energy
B
Multi-shaft combined-cycle power plant has high efficiency at ______ operation.

a. high load
b. low load
c. base load
d. variable load
e. medium load

When the fuel supplied first produces electrical power with the thermal energy produced as
a by-product. This cogeneration system is called the:
a. Waste Heat Cycle
b. Gas Turbine Cycle
c. Heat Engine Cycle
d. Topping Cycle
e. Bottoming Cycle
D
When the fuel supplied produces high temperature thermal energy for processes and the
heat exhausted from these processes is used to produce electrical energy from a HRSG.
The cogeneration system is called the:

a. Waste Heat Cycle

b. Gas Turbine Cycle
c. Heat Engine Cycle
d. Topping Cycle
e. Bottoming Cycle
E
The ______ system has the electrical production from the cogeneration system fixed at
maximum and changing electrical requirements met by the electrical utility grid.

a. home based
b. base loaded
c. set electrical demand
d. constant based
e. demand based
B
The _____ system has the electrical supply from the utility grid fixed and the cogeneration
system looks after changing the electrical requirements.

a. home based
b. base Loaded
c. set electrical demand
d. constant based
e. demand based
C
In a cogeneration system the thermal load can be controlled by which two of the following
strategies:

1) Fixed production of a minimum thermal energy

2) Varying requirements for thermal energy
3) Base loaded for maximum thermal energy
4) Topping for minimum thermal energy

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 1, 3
d. 2, 4
e. 1, 4
A

15-Jul
Fixed production of a minimum thermal energy for thermal load control strategy of a
cogeneration system is achieved by:

a. Varying the prime mover output and fixed the thermal energy output.
b. Operating the prime mover at constant maximum output and adjust the thermal
requirements by other means.
c. Operating the prime mover at full load and fixed the thermal requirements by other
means.
d. Varying both the prime mover and the auxiliary firing equipment outputs.
e. Adjusting the thermal energy output of the auxiliary firing equipment.
B

7-15 The production of the thermal energy is fixed at the minimum requirements for the
site, and the prime mover will operate at full load, all the time. Further thermal requirements
are met using other boilers or auxiliary firing.
During low thermal requirement periods of a cogeneration system a diverter valve is used
to:

a. Direct the exhaust gases from the HRSG to the atmosphere.

b. Direct the thermal energy from the duct burner to the atmosphere.
c. Direct the excess electrical energy to another utility grid.
d. Direct the thermal energy from the gas turbine to the duct burner.
e. Direct the exhaust gases from the gas turbine to the atmosphere.
E
When additional thermal energy is required in a cogeneration system, a _____ is often
used for this purpose.

a. HRSG
b. Gas Turbine
c. Boiler
d. Duct Burner
e. Unit Heater
D
The main application for HRSG, WHRG and TEG on a cogeneration system is for:

a. Heat generation to drive the gas turbine.

b. Mechanical energy generation utilizing the gas turbine exhaust gases.
c. Electrical generation utilizing the gas turbine exhaust gases.
d. Steam generation utilizing the gas turbine exhaust gases.
e. Light energy generation utilizing the gas turbine exhaust gases.
D
The design the HRSG in a cogeneration system depends on:

1) Thermal requirements
2) Mechanical requirements
3) Electrical requirements
4) Volumetric requirements

a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 1, 4
d. 2. 3
e. 2, 4
B
Some HRSG boilers of the once through forced circulation design equipped with high alloy
tubes and it can:

a. Operate with high velocity water flow through the tubes.

b. Operate with high volume water flow through the tubes.
c. Operate with low steam flow through the tubes.
d. Operate without water flow through the tubes.
e. Operate without chemical treatment for the boiler.
D
Cogeneration systems can be designed to burn various fuels and these fuels can produce
the following gases which will affect the environment negatively:

1) SO
2) NOX
3) C2H4
4) CO2

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
B
The production of nitrous oxides leads to_____________________.

a. alkaline corrosion
b. scaling of the boiler tubes
c. high Ph level in the boiler water
d. low Ph level in the boiler water
e. acid rain
E
_____ and _____ can be used in a HRSG to reduce NOX leaving the HRSG.

a. Steam and NH3

b. CO2 and NH3
c. SO2 and NH3
d. H2O and NH3
e. CO2 and SO2
A

NH3 is ammonia which is injected prior to the catalyst in an SCR (selective catalytic
reduction) system
_____ is well known for its contribution to the greenhouse effect.

a. C4H82
b. CO
c. CO3
d. CO2
e. CH3
D
In order to counter the corrosion nature of the condensate produced from burning fuel with
a high sulphur content, a _________ heat exchanger is installed in the condensing heat
recovery systems.

a. plastic lined
b. mild steel
c. high carbon steel
d. high alloy steel
e. stainless steel
E
Cogeneration systems with an IC engine connected to a HRWH can obtain good efficiency
in ______ systems.

a. heavy industry
b. normal household
c. small industry
d. small air conditioning
e. large heating
C
The water jackets on an IC engine with a HRWH is designed to:

1) Cool the air surrounding the engine.

2) Recover the waste heat from the engine.
3) Cool the engine.
4) Cool the lubricating oil.

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
E
When an IC engine is used as part of a cogeneration system, the added advantages are:

1) Higher power to weight rates than the gas turbine.

2) Ambient temperature does not affect the electrical energy output.
3) Higher thermal efficiency than a conventional gas.
4) Capability of intermittent operation.

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 1, 3
e. 2, 4
E
HRWH stands for:
a. Heat Recovery Waste Heater
b. Heat Recovery Water Hydrotreater
c. Heat Recovery Water Heater
d. Heat Recovery Waste Hydrotreater
e. Heat Recovery Warming Heater
C
HRHWG stands for:

a. Heat Recovery High Water Generator

b. Heat Recovery Generator Hot Waste
c. Heat Recovery High Efficiency Waste Heat Generator
d. Heat Recovery Hot Water Generator
e. Heat Recovery High Efficiency Water Generator
D
Before attempting to start up a combined-cycle cogeneration system, ______ should be
consulted first.

a. the jurisdictional inspector

b. the local fire department
c. manufacturers guidelines and operating instructions
d. the power company
e. the local gas company
C
During the start up of a cogeneration system with a gas turbine:

a. The gas turbine is normally started up by compressed air.

b. The gas turbine is turned/started by a separate starter motor.
c. The gas turbine will start up automatically as soon as power is engaged.
d. The diverter valve will divert thermal energy from the HRSG to start the gas turbine.
e. The auxiliary burner will provide additional thermal energy to start the gas turbine.
D
When starting a cogeneration system with a gas turbine, the starting motor will disengage
from the turbine when the turbine is at approximately ____ % of its rated speed.

a. 5
b. 10
c. 25
d. 35
e. 55
E
When starting a cogeneration system with a gas turbine, the fuel is admitted to the
combustor and ignited at approximately ____% of the rated speed of the turbine.

a. 5
b. 10
c. 25
d. 55
e. 15
D
When running up a Cogeneration system the diverter valve is opened 100%
when________________________.

a. the turbine is at rated load

b. the temperature is rising in the turbine blades
c. the combustion turbine temperature is at maximum
d. the HSSG is pre-warmed and up to temperature
e. the HRSG is producing steam
E
Explain the difference between a simple cycle cogeneration system and a combined-cycle
cogeneration system
A simple cycle is the simultaneous generation of heat and power using a single
thermodynamic cycle.

A combined-cycle is the cogeneration of electricity and heat from a system that

simultaneously uses two different thermodynamic cycles.
Explain the difference between topping cycle cogeneration and bottoming cycle
cogeneration.
Topping Cycle - Fuel supplied first produces electrical power. Thermal energy is the by-
product

Bottoming Cycle - Fuel supplied first produces high temperature thermal energy for
process. The exhausted heat produces electrical energy
What does CHP mean?
Combined Heat and Power. It's another way to describe cogeneration.
Cogeneration can increase plant efficiencies from what to what?
From 40% to between 60 and 90%
In a combined-cycle cogeneration arrangement, what does each of the two different
thermodynamic cycles operate?
An independent electrical generator
What is the thermodynamic cycle of a gas turbine called?
Brayton Cycle
What is the thermodynamic cycle of a steam turbine called?
Rankin Cycle
What would you call a combined cycle cogeneration arrangement that allows the boiler to
be fired separately at somewhat reduced load if the gas turbine is unavailable?
Fully-fired Combined-Cycle Cogeneration
What design has the most attractive operating and performance characteristics of all
combined cycle plants?
Single-Shaft Combined-Cycle Power Plant
What is an advantage of a multi-shaft combined cycle design?
Allows for more flexibility and convenience for maintenance
What is a TEG?
Turbine Exhaust Gas boiler
What is the design of the HRSG based on?
The electrical requirements of the plant and the thermal requirements of the plant site
What is the gas flow in an HRSG?
It can be either horizontal or vertical.

Horizontal is most common.

What is the circulation in a HRSG?
Either natural or forced
What would the first tubes in a HRSG?
Superheater section
What would be the last tubes in a HRSG?
Economizer Section
(3B2-C-08-01) A centrifugal air compressor may have two or more _____ for multi-staging.
Select one:
A.Pistons
B.Impellers on separate shafts
C.Compressors
D.Diffuser vanes
E.Impellers on same shaft
E
(3B2-C-08-02) A double acting reciprocating compressor:
Select one:
A.Receives and compresses air at the head end of the cylinder
B.Receives and discharges air at both ends of the cylinder
C.Increases the pressure twice from the inlet valve
D.Has one compression stroke for every crankshaft revolution
E.Must have at least two pistons
B
(3B2-C-08-03) One kind of rotary compressor is the _____ compressor.
Select one:
A.Two lobe
B.Cross-compound double cylinder
C.Sliding piston
D.Axial
E.Reciprocating
A
3B2-C-08-04) A typical air dryer type consists of a pressure vessel containing a chemical
known as a:
Select one:
A.Drying agent
B.Desiccant
C.Moisture eliminator
D.Dryer
E.Silica
B
(3B2-C-08-05) Adjustable diffuser vanes on centrifugal air compressors are implemented
to:
Select one:
A.Change the operating characteristics of the compressor
B.Change the direction of the air flow to remove moisture
C.Remove foreign particles from the air
D.Only reduce the amount of air entering the compressor
E.Prevent back or reverse flow of air
A
(3B2-C-08-06) Advantages of the rotary lobe compressor over the reciprocating
compressor include:
1. Lower running speed
2. Steadier flow
3. Higher starting torque
4. No inlet and discharge valves
Select one:
A.2, 3
B.1, 4
C.1, 2
D.2, 4
E.2, 3, 4
D
(3B2-C-08-08) Air compressor pistons are constructed of:
1. Steel
2. Cast iron
3. Brass
4. Aluminum
5. Copper alloy
Select one:
A.1
B.1, 2
C.3, 4, 5
D.1, 2, 4
E.2, 4, 5
D
(3B2-C-08-09) Air compressors located above sea level will deliver _____ than those
located at sea level.
Select one:
A.Air with less moisture
B.A lesser mass of air
C.Air with more moisture
D.Higher temperature air
E.More volume of air
B
(3B2-C-08-10) An advantage that a rotary compressor has over a reciprocating
compressor is that they:
Select one:
A.Are not a positive displacement type compressor
B.Do not require intercooling between stages
C.Deliver a smoother flow of discharge air
D.Are reversible
E.Are not affected by air density
C
(3B2-C-08-11) An air compressor installed at a high altitude will require a higher _____ to
produce the same discharge pressure as a compressor installed at sea level.
Select one:
A.Compression ratio
B.Volumetric efficiency
C.Free air delivered
D.Absolute pressure
E.Operating pressure
A
(3B2-C-08-12) An air filter on an air compressor inlet pipe is used to:
Select one:
A.Reduce the air velocity
B.Keep out the moisture
C.Purify the air by removing exhaust process gases
D.Prevent dust and other particulate from entering the compressor
E.Increase the air velocity
D
(3B2-C-08-13) An important advantage of a sliding vane compressor is that it:
Select one:
A.Does not require internal lubrication
B.Has a high starting torque
C.Does not require inlet or discharge valves
D.Requires light nylon timing gears
E.Does not require a prime mover
C
(3B2-C-08-14) As the height above sea level decreases, the atmospheric pressure:
Select one:
A.Decreases
B.Increases
C.Remains the same
D.Decreases if there is a cloud cover
E.Does not change
B
(3B2-C-08-15) Axial flow compressor advantages are similar to those of centrifugal air
compressors they have an added advantage of:
Select one:
A.Being lower in mass
B.Being a shorter machine
C.Being corrosion and erosion free
D.Being approximately 10% more efficient
E.Solid forged rotor
D
(3B2-C-08-16) Axial flow compressor blades are subject to greater _____ and _____ than
there is in a centrifugal compressor.
1. Fouling
2. Erosion
3. Corrosion
4. Cleaning
Select one:
A.1, 3
B.1, 4
C.2, 1
D.3, 4
E.2, 3
E
(3B2-C-08-17) Because rotary lobe compressors do not have impellers in contact with
each other they:
Select one:
A.Do not require internal lubrication
B.Do not need a timing gear
C.Will not wear as quickly
D.Have no friction loss
E.Are very inefficient
A
(3B2-C-08-18) Centrifugal compressors are commonly used for:
Select one:
A.Low volume, high-pressure applications
B.Low speed, high-pressure applications
C.High humidity, low volume applications
D.Large volume, low-pressure applications
E.Large volume, low speed
D
(3B2-C-08-19) Centrifugal compressors may have:
Select one:
A.A volute casing
B.Diffuser vanes
C.Shockless entry vanes
D.Several impellers
E.All of the above
E
(3B2-C-08-20) The Compression Ratio is the ratio of:
Select one:
A.Absolute discharge pressure to absolute inlet pressure
B.Gauge discharge pressure to gauge inlet pressure
C.The free air intake to the absolute volumetric discharge
D.The gauge inlet pressure to the absolute discharge pressure
E.Piston diameter to piston stroke
A
(3B2-C-08-21) Compressor connecting rods are constructed of:
Select one:
A.Cast iron
B.Stainless steel
C.Forged steel
D.Black iron
E.Brass
C
(3B2-C-08-22) Compressor lubrication may be divided into two main sections: _____
lubrication and _____ lubrication.
1. Peripheral
2. Internal
3. Splash
4. External
5. Pressure
Select one:
A.1, 2
B.3, 5
C.3, 4, 5
D.2, 3, 4
E.2, 4
E
(3B2-C-08-23) Each pair of moving and fixed blades in an axial air compressor constitutes
a/an:
Select one:
A.Pressure drop
B.Temperature decrease
C.Program of air
D.Stage
E.Obstacle
D
(3B2-C-08-24) External lubrication for a reciprocating air compressor includes lubrication
for the following parts:
1. Crankshaft bearings
2. Connecting rod bearings
3. Cylinder walls
4. Crosshead on reciprocating compressors
Select one:
A.1, 2
B.1. 3
C.1, 3, 4
D.2, 3, 4
E.1, 2, 4
E
(3B2-C-08-25) If _____ is used then the cylinder is constructed with integral cast fins which
provide increased radiating area.
Select one:
A.Water cooling
B.A water jacket
C.Glycol cooling
D.A sliding vane compressor
E.Air cooling
E
(3B2-C-08-26) In a centrifugal compressor, the amount of velocity to pressure conversion
through the impeller is a function of the:
Select one:
A.Straightness of the volute blades
B.Degree of curvature of the diffuser blades
C.Straightness of the diffuser blades
D.Size of the discharge pipe
E.Degree of curvature of the impeller blades
E
(3B2-C-08-27) In a multi stage, reciprocating compressor the highest, pressure stages
may be:
Select one:
A.Remote controlled
B.Poppet valve regulated
C.Double lobe
D.Single acting
E.Free piston
D
(3B2-C-08-28) In a package industrial screw compressor, a silicone-based fluid is
necessary to cool, lubricate and seal the rotors. This fluid is then removed in a:
Select one:
A.Air/fluid separator
B.Fluid cooler/air cooler
C.Moisture separator
D.Water/oil separator
E.Air filter
A
(3B2-C-08-29) In a packaged screw compressor package, the bulk of the moisture is
removed in the moisture separator in order to decrease the load in the:
Select one:
A.Air/fluid separator
B.Pre-filter
C.Air dryer
D.After filter
E.Water/oil separator
B
(3B2-C-08-30) In a rotary lobe compressor one lobe is directly driven by the driving
mechanism while the other lobe is driven by:
Select one:
A.Intermeshing with the driven lobe
B.A reduction gear
C.Means of timing gears
D.Speed increasing gears
E.A belt
C
(3B2-C-08-31) In axial air compressors the pressure rise per stage is _____ therefore, for
high pressures _____ stages are required.
1. Low
2. High
3. Single
4. Multi
Select one:
A.1, 3
B.1, 4
C.2, 3
D.2, 4
E.2, 1
B
(3B2-C-08-32) In order to overcome a high compression ratio in a centrifugal compressor:
Select one:
A.The air temperature must be increased
B.The volumetric efficiency must be decreased
C.An air receiver is needed
D.Compression must be in two or more stages
E.Slow the speed of the prime mover
D
(3B2-C-08-33) In the rotary lobe compressor the air is trapped between the lobes, then is
_____ before being discharged on the opposite side of the casing.
Select one:
A.Carried around the casing
B.Reduced in volume and increased in pressure
C.Reduced in volume and decreased in pressure
D.Increased in volume and reduced in pressure
E.Increased in volume and increased in pressure
A
(3B2-C-08-34) In the _____ compressor one rotor has convex lobes and the other rotor
has concave flutes.
Select one:
A.Rotary lobe type
B.Axial flow type
C.Sliding vane type
D.Rotary screw type
E.Free piston type
D
(3B2-C-08-35) Lubricating oil is necessary in an air compressor in order to perform the
following functions:
1. Provide sealing
2. Remove heat
3. Reduce friction
4. Eliminate water cooling
5. Reduce corrosion
6. Remove carbon
7. Prevent wear
Select one:
A.1, 2 ,3, 4, 5
B.1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
C.1, 3, 4, 6
D.1, 2, 3, 5, 7
E.1, 2, 4, 5
D
(3B2-C-08-38) Reciprocating Compressor valves are usually automatic and open and
close by:
Select one:
A.Action of a poppet valve
B.Movement of the piston covering or uncovering ports
C.Operation of an air solenoid valve
D.A pressure difference
E.A camshaft
D
(3B2-C-08-39) Reciprocating compressor valves are usually found in two common forms:
Select one:
A.Plate and channel type
B.Composition and rubber type
C.Copper and aluminum type
D.Angle and inverted type
E.Ribbed and push rod type
A
(3B2-C-08-40) Reciprocating compressors are suitable for:
Select one:
A.Low pressure service
B.High pressure service
C.All ranges of pressures
D.Single stage only
E.Compressing only air
C
(3B2-C-08-41) Reciprocating compressors have several disadvantages as compared to
other positive displacement compressors, such as:
1. They cannot be made multi staged
2. They give pulsating discharge
3. They require internal lubrication
4. They have many moving parts
5. They are usually low speed
Select one:
A.3, 4, 5
B.1, 2, 5
C.2, 3, 4
D.1, 3, 5
E.2, 4, 5
C
(3B2-C-08-42) Rotary lobe compressors have their elements:
Select one:
A.Lubricated by graphite
B.Enclosed by an aluminum casing
C.As spring loaded vanes
D.Revolving in opposite directions
E.Lubricated by oil
D
(3B2-C-08-43) Single stage rotary screw compressors will develop discharge pressures to
about 700 kPa gauge, for pressures above this _____ designs are used.
Select one:
A.Tandem
B.Sliding vane
C.Reciprocating
D.Rotary
E.Multi stage
E
(3B2-C-08-44) Single-acting reciprocating compressors having the bottom of the cylinder
open to the crankcase will have lubrication provided by a/an:
Select one:
A.Pressure lubricator
B.Force fed oil pump
C.Splash system
D.Oil ring
E.Separate oil pump
C
(3B2-C-08-45) The axial flow compressor's basic operating principle is similar to a:
Select one:
A.Centrifugal compressor
B.Reciprocating compressor
C.Reaction turbine in reverse
D.Reaction turbine
E.Rotary compressor
C
(3B2-C-08-46) In a packaged screw compressor package, the bulk of the moisture is
removed in the moisture separator in order to decrease the load in the:
Select one:
A.Air/fluid separator
B.Pre-filter
C.Air dryer
D.After filter
E.Water/oil separator
B
(3B2-C-08-47) The displacement of an air compressor is:
Select one:
A.Usually marked on the flywheel
B.The same as having it misplaced
C.Determined by the size of the receiver
D.Normally given in cubic meters per minute
E.Normally given in kg per hour
D
(3B2-C-08-48) The lobe type compressor runs at speeds up to about _____ RPM.
Select one:
A.1550
B.1600
C.1650
D.1700
E.1750
E
(3B2-C-08-49) The prime purpose of water-cooling or air cooling an air compressors
cylinder is to:
Select one:
A.Cool the air
B.Reduce moisture and volume of the air
C.Keep the cylinder at a reasonable temperature
D.Prevent fire from occurring in the receiver
E.Prevent operator injury
C
(3B2-C-08-50) The purpose of injecting a silicone-based fluid in the rotor cavity in a
package industrial screw compressor is to:
1. Lubricate
2. Absorb moisture from the air
3. Seal the rotor clearances
4. Absorb the oil from the air
5. Remove the heat of compression
Select one:
A.1, 2
B.1, 3, 4
C.1, 2, 4
D.1, 3, 5
E.1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D
(3B2-C-08-51) The spiral valve on a package industrial screw compressor varies the
volume of compressed air produced by:
Select one:
A.Regulating the amount of air to the unit according to demand
B.Regulating the speed of the driver
C.Regulating the amount of cooling water to the cooler
D.Returning air to the suction line
E.By-passing the air dryer
D
(3B2-C-08-52) The two-stage sliding vane compressors:
Select one:
A.Have a common decompression chamber
B.Are driven by separate motors
C.Does not require internal lubrication
D.Share a common drive motor
E.Can operate at two different RPM's
D
(3B2-C-08-53) The _____ of a compressor is known as free air delivered or free air
capacity.
Select one:
A.Capacity
B.Displacement
C.Absolute pressure
D.Efficiency
E.Pressure ratio
A
(3B2-C-08-54) Three different designs of rotary compressors are:
1. Sliding vane
2. Rotary Screw
3. Axial flow
4. Volute centrifugal
5. Rotary lobe
6. Diffuser vane centrifugal
Select one:
A.2, 4, 6
B.1, 2, 3
C.3, 4, 6
D.1, 3, 5
E.1, 2, 5
E
(3B2-C-08-55) To change the air _____ in centrifugal air compressors to _____ , volute
casings and diffuser vanes are implemented.
1. Velocity
2. Volume
3. Pressure
4. Temperature
Select one:
A.1, 2
B.2, 4
C.1, 4
D.1, 3
E.2, 3
D
(3B2-C-08-56) To facilitate the removal of moisture and oil from the compressed air, a/an
_____ is installed.
Select one:
A.Intercooler
B.Oil separator
C.Unloader
D.Expansion tank
E.Aftercooler
E
(3B2-C-08-57) Two pre-filters are installed on a package industrial screw compressor.
They are installed at the inlet of the:
Select one:
A.Water/oil separator
B.Air dryer
C.After filter
D.Air/fluid separator
E.Moisture separator
B
(3B2-C-08-58) Water cooling by water-jacketing of air compressor cylinders is preferred
over air cooling because:
Select one:
A.The construction of the compressor is cheaper than the finned type
B.There is less piping involved
C.The construction is fairly simple
D.More efficient cooling is obtained
E.The air temperature cannot be controlled
D
(3B2-C-08-59) When a two-cylinder, reciprocating compressor has two stages, the
compressor displacement is calculated by calculating the volume swept by:
Select one:
A.The first stage piston
B.The last stage piston divided by the volume of the first stage
C.Both pistons
D.The first stage piston divided by the volume of the last stage
E.The last stage piston
A
(3B2-C-08-37) _____ compressors require intake and discharge valves.
Select one:
A.Rotary
B.Centrifugal
C.Sliding vane
D.Rotary lobe
E.Reciprocating
E
(3B2-C-08-78) To prevent metal to metal contact between the channels and the valve
springs, strips of _____________________ ________________ are placed within the
channels.
A.
oiled packing
B.
greased Teflon
C.
graphite packing
D.
self-lubricating material
E.
stainless steel
D
(3B2-C-08-82) In a sliding vane type of compressor the gas is compressed due to the:
A.
volute shape of the discharge casing.
B.
operation of the suction and discharge valves.
C.
speed of rotation of the sliding vanes.
D.
design of the vane shapes.
E.
eccentric design of the rotor within the casing.
E
(3B2-C-08-61) The term compression ratio defines the relationship between the
A.
compressor suction pressure to atmospheric pressure.
B.
swept volume of the compressor to the stroke volume of the compressor.
C.
volume of air drawn in to the compressor to the volume of air delivered by the compressor.
D.
air volume delivered to the pressure of the air delivered by the compressor.
C
(3B2-C-08-81) A rotating lobe compressor is classed as a centrifugal compressor.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE

(3B2-C-08-85) Rotating screw type compressors are excellent for use in air compressor
systems because they operate at relatively low speeds with minimum noise generation.
A.
FALSE
B.
TRUE
A
(3B2-C-08-80) In an internal lubrication system the _______________________ is used to
spread the oil evenly across the cylinder walls.
A.
crosshead.
B.
piston
C.
splash lubricator
D.
oil injection port
E.
mechanical lubricator.
B
(3B2-C-08-83) Sliding vane compressors can produce discharge pressures up to 1000
kPa.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
A
(3B2-C-08-66) One kg of air at sea level occupies less volume than one kg of air at the top
of a mountain, high above sea level.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
A
(3B2-C-08-67) A compressor installed at a high altitude will require __________________
compression ratio to produce the same discharge pressure as would a similar compressor
installed at sea level.
A.
a higher
B.
a lower
C.
the same
A
(3B2-C-08-68) In a single-acting reciprocating compressor there will be only one
compression stroke for each full rotation of the crankshaft or flywheel.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
A
(3B2-C-08-64) The work required for isothermal compression is less than the work
required for adiabatic compression.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
A

(3B2-C-08-65) Aftercoolers and separators help to remove _____________________ and

_____________________from the air before it enters the receiver or the supply system.

A.
water, particulates
B.
oil, dirt
C.
water, water vapours
D.
water, oil
E.
heat, waste gases
D
(3B2-C-08-69) When compression occurs on both sides of the piston the compressor is
termed a:
A.
double-acting compressor.
B.
reverse-acting compressor.
C.
dual-acting compressor.
D.
double-outlet compressor.
E.
multi-stage compressor.
A
(3B2-C-08-94) Both the pressure and velocity energy of the air is increased in the moving
blades of an axial type compressor.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
A
(3B2-C-08-71) A single-stage compressor may have multiple compression cylinders.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
A
(3B2-C-08-79) Lubrication of the crankshaft bearings, connecting rod bearings and
crosshead bearings is considered to be internal lubrication.
A.
FALSE
B.
TRUE
A
(3B2-C-08-60) In compressor terminology the term FAD stands for the
A.
force required to drive the air compressor.
B.
quantity of free air compressed and delivered by the air compressor.
C.
quality of the fresh air that is delivered to the end user.
D.
total capacity of the compressor at sea level and 20oC suction temperature.
E.
amount of forced air that is supplied as draft to the furnace of a boiler.
B
A compressor driven by a constant speed driver has its output varied by
_____________________________.

a. a stop and start switch

b. a solenoid valve
c. a mercury switch
d. some type of unloading device
e. a safety relief valve
D
A variable speed control regulates the speed of the _________ from air receiver pressure
monitoring.

a. driver
b. compressor crankshaft
c. compressor impellers
d. compressor blades
e. coupling
A
The stop and start system is best employed where ____________________________.

a. the air demand is constant

b. the air demand is low and infrequently demanded
c. a large AC motor is used as the driver
d. a diesel engine is used as the driver
e. variable speed and start, stop
B
In the variable speed control method the compressor output is regulated by
_______________________.

a. adjustment of clearance pockets

b. a rheostat
c. a safety relief valve
d. a driver that can be throttled
e. only small receivers are available
D
The item used to activate the inlet air unloader is ________________.

a. a spring loaded pilot valve

b. a torsion bar
c. a bleed-off valve
d. a compressor flywheel
e. None of the above
A
The flow of air from a compressor must be _______ to suit load requirements and to
maintain constant pressure in the system.

a. increased
b. decreased
c. dampened
d. interrupted
e. regulated
E
The ________ control method can be used when the compressor is driven by a steam
engine, a turbine, or an internal combustion engine.

a. constant speed
b. start and stop
c. dual
d. start and stop in conjunction with constant speed
e. variable speed
E
Output from a compressor using the constant speed control method must use some type
of ______________ device.

a. unloading
b. uploading
c. down loading
d. start stop device
e. variable speed
A
To prevent surging, the capacity of the compressor must not be allowed to fall below the
___________.

a. surge limit
b. maximum volume
c. rated point
d. rated pressure
e. set point
A
One method to prevent surging in dynamic compressors is to ___________________.

a. use variable frequency drive

b. use vanes
c. install a recirculation line
d. open a discharge line blow-off valve to atmosphere
e. use a safety valve
D
The reasons for cooling the air in an air compression system is to:

1) Remove water vapor and oil vapor from the air.

2) Make cylinder lubrication more effective.
3) Decrease the amount of power required to compress the air.
4) Remove fixed carbon from the valves.

a. 2, 4
b. 1, 4
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
e. None of the above
C
A good method of drying air before it goes into the receiver is to ____________.

a. heat it
b. pressurize it
c. cool it
d. increase the velocity
e. decrease the velocity
C
Air compressor inter and after coolers may be______________.

a. water or air cooled

b. oil or hydrogen cooled
c. teflon lubricated
d. electrically heated
e. freon refrigerant cooled
A
The aftercooler is used in an air compression system to _____________________.

a. cool the air after the first stage of compression

b. cool the lubricating oil of large axial compressors
c. cool the air after it leaves the receiver
d. cool the air after the last stage of compression
e. cool the air before being compressed
D
It is advisable that ________ is fitted between the aftercooler and air receiver.

a. a gauge glass
b. pressure gauge
c. a moisture separator
d. an air filter
e. temperature gauge
C

The water separator is often fitted directly t the outlet of the aftercooler. When it's not
integral to the aftercooler, it's installed as close as possible
In a compressed air system, if water vapour is not removed from the air then it may collect
in pipelines and cause:

1) Increase in pressure
2) Water hammer
3) Gurgling noise
4) Damage from freezing

a. 1, 3
b. 3
c. 1, 4
d. 2, 4
e. 1, 2, 3
D
If there is a shut-off valve between the aftercooler and the receiver, the aftercooler must
also be fitted with a ________.

a. safety valve
b. pressure gauge
c. thermometer
d. fusible plug
e. vacuum breaker
A
An air compressor will require more power to compress the air if an intercooler is
implemented.

a. True
b. False
B
Effective intercooling will reduce weakening of parts due to high temperatures, and reduce
possibility of ___________.

a. compressor explosions
b. water hammer
c. compressor implosions
d. compressor leaks
e. corrosion
B
Aftercoolers should be fitted with _______________.

a. pressure gauges
b. thermometers
c. possibly a safety valve
d. water separator
e. All of the above
E
The presence of ________ in the air may later result in the compressed air piping being
subjected to water hammer.

a. oil
b. corrosion
c. dirt particles
d. nitrogen
e. moisture
E
Detrimental effects of moisture in an air compression system are:

1) It may cause corrosion

2) It may cause water hammer
3) It will reduce compressor capacity
4) It will cool the air below the dew point
5) It may wash carbon off the valves
6) It may freeze in the air lines
a. 1, 2, 3, 6
b. 3, 4, 5, 6
c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
d. 2, 4, 5, 6
e. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
A
The inlet pipe to the compressor must be _________________.

a. larger that the compressor intake

b. twice as large as the compressor intake
c. smaller than the compressor intake
d. at least as large as the compressor intake
e. at least as large as the compressor discharge
D
An air filter on an air compressor inlet pipe is used to ___________________.

a. reduce the air velocity

b. keep out the moisture
c. purify the air by removing exhaust process gases
d. prevent dust and other particulate from entering the compressor
e. increase the air velocity
D
A typical air dryer type consists of a pressure vessel containing a chemical known as a
____________.

a. drying agent
b. desiccant
c. moisture eliminator
d. dryer
e. silica
B
In an air dryer desiccant is used to _________________.

a. fill the empty space in the air dryer

b. absorb moisture
c. prevent corrosion in the receiver
d. add moisture to the air
e. heat the air
B
The specifications for an air receiver must conform to the A.S.M.E. section _____.

a. I
b. VI
c. IV
d. VII
e. VIII
E
The four major purposes of an air receiver is to:

1) Act as a reservoir or storage vessel

2) House fittings such as safety valve, pressure gauge, and fusible plug
3) Dampen the pulsations of a reciprocating compressor
4) Act as a compressor output control reference point
5) Allow moisture and oil particles to settle out
6) Allow further heating of the air before going to the use

a. 1, 2, 5, 6
b. 1, 3, 4, 5
c. 1, 2, 3, 6
d. 2, 3, 4, 5
e. 2, 4, 5, 6
B
The axis of an air receiver may be:

1) Vertical
2) 45° from vertical
3) Horizontal
4) 30° for vertical

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4, 2
e. 1, 3
E
Air receivers should be inspected regularly and then ______________.

a. pneumatically tested
b. hydrostatically tested
c. dismantle and cleaned
d. tested for explosive gases
e. shipped to a pressure vessel tester
B
An air receive is a pressure vessel which is used:

1) As a reservoir
2) To dampen pulsation of reciprocating compressor
3) To allow moisture and oil particles to settle out from the air

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1, 2
e. 1, 2, 3
E
When first starting a compressor operate the cylinder lubricator by hand to
_______________.

a. take some load off the pressure lubricator

b. make sure it works for duration of compressor operation
c. supply some oil to the cylinder for start-up
d. to ensure that there is oil in the crankcase
e. All of the above
C
Air compressors should be automatically unloaded ______________.

a. by the operator
b. during the shutting-down period
c. for the start-up period
d. at all times of compressor output
e. if there is no cooling water for the aftercooler
C
When starting up a compressor, ensure the manual block valves in the suction and
discharge lines are ______________.

a. both wide open

b. both closed
c. both valves throttled back
d. suction valve wide open and discharge valve closed
e. suction valve closed and discharge valve wide open
A
When starting up a compressor, make sure:

1) No one is still working on the unit

2) The suction and discharge valves are closed
3) To check the system for oil leaks
4) It is unloaded

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
C
Once the compressor is started and running at rated speed and all conditions are
satisfactory, it is recommended to load the compressor up __________.

a. quickly to 100% load

b. quickly to 75% load
c. quickly to 50% load
d. gradually
e. slowly to 10% load and stop
D
_____ on centrifugal air compressors are provided in order to control the amount of air
flowing to the impeller and thus control the capacity of the unit.
a. Adjustable inlet vanes
b. Adjustable diffuser vanes
c. Variable frequency drive
d. Moving and fixed blades
e. Dummy piston.
A
To prevent surging, the capacity of the compressor must not be allowed to fall below the:

a. Surge point
b. Maximum volume
c. Rated point
d. Rated pressure
e. Set point
A
When a compressor is stopped, the cooling water supply should:

a. Run for 5 minutes afterward.

b. Run for 10 minutes afterward.
c. Be shut off.
d. Be left on.
e. Have the flow cut in half.
C
Air compressor lubrication oil should have:

a. A high flash point.

b. A low flash point.
c. A high carbon content.
d. Synthetic additives given to them.
e. An ability to absorb moisture.
A
The discharge pipe of an air compressor:

a. Larger than the compressor discharge.

b. Twice as large as the compressor discharge.
c. Smaller than the compressor discharge.
d. At least as large as the compressor intake.
e. At least as large as the compressor discharge.
E
Compressed air is not used for:

a. Starting large diesel engines.

b. Soot blowing for boiler furnaces.
c. Mixing of agitating materials for a process.
d. Cooling and aerating the steam in a steam condenser.
e. Instrumentation and controls.
D
Air transmission piping is _____ than electrical wiring.
a. Longer.
b. Lighter.
c. Smoother.
d. More expensive.
e. Less expensive.
D
Transmission losses are less with air than with steam since none of the air could _____ in
the pipe, as is the case with steam.

a. Evaporate.
b. Expand.
c. Explode.
d. Condense.
e. Lubricate.
D
An advantage of dynamic compressors and some rotary compressors as compared to
reciprocating compressors is that they can:

a. Be quickly shut down

b. Be opened for internal inspection
c. Deliver oil free air
d. Effectively use low speed drivers
e. Have no moving parts
C
Air tools are preferred over steam driven tools because:

1. There is less chance of being burned.

2. Less equipment is required.
3. Air tools require less lubrication.
4. Air tools are quieter than steam driven equipment.

a. 1, 3.
b. 1, 2.
c. 3, 4.
d. 2, 4.
e. 1, 4.
B
An advantage of driving a compressor with a steam engine is that it can be operated
_____ at lower speeds.

a. Without supervision.
b. More efficiently.
c. Less efficiently.
d. With high pressure.
e. With unqualified personnel.
B
_____ compressors are more efficient than other positive displacement types.
a. Rotary screw.
b. Sliding vane.
c. Rotary lobe.
d. Axial flow.
e. Reciprocating.
E
Air transmission piping is _____ and _____ to install than electrical wiring.

1. More costly
2. Less costly
3. As costly
4. More difficult
5. Less difficult
6. As difficult

a. 1, 4
b. 2, 5
c. 3, 6
d. 1, 5
e. 2, 4
A
Control systems can use compressed air as a _____ medium and also to power actuating
devices such as air cylinders.

a. Heating
b. Drying
c. Signaling
d. Cooling
e. Lubricating
C
Compressed air can be used for _____ in boiler furnaces.

a. Cooling
b. Soot blowing
c. Ventilation
d. Purging
e. Cleaning
B
The two main classifications of compressors are:

a. Single acting and double acting

b. Reciprocating and rotary
c. Centrifugal and axial
d. Positive displacement and dynamic
e. Rotary and dynamic
D
When the load is to great, the compressed air machinery simply _____.
1. Slows down
2. Increase the air supplied
3. Stops
4. Decreases the air supply

a. 1, 3
b. 1, 2
c. 3, 4
d. 2, 4
e. 1, 4
A
Compressed air machinery may be used in explosive atmospheres without hazard
because they:

a. Are free from sparking contacts

b. Absorb flammable gases
c. Run at lower RPM
d. Require no lubrication
e. Run hotter than electric motors
A
_____ can be started by use of a compressed air starting motor or applied high pressure
air directly to starting cylinders.

a. Gas turbine engines

b. Steam turbine engines
c. Large diesel engines
d. Gasoline engines
e. Centrifugal pumps
C
An advantage of air driven hand tools over electric had tools is that they do not become
_____ after extensive use.

a. Dull
b. Greasy
c. Heavy
d. Smoky
e. Hot
E
A disadvantage of an electrical hand tool over an air powered hand tool is:

a. It is constant speed
b. After prolonged use it becomes magnetized
c. There is a chance of electric shock
d. An electric hand tool cannot be reversed
e. A source of power is more readily available
C
Positive displacement compressor types include:

1. Sliding vane
2. Axial flow
3. Internal gear
4. Volute casing
5. Rotary screw
6. Multi lobe

a. 1, 3, 4, 6
b. 2, 4, 5, 6
c. 1, 3, 5, 6
d. 1, 2, 4, 5
e. 2, 3, 4, 6
C
A type of rotary compressor that is suitable for high speeds and may have a speed
increasing gear implemented with an electric motor drive is:

a. A screw type
b. A sliding vane type
c. A rotary lobe type
d. An axial flow type
e. A radial flow type
A
A truly adiabatic air compression system would not have any _____ given or taken from
the cycle.

a. Temperature.
b. Oil.
c. Pressure.
d. Lubrication.
e. Heat.
E
The four principle driving methods for reciprocating compressors are by:

1. Electric motors
2. Water wheel
3. Internal combustion engines
4. Steam turbine
5. Wind power
6. Steam engine

a. 1, 3, 4, 6
b. 1, 2, 4, 5
c. 2, 4, 5, 6
d. 2, 3, 4, 6
e. 3, 4, 5, 6
A
Air hand tools are usually lighter than electric hand tools because:

a. Air tools don't have a heavy armature.

b. Air is lighter than copper wire.
c. Air tool casings are made of thin aluminum.
d. Air tools do not have any internal moving parts.
e. Air is lighter than electricity.
A
Four ways of dividing reciprocating compressors into types are:

1. Single or double acting

2. Method of compression
3. Number of impellers
4. Speed of the prime mover
5. Method of drive
6. Cylinder arrangement

a. 3, 4, 5, 6
b. 1, 2, 5, 6
c. 1, 3, 5, 6
d. 2, 3, 4, 6
e. 1, 3, 4, 5
B
In positive displacement compressors the air is compressed by:

a. Increasing the velocity

b. Changing velocity to pressure
c. The pushing action of pistons, vanes or lobes
d. Changing vacuum to pressure
e. Multiple stages
C
Since a _____ operates at a relatively high speed, as a driver for a reciprocating
compressor a speed reducing arrangement must be used.

a. Steam turbine
b. Steam engine
c. Internal combustion engine
d. Electric motor
e. Gas turbine
D
Of all the positive displacement compressors, the _____ compressor can deliver the
highest discharge pressure.

a. Sliding vane
b. Reciprocating
c. Rotary lobe
d. Radial flow
e. Axial flow
B
Centrifugal compressor impellers are usually made form steel and are:

1. Cast.
2. Machined.
3. Forged.
4. Made by welding.
5. Galvanized.

a. 1, 2, 3.
b. 1, 4, 5.
c. 1, 3, 4.
d. 2, 3, 5.
e. 3, 4, 5
C

Positive displacement compressors may be divided into two general types of compressors:

1. Reciprocating
2. Centrifugal
3. Rotary
4. Axial

a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 1, 4
d. 2, 3
e. 2, 4
B
When air is compressed its:

1. Volume decreases.
2. Pressure increases.
3. Specific heat increases.
4. Velocity decreases.
5. Temperature increases.

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 3, 4, 5
c. 1, 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 4, 5
e. 2, 3, 4, 5
D
Two general types or designs of dynamic air compressors are:

a. Rotary and reciprocating.

b. Single stage and multistage.
c. Axial flow and centrifugal.
d. Sliding vane and internal gear.
e. Rotary and axial flow.
C
A reciprocating compressor that employs clearance pocket as an unloading, method has
the crank end inlet valve open and the clearance pocket closed. What capacity is the
compressor working at?
a. 0%.
b. 25%.
c. 50%.
d. 75%.
e. 100%.
C
_____ compression is preferable because of the lesser amount of power required to carry
out the compression.

a. Adiabatic.
b. Positive displacement.
c. Dynamic.
d. Unloaded.
e. Isothermal.
E
Surging of dynamic air compressors can produce severe shock to the system and may be
violent enough to damage the:

a. Driver and casing.

b. Impeller or piping.
c. Dummy piston.
d. Bearings and gearing.
e. Casing and foundation.
B
After an air receiver is opened up it should be thoroughly ventilated because of the chance
of it containing:

a. Oil.
b. Water.
c. Carbon monoxide.
particularly if the air
d. Carbon dioxide. compressor system uses fuel-
e. Hydrogen. based engines
C
A fusible plug is required on the air receiver shell to:

a. Remove unwanted moisture and oil.

b. Vent air if the discharge temperature of the air compressor is too high.
c. Vent the air from the receiver in the event of a fire occurring in the vicinity of the air
receiver.
d. Vent off air if the receiver pressure is up.
e. Release the air pressure should ice be formed.
C
The term dynamic describes those compressors that use _____ to give velocity then
pressure to the air.

a. Turbulence.
b. Blades or vanes.
c. Pistons.
d. Screws.
e. Lobes.
B
Dynamic compressors are _____ compressors:

a. Positive displacement
b. Double acting
c. Reciprocating
d. Single acting
e. Centrifugal or axial flow
E
A compressor with _____ is known as an angle compressor.

a. A "V" type cylinder arrangement

b. A "Y" type cylinder arrangement
c. One cylinder on the horizontal axis and the other on the vertical axis
d. Horizontal cylinder arrangement
e. 45 degree type cylinder arrangement
C
The clearance pocket method of unloading an air compressor uses:

a. Clearance pockets at each end of the cylinder.

b. The variable volume principle.
c. Slide valve unloader.
d. Hydraulically controlled inlet vanes.
e. Hold the inlet valves in the close position.
B
A reciprocating compressor is suited for all ranges of:

a. Discharge air temperatures

b. Speed
c. Oil lubrication
d. Cooling water temperatures
e. Pressures
E
Barrel type casings in centrifugal air compressors are for:

a. Storing high-pressure air.

b. Pressures above 6900 kPa.
c. Inducing rotation to the air.
d. Cooling during compression.
e. Changing pressure to volume.
B
The variable speed control is best suited to a driver that can be _____.

a. Utilize with clearance pocket and inlet valve unloader.

b. Unloaded.
c. Throttled.
d. Start and stop controlled.
e. Monitored.
C
The specifications for an air receiver must conform to the ASME Section:

a. I.
b. VI.
c. IV.
d. VII.
e. VIII.
E
Use of the start and stop air compressor output control in conjunction with the constant
speed control system:
a. Conserves the motor life.
b. Reduces high amperage draw therefore saving electricity.
c. Gives a flexible control life.
d. Conserves the compressors life.
e. All of the above.
E
Air carrying the maximum amount of water at a certain temperature and pressure is said to
be:

a. Superheated.
b. Saturated.
c. De-superheated.
d. Balanced.
e. Humidified.
B
To avoid air compressor explosions the system should be provided with:

a. Maximum cooling water possible.

b. Maximum oil possible to prevent overheating.
c. Minimum oil necessary for adequate lubrication.
d. Having the cylinder walls well insulated.
e. An aftercooler.
C
A _____ is used to activate the inlet air unloader by monitoring receiver pressure.

a. Solenoid valve.
b. Spring loaded pilot valve.
c. Spring.
d. Lever.
e. Camshaft.
B
A refrigerant may be defined as a:

a. A liquid that absorbs heat at high pressure and gives up heat at low pressure.
b. A fluid that absorbs heat at a low temperature & pressure and gives up heat by condensing at a higher
temperature & pressure.
c. A fluid that absorbs heat at a high pressure.
d. Medium for creating heat.
e. A fluid that absorbs heat at a high temperature & pressure and gives up heat by condensing at a lower
temperature & pressure.
B
A good refrigerant should require a _________________.

a. low latent heat value

b. high temperature boiling point
c. high condensing temperature
d. high condensing pressure
e. large amount of heat to evaporate
E
Ammonia refrigerant will ___________________________.
a. mix easily with mineral oils
b. not mix with mineral oils
c. mix with oils when heated
d. not mix with water
e. be added with oil for lubrication purposes
B
A good refrigerant should have _____________________.

a. a high net refrigeration effect

b. a low net refrigeration effect to save power
c. a medium refrigeration effect
d. a high condensing pressure
e. a condensing temperature
A
Group 3 refrigerants are __________________________.

a. extremely flammable
b. moderately flammable
c. non flammable
d. moderately explosive
e. non explosive
A
Group 1 refrigerants ______________________________.

a. are quite poisonous

b. are easily ignited
c. have the highest latent heat value
d. are considered the safest
e. are moderately toxic
D
NH3 (R-717) refrigerant ___________________________.

a. will not cause corrosion to metals

b. is non-toxic
c. is corrosive in the presence of water to nonferrous metals
d. is very expensive
e. is extremely explosive
C
R-12 and R-22 refrigerants are ____________________.

a. known as halocarbons or Freons

b. used only in commercial establishments
c. extremely toxic
d. used only in indirect systems
e. extremely explosive
A
The heat necessary to evaporate a liquid refrigerant in mechanical refrigeration is
_______________________.

a. sensible heat
b. refrigeration super heat
c. latent heat
d. heat of condensation
e. superheat
C

In a mechanical vapor compression system the compressor's function is to _______________________.

a. condense the high pressure gas

b. establish two pressure levels
c. reduce the temperature of the refrigerant gas
d. control the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator
e. to compress the vapour, so that heat can be easily removed
B
Most modern refrigeration systems make use of the principle of absorbing heat by
______________________.

a. condensing refrigerant at a low pressure

b. high evaporating pressures
c. the evaporation of a liquid, and then discarding the heat to the atmosphere
d. evaporation of brine
e. high condensing temperature & pressure
C
The flow of refrigerant to the evaporator is controlled by the ______________________________.

a. king valve
b. suction flow regulating valve
c. purge valve
d. expansion valve
e. discharge flow regulating valve
D

The discharge pressure on centrifugal compressors is increased by ____________________________.

a. running the stages in parallel

b. arranging the stages in series
c. slowing up the compressor
d. throttling the nozzles
e. throttling the suction valve
B
The high and low sides of a refrigerating system are separated by an imaginary line
_____________________.

a. from the king valve to the compressor discharge valve

b. between the compressor discharge and suction valves to the brine valve
c. between the compressor discharge and suction valves to the expansion valve
d. From the equalizing valve to the expansion valve
e. between the compressor discharge and suction valves to the king valve
C
The function of the condenser in a refrigeration compression system is ____________________.

a. to evaporate the liquid to a high pressure gas

b. to establish a pressure differential
c. to cool the hot compressed refrigerant vapor until it condenses to a liquid
d. to condense or liquefy the purge gases
e. to cool the hot compressed liquid refrigerant in the receiver
C
The purpose of the expansion valve is to ____________.

a. isolate the high and low sides of the system

b. regulate the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator
c. expand the refrigerant gas for better refrigeration effect and higher temperatures
d. control the brine flow
e. control the temperature of the refrigerant
B
Some reciprocating compressors on ammonia systems are protected from liquid slugs by
_________________.

a. spring loaded safety heads

b. automatic drain traps
c. extra heavy valves
d. low pressure cut outs
e. high water cut outs
A
The evaporator is where _________________________.

a. the liquid refrigerant is stored

b. the liquid refrigerant absorbs heat and boils into a vapor
c. the gas condenses
d. most of refrigerant is stored
e. the refrigerant is charged into liquid
B
The liquid receiver is a/an ________________________.

a. oil storage unit

b. storage for most of the brine
c. contaminated liquid storage tank
d. vessel to charge the system with oil
e. pressure vessel
E
Brine used in ammonia indirect systems is usually ____________.

a. lithium bromide
b. calcium chloride
c. sodium chloride
d. sodium hydroxide
e. calcium hydroxide
B
In an indirect ammonia system using brine ______________.

a. the refrigerant is cooled by the brine

b. the brine is used to condense the ammonia
c. the brine absorbs heat from the space to be cooled
d. only Freon 22 refrigerants are used
e. the condenser pressure must be very high
C
Absorption systems compared to compression require _________________.

a. more items of equipment

b. less items of equipment
c. approximately the same amount of equipment
d. less space
e. more electrical power to run
A
Absorption type refrigeration systems require ____________.

a. condenser, receiver, compressor & expansion valve

b. reciprocating compressors
c. pumps and compressors
d. centrifugal compressors
e. more space than compression systems
E
The direct refrigeration system is one in which the evaporator is in direct contact with _____________.

a. the cooling water in the condenser

b. the material being refrigerated
c. the calcium chloride in the cooling coil
d. the brine in the brine tank
e. the cooling water on the suction side of the compressor
B
Solution of calcium chloride used in an indirect refrigeration system can be subjected to temperatures as
low as _____________.

a. -11°C
b. -18°C
c. -25°C
d. -51°C
e. -4°C
D
The evaporator in a centrifugal compressor (chiller unit) system is also called a ________________.

a. vaporizer
b. eliminator
c. purger
d. cooler
e. vent condenser
D
A two stage, duplex compressor refrigeration system is used where _______________.

a. moderate low temperatures are desired

b. extremely low temperatures are desired
c. small quantities of refrigerant are required
d. high quantities of refrigerant are required
e. the cost of refrigerant is high
B
A duplex compression refrigeration system is used when temperatures below ____ °C are required.

a. -18
b. -20
c. -45
d. -51
e. -92
E
In a two stage, duplex compressor refrigeration system, the condenser for the first stage is the
______________ for the second stage.

a. eliminator
b. purger
c. receiver
d. evaporator
e. liquid cooler
D
In a two stage refrigeration system, the 1st stage compressor is usually a ____________ compressor.

a. centrifugal
b. axial flow
c. diffuser
d. rotary
e. reciprocating
D
In a two stage refrigeration system, the 1st stage compressor is also known as a ___________
compressor.

a. booster
b. standby
c. low volume
d. extraction
e. refrigerant
A
In a two stage refrigeration system, the 2nd stage compressor is usually a ____________ compressor.

a. centrifugal
b. axial flow
c. diffuser
d. rotary
e. reciprocating
E
Because of the greater range between the suction and discharge pressures of a multi-stage refrigeration
system, the necessary compression is usually divided between ____ single-stage compressors.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
A
There are ____ basic elements common to most compression refrigeration systems.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6

A/An _____________ is usually provided between the low pressure discharge and high-pressure suction
of a multi-stage refrigeration system.

a. condenser
b. receiver
c. purger
d. evaporator
e. intercooler
E
The separation of the solution of ammonia and water in the ammonia absorption system is done by
means of ___________.
a. heat
b. sprayers
c. gravity
d. rectification
e. centrifuge
A
At about 240 kpa, the ammonia will boil at a temperature of about _____ °C.

a. -10
b. -15
c. -20
d. -25
e. -30
B
When the pressure difference across a capillary tube is increased ___________________.

a. the flow of refrigerant increases

b. the flow of refrigerant decreases
c. the pressure of the refrigerant increases
d. the pressure of the refrigerant decreases
e. there is no change in the flow rate
A
The king valve on an ammonia vapor compression system serves as a ______________________.

a. refrigerant control valve

b. valve to connect the ammonia drum when charging the system
c. brine control valve
d. master isolation shut-off valve
e. the condenser flow control
D
The difference in enthalpy of ammonia as a fluid at saturation conditions at 1165.8 kPa abs and 236.2
kPa abs is found in the:

a. hf column and is 208.9 kJ/kg.

b. hf and hg columns and is 1311.6 kJ/kg.
c. hf column and is 114.905 kJ/kg.
d. hf column and is 0.508788 kJ/kg.
e. hg column and is 658.519 kJ/kg.
A
A refrigerant is toxic at less than 400 ppm and has a LFL of more than 100g/m3 at 21C at standard
ambient pressure. It is class:

a. A1
b. A2
c. A3
d. B1
e. B2.
E
A refrigerant is toxic at over 400 ppm and has an LFL less than 100g/m3 at 21 C, 101 kPa abs. It is
class:

a. A1
b. A2
c. A3
d. B1
e. B2
C
A refrigerant is toxic at less than 400 ppm and has a LFL of less than 100 g/m3 at room conditions. It has
a higher toxicity. It is class:

a. A2
b. A3
c. B1
d. B2
e. B3
E
The refrigerant that has worst properties in regards to the ozone is:

a. R- 12
b. R- 22
c. R- 55
d. R- 134a
e. R- 717
A
The standard refrigeration cycle is used to compare refrigerants and machines operating under
comparable conditions. These standard conditions are:

a. 1030 kPa and atmospheric pressure.

b. 30°C condensing and -15°C evaporating.
c. 30 kPa and atmospheric pressure.
d. -30°C condensing and 15°C evaporating.
e. 30 kPa and atmospheric temperature.
B
Liquid Ammonia at 30C and saturation pressure travels through an expansion valve to a space at 134.9
kPa gauge pressure. A constant enthalpy process occurs. Part of the Ammonia:

a. Changes state and discharges heat to the remaining liquid.

b. Changes state and takes heat from the remaining liquid.
c. No change of state takes place until an exchange of heat from the area to be cooled takes place.
d. All of the ammonia changes state immediately.
e. No change of state occurs.
B
The ideal refrigerant should be:

a. Nonpoisonous, non-stable, nonflammable, non-corrosive.

b. Boil at a high temperature, oil miscible, detectable when leaked, inexpensive.
c. Inoffensive odor, boil at a low temperature, non-corrosive, stable.
d. Non-corrosive, stable, not easily detectable when leaked, will contaminate food.
e. Nonpoisonous, stable, flammable, non-corrosive.
C
The difference in enthalpy of ammonia as a gas at saturation conditions and a fluid at and 236.2 kPa abs
is found in the:

a. hf column and is 208.9 kJ/kg.

b. hf and hg columns and is 1311.6 kJ/kg.
c. hf column and is 114.905 kJ/kg.
d. hf column and is 0.508788 kJ/kg.
e. hg column and is 658.519 kJ/kg.
B
The boiling point of R 717 at -15C is:

a. 337.5 kPa abs.

b. 236.2 kPa abs.
c. 134.9 kPa abs.
d. 236.2 kPa gauge pressure.
e. 337.5 kPa gauge pressure.
B
The major components of a high-pressure ammonia system are:

a. Compressor, condenser, oil purifier, high-pressure cutout, evaporator.

b. Compressor, condenser, expansion valve, high-pressure cutout, evaporator.
c. Compressor, condenser, expansion valve, oil purifier, evaporator
d. Compressor, condenser, expansion valve, high-pressure cutout, expansion valve.
e. Compressor, condenser, expansion valve, liquid receiver, evaporator.
E
In the rotary vane compressor:

a. Vanes in the rotary vane compressor are kept close to the central hub by centrifugal force.
b. Rotary vane compressors have a rotor in the center of the casing.
c. Refrigerant is trapped between the roller and the decreasing volume of the eccentric casing.
d. The rotor oscillates.
e. The vanes move in the rotor.
E
Bare tube evaporators have (which statements are true):

a. May have refrigerant on one side and air on the other

b. May have refrigerant on one side and liquid on the other
c. May be used in direct expansion or flooded chillers
d. Have as much heat transfer surface as a finned tube evaporator for the same tube length
e. May be connected to a plate to facilitate easy defrosting by scraping

a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 1, 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 3, 5
e. 1, 2, 4, 5
D
Which of the statements given is not true of liquid receivers:

a. Liquid receivers compensate for varying volumes or refrigerant circulation at different loads.
b. The receiver helps keep the condenser drained.
c. The receiver reduces the amount of effective condenser surface required.
d. The receiver provides a space to store refrigerant if the expansion valve is closed for draw down.
e. The receiver is primarily a heat exchange device.
E
Which of the statements given are true of expansion valves:

1. They are a metering device.

2. They draw from the evaporator.
3. They discharge into the liquid line.
4. They, along with the compressor, maintain a pressure differential between the low and high side of the
system.

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 1, 4
d. 2, 4
e. 1, 3
C
Roller Compressors:

a. Roller compressors have a roller eccentric the casing.

b. The roller contacts the casing.
c. A spring-loaded blade contacts the roller.
d. The blade separates the discharge and suction.
e. All the above are true.
E
Centrifugal Compressors:

a. Are used for low-pressure differential applications.

b. They are not suitable for compressing large volumes.
c. They are not used in chillers.
d. Multi-staging is not common.
e. They are slow speed units.
A
Centrifugal Compressors:
a. Are not similar to a centrifugal air compressor.
b. Refrigerant is expelled from the impeller eye.
c. Centrifugal force moves the refrigerant to the impeller center.
d. Nozzle shaped diffusers change velocity into pressure.
e. Pressurized lubrication is not commonly required.
D
Centrifugal Compressors:
a. Require no maintenance.
b. Require lubrication where the impeller moves against the casing.
c. Centrifugal force moves the refrigerant in from the impeller periphery.
d. Have no efficiency.
e. Only use anti friction bearings.

In the Air and Water Cooled evaporative condenser:

a. The counter flow principle is not used.

b. Only induced draft is used.
c. Evaporation of water adds greatly to the cooling effect.
d. The water travels through coils.
e. The receiver never sits in the sump.
C
A refrigerant compressor may have:

a. A magnetic plug and integral air receiver.

b. A reverse osmosis membrane and emergency connecting rod.
c. An oil foam breaker and a magnetic plug.
d. An oil foam plug and a magnetic foam breaker.
e. Teflon drive couplings and reverse RPM indication.
C
Condensers are used to:

a. Cool a refrigerated space.

b. Cool hot lubrication oil till it is viscous.
c. Cause a change of state in a refrigerant.
d. Cool a cooling medium.
e. Condense liquid refrigerant.
C
Reciprocating refrigeration compressors may compress:

a. Liquids one side of the piston.

b. Only with vertical cylinders if double acting.
c. Never in a "Y", radial or horizontally opposed arrangement.
d. Never using more than one cylinder per stage.
e. Often using two cylinders in parallel for a single stage.
E
Safety heads protect compressors from being damaged:

a. If oil pressure is lost.

b. If refrigerant is lost.
c. If hit by an external source.
d. From high temperatures.
e. By liquid slugs.
E
The Matrix of Refrigerant Classifications is found in this type of code:
a. ASME.
b. NFPA.
c. CSA.
d. ASTM.
e. IDCB.
C
A two stage, duplex compressor refrigeration system is usually used for temperatures below:

a. -18C
b. -20C
c. -45C
d. -51C
e. -92C.
E
In an oil purifier:

a. Oil is boiled off ammonia.

b. Ammonia is boiled off oil.
c. Ammonia is re-circulated to the compressor discharge.
d. Ammonia is expelled to atmosphere.
e. Ammonia is collected for making industrial cleaners.
B
Oil may be drained from:

a. Compressor suction.
b. Compressor Discharge.
c. The bottom of the evaporator.
d. The bottom of the receiver.
e. All of the above.
E
A simple condenser with low installation cost would be:

a. Water-cooled.
b. Air and water-cooled.
c. Enthalpy cooled.
d. Chloride cooled.
e. Air-cooled.
E
One of the biggest disadvantages of using an ice box for refrigeration is:

a. It cannot be cooled below a temperature of zero degrees centigrade

b. It will not cool
c. It condenses too fast
d. Frequent replacement of ice makes it uneconomical to operate
e. Uneven heat removal.
A
In the basic absorbing system the dividing line between the high side and the low side is the:
a. Aqua pump and the expansion valve
b. Aqua pump and the condenser
c. Generator and the receiver
d. Expansion valve and the generator
e. Aqua pump and the generator.
A
Slugs of liquid carried over from the evaporator in the absorption system cause:

a. Considerable trouble
b. No damage
c. More damage than in a compression system
d. Damage in the absorber
e. Damage to the compressor
B
Refrigeration may be defined as a:

a. Method of absorbing heat in the cooling water

b. Way of maintaining the relative humidity
c. System to help raise the dew point of air
d. Controlled process of cooling or removing heat from a substance and then maintaining the
temperature of that substance below that of the surrounding atmosphere
e. Controlled process of providing HVAC to a building.
D
The absorption system is more economical than the compression when:

a. Waste or exhaust steam is available for use in the generator

b. Water supplies are limited
c. Refrigeration requirements are small
d. Only air conditioning is required
e. Refrigerant supplies are limited
A
The most common process method of refrigeration is:

a. Absorption
b. Lithium bromide
c. Water vapor
d. Vapor compression or mechanical
e. Ammonia compression system
D
Comparison of refrigerating systems is usually done at the following temperatures:

a. 40°C condensing and 10°C evaporating

b. 30°C condensing and -15°C evaporating
c. 45°C condensing and 0°C evaporating
d. -15°C condensing and 30°C evaporating
e. 50°C condensing and -5°C evaporating
B
Extra high head pressure not corresponding to temperature and trembling of discharge pressure gauge
indicates:
a. Non-condensable gases in the system
b. Not enough refrigerant
c. Too much cooling water
d. Brine temperature too high
e. Refrigerant temperature too high
A
Water used as a refrigerant has a:
a. High latent heat of fusion capacity
b. High latent heat of evaporation capacity
c. Good missing factor with oil
d. Low boiling point
e. High condensing temperature
B
The automatic expansion valve is controlled by _____________.

a. transmitter
b. evaporator pressure
c. capillary action
d. refrigerant level
e. the king valve
B
The thermostatic expansion valve controls refrigerant flow by
__________________________.

a. liquid level in the condenser

b. a temperature sensor at the evaporator inlet
c. evaporator pressure
d. liquid level in the evaporator
e. a temperature sensor at the evaporator outlet
E
The low-side float valve is controlled by ______________.

a. refrigerant level in the receiver

b. the brine level
c. a float connected to/or in the evaporator
d. evaporator pressure
e. refrigerant level in the condenser
C
A capillary tube is mainly used on __________________.

a. large industrial refrigeration units

b. small household systems
c. ammonia systems
d. lithium bromide units
e. absorption systems
B
The high-side float is usually installed on ____________.

a. the liquid receiver or may act as a float chamber itself

b. the evaporator inlet
c. the condenser
d. the line between the compressor and condenser
e. the line between the condenser and receiver
A
The capillary tube has a __________________________.

a. very small diameter

b. medium sized diameter
c. large diameter
d. convergent-divergent cross-section
e. concaved cross-sectional area
A
Refrigeration control can be achieved by regulating the flow of refrigerant to the
evaporator and also by ______________.

a. increasing the brine concentration

b. regulating the output of the compressor
c. removing refrigerant from the system
d. increasing the level of the receiver
e. regulating the level of the condenser
B
The starting and stopping of the compressor is normally done automatically by means
of __________________.

a. a pressure limiting device

b. an automatic low pressure cut-out
c. either a temperature actuated control or a pressure actuated control
d. a rheostat
e. a heat sensor in the evaporator
C
Condenser cooling water is usually controlled by ______________.

a. level controls
b. cooling tower demands
c. solenoid valves
d. hand operated gate valves
e. the level in the receiver
C

A low-pressure control in a refrigerating system can be used for _________________.

a. condenser pressure control

b. to start and stop the compressor
c. purging non-condensable gases
d. keeping the receiver pressure from getting too high
e. evaporator pressure control
B
Low-pressure cut-outs are used on refrigeration systems to _________________.

a. stop the compressor on high pressure

b. stop the compressor when the suction pressure drops too low
c. shut the system down due to non-condensable gases
d. stop the compressor when charging the system
e. stop the compressor when the discharge pressure is too low
B
Pressure relief devices may be _____________________.

a. safety valves and pressure limiting devices

b. low pressure cut outs and rupture members
c. relief valves, fusible plugs or rupture members
d. charging safety equipment
e. high & low level cut offs
C
An oil pressure failure switch is used to ______________.

a. prevent damage to the compressor due to inadequate lubrication

b. add oil automatically to the compressor
c. warn the operator of low oil
d. close the expansion valve if the oil pressure gets low
e. prevent damage to the condenser due to inadequate oil level
A
The oil separator is always inserted in the system __________________.
a. to prevent oil logging
b. in a cool pot
c. discharge line
d. suction line
e. the bottom of the evaporator
C
Oil separators and traps on an ammonia system _________________.

a. return the oil to the receiver

b. remove the oil from the condenser discharge and direct it to the drain
c. separate the oil from the compressor discharge and return it to the compressor
d. help the oil in the condenser and receiver to be drained when necessary
e. separate the oil from the receiver and return it to the compressor
C
Purging lines and valves are usually located in ammonia compression systems on the
_____________________.

a. evaporator outlet
b. bottom of the receiver
c. top of the receiver
d. compressor outlet
e. top of the evaporator
C

Most purge lines are connected to the top of the condenser and the top of the receiver

Refrigeration systems are purged ___________________.

a. to release excess refrigerant

b. to rid the system of non-condensable gases
c. to rid the system of moisture
d. to lower the evaporator pressure
e. to lower the system pressure
B
Purge valves are required on a refrigeration system for ______________________.

a. ridding the system of oil vapors

b. getting rid of non-condensable gases in the brine
c. reducing back pressure on start-up
d. purging non-condensable gases out of the system
e. purging oil out of the condenser
D
Moisture in refrigerating systems could cause _________________.

a. high temperatures
b. freeze-ups and clogged expansion valves
c. the relief valves to open
d. high discharge pressure
e. high suction pressure
B
The effects of moisture in a refrigeration system are __________________.

a. it helps to cool and increases the refrigeration effect

b. it does not cause any troubles
c. it can freeze and clog expansion valves
d. it prevents condensate from forming
e. it can cause high receiver level
C
Moisture in refrigeration systems can be removed by _______________.

a. purging
b. heating the refrigerant
c. making the oil more absorbent
d. using a dehydration device or strainer drier
e. blowing down the system
D
Freon leaks are usually detected by _________________.

a. a lighted sulphur stick

b. a sniffer
c. using a blow torch
d. a halide torch
e. a carbon tetrachloride detector
D
If dry nitrogen is used as a testing medium in refrigeration systems the following
procedure should be used ________________.

a. remove the relief valves but not the controls

b. use higher pressure gauges
c. remove controls, relief valves and isolate the compressor and block off holes where
relief valves were fitted
d. call the Boiler Inspector
e. all gas detectors must be activated
C
Before charging a refrigeration system, a high vacuum is maintained inorder to
______________________.
a. draw in atmospheric air
b. prevent an explosion
c. condense moisture to be removed
d. prevent condensate from evaporating
e. evaporate moisture so it can be removed in vapor form
E
The liquid charging valve is usually connected to a line located
_____________________.

a. between the liquid shut-off valve and the expansion valve

b. between the king valve and the condenser
c. at the compressor discharge line
d. between the purge valve and condenser
e. between the purge valve and the expansion valve
A
In an indirect ammonia system using brine and a water-cooled condenser, the
discharge pressure is controlled by ______________________.

a. the load on the brine

b. regulating the expansion valve
c. regulating the cooling water to the condenser
d. using a pressure release valve
e. the amount of ammonia refrigerant used
C
In an indirect ammonia vapor compression system using brine, the suction pressure is
controlled by ________________.

a. the load on the brine

b. the flow of the condensing water to the condenser
c. throttling the metering valve
d. equalizing valve
e. the flow of the cooling water to the suction side of the compressor
A
A pressure-limiting device will _____________________.

a. prevent the rupture disc from breaking

b. prevent the emergency disc from breaking
c. stop the compressor before the relief valves lift
d. keep the clearance pocket pressure regulated
e. prevent the pressure relief valve from discharging
C
The emergency discharge line on refrigeration systems shall
_______________________.

a. be connected directly to the top of the receiver or other vessel used for storing the
refrigerant
b. be connected to the compressor
c. have two valves connected to charging drum
d. have two return bends in the piping
e. be connected directly to the top of the condenser and the compressor
A
The emergency valve shall be installed _________________.

a. within reach of the receiver

b. outside of the engine room at a height of two metres
c. in a glass fronted box painted yellow
d. in a glass fronted box painted bright orange, inside of the control room and so placed
that it cannot be tampered with by any other than the person called upon to open the
valve in an emergency
e. in a glass fronted box painted bright red, outside of the building and so placed that it
cannot be tampered with by any other than the person called upon to open the valve in
an emergency
E
The emergency line of refrigeration system shall be provided with a
_____________________________.

a. check valve
b. diffuser at its upper end which shall be placed above the roof
c. strainer
d. drain valve
e. two stop valves
B
Pressure limiting devices of refrigeration systems shall be connected
_________________________.

a. between the compressor and the stop valve on the suction side
b. to a blowdown tank
c. to the receiver outlet
d. between the compressor and the stop valve on the discharge side
e. between the inlet of the condenser and the outlet of the receiver
D
The person in charge of a refrigerating system with a prime mover having a capacity
exceeding 125 kW: _____________.

a. shall post a card of instructions near the refrigerant compressor

b. shall have the operating instructions in safe keeping
c. shall not worry about emergency instructions
d. shall give the operators the instructions
e. shall be operated by 3rd class power engineer only
A
Regulations for refrigeration are contained in the _________________.

a. CSA B-51 code

b. CSA B-52 code
c. ASME Section IV
d. ASME Section VII
e. ASME Mechanical refrigeration code
B
The emergency valve on ammonia systems should be _____________.

a. located near the compressor

b. between emergency line and the evaporator
c. located outside the building
d. near the fire alarm
e. located at the exit leading to the outside of the building
C
High pressure cut-outs are used on refrigeration systems to
________________________.

a. stop the compressor when the pressure on the high pressure side of the system is
too high
b. stop the compressor when the pressure on the low pressure side of the system is too
low
c. stop the compressor due to non condensable gases in the system being too high
d. stop the compressor when changing the system
e. stop the compressor when the system ran too long
A
Pressure limiting devices should be provided on a refrigeration system with more than
____ kg of refrigerant.

a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
e. 9
E

In the book it says "pressure limiting device may be omitted on any factory sealed
system that contains less than 10 kg of Group A1 refrigerant
The problem with oil is the greatest in the ____________ of a refrigeration system.

a. condenser
b. receiver
c. evaporator
d. compressor
e. purger
C
An oil separator is installed in refrigeration systems to prevent oil from carrying over to
the ______________.

a. condenser
b. receiver
c. evaporator
d. compressor
e. purger
A
Which of the following oil separator used in a refrigeration consists of a series of baffles
through which the oil laden refrigerant must pass?

a. Cyclone
b. Impingement
c. Oil still
d. Inverted trap
e. I.G.F.
B
The presence of non condensable gases in a refrigeration system can cause
_____________________.

a. breakdown of the lubricating oil

b. impurities in the refrigerant
c. low discharge pressure
d. high discharge pressure
e. low suction pressure
D
The majority of the non condensable gases in a refrigeration system tends to collect at
the highest point of the _____________ naturally.

a. compressor
b. receiver
c. condenser
d. evaporator
e. purger
C
When moisture combines with refrigerants it could cause the formation of
______________________.

a. concentrated refrigerant
b. diluted refrigerant
c. mildly corrosive compounds
d. highly corrosive compounds
e. strong base cation
D
When using __________ as a refrigerant, moisture corrosion will not usually be a
problem:

a. ammonia
b. propane
c. R-12
d. R-22
e. CO2
D
Before admitting any refrigerant, the entire refrigeration system is put
_________________________________________________.

a. slightly above atmospheric pressure

b. well above atmospheric pressure
c. under a slight vacuum
d. under a high vacuum
e. above the dew point
D
A salometer is a type of _____________________ that is used to indicate the
percentage of salt in a solution.

a. hydrometer
b. manometer
c. flowmeter
d. concentrator
e. spectrophotometer
A
When a concentrated solution is at its lowest freezing point, it is called a
______________________ solution.

a. sub temperature
b. super critical
c. sub critical
d. critical
e. eutectic
E
The lowest freezing point obtainable for a mixture of sodium chloride and water is
_____________.

a. -12°C
b. -21°C
c. -30°C
d. -43°C
e. -51°C
B
The lowest freezing point obtainable for a mixture of calcium chloride and water is
___________.

a. -12°C
b. -21°C
c. -30°C
d. -43°C
e. -51°C
E
When the pressure difference across a capillary tube is increased:

a. The flow of refrigerant increases.

b. The flow of refrigerant decreases.
c. The pressure of the refrigerant increases.
d. The pressure of the refrigerant decreases.
e. There is no change in the flow rate.
A
The king valve on an ammonia vapor compression system serves as a:

a. Refrigerant control valve.

b. Valve to connect the ammonia drum when charging the system.
c. Brine control valve.
d. Master isolation shut-off valve.
e. The condenser flow control.
D
Low-pressure cut outs are used on refrigeration systems to:
a. Stop the compressor on high pressure.
b. Stop the compressor when the suction pressure drops too low.
c. Shut the system down due to non-condensable gases.
d. Stop the compressor when charging the system.
e. Stop the compressor when the discharge pressure is too low.
B
The person in charge of a refrigerating system, containing more than 45 kg (100 lbs) of
refrigerant shall:

a. Post a card of refrigerant system information near the refrigerant compressor

b. Have the operating instructions in safe keeping
c. Not worry about emergency instructions
d. Give the operators the instructions
e. Be operated by 3rd class power engineer only.
A
In an indirect ammonia system using brine:

a. The refrigerant is cooled by the brine

b. The brine is used to condense the ammonia
c. The brine absorbs heat from the space to be cooled
d. Only Freon 22 refrigerants are used
e. The condenser pressure must be very high.
C
Ammonia refrigerant will:

a. Mix easily with mineral oil

b. Not mix with mineral oils
c. Mix with oils when heated
d. Not mix with water
e. Be added with oil for lubrication purposes.
B
Refrigeration application uses could include:

a. Heating methods in industry

b. Gas distillation process
c. Refrigerant oil purification
d. Air conditioning humidifying
e. Air conditioning or gas dehydration.
E
Where public occupancy is a concern when using Safety Group 2 refrigerants the safest
systems are:

a. Direct refrigeration
b. Indirect systems
c. Any available system
d. Automatic refrigeration
e. The C.S.A. approved refrigeration systems.
B
The cross-over valves on a compressor are used when:

a. Adding refrigerant
b. Pumping out the evaporator
c. The other valves need to be repaired without shutting down
d. Pumping out the condenser
e. Pumping out the receiver.
D
The equalizing valve on an ammonia compressor is connected from the:

a. Evaporator to the condenser

b. Crankcase to the suction line
c. Receiver to the evaporator
d. Crankcase to the discharge line
e. Condenser to the evaporator
B
The flow of refrigerant to the evaporator is controlled by the:

a. King valve
b. Suction flow regulating valve
c. Purge Valve
d. Expansion valve
e. Discharge flow regulating valve
D
Crankcase oil may be added to the compressor by:

a. Adding oil to the filter cap

b. Keeping a slight pressure on the crankcase
c. Closing in the suction valve when the system is operating to maintain a vacuum on
the crankcase, and drawing in oil through an equalizing return connection
d. Open the by-pass on the suction side to draw in oil
e. Using a pressurized oil filler
C
The evaporator is where:

a. The liquid refrigerant is stored

b. The liquid refrigerant absorbs heat and boils into a vapor
c. The gas condenses
d. Most of refrigerant is stored
e. The refrigerant is charged into liquid
B
Refrigeration for air conditioning requires:

a. Only moderate pressures

b. Very high condensing pressure
c. Very low refrigeration temperatures
d. Only reciprocating compressors
e. Very high condensing temperature
A
A pressure limiting device will:

a. Prevent the rupture disc from breaking.

b. Prevent the emergency disc from breaking.
c. Stop the compressor before the relief valves lift.
d. Keep the clearance pocket pressure regulated.
e. Prevent the pressure relief valve from discharging.
C
Large lithium bromide absorption refrigeration systems used for air conditioning
purposes:

a. Require more power to operate than the compression (mechanical) refrigeration

systems
b. Circulate chilled water for cooling
c. Condense lithium bromide for cooling
d. Are always the direct type of refrigeration system
e. Make use of low temperature steam for cooling
B
A water valve controls discharge pressure of the refrigerant by:

a. Regulating the flow of water to the condenser.

b. Making indirect refrigerant routes.
c. Keeping the correct water level in the cooling tank.
d. Circulating more or less brine.
e. Regulating the flow of water to the receiver.
A
High discharge pressure of a refrigeration system could indicate:

a. Cooling water flowing too fast.

b. Not enough refrigerant in the system.
c. Not sufficient condenser cooling.
d. Expansion valve not open enough.
e. King valve not open enough.
C
Suction pressure too low might be due to:

a. System load too high.

b. Not enough condenser cooling water.
c. Receiver level too high.
d. Receiver level too low.
e. Faulty or closed expansion valve.
E
Detecting moisture in a refrigeration system can be done with a:

a. Hydrometer.
b. Hygrometer.
c. Moisture indicator.
d. Moisture psychrometer.
e. Moisture separator.
C
Refrigeration compressor valves are opened and closed by:

a. External springs.
b. Inherent springs.
c. Pressure difference.
d. Temperature difference.
e. Liquid level difference.
C
When charging ammonia systems, frost on the drum bottom indicates:

a. Too much refrigerant.

b. The ambient temperature is too high.
c. Refrigerant drum is empty or very nearly empty.
d. Pressure too high.
e. Refrigerant drum is still full.
C
Refrigeration oils are usually:

a. Mineral oils with high pour point.

b. Mineral oils with low viscosity.
c. Mineral oils with low pour point and high viscosity.
d. Non-mineral oils with naphthalene base.
e. Non-mineral oils with low pour point and viscosity.
C
The flow of refrigerant to the evaporator must be controlled in order to:

a. Keep the condensing pressure at the correct temperature

b. Maintain the desired low pressure in the refrigerated space
c. Ensure the receiver level does not get too high
d. Maintain the desired low temperature in the refrigerated space
e. Keep the condensing pressure constant.
D
Clearance volume:

a. Has no effect on compressor capacity

b. Has effect on compressor capacity
c. Varies depending upon compressor speed
d. Should be the same on all compressors
e. Is the vapor volume in the receiver
B
One disadvantage of a low-side float control is:

a. Liquid slugs could be carried over to the compressor

b. The level gets too high in the receiver
c. The level in the receiver becomes very difficult to control
d. It makes it difficult to install a charging valve
e. Unstable regulation
E
The material within a strainer dryer is known as a:

a. Dehydratant
b. Demulcent
c. Desiccant
d. Designate
e. Deoxident
C
Before charging a new refrigeration installation:

a. It should be filled with water first

b. The entire refrigerant containing system must be thoroughly tested for performance

c. It should be filled with refrigerant and tested for performance

d. The entire refrigerant containing system must be completely filled with water and
hydrostatically tested
e. It should be filled with hydrogen and tested
B
Suction pressure in refrigeration systems is controlled by the:

a. Condenser cooling water

b. Refrigeration flow
c. Pressure relief valves
d. Evaporator pressure regulators
e. Compressor inlet valve
D
Hand needle expansion valve is operated by:

a. A bellows
b. Manual operation
c. A spring, loaded seat
d. A spring and diaphragm
e. A capillary action
B
The most efficient method of condenser cooling is:

a. Air cooled
b. Water cooled
c. Latent heat cooled
d. Diffusion cooled
e. Cooled by another refrigeration unit
B
Discharge pressure too low could be caused by:

a. Too much refrigerant in the system

b. Not enough cooling water in the condenser
c. High pressure cut-off set too high
d. Too much brine in the system
e. Not enough refrigerant in the system
E
Compressor short cycling could be caused by:

a. Discharge pressure too high

b. Discharge pressure too low
c. Suction pressure too high
d. Condensing water too cold
e. Condensing water too warm
A
Refrigeration installations erected in plants carrying refrigerants shall be:
a. Tested and proved tight after complete installation and before operation
b. Visually inspected before operation
c. Filled with refrigerant and trial operated
d. Painted with rust resistant paint
e. Filled water and hydro tested
A
Refrigeration capacity of a system depends upon:

a. The mass of condenser cooling water being circulated

b. The mass of refrigerant being circulated per unit time, the operating conditions of the
system, and the refrigerant effect
c. The brine flow
d. The mass and type of refrigerant
e. The total mass of refrigerant used per day
B
A _____ works on the principle of cool air contacting and removing heat from warm
water.
Select one:
A. Shell and tube exchanger
B. Circulating pump
C. Cooling tower
D. Evaporator
E. Deaerator
C
Which of the following are true for aerial heat exchangers?
1. A bay may have one or more tube bundles
2. A unit may have one or more bays
3. A bank may have one or more units
4. Temperature control may be attained by stop start or variable speed fans
5. Cleaning the outside of coils is a regular maintenance chore
Select one:
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 2, 3
D. 2, 3, 4
E. 2, 4, 5
A
Which of the following are true?
1. Kettle reboilers have a large liquid volume.
2. Kettle reboilers may use a weir to keep fluid above the tubes.
3. It is important not to flood Thermosyphon reboilers.
4. Thermosyphons depend on a difference in fluid density to promote flow.
Select one:
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
E. 1, 2, 3, 4
B
Which of the following are true for overhead aerial condensers?
1. The footprint influences the design choice
2. Air re-circulation is a way to control temperatures in a tube bank
3. Headers or header boxes contain plugs for tube cleaning
4. Freezing of tube bundles is not normally a concern even on cold days
5. The vertical type is only used for steam condensing
Select one:
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 3, 4
C. 3, 4, 5
D. 1, 3, 5
E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
A
A split flow shell and tube exchanger:
Select one:
A. has 1 inlet and 2 outlets shell side
B. has 1 inlet and 1 outlet shell side
C. has 2 inlets and 2 outlets shell side
D. Must be a reboiler
E. Is the same as a cross flow
C
The cooling tower design in which the fan is least likely to ice up is:
Select one:
A. Hyperbolic
B. Induced draft
C. Forced draft
D. Counterflow
E. Balance draft
B
The hyperbolic cooling tower has the advantages of:
1. Low initial cost
2. Low power consumption
3. Dependability
4. Minimum maintenance
Select one:
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 3, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 1, 2, 4
E. 1, 2, 3, 4
B
In a Cooling tower the drift eliminators:
Select one:
A. Break the water into thin sheets to increase the surface area
B. Discharge the air at high velocity to minimize re-circulation
C. Induce the flow of air through the cooling section
D. Separate entrained moisture from the air
E. Prevent waves in the reservoir
D
Hairpin exchangers:
Select one:
A. Are mainly used when the exchange surface area exceeds 50 m²
B. Are easily assembled
C. Are easily cleaned
D. Are used only for low pressures
E. Are rarely used for heat exchange surfaces below 18m2
B
Shell and tube exchangers:
Select one:
A. Are very limited in design and usage
B. Are not suitable for high temperatures or pressures
C. Provide a large area for heat exchange
D. Are compact
C
Which of the following are true for feed water heaters?
1. High pressure feedwater heaters are used between the BFP and boiler
2. Low pressure feedwater heaters are used between the hotwell and deaerator
3. Turbine extraction steam is commonly used for feedwater heater
4. Feedwater heaters increase cycle efficiency, resulting in lower fuel costs
5. Feed water heaters are not considered pressure vessels
Select one:
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 3
C. 1, 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4
E. 1, 2, 3
D
Which of the below are true of the Fixed Tube Sheet shell and tube exchanger?
1. Has a tube pattern that can fill the shell
2. Has tube sheets welded to the shell
3. Tube sheets can extend past the shell for bolting up
4. The design allows for differences in thermal expansion between the shell and
tube bundle
5. Allows brush cleaning
Select one:
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 2, 3, 4, 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 5
D. 1, 2, 4, 5
E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C
In one design of shell and tube exchanger, a floating head:
Select one:
A. Helps to allow for expansion due to heat
B. Helps the operator to control water hammer
C. Helps the millwright to flare the tubes
D. Can be constructed of plastic
A
Which of the following are true for plate heat exchangers?
1. High turbulence helps prevent fouling
2. Heat transfers well through the thin plates
3. Not good for thick fluids
4. They have a low-pressure drop
5. Gasket placement is critical
Select one:
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 2, 3, 4, 5
C. 1, 3, 4, 5
D. 1, 2, 4, 5
E. 1, 2, 3, 5
E
Concentric pipe heat exchangers:
Select one:
A. Typically use concurrent flows
B. Always use a smooth bore annulus
C. Are bulky
D. Always use consecutive flows
E. Are used for low heat duties
E
A ___________ works on the principle of cool air contacting and removing heat
from warm water.

a. shell and tube exchanger

b. circulating pump
c. cooling tower
d. evaporator
e. deaerator
C
The hyperbolic cooling tower has the advantages of:
1) Low initial cost
2) Low power consumption
3) Long service life
4) Minimum maintenance

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
B
The cooling tower design in which the fan is least likely to ice up is:

a. Hyperbolic
b. Induced draft
c. Forced draft
d. Counterflow
e. Balance draft
B
The cooling tower design in which the noise level from the fan is likely to be the
lowest is:

a. Hyperbolic
b. Induced draft
c. Forced draft
d. Counterflow
e. Balance draft
B
The double pipe heat exchanger belongs to the ___________ category.
a. regenerative
b. bent pipe
c. double tube
d. jacketed pipe
e. recuperative
E
The concentric pipe heat exchanger is suitable for high pressure service because
______________________.

a. the metal selected is stainless steel

b. the tubes, etc are small in dimension
c. the tubes are seamless construction
d. the unit is ASME stamped
e. None of the above
B
The double pipe heat exchanger is a _______________ flow design.

a. concurrent
b. high differential temperature
c. high differential pressure
d. countercurrent
e. low differential temperature
D
Concentric pipe heat exchanger fins can be attached by ________________.

a. mechanical insertion
b. casting
c. brazing
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
A
The disadvantages of hairpin heat exchangers are:
1) Small heat transfer surface area
2) Not a flexible design
3) Cleaning is expensive
4) Each hairpin introduces more leak points
5) Non-standardized parts

a. 1, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 4, 5
e. 2, 4, 5
A
Which of the following is a disadvantage of a U-shaped shell and tube heat
exchanger ____________________.

a. tubes are bent to a minimum radius

b. outer tubes are easily replaced
c. only one tube sheet
d. no differential expansion
e. good for high temperatures only
C
U shaped shell and tube heat exchangers are not known for
______________________.

a. high heat transfer rates

b. high temperatures
c. high pressure
d. high differential expansion
e. All of the above
D
Fixed tube sheet shell and tube heat exchangers have ________________.

a. tube sheets that are contained with in the shell

b. little access for cleaning
c. tubes that are hard to plug
d. tube sheets not welded to the shell
e. None of the above
E
Fixed tube sheet chemical cleaning is used to clean ________________.

a. the inside of the tubes

b. the outside of the tubes
c. only the tubesheets
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
B
The floating tube sheet in the design allows for the _____________.

a. tube bundles to be easily removed

b. tube bundles to be easily repaired
c. different designs for different applications
d. different rates of expansion
e. use of different pressures and temperatures
D
Reboilers are _________________________________.

a. an exchanger with process fluids on the tube inside

b. a boiler with steam on the outside of the tubes
c. an exchanger with steam inside the tubes
d. an exchanger that only reheats fluids to drive off vapours
e. a boiler that produces steam to heat vapours
C
What are the advantages of a Kettle type reboiler:
1) Provides flexibility
2) Rapid steamer
3) Gravity circulation
4) Easily accessible
5) Smaller size

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 5
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 4, 5
e. 1, 3, 4
E
Horizontal thermosyphon reboilers require _________________.

a. a large vapor space

b. a small vapour space
c. a flooded shell
d. lots of heat transfer tubes
e. placement equal to the liquid level in the tower
C
Vertical thermosyphon reboiler often has _____________________.

a. heated liquid on the tube side

b. positioning next to a horizontal tower
c. steam on the tube side
d. liquid on the shell side
e. All of the above
A
In a horizontal thermosyphon reboiler, heat is controlled by
_____________________________________.

a. adding more steam to the vessel

b. raising the vapour pressure on the shell
c. reducing the vapour pressure on the shell
d. raising the levels on the shell side
e. by varying the condensate level in the tube side
E
Plate heat exchangers (PHE's) use what to separate the two mediums a/an
_______________________________.

a. rubber gaskets
b. different flow patterns
c. the plate corrugations
d. inlet and outlet piping
e. alternate plates
E
Maximum cooling in PHE's is maintained by _______________.

a. corrugating the plates

b. inlets and outlets at the plate corners
c. counter flowing the two streams
d. the thickness of the gaskets
e. thinness of the steel plates
B
High heat transfer coefficients are maintained by ________________.

a. the use of numerous plates

b. the use of stainless steel
c. thinness of the gaskets
d. close spacing of the plates
e. All of the above
D
The use of compression bolts on PHE's is to ________________.

a. tighten end plates

b. seal gaskets
c. compress the plate pack
d. decrease flow channel size
e. All of the above
E
Advantages of PHE's include:
1) A rapid start up
2) Leakage easily detected
3) Enables use of low flow rates for erosion
4) Can cool toxic materials
5) Minimal heat loss

a. 1, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 5
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 3, 4, 5
e. 1, 3, 5
B
Aerial Coolers are not used for _____________________.

a. cooling below ambient temperature

b. where water supply is limited
c. cooling in series with water coolers
d. cooling before water coolers
e. cooling where water fouling is a concern
A
Aerial coolers can be used when the liquid temperature is above:

a. 25°C
b. 35°C
c. 45°C
d. 55°C
e. 65°C
D
Aerial coolers are arranged in _____________________.

a. units
b. bays
c. bundles
d. banks
e. All of the above
E
In an Aerial cooler, how many bundles are in a bay _____________________.

a. one
b. two
c. one or more
d. two or more
e. three
C
In an aerial cooler, a bay has how many fans:

a. one
b. one or more
c. two
d. two or more
e. three
D
Temperatures in Aerial coolers are not controlled by ___________________.

a. stop, start of fans

b. induced draft fans
c. louvers open or closed
d. natural draft
e. forced draft
D
Vertical arrangements of overhead aerial coolers are not used
_____________________.

a. to take advantage of natural flow from top to bottom

b. to take the wind into consideration
c. in steam condensing applications
d. to keep the footprint small
e. in small packaged units
C
The most common configuration of an overhead aerial condenser cooler is
__________________________________.

a. vertical
b. A frame
c. V frame
d. horizontal
e. All of the above
D
Overhead aerial condensers control very low freezing temperatures by
_________________________.

a. closing louvers at the entrance

b. closing louvers at the exit
c. recirculating hot exhaust air
d. controlling the fan speed
e. shutting down all the fans
C
The most common configuration of power generating plant steam condensing
overhead aerial condensers are _____________________.

a. vertical
b. A frame
c. V frame
d. horizontal
e. All of the above
B
The most commonly used method of increasing aerial cooler capacity is
______________________.

a. larger cooling fans

b. increase number of headers
c. increase the number of tube bundles
d. change the tube configuration
e. add fins to the tubes
E
When cooling fluids, atmospheric spray cooling towers do not depend on
__________________________.

a. atmospheric conditions
b. wind drift
c. wind direction
d. tower fill
e. spray
D
The cooling process in atmospheric packed tower depends on
_____________________________.

a. the production of fine droplets

b. the direction of the wind
c. air speed through the tower
d. the proper use of natural currents
e. the proper design of the louvres
A
The greatest savings in a Hyperbolic cooling tower is the _________________.

a. use of small amounts of packing

b. concrete structures last forever
c. savings in power
d. small footprint
e. reliability of the tower
C
In counterflow hyperbolic cooling towers, the cooling is most dependent on
_________________________.

a. clean suction screens

b. density difference of the air
c. adequate water flow over the tower
d. cooling water drift
e. adequate air flows
B
Hyperbolic towers are used because ____________________.

a. they work in humid climates

b. they are extremely dependable
c. they are predictable in operation
d. they cost less to maintain
e. All of the above
E
Mechanical draft cooling towers are best used when
_________________________.

a. they are in a dry climate

b. the intakes are unobstructed
c. they are close to the plant
d. there is no wind
e. the water flow in each cell is equal
A
Makeup to a cooling tower is best prevented by ____________________.

a. use of smaller fans

b. installation of tower packing
c. use of louvres
d. tower orientation
e. drift eliminators
E
Forced draft cooling towers do not use ______________________.

a. fill
b. spray
c. pack
d. louvres
e. drift eliminators
D
Forced draft cooling towers are not suited to cold weather operation because
___________________.

a. the fans pump cold air

b. the exhausted hot air can not be recirculated
c. the cold inlet air causes freezing in the tower bottom
d. The drift eliminators freeze up and plug
e. None of the above
A
What is the greatest advantage of induced draft cooling towers?

a. The fans will not freeze

b. A smaller footprint-fits on an existing site
c. No recirculation of warm air
d. The induced draft cooling tower has the highest heat transfer
e. None of the above
C
The greatest disadvantage of a counterflow induced draft tower is ___________.

a. the height of the tower

b. high horsepower electric motors
c. very complex path for the air flow
d. structure must be heavier to withstand the added weight
e. louvers can freeze and cause collapse of tower
B
The greatest advantage of a crossflow cooling tower is _____________.

a. they are lower in height

b. they are larger and have a more stable footprint
c. they are smaller and have lighter fans
d. they have a very long air travel path
e. they are less prone to warm air recirculation
D
The greatest influence on the operating efficiency of a cooling tower is
________________________.

a. the size of the fans

b. the height of the tower
c. the length of the air path
d. the amount of fill and spray
e. the contact time between air and water
E
The number one reason for fill in a cooling tower is to
___________________________.

a. break the water into small droplets

b. make the air path as tortuous as possible
c. increases the cooling capacity
d. lower the overall height of the tower
e. maximize air/water contact time
E
Most indirect fired heaters have ______________ firing systems.

a. elaborate
b. very expansive
c. simple
d. complicated
e. manual
C
The pilot used for most of the indirect fired heaters are the ______________ type.

a. on-demand
b. ignition
c. interrupted
d. continuous
e. intermittent
D
The main burner on the indirect fired heater is turned off and on by a thermostat which senses
___________________.

a. the heater stack temperature

b. the heater solution temperature
c. the fire tube temperature
d. the coil bundle temperature
e. the flue gas temperature
B
Before starting an indirect fired heater, ensure the proper operating level of the heat transfer
fluid has been established in the heater shell and __________________.

a. the level is always above the process heating coil

b. the level is always just below the process heating coil
c. the level is always between the fire tube and the process tube
d. the level is always at the mid point of the heater
e. the level is always above the expansion tank
A
The burner of an indirect heater will burn at ____________ rate until the desired heat transfer
fluid temperature is reached.

a. ¼
b. ½
c. ¾
d. full
e. modulating
D
When a direct-fired heat is used to heat the process fluid drawn off the bottom of a fractionator
tower, it is called fractionator:

a. Heater.
b. Reboiler.
c. Reaction.
d. Storage.
e. Cracking.
B
The inner walls and floor of a vertical fired heater are lined with:

a. Refractory bricks.
b. Tubes.
c. Heating coils.
d. Cooling coils.
e. Metal sheaths.
A
Airflow to each individual burner for a fired heater is controlled by:

a. A fixed damper.
b. An air separator.
c. An air compressor.
d. An air register.
e. An outlet damper.
D
The step immediately following purging of the furnace is:

a. Opening of the pilot fuel valve.

b. Opening of the main gas fuel valve.
c. Energizing the flame scanner.
d. Tripping of the LWFCO.
e. Energizing of the electric igniter.
E

The book just says that following the purging, the BMS allows the pilot to be lit.
On a fired heater the manual vent value downstream of the constant fuel pressure regulator is
used for the purpose of:

a. Venting the gas when the pressure is too high.

b. Flaring of the gas when the pressure is too high.
c. Venting the gas during shut down to isolate the downstream piping.
d. Regulating the gas pressure upstream of the main fuel control valve.
e. Regulating the gas pressure downstream of the regulator.
C

The pilot flame must be detected within _____ seconds, otherwise the pilot gas will be shut off.

a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
e. 30
A

During startup it has 10 seconds to detect a flame.

During regular operation, if the scanner fails to see a flame for 4 seconds then the fuel gas will
shut in.
In an indirect fired heater the fluid flowing in the process tubes is heated by the:

a. Intermediate fluid that is heated by the fire tube.

b. Fire tube immersed in the furnace.
c. Air that is heated by the fire tube.
d. Flue gases leaving the furnace.
e. Steam in the steam dome.
A
Normal areas to measure draft in a fired heater are:

1. In the midpoint of the radiant section.

2. Near the floor of the firebox.
3. Just below the convection section.
4. In the duct above the convection section.

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
D
Indirect fired heaters use different heat transfer liquids or media for different temperature
applications. The most common types of media are:

1. Water.
2. Glycol.
3. Oil.
4. Salt solutions.

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
E
In a Vertical Cylindrical Heater, they are bottom fired and have a _____ radiant section and the
convection section is _____.

a. Vertical, horizontal.
b. Cylindrical, rectangular.
c. Circular, oval.
d. Longitudinal, circumferential.
e. Big, small.
B
The fuel shut off valves to the burners are normally in the _____ position, when the heater is
on line.

a. Closed.
b. Throttled.
c. 3/4 open.
d. Open.
e. 1/3 open.
D
Most vertical fired heaters are of the _____ draft design.

a. Natural.
b. Mechanical.
c. Forced.
d. Balanced.
e. Mixed.
A
Completion of purging automatically fired heaters is usually determined by:

a. The volume of air drawn in.

b. The volume of exhaust air.
c. The amount of excess air.
d. Time.
e. The O2 level of the premix air.
D
Which of the following require the use of direct fired heaters.

1. Fractionator reboiling.
2. Preheating the process feed to a reactor.
3. To heat a heat transfer medium.
4. Heating viscous fluids.

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
E
If the fired heater is to be started in short time after it is shut down, the _____ can be shut to
keep the heater warm.

a. Main observation door.

b. Forced draft fan inlet vanes.
c. Induced draft fan inlet vanes.
d. Stack damper and air register.
e. Manway cover plate.
D
A Eutectic salt solution used as a heat transfer medium in an indirect heater is a mixture of:

a. Sodium nitrate and magnesium nitrate.

b. Calcium nitrate and magnesium nitrate.
c. Sodium nitrate and calcium nitrate.
d. Sodium nitrite and potassium nitrate.
e. Calcium nitrate and potassium nitrate.
D
In a Horizontal Rectangular Direct Fired Heater, the _____ is/are mounted on the floor of the
furnace and extend along a center line from the front to the back of the furnace.

a. Breeching.
b. Convection tubes.
c. Radiant tubes.
d. Fire box.
e. Burners.
E
Due to their great efficiency, the most commonly used heaters, particularly in the larger sizes,
are the _____ heaters.

a. Vertical.
b. Convection.
c. Combination vertical and horizontal.
d. Radiation.
e. Combination convection and radiant.
E
The _____ and the _____ assembly are mounted on top of the convection section of vertical
fired heaters.

a. Economizer, superheater.
b. Economizer, air heater.
c. Stack, damper.
d. Reheater, reboiler.
e. Air heater, superheater.
C
In order to ensure the burners are functioning within their safe limits, the fired heaters are
equipped with:

a. An emergency shut down device.

b. A high or low fuel gas pressure shut down.
c. A high stack temperature switch.
d. A pilot burner flame failure device.
e. A pressure relief valve.
B

This question deals with the burners only. Regarding heater safety, the book mentions...
- Emergency Shutdown Switch
- High or low fuel gas pressure switch
- Flame Failure
- High Stack Temperature
- Low Process Flow
The main fuel and bypass fuel control valves regulate the fuel pressure to the:

a. Main safety shut off valve.

b. Constant fuel pressure regulator.
c. Main atmospheric vent valve.
d. Manual shut off valve.
e. Burners.
E
The manual shut off valves at each burner are labeled "SS", which stand for:

a. Safety supervisory valve.

b. Slow-blow safety valve.
c. Double shut-off valve.
d. Double block and bleed shut off valve.
e. Supervisory shut off valve.
E
_____ are essential parts of the burner safety management system.

a. Low Water Fuel Cutoffs.

b. Flame Scanners.
c. Flame Igniters.
d. Gas Burner Nozzles.
e. Fuel Pressure Gages.
B
Heaters in which the flue gas does not come in contact with the process heating tubes are:

a. Combination fired heaters.

b. Radiant fired heaters.
c. Convection fired heaters.
d. Indirect fired heaters.
e. Direct fired heaters.
D
The _____ controls the amount of the flue gas exiting the fired heater.

a. Air register on the burner.

b. Stack.
c. Induced draft gage.
d. Forced draft fan.
e. Stack damper.
E
Why would you preheat the process feed to a reactor?
Sometimes startup heaters are used to get the fluid hot enough to get the chemical reaction
started
What is the efficiency of radiant heaters?
40 to 50%
What is the efficiency of convection heaters?
75 to 85%
What do convection heater tubes have on their surface?
Fins
What is the most common fired heater design?
The vertical heater
What type of heater essentially divides the furnace vertically? How?
The "central tube wall" design. It has a row of radiant tubes that divides the furnace vertically.

It's often referred to as a double fired design.

What does "box heater" refer to when speaking of heaters?
Heaters that have a rectangular shape in their radiant sections
What is the term used to describe the flow of combustion gasses upwards from the burners to
the stack?
Updraft
The burners on fired heaters are similar to what type of other burners?
The ones used on boilers
What is the most common fuels for burners?
Gas, oil, or a combination of the two
Describe a "premix" burner
Gas and primary air flow through a central mixing tube and the mixture is ignited as it leaves
the burner tip
What is typically the percentage of excess air?
Between 10 and 30%
How could unburned fuel be ignited in a fired heater if no flame is present?
The hot refractory could ignite the fuel
What is draft as it relates to a heater?
The difference in pressure between the inside of the heater and the outside
How is draft measurement done?
With draft gauges that are special types of inclined manometers
What should a good burner flame look like?
Translucent blue with orange tips
How should you set the airflow for excess air?
Reduce the air until the flame starts to turn orange then increase the air slightly
What is the way to more accurately determine the excess air?
By using an oxygen analyzer on the flue gas
What could High Stack temperature trip be an indicator of?
A tube inside leaking and spraying combustible fluid into the furnace
Why is "low process flow" a protective device?
Because if the process fluid flow is low or interrupted, the tubes could quickly overheat

When only one burner is on and the burner pressure is low, what could you say of the heater?

It is on minimum firing
What are the three main components of an indirect fired heater?
The shell or heat media reservoir

A burner or fire tube

Process coil bundle

What is the advantage of oil bath heaters (beside heating up to 260° C)
The oil protects the heating tubes from general corrosion and pitting
Molten salt baths can achieve process outlet temperates of _________° C
400° C
Are salt baths corrosive to the coils or shell?
No
Toxicity levels in wastewater treatment are measured in __________.

a. mg/L
b. kg/L
c. mg/mL
d. kg/kL
e. mg/ML
A
The upper PH level limit for wastewater is at _____ .

a. 8
b. 8.5
c. 9
d. 9.5
e. 10
B
The lower Ph level limit for wastewater is at _____.

a. 5.5
b. 6
c. 6.5
d. 7
e. 7.5
C
In regards to wastewater the abbreviation BOD means; ___________________.

a. bad oil damage

b. biodegradable oil demand
c. biochemical odor department
d. biochemical oxygen demand
e. biochemical oxygen damage
D
The temperature of the water being dumped into the receiving water is important. The higher the
temperature the higher the need for _________________________.

a. chemical treatment
b. deaeration
c. acidity test
d. direct input to the river
e. a means of cooling the incoming water
E
Methods of cooling the wastewater prior to dropping the incoming water into the receiving water
are:

1) Cooling towers
2) Deaeration
3) Long serpentine channels
4) Retention ponds
a. 1, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 4
e. 2, 3
A

The added benefit of using a cooling tower to cool the wastewater is ______________________.

a. some of the water evaporates in the air, less to take care of

b. it increases the dissolved oxygen content of the wastewater
c. it will cool the wastewater below ambient temperature
d. no operator required
e. the chemical oxygen demand is increased
B
To allow for reasonable separation in an oil/water separation pond, which is a component of an
industrial wastewater treatment plant, the separator should have sufficient capacity to hold the
average flow for _________ .

a. 1 day
b. 1 to 2 days
c. 2 to 4 days
d. 3 to 4 days
e. 4 to 5 days
C
The stabilization lagoon should be large enough to hold the effluent of the of the oil/water
separation pond to contain _________ discharge from the plant.

a. one week
b. two weeks
c. three weeks
d. one month
e. two months
D
In order to enable aerobic bacteria and other organisms to break down the organic components in
the wastewater __________ are used.

a. clarifiers
b. chemicals
c. enzimes
d. a combination of sun lights and ultra violet light
e. compressed air bubbles
E
___________________ is/are mixed with the effluent of the wastewater heater to help breakdown
the organic materials in the flow.

a. Activated sludge
b. Activated chemicals
c. Oils
d. Polishing chemicals
e. Steam
A
In the clarifier some of the activated sludge is sent back to the first stage aeration tank, the
remainder is sent to __________.

a. wastewater heater
b. disposal
c. second stage aeration
d. polishing pond
e. oil/water separation pond
B
The removal of inorganic material in municipal wastewater system is carried out in grit and screen
sections. This removal section is sometime known as _________.

a. tailworks
b. hardworks
c. headworks
d. midworks
e. removalworks
C
The primary separation of suspended solids is facilitated by _________.

a. pumps
b. chemicals
c. activated sludge
d. gravity
e. rotating biological contactors
D
Grit, which has been removed from the wastewater in the grit chamber, is then disposed off
_________.

a. in barrels
b. in an incinerator
c. in a toxic dump
d. on farmers field
e. in landfill
E
A rotating trash screen used in a wastewater treatment plant is also called a ________________.

a. comminuter
b. compactor
c. constrictor
d. accumulator
e. barminutor
A
In a wastewater plant, some organic material accumulates on the screen, this organic material is
acceptable as landfill material.

a. True
b. False
B
An ångström unit is equivalent to ____________.

a. 10 Exp -10 m
b. 10 Exp -6 m
c. 10 Exp -3 m
d. 10 Exp -2 m
e. 10 Exp -1 m
A
_________ particles, are so small that they will not settle at the bottom or float to the top.

a. ångström
b. Colloidal
c. Activated sludge
d. Barminutor
e. Grit
B
The wastewater process that involves changing the charge of the colloidal particles is
called_________________.

a. coagulation
b. floatation
c. flocculation
d. sedimentation
e. clarifier
A
This wastewater process involves changing the colloidal particles charge, attaching them to
polyelectrolites, and allowing them to settle is called______________.

a. sedimentation
b. floatation
c. flocculation
d. coagulation
e. clarifier
D
In the coagulation process the sedimentation takes about _____ hours.

a. 0.5
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4
E
"Clarification" involves the following processes

1) Mixing
2) Floatation
3) Flocculation
4) Stabilization lagoon
5) Settling
a. 1, 3, 5
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 3
e. 1, 4, 5
A
The bacteria in activated sludge needs ________ to live.

a. water
b. oxygen
c. sugar
d. aluminum sulphate
e. salts
B
The bacteria in activated sludge feeds on _________in the wastewater.

a. aluminum sulphate
b. salts
c. organic material
d. polyelectrolytes
e. water
C
A rotating biological contactors main purpose is to reduce the ________ of the wastewater.

a. temperature value
b. acidity value
c. toxicity
d. biochemical oxygen demand value
e. PH value
D
The shaft of a rotating biological contactor is mounted in such a way that _____ of the shaft is
exposed to the air.

a. 0.1
b. 0.2
c. 0.3
d. 0.4
e. 0.5
E - Or 50%

The book says "more than half of the RBC is exposed to air"
A rotating biological contactor rotates at ____________.

a. 1 to 2 rev/min
b. 3 to 5 rev/min
c. 5 to 10 rev/min
d. 10 to 20 rev/min
e. over 20 rev/min
A
The permeable portion of a tricking filter can be made of

1) Bed of rock
2) Screens
3) Shredder
4) Slag
5) Plastic

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 4, 5
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 3, 4, 5
e. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B
The wastewater is properly cleaned when the conditions are optimized. This means
_________________________.

a. the filters have a large enough diameter

b. the quality of the wastewater is below the guidelines for the plant
c. the quantity of material in the wastewater is properly matched to the right quantity and types of
organisms
d. the quantity of material in the wastewater is properly matched to the right types of organisms
and speed of the rotating biological contactor
e. the grit level is low
C
The only place inlet samples are taken from is at the ___________.

a. flare pit
b. stabilization lagoon
c. headworks
d. oil/filter separator
e. clarifier
C
In a BPNR process, __________ are removed.

a. carbon dioxides
b. colloidal materials
c. inorganic materials
d. phosphorus compounds
e. sand and suspended solids
D

Phosphorus and nitrogen compounds are removed

The manometer used when doing a BOD test is graduated in ___________.

a. g/L
b. kg/L
c. mg/kL
d. dg/kL
e. mg/L
E
When doing a settle ability test the sample needs to sit for _____ prior to taking a reading.

a. 35 min
b. 30 min
c. 25 min
d. 20 min
e. 15 min
B
A plant section holds one months effluent from the whole plant. This is?

a. Clarifier.
b. Aeration.
c. Stabilization.
d. Flare pit.
e. Oil water separation.
C
An aerobic material is one that has:

a. Dissolved oxygen.
b. Dissolved oxygen but does have nitrite.
c. No dissolved oxygen.
d. No dissolved oxygen but does have nitrite.
e. Dissolved nitrogen but no dissolved oxygen.
A
An anoxic material is one that has:

a. Dissolved oxygen.
b. Dissolved oxygen but does have nitrite.
c. No dissolved oxygen.
d. No dissolved oxygen but does have nitrite.
e. Dissolved nitrogen but no dissolved oxygen.
D
An anaerobic material is one that has:

a. Dissolved oxygen.
b. Dissolved oxygen but does have nitrite.
c. No dissolved oxygen.
d. No dissolved oxygen but does have nitrite.
e. Dissolved nitrogen but no dissolved oxygen.
C
In a wastewater plant, some organic material accumulates on the screen. This organic material is
acceptable:

a. For storage in barrels.

b. As combustible material for an incinerator.
c. For disposal in a toxic dump.
d. For disposal on farm fields.
e. For disposal in a landfill.

Not sure about this one. Can't find it in the book

What are the four factors that affect the quality of wastewater?
Acidity
Toxicity
Oxygen Demand Levels
Temperature
What is BOD. Explain.
Biological Oxygen Demand

The rate at which microorganisms consume oxygen in water at 20° C, while decomposing organic
waste matter
What is COD. Explain.
Chemical Oxygen Demand

The amount of oxygen consumed by chemical oxidants in the water

How is complete combustion achieved in a flare pit?
By utilizing a burner system
How is compressed air bubbled into a stabilization lagoon?
By a grid system of pipes and diffuser heads
What is the purpose of the wastewater heater?
To increase the temperature for the biological process that happens in the aeration tanks
What happens in the aeration tanks. How long does the effluent stay there?
Water mixes with the activated sludge.

Stays in the first aeration tank for 6 hours

Stays in the second stage tank for up to 2 days

What is a barminutor?
A high speed shredder that traverses the bar screen
What is flotation?
Water and air is combined under pressure then depressurized into a flotation tank. The bubbles
attack onto suspended material as they rise and together, float to the surface of the liquid. The
mixture is skimmed off from the top
How large can a rock or slag bed in a trickling filter be?
Up to 70 meters in diameter and 1 to 3 meters deep
How is air delivered to the trickling filters?
By large ventilation ports at the bottom of the filter
What do anaerobic digesters need to function?
Heat. Optimal temperature is 37° C
As bacteria breaks down organic material in an anaerobic digester, what is released?
Methane gas. It can be used as fuel gas to heat the process
What does BPNR stand for?
Biological Phosphorous and Nitrogen Removal
In a preventive maintenance system, mechanical work means:

1) Inspecting
2) Adjusting
3) Preparing work orders
4) Parts inventory control
5) Lubricating

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 5
e. 2, 4, 5
D
Preventive maintenance is the systematic inspection, cleaning, lubrication and servicing of
equipment.

a. True
b. False
A
If occasional shut downs are not critical or do not lead to expensive loss of production,
preventive maintenance may be of marginal interest.

a. True
b. False
A
Preventative maintenance is the systematic __________, __________, __________,
__________ of equipment.

1) Cleaning
2) Inspection
3) Lubrication
4) Supervision
5) Servicing

a. 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3, 5
c. 2, 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 4, 5
e. 3, 4, 5
B
Preventative maintenance is based on:

1) Repairing deficiencies
2) Reporting deficiencies
3) Scheduling maintenance inspections
4) Recording repairs performed

a. 1, 3
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
E
Inspecting, adjusting and cleaning fall under which classification of preventative maintenance:

a. Actual work
b. Pre-work
c. Maintenance work
d. Mechanical work
e. Temporary work
D
Preventative maintenance can be separated into two classifications:

1) Actual work
2) Paper work
3) Mechanical work
4) Maintenance work

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 1, 4
e. 2, 4
B
Parts inventory control falls under which classification of preventive maintenance:

a. Actual work
b. Paper work
c. Temporary work
d. Mechanical work
e. Pre-work
B
A Third Class Chief Engineer should be familiar with the following maintenance management
areas:

1) Preventative maintenance
2) Management information system
3) Work order system
4) Planning and scheduling work

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 3, 4
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2
e. 3, 4
B
Operations administration records are kept to a minimum and are only taken daily and weekly.

a. True
b. False
B
The authority that makes the keeping of the log book mandatory is the:

a. Boilers Act
b. Industry Trade Union
c. Plant or Chief Engineer
d. Institute of Power Engineers
e. Workers Compensation Board
A
Requirements for the Provincial Boiler and Pressure Vessels Act and Regulations, as far as
record keeping goes, the following must be adhered to:

1) A logbook is kept in all plants

2) The log book must be available to the inspector and is a legal document
3) The boiler registration and inspection certificates are kept in a safe place
4) The Chief Inspector is kept informed of all accidents and casualties

a. 3, 4
b. 2, 4
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 1, 2, 3
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
E
Required records are kept:

1) To comply with the Provincial Boilers and Pressure Vessels Act and Regulations
2) To comply with the Provincial Workers Compensation Board
3) To comply with the ASME codes
4) To comply with the insurance companies

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2
e. 2, 4
B
The logbook is:

a. A legal document
b. Not required by Boiler Inspector
c. Not to be used as evidence in inquiries
d. Not to be used for recording operating temperatures and pressures
e. Used to record absenteeism
A
Gantt charts used in planning techniques are used for showing:

1) Total time scheduled for a job

2) Work done compared with work schedule
3) Work completed
4) Start of work

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3
D
In order to construct a good plan for a boiler outage, you must know:

1) The extent and complexity of repairs

2) The cost of the spare parts required
3) The effects of the shut down on production
4) The availability of a Boiler Inspector

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
e. 3, 4
C
The limitations of using a Gantt chart as a planning technique is that it:

a. Does not foresee delays or trouble

b. Can not cover enough basic information
c. Is only good for very small planning jobs
d. Is very hard to follow
e. Cannot be used to indicate actual work completed
A
The pre-work phase of a plan is to formulate the plan.

a. True
b. False
A
The actual work phase of a plan is to make sure that the work is done, hopefully meeting most
of the time allocations.

a. True
b. False
A
The purpose of a review of a plan is:

1) To gain experience
2) To recommend changes for the next time
3) To inform other people of various problems
4) To make a report to become part of the continuous program of planning

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
E
A key ingredient that will help it to operate effectively and efficiently is:

a. Effective communications.
b. Written communication.
c. Spoken communication.
d. Visual communication.
e. A good telephone system.
A
Written communication includes.

1. Letters.
2. Memos.
3. Posters.
4. Procedure manuals.
5. Charts.

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 3, 5
e. 2, 4, 5
B
Visual communication includes.

1. Overheads.
2. Memos.
3. Posters.
4. Procedure manuals.
5. Charts.

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3, 5
d. 2, 4, 5
e. 1, 2, 5
C
As part of the environmental management program it is important for the company to keep in
touch with the public by:
1. Brochures and info about future plans.
2. Emergency phone number in case they have a concern with operation of the facility.
3. Provide them with an emergency evacuation plan.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1, 2
e. 1, 2, 3
E
When a new employee reads the procedures for starting a piece of equipment and is shown a
way that is different than the one explained in the operation procedures, this will:

1. Erodes the credibility of the trainer.

2. Erodes the credibility of the procedures.
3. Increases the chances for the new employee to be involved in an incident.
4. Improve the chances of the new employee to pick up bad habits.

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 4
C
Procedures for plant operations are written to provide safety to the:

1. Public.
2. Owner's assets.
3. Employees.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1, 3
e. 1, 2, 3
E
The way operation procedures are written will directly affect:

a. The manager of the plant.

b. Production superintendent.
c. Chief engineer.
d. The training of new employees.
e. The maintenance superintendent.
D
The communication between _____ and _____ in plant operations is one of the most
important.

1. Warehouse and Purchasing.

2. Management.
3. Operations.
4. Human Resources.
5. Engineering.
6. Maintenance.
7. Safety and Training.
8. Engineering.

a. 4, 2
b. 7, 5
c. 1, 7
d. 3, 6
3. 2, 8
D
It is the _____ responsibility to set up a program to protect the environment that includes
training, monitoring, and reporting.

a. Chief engineer of the plant.

b. Company's.
c. Shift engineers.
d. Federal government's.
e. Provincial government's
B
Wells that are used to monitor the ground water quality are sometime called:

a. Piezometer wells.
b. Ustinov observation wells.
c. Storage tank observation wells.
d. Ground water meter wells.
e. Quality wells.
A
The main reason why plants provide its employee with procedures to operate a piece of
equipment is to:

a. Save time.
b. Save money.
c. Save both time and money.
d. Keep the plant operating at all cost.
e. Attempt to eliminate the risk of accident or incident.
E
If a company fails to control the emissions of the plant this could result in:

a. The employee being suspended.

b. The company having to shut down a boiler.
c. The company losing their operating license.
d. The company losing their Kyoto points.
e. A recorded reprimand.
C
Which of the following are the two broad classifications of preventive maintenance?
1. Actual work .
2. Paper work.
3. Mechanical work.
4. Temporary work.

a. 1, 2
b. 3, 4
c. 2, 3
d. 1, 4
e. 2, 4
C
When writing in log books, memos, manuals etc., the key elements are:

1. Use a clear layout.

2. Use of precise terminology.
3. Use of long rambling sentences.
4. Use of big words to impress others.
5. Editing of your work.

a. 1, 2, 5
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 4, 5
e. 2, 4, 5
A
Visual communications as practiced at a power plant include:

1. Written reports.
2. Exhibitions and posters.
3. Films.
4. Instructions on bulletin boards.

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 1, 4
e. 1, 3
B
At a power plant the term "preventive maintenance" involves the following actions:

1. Repairing deficiencies.
2. Reporting deficiencies.
3. Scheduling maintenance inspections.
4. Recording repairs performed.

a. 2, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
E
Records are kept in a steam plant for which of the following reasons:

1. Legal requirements.
2. Supervisory requirements.
3. Analysis and decision making requirements.
4. Financial requirements.

a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3, 4
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3
B
The demands that insurance companies put on power plants regarding record keeping are:

1. Machinery claims are filed promptly.

2. Up to date equipment inventories are available.
3. Machinery additions and deletions are brought to the insurance inspector's attention.
4. Insurance inspectors are kept informed of the date of all boiler inspections.

a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2
e. 3, 4
A
Industrial health and safety committees are established to:

a. See that boilers are inspected as required.

b. Comply with boiler insurance companies.
c. Satisfy Worker's Compensation Board requirements.
d. Comply with local Fire Marshall Regulations.
e. Satisfy the Provincial Safety Codes Act.
C
If a plan gets off schedule you might have to:

1. Check to see that the plan is being followed.

2. Remove non-critical items from the plan.
3. Work overtime.
4. Re-schedule certain events.

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 4
B
Gantt charts are used to plan:

1. Shift schedules.
2. Large and long overalls.
3. Holiday schedule.
4. Day to day operation of the plant.

a. 1, 3
b. 1, 2
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
D
The information found in an equipment record card is:

1. Equipment repair history.

2. Model type.
3. Associated costs.
4. Requisition number.

a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 1, 2, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 3, 4
C
Plants that have numerous operation units require their employees to be familiar with all of
those units by spending time working in all of them over a period of years. The most effective
way to become familiarized with a particular unit is by:

a. Asking the person leaving the shift prior to you taking the shift over.
b. Attending safety committee meetings.
c. Following the critical path method for that unit.
d. Reviewing the operation procedures for that unit.
e. Following the Gantt chart for that unit.
D
The responsibility for safety on the work-site falls upon the:

1. Employee
2. Safety committee
3. Plant management
4. Provincial inspector

a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 1, 3, 4
e. 1, 3
C
On the job safety is the responsibility of:

a. The employee
b. The safety committee
c. The plant management
d. The employer
e. All of the above
E
Which of the following is not a planning technique used in a steam plant:

a. CPM.
b. C.E.T.
c. Arrow diagrams.
d. Decision tree methods.
e. Gantt charts.
B
The composition of a plant safety committee should be made from:

a. Plant operators and maintenance personnel

b. Management, Boiler inspector and shop stewards
c. Municipal firemen and management
d. Municipal firemen, management, supervisors and operators
e. Management, supervisors, operators and laborers
E
Properly planned maintenance:

a. Requires the formation of a separate planning committee

b. Eliminates plant outages
c. Increases the operating costs of equipment
d. Reduces the unplanned outages of equipment
e. Eliminates the need of government inspections
D
One of the best methods of promoting safety is by:

a. Having employees attend safety lectures

b. Keeping safety posters placed throughout the plant
c. Setting a good example
d. Making an example of an employee who breaks safety rules or regulations
e. Enforcing safe workmanship
C
Priority scheduling dictates the work that must be done in a given sequence. First priority
category would include:

1. Safety of equipment and personnel

2. Painting of equipment
3. Replacement of damaged bearings
4. Replacement of ruptured lubricating line

a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3, 4
c. 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3,
e. 2
B
Convenience assignment maintenance scheduling:

a. Allows maintenance to be completed at the convenience of the production manager

b. Allows high pressure boiler inspections to be deferred to a three year schedule
c. Assigns maintenance work to be completed the next time the unit is out of operation for
some other reason
d. Allows the maintenance staff to complete the maintenance at their convenience
e. Allows maintenance work to be completed on a semi-annual basis
C
Critical path planning is a:

a. Schedule drawn up to indicate the remaining operating hours of equipment

b. Method of scheduling maintenance work best suited for small plants
c. Method of scheduling maintenance outages for large plants
d. Method of determining plant output
e. Method of predicting the next equipment breakdown date
C
Plants that operate their equipment on a break down maintenance program:

1. Obtain years of reliable service from the machines

2. Have greater annual production output than plants that shut down for planned maintenance
3. Schedule maintenance shut down of their machinery
4. Usually obtain less annual production due to unplanned shut down of the equipment

a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 4
e. 2
D
Environmental management program involves protection of the environment and _____
awareness.

a. Private.
b. Individual.
c. Public.
d. Government.
e. Industrial.
C
What is another way to describe a milestone when using critical path for planing?
A checkpoint
What are dummy arrows in critical path?
Dotted lines used to fill gaps in the diagram
On an extraction turbine the extraction pressure is: extraction turbine: steam to be "extracted"
at an intermediate pressure for other
a. Not critical processes.
Back-Pressure Turbine: exhausts steam at a
b. Varied according to turbine load pressure higher than atmospheric pressure,
directly used in processes that require low-
c. Maintained constant regardless of turbine load pressure steam.
d. Proportional to the turbine load
e. Reduced if load increases

A back-pressure turbine which exhausts steam to an old boiler header still supplying steam to an old steam is required both for power
lower pressure turbine is called: generation and for process heating or other
uses. Unlike a condensing turbine (which
a. Condensing-bleeder turbine exhausts steam to a condenser to lower its
pressure), a back-pressure turbine exhausts
b. Cross compound turbine steam at a higher pressure for use in
c. Condensing turbine various industrial processes.

d. Topping turbine
e. Mixed pressure turbine

_____________ turbines are large turbines consisting of two or more turbines in series coupled together
as one shaft and applied to one generator.
a. Topping
b. Tandem-compound
c. Condensing-bleeder
d. Cross-compound
e. Mixed pressure

__________________ turbines are large turbines with parallel shafts with a generator on each shaft.
a. Condensing
b. Tandem-compound
c. Extraction-bleeder
d. Condensing-bleeder
e. Cross-compound

In a steam turbine having pressure drop across the moving blades, an unbalanced ________ thrust will
be developed upon the rotor.
a. axial
b. centrifugal net axial force pushes the rotor
c. radial
in the direction of lower
pressure
d. impulse use thrust bearings or balance
e. rotational pistons to counteract the force

In a steam turbine using velocity compounding _____________ expand the steam from initial to exhaust
pressure.
a. two sets of nozzles and moving blades
b. stationary blades
c. stationary and moving blades
Velocity-Compounded =
Impulse turbine.
d. moving blades Pressure-Velocity Compounded
e. stationary inlet nozzles = Reaction turbine.

Labyrinth seals are:

1) Made of cast iron
2) A positive leak-proof seal arrangement
3) Design to have large clearances between the shaft and casing
4) Made of brass or stainless steel
5) Use on larger diameter turbine shaft
a. 1, 2, 5
b. 2, 4, 5
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 4, 5
e. 1, 2, 3

A steam turbine water seal is used ________ to insure that no air leaks in along the shaft.
a. on start-up
b. at speed below 2000 rev/min
ensure that no air leaks in along the
c. on shut-down shaft at higher operating speeds,
d. only on condensing turbine where the pressure differential
between the turbine interior and the
e. at speed above 2000 rev/min atmosphere could allow air to enter.

A steam turbine assembled casing is machined off inside in a boring mill to:
1) Make grooves for shaft seals :seal the turbine shaft and prevent steam leakage.
2) Make grooves for diaphragms :control steam flow through the turbine stages.
3) Machine surfaces for bearings :for the installation of bearings.
4) Machine flange surfaces flat
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4

Reaction steam turbines often use __________________ seals as part of the shroud with the seal
clearances kept as small as possible.
a. radial
b. Water
c. radial and axial
d. Carbon
e. Axial

The purpose of a thrust bearing on large reaction steam turbine is to:

1) Give confidence to the operator
2) To keep the rotor in an exact position in the casing
3) Prevent any steam from escaping
4) To absorb any axial thrust on the rotor
5) Support the dummy piston
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 4, 5
c. 2, 4

Flange warming on a steam turbine decreases:

a. Creep.
b. Start up time.
c. Movement.
d. Radiation losses.
e. Noises.
What are turbine casings made of?
Low Pressure - Cast Iron
Intermediate Pressure - Cast Carbon Steel
High Pressure/Temperature - Cast Alloy Steel

What is the maximum allowable wetness for steam moving through a turbine? How can free water be
removed?
14%
Free water can be removed from the casing by draining groves that lead to casing drains that expel
water to the condenser

In a steam turbine using velocity compounding the velocity is absorbed in:

a. Two rows of moving blades.
b. One set of nozzles.
c. Two or more rows of stationary blades.
d. Two sets of nozzles.
e. One set of nozzles and blades.

During start up of a steam turbine the thrust block is pushed against a stop in the direction of the exhaust
for:
a. Maximum seal clearance.
b. Minimum seal clearance.
c. Maximum blade efficiency.
d. Maximum blade clearance.
e. Minimum blade clearance.

When the exit pressure of a steam turbine nozzle is less than _____ times the inlet pressure then a
_____ nozzle will be used.
a. 0.757, convergent
b. 0.577, convergent-divergent
c. 0.757, convergent-divergent
d. 0.757, convergent
e. 0.577, convergent or convergent-divergent

Convergent-divergent nozzles are used when:

a. High rotational speeds are required.
b. Low rotational speeds are required.
c. Low pressure drops are required.
d. High pressure drops are required.
e. There is a requirement for moderate eddy currents.

When turbine blade velocity is equal to one half the steam velocity, then exiting steam:
a. Frictional losses are maximized.
b. Allows a smaller turbine to be used.
c. Permits higher steam pressure use.
d. Absolute velocity equals zero.
e. Creates pressure-velocity compounding.

In an impulse turbine, the nozzles:

a. Are formed by airfoil shaped blades.
b. Are found in the first stage.
c. Are mounted in diaphragms.
d. Cause a decrease in velocity.
e. Are located in the rotor.

A pressure-velocity compounded turbine may have:

1. Two velocity-compounded stages
2. One velocity-compounded stages
3. Several velocity-compounded stages
4. Pressure and velocity-compounded stages
a. 1, 3

The efficiency of the Rankine cycle (steam plant) that utilizes a steam turbine is:
a. 10-15 %
b. 20-25%
c. 30-35%
d. 40-45%
e. 50-55%

A jacking oil pump is used to:

1) Make slight adjustments to the turbine bearing housings during overhaul to maintain alignment
2) Supply oil to a hydraulic motor for the turning gear
3) Supply oil to the bearings under the shaft at all times so lubrication is assured
4) Supply a high volume of oil at high pressure A jacking oil pump is typically used
during turbine startup and shutdown
a. 1, 2, 3 to supply high-pressure oil beneath the
b. 2, 3, 4 turbine shaft. This creates an oil film to
lift the shaft slightly, reducing metal-
c. 1, 3, 4 to-metal contact and minimizing
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 friction until the turbine reaches
sufficient speed for the main
e. None of the above lubrication system to take over.

Throttle governing uses a single large control valve so when the steam is throttled the _______ , thus
increasing turbine efficiency.
a. superheat will increase
b. superheat will decrease when steam is throttled, its
c. pressure will increase
pressure drops without a
proportional drop in
d. pressure will stay the same temperature. This results in an
e. temperature will decrease increase in superheat

Back pressure and extraction turbines use _________ in connection with ___________. back pressure turbine: exhaust steam
for industrial processes or heating.
1) pressure sensitive governor Instead of being condensed
2) throttle governing extraction turbine: some steam to be
removed (extracted) partway through
3) speed sensitive governor the turbine at a controlled pressure for
4) by-pass governing
use in processes or heating

a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3

When a hydraulic overspeed trip operates:

1) High pressure oil forces the main steam valve shut
2) High pressure oil supply is shut off
3) The stop valve oil cylinder drain is closed
4) The stop valve oil cylinder drain is opened
5) A spring closes the main steam valve
6) The pilot drain is closed

a. 1, 3, 6
b. 2, 4, 5

Sealing steam to the turbine glands is admitted ___________ is put in operation.

a. before the extraction pump
b. before the condenser circulating water pump
c. after the air ejector
d. after the extraction pump
extraction
e. after the throttle valve is open
(condensate) pump
D ↓
The extraction (condensate) pump is put into operation ______ the ______. air ejector
1) before
↓
sealing steam
2) after
3) air ejector
4) jack oil pump
5) condenser circulating water pump
a. 1, 3

The overspeed trip a turbine is usually set to trip the mechanism when it reaches _____ of operating
speed.
a. 100%.
b. 105%.
c. 110%.

Bypass governing allows:

a. Increased load at increased efficiency.
b. Decreased load at increased efficiency.
c. Increased load at decreased efficiency.
d. Decreased load at decreased efficiency.
e. No change on load and efficiency.

The jacking oil pump supplies oil at a pressure of _____ kPa.

a. 8000.
b. 9000.
c. 10,000.
d. 11,000.
e. 12,000.
C - There's a section in the book that says 8,000 to 10,000

The main oil pump supplies lubricating oil to the:

a. Side of the bearing
b. Center of the turbine shaft
c. Thrust bearing
d. Top of the bearings
e. Bottom of the bearings

Turbines used to drive auxiliary equipment are usually lubricated by:

a. Grease nipples.
b. Oil impregnated bushings.
c. Ring-oiled bearings.

In order to supply oil at two different pressures, a typical turbine lube oil system has:
a. One centrifugal pump and one reciprocating positive displacement pump.
b. One shaft driven pump comprising both high and low pressure sections.
c. One shaft drive high pressure pump and an electric low pressure pump.
d. A pressure reducing valve.
e. A separate pump for each system.

A barring gear turns a turbine over via:

a. Reduction gears.
b. Direct drive. A barring gear, also known as a turning
gear, is used to slowly rotate a turbine
c. A hydraulic coupling. shaft during maintenance, startup, or
d. A limited slip clutch. cooldown to prevent shaft distortion
due to uneven cooling or thermal
e. A hand operated crank. stresses.

In a mechanical-hydraulic governor system, what is the purpose of the auxiliary oil pump?
a. It provides oil pressure in case of a main pump failure. auxiliary oil pump is used to provide
b. It provides oil pressure to the bearings. the necessary oil pressure to the
governor system and other critical
c. It provides oil pressure to the governor system. components during the start-up of the
d. It provides oil pressure during start-up of the turbine. turbine.
main oil pump: driven by the turbine
e. It boosts the main pump's pressure. shaft

An electronic-hydraulic governor system uses:

a. High pressure oil from the turbine oil system.
b. A separate fluid power unit for high pressure oil. ensures a reliable and
c. Oil pressure of approximately 3000-4000 kPa.
consistent oil supply at the
required pressure, independent
d. Pressure oil from the turbine oil system and boosts it to approximately 8200-11000 kPa. of the turbine's main oil
e. Flyweights similar to a mechanical-hydraulic governor. system.

If the cooling water for a condenser, taken from a cooling tower is high in dissolved oxygen, the ability of
the condenser to act as a deaerator is ____________ .
a. directly proportional to the level of dissolved oxygen
b. not impeded condenser's deaeration function is
based on the removal of non-
c. inversely proportional to the level of dissolved oxygen condensable gases from the steam
d. impeded during the condensation process,
which is not directly influenced by the
e. reduced oxygen content

In a ______________ the feed pump draws from the hot well only the quantity of feed water required by
the boiler, the remainder overflows into the cooling pond where it is cooled and reused as cooling water.
a. surface condenser
b. counterflow condenser
c. down flow condenser
d. radial flow condenser
e. jet condenser

The purposes of a surface condenser is to:

1) Maintain a vacuum at the turbine exhaust
2) Conserve pure boiler feedwater
3) Act as a deaerator
4) Cool the condensate below saturation temperature
a. 1, 2, 3

The cooling water for the air ejectors on a surface condenser is _____________ .
a. row water
b. treated water
c. condensate
d. river water
e. distilled water

The _____________ function is to continually extract the condensate from the condenser hotwell and
pump it through the air ejector coolers.
a. extraction pump
b. circulating pump : Moves cooling water through the condenser.
c. vacuum pump
d. feed water pump : Supplies water to the boiler
e. cooling water pump: through the condenser tube

The condenser extraction pump suction operates at pressures ______________.

a. slightly above atmospheric
b. just below atmospheric
c. near absolute zero
d. equal to 2 atmosphere
e. determined by the level of condensate in the condenser

In order to prevent air from entering the condenser when the condenser condensate extraction pump is in
stand-by position, the pump is equipped with:

a. Shaft sleeves
b. Labyrinth seals
c. Mechanical seals
d. Carbon rings
e. Water sealed glands

Low-pressure feedwater heaters are exposed on the waterside to the discharge pressure of the
_______________ pump.
a. circulating
b. extraction
c. cooling water
Extraction pump: Extracts
steam from the turbine for use
in feedwater heating.
 Extraction pump: Extracts
d. boiler feedwater steam from the turbine for use
e. air ejector in feedwater heating.

Gas turbines are far superior to other types of engines in their:

a. Fuel consumption
b. Efficiency
c. Lubricating oil consumption
d. Power per mass ratio
e. Fuel usage

The advantages of a dual shaft gas turbine arrangement are:

1) Greater flexibility
2) It is cheaper compressor and turbine are
3) Smaller starting motor may be used mounted on separate
4) High pressures and temperatures may be obtained
shafts,only the compressor
shaft needs to be powered by
a. 1, 2 the starting motor to get the air
b. 1, 3 flowing through the system.

In a gas turbine cycle using an intercooler the following advantages are obtained:
1) The specific volume of the air is reduced 2) The cooler air recovers more heat from the regenerator
3) The temperature of the second stage compressor will be increased thus increasing thermal efficiency
4) More of the turbine power can be available for the output load
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4

The purpose of a regenerator in a gas turbine is:

a. To clean the exhaust gases
b. To improve the efficiency of the turbine
c. To decrease the temperature in the combustion chamber
d. To raise the air temperature before compression
e. To decrease the air temperature after compression
Regenerator: captures heat from the hot exhaust gases and preheat the incoming compressed air
Intercooler: cool the air, increase the density of air, increase air volume
Reheater:The reheating is typically done by passing the gases over tubes that carry hot gases or through
additional fuel combustion

A gas turbine combustion chamber requires:

a. A cooling water jacket on the inner canister
b. A vacuum breaker
c. A safety pressure relief device
d. A high voltage ignition plug for initial ignition
e. An annual hydrostatic test

Which of the following are disadvantages of a gas turbine?

1) Complicated design
2) High manufacturing costs
3) Slow response to load change
4) Low efficiency
5) Suitable for low power applications
a. 1, 3, 5
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 4, 5
e. 1, 2, 3

The term peaking gas turbine refers to:

a. Gas turbines that produce max power
b. Gas turbines used with peak horsepower
c. Gas turbines used during major outages
d. Gas turbines used every day
e. Gas turbines used in heavy load situations

In simple gas turbines the air is compressed to the following maximum pressures:
a. 2000 kPa
b. 2500 kPa
c. 3000 kPa
d. 3500 kPa
e. 4000 kPa

Gas turbine final combustion temperatures in a simple gas turbine are:

a. 1500ºC
b. 1700ºC
c. 1800ºC
d. 2100ºC flame temperature
e. 2200ºC

The combustion chamber exit gas temperatures will reach a maximum of:
a. 1550°C
b. 1570°C
c. 1650°C
d. 1670°C
e. 1750°C

Gas Temperatures at the simple gas turbine inlet section are at maximum:
a. 580ºC
b. 770ºC
c. 875ºC
d. 920ºC
e. 1000ºC to 1500 inlet section: after the combustion process, inlet of the turbine

Gas Temperatures at the exhaust of a simple gas turbine are at maximum:

a. 500°C
b. 540°C
c. 760°C
d. 680°C
e. 640°C (500 to 640º C)

The turbine exits gas temperatures will be a maximum of:

a. 600°C
b. 700°C
c. 750°C
d. 800°C
e. 850°C

Exhaust systems are required on Gas Turbines to:

1) Allow the installation of silencers
2) Allow the installation of heat recovery equipment
3) Direct the flow to heat recovery systems
4) Minimize power losses can recover heat, can't reduce power losses
5) Protect operators
a. 1, 3, 5
b. 1, 2, 3

Gas Turbines enclosures are used to:

1) Protect equipment from the elements(恶劣天气） 2) Allows the incorporation of heat and gas detectors

3) Contains the gas turbine DCS controls (control room)

4) Keep the turbine from cooling down, more efficient （not the purpose)
5) Provides ventilation systems
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 5

Auxiliary systems on Gas Turbines are needed to:

1) Provide fuel at the proper temperature and pressures
2) Clean and treat fuels
3) Provide hydraulic fluid for bearing lubrication
4) Inject steam to clean the ducts and housing
5) Provide anti-icing
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 5

The beneficial effect of intercoolers decreases with:

a. Combining with regeneration
b. Pressure ratio increase ： harder to cool the air
c. Colder cooling water
d. Smaller sized turbines
e. Higher air throughput

The purpose if a compressor diffuser is to:

a. Convert the compressed air exiting the casing
1.The impeller of a centrifugal compressor
b. Convert the compressed air exiting the impellor increases the velocity of the air to add
energy.
2. In the diffuser, the high-velocity air slows
down,causes an increase in pressure,where
high-pressure air is required for efficient
fuel combustion.
 1.The impeller of a centrifugal compressor
increases the velocity of the air to add
c. Convert the high pressure air into velocity for the casing energy.
2. In the diffuser, the high-velocity air slows
d. Convert the high velocity air to pressure energy down,causes an increase in pressure,where
high-pressure air is required for efficient
e. Convert high velocity air to high pressure fuel combustion.

Large volume combustors are used when:

a. Simplicity is required
b. Frontal area is no concern
c. A regenerator is being used
Adequate Space: The large size
accommodates the heat
d. Less complicated design is called for exchange process required in
e. Air flow path is less convoluted regeneration systems.

The advantage of the Can-Annular design is:

uniform outlet temperatures by
a. Uniform outlet temperatures evenly distributing the
b. Multiple ignitors ensure combustion combustion process across
c. Fuel lines distribute fuel more rapidly
multiple chambers. This
reduces hot spots and improves
d. Is a more efficient use of space turbine performance and
e. If one can quits the others will keep working efficiency.

In a single can combustor the interconnected tubes:

a. Decreases the number of ignitors used
b. Decreases the number injectors required
c. Decreases the complexity of the turbine
d. Decreases the pressures differences in each tube : equalize pressure across the system
e. Decreases the number of flame tubes required

Power is extracted in a gas turbine by:

a. Expanding the gases through the turbine blades
b. Attaching a generator to the turbine
c. Changing pressure to velocity to drive the turbine blades
d. Changing velocity to pressure to drive the turbine blades
e. Decreasing the hot gas temperature and pressure

There are fewer turbine blades than compressor blades because:

a. Energy can be extracted more efficiently
b. Turbine blades are bigger so require fewer
c. Higher exhaust temperatures can be tolerated
d. The hot gases occupy more volume
e. Hot exhaust gases are required for the HRSG's

The greatest limitation on increased turbine output is:

a. Turbine blade configurations
b. Heat resisting steels
c. Design limitations of the turbine shafts materials' ability to withstand
d. Casing designs that allow flexing high temperatures.
e. Cost of expensive fuels

The maximum run time before blade replacement is:

a. 75,000 hours
b. 100,000 hours
c. 150,000 hours
d. 125,000 hours
e. 50,000 hours

Automatic emergency trips shut off the main fuel valve in the event of:
a. High exhaust temperatures : indicate an issue like an overheated turbine or combustion system.
b. Differential pressures are too high across the filters
c. Inlet air temperatures exceed maximum
d. Compressor discharge pressures are too high
e. Compressor discharge temperatures are too high

Vibration accelerometers are used:

a. If journal or tilt pad bearings are used
b. To trip the turbine on rapid acceleration
c. To control the ramp speed on startup
d. On large industrial gas turbines
e. For anti-friction bearings :
monitor the condition of anti-friction bearings, as they are sensitive to issues like wear, misalignment, or
damage.

The performance of a gas turbine is calculated by________________.

a. the turbine efficiency
b. heat rate vs. power output
丨heat rate:measures the amount of fuel required to produce a certain amount of power output.
c. gas flow in vs. kWh out
d. gas flow in vs. power output
e. gas flow and pressure in vs. power output

Gas turbines use what two different types of bearings?

1) Antifriction (roller and/or ball) bearings 2) Radial (journal or tilt-pad) bearings
3) Axial (spherical) bearings
4) Take-up (frame) bearings
5) Swing (levered) bearings
a. 1, 4
b. 1, 2

Why do microturbines require only air bearings:

1) No governing oil system
2) Small overall size
3) Simplicity of components
4) Everything on one shaft
5) No oil systems
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 2, 5

Most aero derivative turbines lube oil systems require?

a. Two back lube oil pumps
b. Separate inlet and outlet filter systems
c. Separate lube oil tanks and coolers
d. Separate lube oil systems
e. Separate back up pumps

Thrust bearings on dual shaft gas turbines are positioned:

a. At the front of the compressor and next to the turbine bearing.
Dual-shaft gas turbines:
b. At the front of both the compressor and the turbine section. High-Pressure (HP) Shaft:connected to the
c. At the back of both the compressor section and the turbine section. high-pressure turbine and drives the
compressor.
d. At the back of the compressor and next to the turbine bearing. Low-Pressure (LP) Shaft: connected to the
low-pressure turbine and drives the load
e. At the front and back of the turbine section. (e.g., generator or mechanical equipment)

Tilt pad bearings are used:

1) In aero-derivative gas turbines
2) According to the manufacturers specifications
3) On duel shaft industrial gas turbines
4) In large industrial gas turbines
5) With pivot pins
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 4, 5

A fuel gas compressor must be used on gas turbines if?

a. The complexity of the gas system reduces the gas pressure to low
b. The gas supply pressure is less than the compressor last stage pressure
c. The total pressure drop across the combustors is too great
The fuel pressure should
typically be higher than the air
d. Multiple gas nozzles drops the burner gas pressure too low pressure (compressor outlet
e. The combustor outlet pressure is greater the compressor outlet pressure pressure) in a gas turbine.

Fuel treatment systems consist of :

a. Centrifuges, filters , strainers , pumps and related instrumentation
Centrifuges: remove heavier particulates
b. Filters, dewatering and chemical treatment and water
c. Centrifuges, filters, dewatering and chemical treatment Filters: trap finer particles.
Dewatering: Removes water
d. Dewatering and chemical treatment Chemical treatment: prevent the formation
of sludge, removes contaminants, and can
e. Mechanical and chemical treatment improve fuel stability.

Two ways to decrease NOx are:

1) Lower the combustion temperature
2) Use staged air in the combustors
3) Utilize special burners
4) Decrease the fuel to air ratio
5) Operate with a lean fuel mixture
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 2, 4
d. 4, 5
Control of the dry low NOx burners is done by:
a. Adjustable flow nozzles
b. Rotating fuel nozzles
precise control over the amount of fuel
c. Using three gas headers to inject the fuel injected at different stages of
d. Extensive solenoid gas staging system combustion,enabling the fuel to be
staged in such a way that it helps lower
e. Computer controlled fuel staging valves combustion temperatures

The practical limit for NOx with steam or water injection for natural gas is:
a. 5 ppm
b. 10 ppm
c. 15 ppm
d. 20 ppm
e. 25 ppm

The practical lower limit for NOx for liquid fuels is:
a. 22 ppm
b. 32 ppm
c. 42 ppm
d. 52 ppm
e. 62 ppm

Starter systems are disengaged when the turbine shaft reaches:

a. Once the shaft speeding up
b. Once the turbine speed overruns the starting motor
c. 30% speed
d. 50% rated speed
e. Fuel is ignited

Turning gears are used to:

a. Rotate the shaft every hour not in operation, the turning
b. Rotate the shaft 90 degrees every hour gear slowly rotates the shaft to
c. Lower the stress on the starting motor
avoid any potential locking or
sticking of the shaft due to
d. Prevent the shaft from locking thermal expansion or other
e. Prevents the shaft developing flat spots factors.

Anti-icing systems are used to prevent:

a. Plugging of filters with ice
b. Damage to the duct work from icing
c. Blade damage
d. Too low an intake air temperature
e. Compressor surging

Startup after a trip is done by:

a. Satisfying all the 'permissives'
b. The operator initiating a restart
c. The computers re-initiating the startup
d. Resetting of the system
e. Selecting the manual restart on the screen
The Recycle valve is used to:
a. Load the compressor
b. Recycle hot compressor air for inlet warming redirecting a portion of the
compressed air back into the
c. Allow the turbine to rapidly increase loading compressor intake
d. Control the combustion in the combustion chambers ensures proper operational
e. Recycle cooling air back to the combustion chamber
conditions and stability of the
turbine and compressor during
varying load conditions.
The purpose of a gas turbine water wash is to __________________.
a. clean the unit front to back
b. clean the combustion blades
c. clean the gas headers injectors and burners
d. clean the combustion chambers
e. clean the compressor blading

Most pistons in large internal combustion engines are provided with ______________.
a. four rings
b. three rings
c. five rings
d. six rings
e. two rings

Connecting rods are hollow bored to convey lubricating oil to the_______________________.

a. gudgeon pins
b. pistons
c. camshaft
d. cylinder walls
e. piston skirt

Connecting rods are usually made of_______________.

a. carbon steel
b. forged steel
c. aluminum
d. cast iron
e. aluminum alloy

The purpose of the rocker arm is to operate_______________.

a. the camshaft
b. the push rods
c. the oil pump
d. the inlet valves
e. the exhaust valves

The solid injection method includes:

1) Individual pump system
2) Distributor system
3) Common rail system
4) Air injection system
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3

The oil filter in a large diesel engine lubricating system is ________________________________.

a. placed on the suction side of the pump
b. between the pump and oil cooler ensures that the oil is filtered
c. not always required
before it passes through the
cooler, removing contaminants
d. between the return line and the sump and debris to protect the
e. None of the above engine components.

The approximate air pressure required for starting a large internal combustion engine is ___________.
a. 21000 kPa
b. 1500 kPa
c. 1000 kPa
d. 210 kPa
e. 2100 kPa

For high compression diesel engines:

a. 95% of the heat is converted to work and 5% to waste.
b. 80% of the heat is converted to work and 20% to waste.
c. 70% of the heat is converted to work and 30% to waste.

An electric starter motor powered by a storage battery may start engines up to _______________.
a. 1000 kw
b. 1500 kw
c. 2000 kw
d. 2500 kw
e. 3000 kw

A typical lubrication system for a medium sized diesel engine is a _________________________.

a. natural feed
b. return circulation
c. splash feed
d. forced feed
e. spray feed

The cylinder lubrication of small diesel engines is generally_____________.

a. splash/ wet sump
b. spray
c. forced
d. natural
e. upfeed

Before starting a large industrial diesel engine, to ensure that all valves work freely in their guides,
__________ is applied to the valve system.
a. a little clean kerosene Kerosene : clean, low-viscosity
fluid that helps lubricate the
valve components and prevent
sticking, ensuring smooth
operation during the engine's
startup.
 Kerosene : clean, low-viscosity
b. a little clean gasoline fluid that helps lubricate the
c. a little clean water
valve components and prevent
sticking, ensuring smooth
d. a little clean diesel operation during the engine's
e. a little clean sulphuric acid startup.

While starting a large industrial diesel engine, the oil pressure may not go above the low oil pressure trip
setting until the engine has started up, therefore a/an __________ switch is pushed in to override the trip.

a. crossover
b. overriding
c. interlocking
d. by-pass
e. equalizing

Shortly after a large diesel engine is started up and the oil pressure is increased to above the trip setting,
the bypass switch is to be returned to the ____________ position. ？
a. off
b. run
c. hand
d. controlled
e. manual

The purpose of the push rod is to operate the:

a. Camshaft.
b. Rocker arm.
c. Oil pump.
d. Inlet valves.
e. Exhaust valves.

The purpose of the carburetor is to:

1) Mix the fuel and air

2) Atomize the fuel
3) Heat the mixture of fuel and air
4) Control the amount of air-fuel mixture to the engine
5) Produce a vacuum to draw fuel into the engine
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 4, 5

The pressure of the air at the end of the diesel compression stroke may be as high as:
a. 1,000 kPa.
b. 2,100 kPa.
c. 3,100 kPa.
d. 4,100 kPa.
e. 5,100 kPa.
The four-cycle engine is lubricated by:
a. Mixing lubricating oil with the gasoline. two-stroke engines
b. An oil pressure system.
c. A drip oil system.
d. Brass bushings. four-cycle engine (also known
e. Semi-solid lubricants. as a four-stroke engine)

The "V"-form of diesel engine has:

a. One camshaft.
b. Two camshafts.
c. Three camshafts.
d. No camshaft.
e. Two crankshafts.

In the opposed piston diesel engine the power from the upper crankshaft is transmitted to the lower
crankshaft by:
a. A chain.
b. A belt.
c. A coupling.
d. Bevel gears.
e. Hydraulic fluid.

Either of two basic systems can be used for the injection of the fuel, into the diesel cylinder. They are:
a. Solid injection system and distributor system.
b. Solid injection system and air injection system. gasoline engines:
c. Air injection system and common rail system. Carburetor (older method):fuel is mixed
with air in the carburetor before entering
d. Air injection system and distributor system. the cylinder.
Port fuel injection (PFI)
e. Solid injection system and common rail system. Direct fuel injection (DI)

The purpose of the starter bypass in a battery ignition system is to:

a. Increase the current to the starter
b. Prevent the starter from being activated by mistake
c. Protect the battery bypass temporarily reduces resistance in
the ignition circuit, allowing more current
d. Increase the coil voltage to flow to the ignition coil. This ensures that
the coil generates a high enough voltage to
e. Protect the resistor create a spark for ignition

In a simple flyweight governor:

a. Decreasing spring tension increases the controlled speed. As the engine speed increases,
b. Spring tension prevents weights from moving inward. the centrifugal force causes the
c. Increasing spring tension increases the controlled speed.
weights to move outward. The
movement of these weights is
d. Increasing spring tension decreases the controlled speed. opposed by the tension of a
e. The weights move inward on an increase in speed. spring.

Overheating of an internal combustion engine is caused by:

a. Oil leaks.
b. Fuel injection occurring too late.
c. Using an unsuitable oil.
combustion process is delayed,
and the fuel may burn
d. Operating with a light load. inefficiently: higher exhaust
temperatures
 combustion process is delayed,
and the fuel may burn
inefficiently: higher exhaust
e. The oil being diluted with fuel. temperatures

Some _____ may be operated in reverse rotation. The standard is anti-clockwise looking on the free end.

a. Gas turbine engines

b. Steam turbine engines
c. Internal combustion engines
d. Centrifugal pumps
e. Alternators

The pressure and temperature of the air at the end of the diesel compression stroke may be as high as:
a. 50,000 kPa and 700 oC
b. 30,000 kPa and 600 oC
c. 40,000 kPa and 1000 oC
d. 3,000 kPa and 850 oC
e. 3,000 kPa and 540 oC

The four stroke engine finds application where:

a. Light weight is required
b. High torque at low speed is required
c. Portability is required
d. Light oils such as kerosene are used for fuel
e. High speed is required

The dual fuel engine may operate on:

a. 100% gas air mixture
b. Between 35% and 100% fuel oil
c. Between 50% and 100% fuel oil
two types of fuel: usually a
combination of gas (such as
d. Between 5% and 100% fuel oil natural gas) and liquid fuel
e. Between 75% and 100% fuel oil (such as fuel oil or diesel).

The advantages as compared to conventional facilities of cogeneration at micro (local) level include:
1) Reduction in the total energy bill when electricity is required at the site

2) It is generally more compact and less maintenance required as compared to the conventional facilities

3) Reduction of load demand on heavier polluting, coal-fired facilities

4) Shorter start up time
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4

The applications of cogeneration can befall into which of the following areas:
1) Institutional establishments
2) Large scale industries plants
3) Localized central and heating and cooling plant
4) Theatres and restaurants
a. 1, 2, 3
Which one of the following cogeneration systems best describes this process? "The fuel is burned in a
conventional gas turbine combustor. The gas turbine is connected to an electrical generator. The exhaust
from the gas turbine is then used as combustion air to mix with fuel burned in the boiler. The steam
produced from the boiler is used to drive a steam turbine which is connected to a second electrical
generator".
a. Back Pressure Steam Turbine Cogeneration
b. Waste Heat Cogeneration
c. Gas Turbine Cogeneration
d. Combined-cycle Steam/Gas Turbine Cogeneration
e. Combined-cycle Gas/Steam Turbine Cogeneration

Which one of the following simple-cycle cogeneration systems best describes the process? "Fuel burned
to produce heat for a process and then to use the waste heat from the process to produce steam in the
boiler. The steam from the boiler is fed to the steam turbine to turn an electric generator. The low
pressure exhaust steam from the steam turbine is used to drive another turbine on to provide heat to the
feedwater heaters."
a. Back Pressure Steam Turbine
b. Condensing Steam Turbine
c. Waste Heat Cogeneration
d. Heat Engine Cogeneration
e. Gas Turbine

Which one of the following cogeneration systems best describes this process? "The compressor driven
by the gas turbine supplies pressurized combustion air to mix with fuel and burned in the boiler. The
steam produced by the boiler is used to drive a steam turbine which is connected to an electrical
generator. The exhaust gases from the boiler are then fed to the gas turbine which is connected to a
second electrical generator."
a. Back Pressure Turbine
b. Waste Heat
c. Gas Turbine
d. Combined-cycle Steam/Gas Turbine
e. Combined-cycle Gas/Steam Turbine

Which one of the following cogeneration systems best describes this? "The system consists of a gas
turbine, steam turbine, electrical generators (driven by the gas and steam turbines) and a fixed HRSG
unit."
a. Fully Fixed Combined-cycle
b. Steam/Gas Turbine Combined-cycle
c. Gas/Steam Turbine Combined-cycle
d. Back Pressure Steam/Gas Turbine Combined-cycle
e. Condensing Steam/Gas Turbine Combined-cycle

A HRSG extracts most of its heat energy from the exhaust of a gas turbine and the remainder of the
required heat energy to run the steam turbine is supplied by:
a. The flue gases of the auxiliary boiler
b. Burning fuel in a series of auxiliary burners
c. The heat from the exhaust heat boiler
d. Increasing the input energy to the gas turbine
e. A separately fired heater independent of the HRSG

In Combined cycles systems the term pressurized means ___________________________________.

a. the HRSG is under steam pressure

b. the gas turbine exhaust is fed into the boiler
c. the combustion chamber is under air pressure
d. the boiler is fed by forced and induced draft fans
e. the gas turbine is pressurized from the boiler

A single shaft combined-cycle power plant can be arranged so

that________________________________.
a. the steam turbine is between the generator and the gas turbine
b. the gas turbine is between the generator and the steam turbine 1.gas turbine generates electricity
c. the generator is between the gas turbine and the steam turbine 2.exhaust gases from the gas turbine are
fed into the HRSG to produce steam
d. the generator is between the HRSG and the steam turbine 3.steam turbine, also connected to the
generator, produces additional power by
e. the generator is between the HRSG and the gas turbine using the steam from the HRSG

When the fuel supplied first produces electrical power with the thermal energy produced as a by-product.
This cogeneration system is called the:
a. Waste Heat Cycle
b. Gas Turbine Cycle
c. Heat Engine Cycle
d. Topping Cycle
e. Bottoming Cycle
When the fuel supplied produces high temperature thermal energy for processes and the heat exhausted
from these processes is used to produce electrical energy from a HRSG. The cogeneration system is
called the:
a. Waste Heat Cycle
b. Gas Turbine Cycle
c. Heat Engine Cycle
d. Topping Cycle
e. Bottoming Cycle

The ______ system has the electrical production from the cogeneration system fixed at maximum and
changing electrical requirements met by the electrical utility grid.
a. home based
b. base loaded
c. set electrical demand
d. constant based
e. demand based
The _____ system has the electrical supply from the utility grid fixed and the cogeneration system looks
after changing the electrical requirements.
a. home based
b. base Loaded
c. set electrical demand
d. constant based
e. demand based

Fixed production of a minimum thermal energy for thermal load control strategy of a cogeneration system
is achieved by:
a. Varying the prime mover output and fixed the thermal energy output.
b. Operating the prime mover at constant maximum output and adjust the thermal requirements by other
means.

During low thermal requirement periods of a cogeneration system a diverter valve is used to:
a. Direct the exhaust gases from the HRSG to the atmosphere.
b. Direct the thermal energy from the duct burner to the atmosphere.
c. Direct the excess electrical energy to another utility grid.
d. Direct the thermal energy from the gas turbine to the duct burner.
e. Direct the exhaust gases from the gas turbine to the atmosphere.

When additional thermal energy is required in a cogeneration system, a _____ is often used for this
purpose.
a. HRSG
b. Gas Turbine duct burner is placed in the
c. Boiler
exhaust stream of the gas
turbine, and it burns extra fuel
d. Duct Burner to add more thermal energy
e. Unit Heater (heat) to the system.

Some HRSG boilers of the once through forced circulation design equipped with high alloy tubes and it
can:
a. Operate with high velocity water flow through the tubes.
b. Operate with high volume water flow through the tubes.
c. Operate with low steam flow through the tubes.
d. Operate without water flow through the tubes.
e. Operate without chemical treatment for the boiler.

_____ and _____ can be used in a HRSG to reduce NOX leaving the HRSG.
a. Steam and NH3
b. CO2 and NH3
c. SO2 and NH3
d. H2O and NH3
e. CO2 and SO2

Cogeneration systems with an IC engine connected to a HRWH (Heat Recovery Water Heater) can
obtain good efficiency in ______ systems.
a. heavy industry
b. normal household
c. small industry
d. small air conditioning
e. large heating

The water jackets on an IC engine with a HRWH is designed to:

1) Cool the air surrounding the engine.
2) Recover the waste heat from the engine.
3) Cool the engine.
4) Cool the lubricating oil.
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4

During the start up of a cogeneration system with a gas turbine:

a. The gas turbine is normally started up by compressed air.
b. The gas turbine is turned/started by a separate starter motor.
c. The gas turbine will start up automatically as soon as power is engaged.
d. The diverter valve will divert thermal energy from the HRSG to start the gas turbine.
e. The auxiliary burner will provide additional thermal energy to start the gas turbine.

When starting a cogeneration system with a gas turbine, the starting motor will disengage from the
turbine when the turbine is at approximately ____ % of its rated speed.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 25
d. 35
e. 55

What does CHP mean?

Combined Heat and Power. It's another way to describe cogeneration.

Cogeneration can increase plant efficiencies from what to what?

From 40% to between 60 and 90%

In a combined-cycle cogeneration arrangement, what does each of the two different thermodynamic
cycles operate?
An independent electrical generator

What is the thermodynamic cycle of a gas turbine called?

Brayton Cycle

What is the thermodynamic cycle of a steam turbine called?

Rankin Cycle

What would you call a combined cycle cogeneration arrangement that allows the boiler to be fired
separately at somewhat reduced load if the gas turbine is unavailable?
Fully-fired Combined-Cycle Cogeneration

What design has the most attractive operating and performance characteristics of all combined cycle
plants?
Single-Shaft Combined-Cycle Power Plant

What is a TEG?
Turbine Exhaust Gas boiler

What is the gas flow in an HRSG?

It can be either horizontal or vertical.

What is the circulation in a HRSG?

Either natural or forced

What would the first tubes in a HRSG?

Superheater section

What would be the last tubes in a HRSG?

Economizer Section
(3B2-C-08-05) Adjustable diffuser vanes on centrifugal air compressors are implemented to:
Select one:
A.Change the operating characteristics of the compressor
B.Change the direction of the air flow to remove moisture optimize performance by
modifying the operating
C.Remove foreign particles from the air
characteristics, such as
D.Only reduce the amount of air entering the compressor efficiency and pressure, under
E.Prevent back or reverse flow of air varying load conditions.

(3B2-C-08-13) An important advantage of a sliding vane compressor is that it:

Select one:
A.Does not require internal lubrication
B.Has a high starting torque
C.Does not require inlet or discharge valves
sliding vanes themselves
D.Requires light nylon timing gears create sealed chambers that
E.Does not require a prime mover compress the air as they rotate.

(3B2-C-08-15) Axial flow compressor advantages are similar to those of centrifugal air compressors they
have an added advantage of:
Select one:
A.Being lower in mass
B.Being a shorter machine
C.Being corrosion and erosion free
efficiency can be approximately
10% higher due to smoother
D.Being approximately 10% more efficient airflow and reduced energy
E.Solid forged rotor losses in compression.

(3B2-C-08-17) Because rotary lobe compressors do not have impellers in contact with each other they:
Select one:
A.Do not require internal lubrication
B.Do not need a timing gear
C.Will not wear as quickly
D.Have no friction loss
E.Are very inefficient

(3B2-C-08-20) The Compression Ratio is the ratio of:

Select one:
A.Absolute discharge pressure to absolute inlet pressure
B.Gauge discharge pressure to gauge inlet pressure
C.The free air intake to the absolute volumetric discharge
D.The gauge inlet pressure to the absolute discharge pressure
E.Piston diameter to piston stroke

(3B2-C-08-29) In a packaged screw compressor package, the bulk of the moisture is removed in the
moisture separator in order to decrease the load in the:
Select one:
A.Air/fluid separator
B.Pre-filter
C.Air dryer
D.After filter
E.Water/oil separator

(3B2-C-08-30) In a rotary lobe compressor one lobe is directly driven by the driving mechanism while the
other lobe is driven by:
Select one:
A.Intermeshing with the driven lobe
The timing gears are used to
synchronize the rotation of the
B.A reduction gear lobes so that they mesh
C.Means of timing gears properly.

(3B2-C-08-35) Lubricating oil is necessary in an air compressor in order to perform the following
functions:
1. Provide sealing
2. Remove heat
3. Reduce friction
4. Eliminate water cooling
5. Reduce corrosion
6. Remove carbon
7. Prevent wear
Select one:
A.1, 2 ,3, 4, 5
B.1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
C.1, 3, 4, 6
D.1, 2, 3, 5, 7

(3B2-C-08-38) Reciprocating Compressor valves are usually automatic and open and close by:
Select one:
A.Action of a poppet valve
B.Movement of the piston covering or uncovering ports
C.Operation of an air solenoid valve
D.A pressure difference

(3B2-C-08-48) The lobe type compressor runs at speeds up to about _____ RPM.
Select one:
A.1550
B.1600
C.1650
D.1700
E.1750

(3B2-C-08-51) The spiral valve on a package industrial screw compressor varies the volume of
compressed air produced by:
Select one:
A.Regulating the amount of air to the unit according to demand
B.Regulating the speed of the driver reducing the output when full
C.Regulating the amount of cooling water to the cooler
capacity is not required
This helps in matching the
D.Returning air to the suction line compressor’s output to the
E.By-passing the air dryer demand.

(3B2-C-08-52) The two-stage sliding vane compressors:

Select one:
A.Have a common decompression chamber
B.Are driven by separate motors
C.Does not require internal lubrication
D.Share a common drive motor
E.Can operate at two different RPM's

(3B2-C-08-56) To facilitate the removal of moisture and oil from the compressed air, a/an _____ is
installed.
Select one:
A.Intercooler
B.Oil separator An aftercooler is used to cool
C.Unloader
the compressed air, which
helps to condense moisture
D.Expansion tank and allows for easier removal
E.Aftercooler of moisture and oil from the air.

(3B2-C-08-57) Two pre-filters are installed on a package industrial screw compressor. They are installed
at the inlet of the:
Select one:
A.Water/oil separator They help remove large
B.Air dryer particles, moisture, and oil
C.After filter
before the air enters the dryer,
ensuring that the air is cleaner
D.Air/fluid separator and dryer before the final
E.Moisture separator filtration stage.

(3B2-C-08-83) Sliding vane compressors can produce discharge pressures up to 1000 kPa.
A.
TRUE

(3B2-C-08-64) The work required for isothermal compression is less than the work required for adiabatic
compression.
A. isothermal compression, the temperature
TRUE of the gas remains constant, and the
process involves heat exchange to maintain
B. the temperature.
adiabatic compression：increase in the gas's
FALSE temperature, which requires more work

(3B2-C-08-60) In compressor terminology the term FAD stands for the

A. Free Air Delivery
force required to drive the air compressor.
B.
quantity of free air compressed and delivered by the air compressor.

To prevent surging, the capacity of the compressor must not be allowed to fall below the ___________.
a. surge limit
b. maximum volume
c. rated point
d. rated pressure
e. set point
One method to prevent surging in dynamic compressors is to ___________________.
a. use variable frequency drive
b. use vanes
c. install a recirculation line
d. open a discharge line blow-off valve to atmosphere
e. use a safety valve

When first starting a compressor operate the cylinder lubricator by hand to _______________.
a. take some load off the pressure lubricator
b. make sure it works for duration of compressor operation
c. supply some oil to the cylinder for start-up ：preventing dry starts
d. to ensure that there is oil in the crankcase
e. All of the above

Air compressors should be automatically unloaded ______________.

a. by the operator
b. during the shutting-down period unloading helps reduce the
c. for the start-up period
initial load on the system,
ensuring smoother operation
d. at all times of compressor output and preventing the motor from
e. if there is no cooling water for the aftercooler being overloaded.

When starting up a compressor, ensure the manual block valves in the suction and discharge lines are
______________.
a. both wide open
b. both closed operate without restriction,
c. both valves throttled back
ensuring proper airflow and
preventing damage that could
d. suction valve wide open and discharge valve closed occur if the flow of air is
e. suction valve closed and discharge valve wide open obstructed.

_____ on centrifugal air compressors are provided in order to control the amount of air flowing to the
impeller and thus control the capacity of the unit.
a. Adjustable inlet vanes
b. Adjustable diffuser vanes
c. Variable frequency drive
control the amount of air
flowing to the impeller, thus
d. Moving and fixed blades regulating the capacity of the
e. Dummy piston. unit.

When a compressor is stopped, the cooling water supply should:

a. Run for 5 minutes afterward.
b. Run for 10 minutes afterward.
c. Be shut off.
d. Be left on. allows components to cool
e. Have the flow cut in half. naturally

Air transmission piping is _____ than electrical wiring.

a. Longer.
b. Lighter.
c. Smoother.
d. More expensive.
e. Less expensive.

An advantage of dynamic compressors and some rotary compressors as compared to reciprocating

compressors is that they can:
a. Be quickly shut down
b. Be opened for internal inspection dynamic and rotary
c. Deliver oil free air
compressors, the air is
compressed in a manner that
d. Effectively use low speed drivers minimizes or eliminates oil
e. Have no moving parts contamination

Air tools are preferred over steam driven tools because:

1. There is less chance of being burned.
2. Less equipment is required.
3. Air tools require less lubrication.
4. Air tools are quieter than steam driven equipment.
a. 1, 3.
b. 1, 2.

_____ compressors are more efficient than other positive displacement types.
a. Rotary screw.
b. Sliding vane.
c. Rotary lobe.
d. Axial flow.
e. Reciprocating.

A type of rotary compressor that is suitable for high speeds and may have a speed increasing gear
implemented with an electric motor drive is:
a. A screw type
b. A sliding vane type continuous airflow and
c. A rotary lobe type
reliability at higher speeds,
often paired with electric motor
d. An axial flow type drives that can handle these
e. A radial flow type demands.

Four ways of dividing reciprocating compressors into types are:

1. Single or double acting

2. Method of compression :a dry or lubricated process
3. Number of impellers
4. Speed of the prime mover
5. Method of drive :electric motor, gas engine, or steam turbine.
6. Cylinder arrangement : in-line, V-type, W-type, or opposed

a. 3, 4, 5, 6
b. 1, 2, 5, 6

Centrifugal compressor impellers are usually made form steel and are:
1. Cast.
2. Machined.
3. Forged.
4. Made by welding.
5. Galvanized.
a. 1, 2, 3.
b. 1, 4, 5.
c. 1, 3, 4.

A reciprocating compressor that employs clearance pocket as an unloading, method has the crank end
inlet valve open and the clearance pocket closed. What capacity is the compressor working at?
a. 0%.
b. 25%.
c. 50%.

Surging of dynamic air compressors can produce severe shock to the system and may be violent enough
to damage the:
a. Driver and casing.
b. Impeller or piping. damaging critical components
c. Dummy piston.
like the impeller and piping,
which are highly sensitive to
d. Bearings and gearing. sudden changes in pressure
e. Casing and foundation. and flow.

After an air receiver is opened up it should be thoroughly ventilated because of the chance of it
containing:
a. Oil.
b. Water.
c. Carbon monoxide.
particularly if the air
d. Carbon dioxide. compressor system uses fuel-
e. Hydrogen. based engines

A compressor with _____ is known as an angle compressor.

a. A "V" type cylinder arrangement
b. A "Y" type cylinder arrangement
c. One cylinder on the horizontal axis and the other on the vertical axis
d. Horizontal cylinder arrangement balance the mechanical
e. 45 degree type cylinder arrangement stresses

Barrel type casings in centrifugal air compressors are for:

a. Storing high-pressure air.
b. Pressures above 6900 kPa.
c. Inducing rotation to the air.
d. Cooling during compression.
e. Changing pressure to volume.

A _____ is used to activate the inlet air unloader by monitoring receiver pressure.

a. Solenoid valve.
b. Spring loaded pilot valve.
c. Spring.
d. Lever.
e. Camshaft.
Group 3 refrigerants are __________________________. A: toxic > 400 ppm
a. extremely flammable B: toxic < 400 ppm
b. moderately flammable
c. non flammable 2：LFL > 100g/m³
d. moderately explosive 3：LFL < 100g/m³
e. non explosive Lower Flammability Limit.

NH3 (R-717) refrigerant ___________________________.

a. will not cause corrosion to metals
b. is non-toxic Ammonia (R-717) can be
c. is corrosive in the presence of water to nonferrous metals
corrosive to certain metals,
especially nonferrous metals
d. is very expensive like copper and its alloys when
e. is extremely explosive in the presence of water.

R-12 and R-22 refrigerants are ____________________.

a. known as halocarbons or Freons
b. used only in commercial establishments
c. extremely toxic
d. used only in indirect systems
e. extremely explosive

Some reciprocating compressors on ammonia systems are protected from liquid slugs by
_________________.
a. spring loaded safety heads
b. automatic drain traps
c. extra heavy valves
d. low pressure cut outs
e. high water cut outs

Brine used in ammonia indirect systems is usually ____________.

a. lithium bromide
b. calcium chloride
c. sodium chloride
d. sodium hydroxide
e. calcium hydroxide
Solution of calcium chloride used in an indirect refrigeration system can be subjected to temperatures as
low as _____________.

a. -11°C
b. -18°C
c. -25°C
d. -51°C
e. -4°C

The evaporator in a centrifugal compressor (chiller unit) system is also called a ________________.
a. vaporizer
b. eliminator
c. purger
d. cooler
e. vent condenser

A duplex compression refrigeration system is used when temperatures below ____ °C are required.
a. -18
b. -20
c. -45
d. -51
e. -92

In a two stage refrigeration system, the 1st stage compressor is usually a ____________ compressor.
a. centrifugal
b. axial flow
c. diffuser
d. rotary
e. reciprocating

In a two stage refrigeration system, the 1st stage compressor is also known as a ___________
compressor.
a. booster
b. standby
c. low volume
d. extraction
e. refrigerant

In a two stage refrigeration system, the 2nd stage compressor is usually a ____________ compressor.
a. centrifugal
b. axial flow
c. diffuser
d. rotary
e. reciprocating

The refrigerant that has worst properties in regards to the ozone is:
a. R- 12
b. R- 22
c. R- 55
d. R- 134a
e. R- 717

The major components of a high-pressure ammonia system are:

a. Compressor, condenser, oil purifier, high-pressure cutout, evaporator.
b. Compressor, condenser, expansion valve, high-pressure cutout, evaporator.
c. Compressor, condenser, expansion valve, oil purifier, evaporator
d. Compressor, condenser, expansion valve, high-pressure cutout, expansion valve.
e. Compressor, condenser, expansion valve, liquid receiver, evaporator.

Roller Compressors:
a. Roller compressors have a roller eccentric the casing.
b. The roller contacts the casing.
c. A spring-loaded blade contacts the roller.
d. The blade separates the discharge and suction.
e. All the above are true.

The Matrix of Refrigerant Classifications is found in this type of code:

a. ASME.
b. NFPA.
c. CSA.
d. ASTM.
e. IDCB.

In the basic absorbing system the dividing line between the high side and the low side is the:
a. Aqua pump and the expansion valve
b. Aqua pump and the condenser
c. Generator and the receiver
d. Expansion valve and the generator
e. Aqua pump and the generator.

The starting and stopping of the compressor is normally done automatically by means of
__________________.
a. a pressure limiting device Temperature: evaporator or
b. an automatic low pressure cut-out room temperature to maintain
c. either a temperature actuated control or a pressure actuated control
the desired cooling effect.
Pressure: the pressure in the
d. a rheostat refrigeration system (e.g.,
e. a heat sensor in the evaporator suction or discharge pressure).
Low-pressure cut-outs are used on refrigeration systems to _________________.

a. stop the compressor on high pressure This prevents:

b. stop the compressor when the suction pressure drops too low 1. Damage to the compressor
c. shut the system down due to non-condensable gases
caused by running without
sufficient refrigerant.
d. stop the compressor when charging the system 2. Freezing of the evaporator
e. stop the compressor when the discharge pressure is too low due to extremely low pressure.

The oil separator is always inserted in the system __________________.

a. to prevent oil logging
b. in a cool pot
c. discharge line
d. suction line The oil is returned to the
e. the bottom of the evaporator compressor for lubrication.

Purging lines and valves are usually located in ammonia compression systems on the
_____________________.
a. evaporator outlet purging lines and valves are
b. bottom of the receiver used to remove non-
c. top of the receiver
condensable gases (such as air)
Non-condensable gases rise to
d. compressor outlet the top of the receiver because
e. top of the evaporator they are lighter than ammonia

The majority of the non condensable gases in a refrigeration system tends to collect at the highest point
of the _____________ naturally.
a. compressor
b. receiver naturally collect at the top of
c. condenser
the condenser
in the condenser, there is often
d. evaporator a small portion of gaseous
e. purger refrigerant

Freon leaks are usually detected by _________________.

a. a lighted sulphur stick The torch contains a copper
b. a sniffer plate or wire that heats up.
c. using a blow torch
When Freon comes into
contact with the flame, causing
d. a halide torch the flame to change color
e. a carbon tetrachloride detector (typically green or blue)

The liquid charging valve is usually connected to a line located _____________________.

a. between the liquid shut-off valve and the expansion valve
b. between the king valve and the condenser liquid charging valve: add refrigerant
to the system in its liquid form
c. at the compressor discharge line
d. between the purge valve and condenser between the liquid shut-off valve and
the expansion valve: allows for easy
e. between the purge valve and the expansion valve and safe charging of refrigerant

In an indirect ammonia system using brine and a water-cooled condenser, the discharge pressure is
controlled by ______________________.
a. the load on the brine
discharge pressure is largely influenced
b. regulating the expansion valve by the heat rejection process, which
occurs in the condenser.

the condenser is water-cooled,

regulating the temperature of the
cooling water
 discharge pressure is largely influenced
by the heat rejection process, which
c. regulating the cooling water to the condenser occurs in the condenser.
d. using a pressure release valve the condenser is water-cooled,
regulating the temperature of the
e. the amount of ammonia refrigerant used cooling water

In an indirect ammonia vapor compression system using brine, the suction pressure is controlled by
________________.
a. the load on the brine
b. the flow of the condensing water to the condenser the brine load increases (i.e., more
heat is absorbed by the brine), lowers
c. throttling the metering valve the temperature and pressure at the
d. equalizing valve evaporator, reduction in pressure
causes a corresponding drop in suction
e. the flow of the cooling water to the suction side of the compressor pressure

Pressure limiting devices should be provided on a refrigeration system with more than ____ kg of
refrigerant.
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
e. 9

The problem with oil is the greatest in the ____________ of a refrigeration system.
a. condenser
b. receiver
c. evaporator
oil mixes with the refrigerant, it
d. compressor can coat the evaporator's heat
e. purger exchange surfaces

An oil separator is installed in refrigeration systems to prevent oil from carrying over to the
______________.
a. condenser
b. receiver
c. evaporator
oil in the condenser can
interfere with the heat
d. compressor exchange process and decrease
e. purger system efficiency.

Which of the following oil separator used in a refrigeration consists of a series of baffles through which
the oil laden refrigerant must pass?
a. Cyclone
b. Impingement
c. Oil still
An impingement type oil
separator uses a series of
d. Inverted trap baffles through which the oil-
e. I.G.F. laden refrigerant passes.

When using __________ as a refrigerant, moisture corrosion will not usually be a problem:
a. ammonia
b. propane
c. R-12
d. R-22
e. CO2
A salometer is a type of _____________________ that is used to indicate the percentage of salt in a
solution.
a. hydrometer

When a concentrated solution is at its lowest freezing point, it is called a ______________________

solution.
a. sub temperature
b. super critical
c. sub critical
A eutectic solution is a mixture
d. critical of substances that has the
e. eutectic lowest possible freezing point

The lowest freezing point obtainable for a mixture of sodium chloride and water is _____________.
a. -12°C
b. -21°C
c. -30°C
d. -43°C
e. -51°C
The lowest freezing point obtainable for a mixture of calcium chloride and water is ___________.
a. -12°C
b. -21°C
c. -30°C
d. -43°C
e. -51°C

The king valve on an ammonia vapor compression system serves as a:

a. Refrigerant control valve.
b. Valve to connect the ammonia drum when charging the system.
c. Brine control valve.
d. Master isolation shut-off valve.
e. The condenser flow control.

Refrigeration application uses could include:

a. Heating methods in industry
b. Gas distillation process
c. Refrigerant oil purification
cool the gas to a temperature
d. Air conditioning humidifying where the moisture condenses
e. Air conditioning or gas dehydration. out.

The cross-over valves on a compressor are used when:

a. Adding refrigerant
b. Pumping out the evaporator Cross-over valves on a compressor are used
c. The other valves need to be repaired without shutting down to redirect the flow of refrigerant for
specific operational needs
d. Pumping out the condenser
Clearing the condenser of refrigerant to
e. Pumping out the receiver. perform repairs or cleaning

High discharge pressure of a refrigeration system could indicate:

a. Cooling water flowing too fast.

the refrigerant remains at a

higher temperature and
pressure
b. Not enough refrigerant in the system.
c. Not sufficient condenser cooling.
the refrigerant remains at a
d. Expansion valve not open enough. higher temperature and
e. King valve not open enough. pressure

When charging ammonia systems, frost on the drum bottom indicates:

a. Too much refrigerant.
b. The ambient temperature is too high.
c. Refrigerant drum is empty or very nearly empty.
d. Pressure too high. Rapid evaporation:
e. Refrigerant drum is still full. Heat absorption:

Refrigeration oils are usually:

a. Mineral oils with high pour point.
b. Mineral oils with low viscosity.
c. Mineral oils with low pour point and high viscosity.
does not solidify at the low
temperatures
d. Non-mineral oils with naphthalene base. adequate lubrication and
e. Non-mineral oils with low pour point and viscosity. sealing

Clearance volume:
a. Has no effect on compressor capacity
b. Has effect on compressor capacity Clearance volume is the small
c. Varies depending upon compressor speed
space left between the piston
and the cylinder head when the
d. Should be the same on all compressors piston is at the top dead center
e. Is the vapor volume in the receiver in a reciprocating compressor.

Compressor short cycling could be caused by:

a. Discharge pressure too high
b. Discharge pressure too low
c. Suction pressure too high
Compressor short cycling
d. Condensing water too cold occurs when the compressor
e. Condensing water too warm turns on and off rapidly

Which of the following are true? Kettle Reboilers:high-pressure,

1. Kettle reboilers have a large liquid volume. high-flow applications,
significant heat input
2. Kettle reboilers may use a weir to keep fluid above the tubes.
3. It is important not to flood Thermosyphon reboilers. Thermosyphon Reboiler: low-
4. Thermosyphons depend on a difference in fluid density to promote flow. pressure systems, natural
Select one:
circulation
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4

In a Cooling tower the drift eliminators:

Select one:
A. Break the water into thin sheets to increase the surface area
B. Discharge the air at high velocity to minimize re-circulation
C. Induce the flow of air through the cooling section
D. Separate entrained moisture from the air
E. Prevent waves in the reservoir

Hairpin exchangers:
Select one:
A. Are mainly used when the exchange surface area exceeds 50 m²
B. Are easily assembled
C. Are easily cleaned
D. Are used only for low pressures
E. Are rarely used for heat exchange surfaces below 18m2

Which of the below are true of the Fixed Tube Sheet shell and tube exchanger?
1. Has a tube pattern that can fill the shell
2. Has tube sheets welded to the shell
3. Tube sheets can extend past the shell for bolting up
4. The design allows for differences in thermal expansion between the shell and tube bundle
5. Allows brush cleaning
Select one:
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 2, 3, 4, 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 5

Which of the following are true for plate heat exchangers?

1. High turbulence helps prevent fouling
2. Heat transfers well through the thin plates
3. Not good for thick fluids
4. They have a low-pressure drop
5. Gasket placement is critical
Select one:
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 2, 3, 4, 5
C. 1, 3, 4, 5
D. 1, 2, 4, 5
E. 1, 2, 3, 5

The double pipe heat exchanger belongs to the ___________ category.

a. regenerative
b. bent pipe
c. double tube
A recuperative heat exchanger
is one where heat is transferred
d. jacketed pipe from a hot fluid to a cold fluid
e. recuperative without mixing the fluids.

The disadvantages of hairpin heat exchangers are:

1) Small heat transfer surface area
2) Not a flexible design
3) Cleaning is expensive
4) Each hairpin introduces more leak points
5) Non-standardized parts
a. 1, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a U-shaped shell and tube heat exchanger
____________________.

a. tubes are bent to a minimum radius

b. outer tubes are easily replaced
c. only one tube sheet
d. no differential expansion
e. good for high temperatures only

U shaped shell and tube heat exchangers are not known for ______________________.
a. high heat transfer rates
b. high temperatures
c. high pressure
designed to handle this issue
d. high differential expansion well, rather than being known
e. All of the above for any issues with it.

Fixed tube sheet chemical cleaning is used to clean ________________.

a. the inside of the tubes

b. the outside of the tubes
c. only the tubesheets
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

Horizontal thermosyphon reboilers require _________________.

a. a large vapor space

b. a small vapour space
c. a flooded shell
d. lots of heat transfer tubes
e. placement equal to the liquid level in the tower

Horizontal thermosyphon reboilers require _________________.

a. a large vapor space
b. a small vapour space
c. a flooded shell
d. lots of heat transfer tubes
e. placement equal to the liquid level in the tower
Vertical thermosyphon reboiler often has _____________________.
a. heated liquid on the tube side
b. positioning next to a horizontal tower
c. steam on the tube side
d. liquid on the shell side
e. All of the above
In a horizontal thermosyphon reboiler, heat is controlled by
_____________________________________.
a. adding more steam to the vessel
b. raising the vapour pressure on the shell
c. reducing the vapour pressure on the shell
d. raising the levels on the shell side
e. by varying the condensate level in the tube side

Maximum cooling in PHE's is maintained by _______________. plate heat exchanger (PHE)

a. corrugating the plates
b. inlets and outlets at the plate corners
c. counter flowing the two streams
d. the thickness of the gaskets
e. thinness of the steel plates

Advantages of PHE's include:

1) A rapid start up
2) Leakage easily detected
3) Enables use of low flow rates for erosion
4) Can cool toxic materials
5) Minimal heat loss
a. 1, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 5

Aerial coolers can be used when the liquid temperature is above:

a. 25°C
b. 35°C
c. 45°C
d. 55°C
e. 65°C

In an aerial cooler, a bay has how many fans:

a. one
b. one or more
c. two
d. two or more
e. three

Vertical arrangements of overhead aerial coolers are not used _____________________.

a. to take advantage of natural flow from top to bottom
b. to take the wind into consideration
c. in steam condensing applications
d. to keep the footprint small
e. in small packaged units

The most common configuration of an overhead aerial condenser cooler is

__________________________________.
a. vertical
b. A frame
c. V frame
d. horizontal

The most common configuration of power generating plant steam condensing overhead aerial
condensers are _____________________.

a. vertical
b. A frame
c. V frame
d. horizontal
e. All of the above

When cooling fluids, atmospheric spray cooling towers do not depend on

__________________________.

a. atmospheric conditions
b. wind drift
c. wind direction
d. tower fill
e. spray

The cooling process in atmospheric packed tower depends on _____________________________.

a. the production of fine droplets
b. the direction of the wind
c. air speed through the tower
cooling fluid (usually water) and
d. the proper use of natural currents the air to achieve effective
e. the proper design of the louvres cooling

The greatest savings in a Hyperbolic cooling tower is the _________________.

a. use of small amounts of packing

b. concrete structures last forever
c. savings in power
natural draft design allows for
passive air movement through
d. small footprint the tower, reducing the need
e. reliability of the tower for mechanical fans

Hyperbolic towers are used because ____________________.

a. they work in humid climates

b. they are extremely dependable
c. they are predictable in operation
d. they cost less to maintain
e. All of the above

What is the greatest advantage of induced draft cooling towers?

a. The fans will not freeze
b. A smaller footprint-fits on an existing site
c. No recirculation of warm air
d. The induced draft cooling tower has the highest heat transfer
e. None of the above

The greatest advantage of a crossflow cooling tower is _____________.

a. they are lower in height
b. they are larger and have a more stable footprint
c. they are smaller and have lighter fans
d. they have a very long air travel path
e. they are less prone to warm air recirculation

The pilot used for most of the indirect fired heaters are the ______________ type.

a. on-demand
b. ignition
c. interrupted
flame remains stable
throughout operation and can
d. continuous ignite the main burner when
e. intermittent needed.

Airflow to each individual burner for a fired heater is controlled by:

a. A fixed damper.
b. An air separator.
c. An air compressor.
d. An air register.
e. An outlet damper.

On a fired heater the manual vent value downstream of the constant fuel pressure regulator is used for
the purpose of:
a. Venting the gas when the pressure is too high.
b. Flaring of the gas when the pressure is too high.
c. Venting the gas during shut down to isolate the downstream piping.
d. Regulating the gas pressure upstream of the main fuel control valve.
e. Regulating the gas pressure downstream of the regulator.

Normal areas to measure draft 通风 in a fired heater are:

1. In the midpoint of the radiant section.
2. Near the floor of the firebox.
3. Just below the convection section.
4. In the duct above the convection section.
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4

Completion of purging automatically fired heaters is usually determined by:

a. The volume of air drawn in.
b. The volume of exhaust air.
purging time that ensures four
air changes of the combustion
chamber volume, ensuring
safety.
 purging time that ensures four
air changes of the combustion
c. The amount of excess air. chamber volume, ensuring
d. Time. safety.

Which of the following require the use of direct fired heaters.

1. Fractionator reboiling.
2. Preheating the process feed to a reactor.
3. To heat a heat transfer medium.
4. Heating viscous fluids.

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4

A Eutectic salt solution used as a heat transfer medium in an indirect heater is a mixture of:
a. Sodium nitrate and magnesium nitrate.
b. Calcium nitrate and magnesium nitrate.
c. Sodium nitrate and calcium nitrate.
d. Sodium nitrite and potassium nitrate.
e. Calcium nitrate and potassium nitrate.

The _____ and the _____ assembly are mounted on top of the convection section of vertical fired
heaters.

a. Economizer, superheater.
b. Economizer, air heater.
c. Stack, damper.
d. Reheater, reboiler.
e. Air heater, superheater.

The main fuel and bypass fuel control valves regulate the fuel pressure to the:
a. Main safety shut off valve.
b. Constant fuel pressure regulator.
c. Main atmospheric vent valve.
d. Manual shut off valve.
e. Burners.

_____ are essential parts of the burner safety management system.

a. Low Water Fuel Cutoffs.
b. Flame Scanners.
c. Flame Igniters.
d. Gas Burner Nozzles.
e. Fuel Pressure Gages.

Why would you preheat the process feed to a reactor?

Sometimes startup heaters are used to get the fluid hot enough to get the chemical reaction started
What is the efficiency of radiant heaters?
40 to 50%
What is the efficiency of convection heaters?
75 to 85%
What is the most common fuels for burners?
Gas, oil, or a combination of the two
What is the advantage of oil bath heaters (beside heating up to 260° C)
The oil protects the heating tubes from general corrosion and pitting
Molten salt baths can achieve process outlet temperates of _________° C
400° C

The upper PH level limit for wastewater is at _____ .

a. 8
b. 8.5
The lower PH level limit for wastewater is at _____.
a. 5.5
b. 6
c. 6.5

To allow for reasonable separation in an oil/water separation pond, which is a component of an industrial
wastewater treatment plant, the separator should have sufficient capacity to hold the average flow for
_________ .

a. 1 day
b. 1 to 2 days
c. 2 to 4 days

The stabilization lagoon should be large enough to hold the effluent of the of the oil/water separation
pond to contain _________ discharge from the plant.
a. one week
b. two weeks
c. three weeks
d. one month

In the clarifier some of the activated sludge is sent back to the first stage aeration tank, the remainder is
sent to __________.
a. wastewater heater
The remainder of the sludge,
b. disposal known as waste activated sludge
c. second stage aeration (WAS), is typically sent for disposal
d. polishing pond
or further processing, such as
dewatering or anaerobic digestion,
e. oil/water separation pond before being disposed of.

The removal of inorganic material in municipal wastewater system is carried out in grit and screen
sections. This removal section is sometime known as _________.

In a municipal wastewater
a. tailworks treatment system, the
b. hardworks headworks refer to the initial
c. headworks
treatment stages where large
debris, grit, and inorganic
d. midworks materials (such as sand and
e. removalworks gravel) are removed.
A rotating trash screen used in a wastewater treatment plant is also called a ________________.
a. comminuter
b. compactor
c. constrictor
d. accumulator
e. barminutor

In a wastewater plant, some organic material accumulates on the screen, this organic material is
acceptable as landfill material.
due to the potential for contamination
(such as pathogens or chemicals), requires
a. True additional handling, such as dewatering,
disinfection, or incineration, before it can
b. False be safely disposed of.

An ångström unit is equivalent to ____________.

a. 10 Exp -10 m
b. 10 Exp -6 m
c. 10 Exp -3 m An ångström (symbol: Å) is a unit of length
commonly used to express wavelengths of
d. 10 Exp -2 m light, atomic radii, and molecular sizes. It is
equivalent to
e. 10 Exp -1 m 10^-10 meters.

A rotating biological contactor (RBC) rotates at ____________.

a. 1 to 2 rev/min

The permeable portion of a tricking filter can be made of

1) Bed of rock
2) Screens
3) Shredder
4) Slag
5) Plastic
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 4, 5

The only place inlet samples are taken from is at the ___________.
a. flare pit
b. stabilization lagoon
c. headworks
d. oil/filter separator
e. clarifier

In a BPNR process, __________ are removed. Biological Phosphorus & Nitrogen Removal (BPNR)
a. carbon dioxides
b. colloidal materials
c. inorganic materials
d. phosphorus compounds
e. sand and suspended solids

An anoxic material is one that has:

a. Dissolved oxygen.
b. Dissolved oxygen but does have nitrite.
c. No dissolved oxygen.
d. No dissolved oxygen but does have nitrite.
e. Dissolved nitrogen but no dissolved oxygen.

What are the four factors that affect the quality of wastewater?
Acidity
Toxicity
Oxygen Demand Levels
Temperature

What happens in the aeration tanks. How long does the effluent stay there?
Water mixes with the activated sludge.
Stays in the first aeration tank for 6 hours
Stays in the second stage tank for up to 2 days

What is a barminutor?
A high speed shredder that traverses the bar screen

What is flotation?
Water and air is combined under pressure then depressurized into a flotation tank. The bubbles attack
onto suspended material as they rise and together, float to the surface of the liquid. The mixture is
skimmed off from the top

How large can a rock or slag bed in a trickling filter be?

Up to 70 meters in diameter and 1 to 3 meters deep
How is air delivered to the trickling filters?
By large ventilation ports at the bottom of the filter
What do anaerobic digesters need to function?
Heat. Optimal temperature is 37° C

As bacteria breaks down organic material in an anaerobic digester, what is released?

Methane gas. It can be used as fuel gas to heat the process

The authority that makes the keeping of the log book mandatory is the:
a. Boilers Act
b. Industry Trade Union
c. Plant or Chief Engineer
d. Institute of Power Engineers
e. Workers Compensation Board

Required records are kept:

1) To comply with the Provincial Boilers and Pressure Vessels Act and Regulations
2) To comply with the Provincial Workers Compensation Board
3) To comply with the ASME codes
4) To comply with the insurance companies
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4

In order to construct a good plan for a boiler outage, you must know:
1) The extent and complexity of repairs
2) The cost of the spare parts required
3) The effects of the shut down on production
4) The availability of a Boiler Inspector
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3, 4

The pre-work phase of a plan is to formulate the plan.

a. True
b. False

Written communication includes.

1. Letters.
2. Memos.
3. Posters.
4. Procedure manuals.
5. Charts.
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 2, 4

Visual communication includes.

1. Overheads. 投影仪
2. Memos.
3. Posters. 海报
4. Procedure manuals.
5. Charts.
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3, 5

When a new employee reads the procedures for starting a piece of equipment and is shown a way that is
different than the one explained in the operation procedures, this will:
1. Erodes the credibility of the trainer.
2. Erodes the credibility of the procedures.
3. Increases the chances for the new employee to be involved in an incident.
4. Improve the chances of the new employee to pick up bad habits.
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 3, 4

The communication between _____ and _____ in plant operations is one of the most important.

1. Warehouse and Purchasing.

2. Management.
3. Operations.
4. Human Resources.
5. Engineering.
6. Maintenance.
7. Safety and Training.
8. Engineering.

a. 4, 2
b. 7, 5
c. 1, 7
d. 3, 6

Wells that are used to monitor the ground water quality are sometime called:
monitor groundwater quality and measure
the level of groundwater.
a. Piezometer wells.

Visual communications as practiced at a power plant include:

1. Written reports.
2. Exhibitions and posters.
3. Films.
4. Instructions on bulletin boards.
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3

Records are kept in a steam plant for which of the following reasons:
1. Legal requirements.
2. Supervisory requirements.
3. Analysis and decision making requirements.
4. Financial requirements.
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3, 4

Industrial health and safety committees are established to:

a. See that boilers are inspected as required.
b. Comply with boiler insurance companies.
c. Satisfy Worker's Compensation Board requirements.

Gantt charts are used to plan:

1. Shift schedules.
2. Large and long overalls.
3. Holiday schedule.
planning tasks or schedules
that require a visual timeline,
4. Day to day operation of the plant. such as shifts or long-term
a. 1, 3 projects.
b. 1, 2
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3

The information found in an equipment record card is:

1. Equipment repair history.
2. Model type.
3. Associated costs.
4. Requisition number.
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 1, 2, 3, 4

Which of the following is not a planning technique used in a steam plant:

a. CPM. - (Critical Path Method) – Used to plan and schedule complex projects
b. C.E.T. - (Critical Equipment Testing)
c. Arrow diagrams. - Visual representations of the tasks and their dependencies in project planning
d. Decision tree methods. - uncertain or complex scenarios
e. Gantt charts. -visualize and manage the timing of tasks in a project

One of the best methods of promoting safety is by:

a. Having employees attend safety lectures
b. Keeping safety posters placed throughout the plant
c. Setting a good example
d. Making an example of an employee who breaks safety rules or regulations
e. Enforcing safe workmanship

Plants that operate their equipment on a break down maintenance program:

1. Obtain years of reliable service from the machines
2. Have greater annual production output than plants that shut down for planned maintenance
3. Schedule maintenance shut down of their machinery
4. Usually obtain less annual production due to unplanned shut down of the equipment
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 4

Scum is removed from the surface of clarifiers using:

Water sprays
Detergents
Skimmers ✓ Correct
Scrapers

Which of the following are true for feedwater heaters?

1. High-pressure feedwater heaters are used between the BFP and boiler
2. Low-pressure feedwater heaters are used between the hotwell and deaerator
3. Turbine extraction steam is commonly used for feedwater heaters
4. Feedwater heaters increase cycle efficiency, resulting in lower fuel costs
5. Feedwater heaters are not considered pressure vessels
1, 2
1, 3
1, 4
1, 2, 3, 4 ✓ Correct
Select the main piece of equipment that would be used in a gas expansion cryogenic refrigeration process.
Vacuum/steam jet
Turboexpander ✓ Correct
Reciprocating compressor
Regenerator

What condition can be produced at reduced compressor speeds if variable speed control is used on a dynamic
compressor?
Compressor stalling
Compressor overheating
Compressor surging ✓ Correct
Compressor vibration
Compressor blade erosion

In the event of a large load rejection or following a steam turbine trip while operational and under load, an
automatic valve is placed on one of the steam lines between the control valves and HP turbine section to
depressurize the HP turbine and reheater. What is the name of this valve?
Turbine depressurization valve
Packing blowdown valve
Spray valve
Ventilator dump valve

During a power outage, when a heavy-duty gas turbine slows down and its main oil pump cannot supply enough
lube oil, which component supplies the lube
oil?
The scavenge pump
The AC pre/post lube pump
The DC pre/post lube pump ✓ Correct
Gravity feed

What controls the suction pressure in refrigeration systems?

Condenser cooling water
Refrigeration flow
Pressure relief valves
Low-pressure control (LPC) ✓ Correct
Compressor inlet valve

Which methods are used to detect cooling-water leaks in a surface condenser while it is in operation?
1. A pH test
2. Electrical conductivity test
3. Plastic wrapping test
4. Silver nitrate test
5. Fluorescein dye test
2, 4

The oil filter in a diesel engine lubricating system is:

Placed on the suction side of the pump
Remove contaminants and debris from the
Between the oil cooler and oil manifold ✓ Correct lubricating oil before it reaches the engine's
moving parts.

Ensure that only clean, filtered oil is

distributed through the manifold to critical
engine components.
 Remove contaminants and debris from the
lubricating oil before it reaches the engine's
Not always required moving parts.

Between the return line and the sump Ensure that only clean, filtered oil is
distributed through the manifold to critical
In the engine sump engine components.

In a reaction turbine, which of the following are true?

1. Velocity increases in the moving blades
2. Velocity decreases in the stationary blades
3. Pressure drops in the moving blades
4. Pressure drops in the stationary blades
1, 2
3, 4

Aeroderivative gas turbines have what kind of lubrication systems?

Elaborate lubrication systems, because they use anti-friction bearings
No lubrication systems, because they primarily use air bearings
Single integrated lube oil systems that serve the gas turbine, the power turbine, gearbox, and driven equipment
Separate lube oil systems for the power turbine and load ✓ Correct

What type of extraction pump is often used to reduce cavitation?

A pump with high net positive suction head
A double acting reciprocating pump
A vertical well type pump ✓ Correct
A positive displacement pump with a separate suction chamber the pump inlet is located below
A single stage centrifugal pump the liquid level

When are vibration accelerometers used on gas turbines?

If journal or tilt-pad bearings are used
To trip the turbine on rapid acceleration
To control the ramp speed on start-up
On the largest industrial machines
With anti-friction bearings

To reach an F:M target ratio: Food-to-Microorganism ratio

Adjust the chlorine feed to the aeration tank
Adjust the chlorine feed to the waste-water effluent
Adjust the flow of return activated sludge to the aeration tank ✓ Correct
Adjust the flow of mixed liquor to the secondary clarifier.

What is another name for the evaporator in a centrifugal compressor (chiller unit) system?
Vaporizer
Eliminator
Purger
Chiller ✓ Correct
Vent condenser

In order to counter the corrosive nature of the condensate produced from burning fuel with a high sulfur content,
a _____ heat exchanger is installed in the
condensing heat recovery systems.
Plastic lined
Mild steel
High carbon steel
High alloy steel
Stainless steel

In a cogeneration system, the thermal load can be controlled by which two of the following strategies:
1. Fixed production of a minimum thermal energy
2. Varying requirements for thermal energy
3. Base loaded for maximum thermal energy
4. Topping for minimum thermal energy
1, 2 ✓ Correct
2, 3
1, 3
2, 4
1, 4

What are all large disc rotors machined from?

A solid forging of nickel steel ✓ Correct
A solid forging of chromium-nickel steel
A solid forging of nickel-molybdenum steel
Chromium-nickel-molybdenum steel
Copper-nickel-bronze steel

What can be used to detect moisture in a refrigeration system?

Hydrometer
Hygrometer
Sight glass/moisture indicator ✓ Correct
Moisture psychrometer
Moisture separator

A thrust adjusting gear __________.

Is found on impulse turbines
Adjust the thrust generated by the turbine
Positions the turbine rotor axially ✓ Correct
Compensates for steam pressure variations
Is adjusted to provide minimum clearances on start-up

Turbines fall under two general classes, _____ or _____.

1. Condensing
2. Tandem
3. Those that exhaust at or above atmospheric pressure
4. Compound
1, 2
1, 3

What are the main dangers that a condenser must be guarded against?
1. Superheated steam
2. Contamination of condensate
3. Increase in backpressure
4. Vibration
1, 2
2, 3 ✓ Correct
3, 4
1, 2, 3
2, 3, 4

The accumulator for a hydraulic starting system holds a quantity of oil under pressure at about _____________________.
3000 kPa to 5000 kPa
5000 kPa to 10 000 kPa
10 000 kPa to 20 000 kPa

What kind of bearings do heavy-duty gas turbines use today?

Journal
Radial tilt-pad ✓ Correct
Shell
Anti-friction
Air

How might the air delivered by a gas turbine's compressor be used?

To cool the lube oil
To cool the turbine blading
To operate pneumatic control systems
To remove ice from the air intake
rbine: steam to be "extracted"
diate pressure for other

e Turbine: exhausts steam at a

er than atmospheric pressure,
n processes that require low-
m.

red both for power

d for process heating or other
condensing turbine (which
m to a condenser to lower its
ack-pressure turbine exhausts
her pressure for use in
rial processes.

orce pushes the rotor

ection of lower

bearings or balance
counteract the force

ompounded =
urbine.
Velocity Compounded
n turbine.
no air leaks in along the
er operating speeds,
ressure differential
e turbine interior and the
could allow air to enter.
 pump is typically used
ne startup and shutdown
gh-pressure oil beneath the
ft. This creates an oil film to
slightly, reducing metal-
ntact and minimizing
the turbine reaches
eed for the main
ystem to take over.

am is throttled, its
drops without a
nal drop in
ure. This results in an
n superheat

re turbine: exhaust steam

l processes or heating.
eing condensed
urbine: some steam to be
xtracted) partway through
at a controlled pressure for
sses or heating
 ar, also known as a turning
to slowly rotate a turbine
maintenance, startup, or
o prevent shaft distortion
en cooling or thermal

pump is used to provide

ry oil pressure to the
stem and other critical
s during the start-up of the

mp: driven by the turbine

reliable and
t oil supply at the
pressure, independent
bine's main oil

deaeration function is
e removal of non-
e gases from the steam
ondensation process,
directly influenced by the
ent
 pump: Extracts
m the turbine for use
ter heating.
 pump: Extracts
m the turbine for use
ter heating.

or and turbine are

on separate
y the compressor
ds to be powered by
ng motor to get the air
rough the system.
r of a centrifugal compressor
velocity of the air to add

ser, the high-velocity air slows

an increase in pressure,where
air is required for efficient
on.
r of a centrifugal compressor
velocity of the air to add

ser, the high-velocity air slows

an increase in pressure,where
air is required for efficient
on.

Space: The large size

dates the heat
process required in
tion systems.

utlet temperatures by
tributing the
on process across
hambers. This
ot spots and improves
erformance and

s' ability to withstand

h temperatures.
s turbines:
(HP) Shaft:connected to the
turbine and drives the

(LP) Shaft: connected to the

turbine and drives the load
or or mechanical equipment)

ressure should
e higher than the air
compressor outlet
in a gas turbine.

remove heavier particulates

ner particles.
Removes water
tment: prevent the formation
moves contaminants, and can
stability.
 rol over the amount of fuel
different stages of
enabling the fuel to be
ch a way that it helps lower
temperatures

eration, the turning

y rotates the shaft to
potential locking or
the shaft due to
xpansion or other
 a portion of the
d air back into the
r intake
oper operational
and stability of the
d compressor during
d conditions.
hat the oil is filtered
passes through the
moving contaminants
s to protect the
mponents.

: clean, low-viscosity
helps lubricate the
ponents and prevent
nsuring smooth
during the engine's
: clean, low-viscosity
helps lubricate the
ponents and prevent
nsuring smooth
during the engine's
e engine (also known
our-stroke engine)

nes:
lder method):fuel is mixed
carburetor before entering

tion (PFI)
ection (DI)

rarily reduces resistance in

rcuit, allowing more current
ignition coil. This ensures that
ates a high enough voltage to
k for ignition

gine speed increases,

fugal force causes the
o move outward. The
t of these weights is
by the tension of a

on process is delayed,
uel may burn
ly: higher exhaust
ures
on process is delayed,
uel may burn
ly: higher exhaust
ures

of fuel: usually a
on of gas (such as
s) and liquid fuel
uel oil or diesel).
generates electricity
es from the gas turbine are
RSG to produce steam
ne, also connected to the
oduces additional power by
m from the HRSG
 er is placed in the
tream of the gas
nd it burns extra fuel
ore thermal energy
he system.
performance by
the operating
stics, such as
and pressure, under
ad conditions.

nes themselves
aled chambers that
the air as they rotate.

can be approximately
er due to smoother
d reduced energy
ompression.
g gears are used to
ze the rotation of the
hat they mesh

he output when full

s not required
in matching the
or’s output to the
ooler is used to cool
ressed air, which
ondense moisture
s for easier removal
re and oil from the air.

remove large
moisture, and oil
e air enters the dryer,
hat the air is cleaner
before the final
stage.

mpression, the temperature

mains constant, and the
ves heat exchange to maintain
ure.
pression：increase in the gas's
which requires more work
 helps reduce the
d on the system,
moother operation
nting the motor from
rloaded.

without restriction,
proper airflow and
g damage that could
e flow of air is
d.

e amount of air
the impeller, thus
the capacity of the

mponents to cool
and rotary
ors, the air is
ed in a manner that
or eliminates oil
ation

us airflow and
at higher speeds,
ed with electric motor
t can handle these
 critical components
mpeller and piping,
highly sensitive to
hanges in pressure

ly if the air
or system uses fuel-
gines

ce the mechanical
stresses
400 ppm
400 ppm

00g/m³
00g/m³
Flammability Limit.

(R-717) can be
to certain metals,
nonferrous metals
er and its alloys when
sence of water.
ure: evaporator or
perature to maintain
d cooling effect.
the pressure in the
on system (e.g.,
discharge pressure).
ents:
e to the compressor
running without
refrigerant.
g of the evaporator
remely low pressure.

returned to the
or for lubrication.

nes and valves are

move non-
ble gases (such as air)
ensable gases rise to
the receiver because
ghter than ammonia

collect at the top of

nser
denser, there is often
rtion of gaseous
t

contains a copper
ire that heats up.
on comes into
ith the flame, causing
to change color
green or blue)

ing valve: add refrigerant

m in its liquid form

e liquid shut-off valve and

on valve: allows for easy
arging of refrigerant

essure is largely influenced

rejection process, which
e condenser.

er is water-cooled,
he temperature of the
er
 essure is largely influenced
rejection process, which
e condenser.

er is water-cooled,
he temperature of the
er

ad increases (i.e., more

rbed by the brine), lowers
ature and pressure at the
reduction in pressure
responding drop in suction

with the refrigerant, it

he evaporator's heat
surfaces

condenser can
with the heat
process and decrease
fficiency.

ement type oil

uses a series of
rough which the oil-
igerant passes.
 solution is a mixture
nces that has the
ssible freezing point

gas to a temperature
e moisture condenses
out.

ves on a compressor are used

e flow of refrigerant for
tional needs

ondenser of refrigerant to
rs or cleaning

erant remains at a
mperature and
erant remains at a
mperature and

poration:
rption:

solidify at the low

ures
lubrication and

volume is the small

between the piston
ylinder head when the
t the top dead center
ocating compressor.

or short cycling
en the compressor
nd off rapidly

boilers:high-pressure,
applications,
t heat input

phon Reboiler: low-

systems, natural
n
 rative heat exchanger
ere heat is transferred
t fluid to a cold fluid
mixing the fluids.
to handle this issue
er than being known
ues with it.
uid (usually water) and
achieve effective

aft design allows for

r movement through
, reducing the need
nical fans
mains stable
ut operation and can
main burner when

me that ensures four

es of the combustion
volume, ensuring
nder of the sludge,
waste activated sludge
ypically sent for disposal
processing, such as
g or anaerobic digestion,
ng disposed of.

cipal wastewater
t system, the
s refer to the initial
t stages where large
t, and inorganic
(such as sand and
e removed.
 tential for contamination
ogens or chemicals), requires
ndling, such as dewatering,
or incineration, before it can
osed of.

(symbol: Å) is a unit of length

ed to express wavelengths of
adii, and molecular sizes. It is

rs.
ndwater quality and measure
oundwater.

asks or schedules
re a visual timeline,
ifts or long-term
aminants and debris from the
before it reaches the engine's

nly clean, filtered oil is

rough the manifold to critical
onents.
aminants and debris from the
before it reaches the engine's

nly clean, filtered oil is

rough the manifold to critical
onents.

inlet is located below

he liquid level