.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PRESTORMINGTM
Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C : P-SIA-A-GS
GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I
Serial : P-GSI-232425
CURRENT AFFAIRS FULL TEST A
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

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you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
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(1-A)
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1. The second rocket launch port of the Indian 4. Consider the following pairs :
Space Research Organisation (ISRO) at Monuments State where it
Kulasekarapattinam in Tamil Nadu will be is located
extensively and exclusively used for the 1. Statue of - Andhra Pradesh
launch of: Equality
(a) Small Satellite Launch Vehicle
2. Statue of Social - Maharashtra
(b) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
Justice
(c) Geosynchronous Space Launch Vehicle
3. Statue of - Telangana
(d) Launch Vehicle Mark-III
Prosperity
4. Statue of - Assam
2. Consider the following:
Valour
1. Cumulative electric power installed
How many of the above pairs are correctly
capacity from non-fossil sources to reach
40% by 2030. matched ?

2. Reduction of emissions intensity of GDP by (a) Only one

33-35% compared to 2005 levels. (b) Only two

3. Creation of an additional carbon sink of (c) Only three

2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent (d) All four
through additional forest and tree cover.
Which of the above goals of India’s Intended 5. With reference to the National Generic
Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) to Document Registration System (NGDRS),
UNFCCC submitted in the year 2015 have consider the following statements :
been achieved well ahead of time?
1. The NGDRS is an initiative of the Ministry
(a) 1 and 2 only
of Rural Development.
(b) 1 and 3 only
2. It aims to create a uniform online land
(c) 2 and 3 only
record registration system applicable to all
(d) 1, 2 and 3
types of transactions across the country.
3. It operates in compliance with state-
3. Purana Qila, which is built on the banks of
specific laws and legislations.
the Yamuna River and considered to be one of
How many of the above statements are
the oldest forts in Delhi, is associated with
which of the following rulers? correct?

(a) Akbar and Humayun (a) Only one

(b) Sher Shah Suri and Sikander Lodi (b) Only two

(c) Alauddin Khilji and Iltutmish (c) All three

(d) Humayun and Sher Shah Suri (d) None
(3-A)
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6. Which of the following autonomous bodies of 9. India’s first cheetah conservation breeding
the Ministry of Culture has proposed to create centre is being set up in which of the following
a ‘Language Atlas’ of India, enumerating protected areas ?
languages spoken across the country? (a) Kuno-Palpur National Park
(a) Indira Gandhi National Centre of Arts (b) Banni Grasslands Reserve
(b) Sahitya Akademi (c) Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Centre for Cultural Resources and (d) Panna Tiger Reserve
Training
(d) Kalashektra Foundation 10. With reference to MethaneSAT, consider the
following statements:

7. Consider the following statements : 1. It is the first spacecraft to identify and

quantify Earth’s methane emissions.
1. The Constitution of India prescribes the
2. It will orbit the earth 15 times a day,
criteria for defining a community as
monitoring methane emissions from the oil
Scheduled Tribes (STs).
and gas sector.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one
Which of the statements given above is/are
of the criteria considered for determining
correct?
ST status.
(a) 1 only
3. The consent of the Registrar General of
(b) 2 only
India is mandatory for the inclusion of a
(c) Both 1 and 2
specific community in the state-wise STs
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
List.
Which of the above statements is/are not
11. Consider the following statements with respect
correct ?
to the United Nations Educational, Scientific
(a) 1 and 2 only
and Cultural Organization:
(b) 2 only 1. The Executive Board of the organisation
(c) 1 and 3 only determines the policies and main lines of
(d) 3 only work of the organisation.
2. The Executive Board shall be elected by
8. Consider the following statements with respect the general conference and consist of fifty-
to “Spaghettification”: eight member states.
1. It is the tidal effect caused by strong 3. States which are not members of the
gravitational fields. United Nations Organization may be
2. Due to this effect, the object can be admitted to membership of the
distorted into a long, thin version of its organization.
undistorted shape. How many of the statements given above are
Which of the above statements is/are correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None

(4-A)
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12. Consider the following statements with respect How many of the above pairs is/are correct?
to the SARAS Aajeevika Mela 2023: (a) Only one
1. The event will provide a platform for rural (b) Only two
self-help group women to sell and promote
(c) All three
their self-made products.
(d) None
2. Handicrafts, handloom, and natural food
items from different rural areas across the
country will be displayed at the event. 15. Consider the following statements with respect
3. SARAS Melas are organised by the to the Cotton Corporation of India (CCI):
Ministry of Rural Development, the 1. CCI was established under the
National Institute of Rural Development, administrative control of the Ministry of
and the Panchayati Raj.
Textiles as a Public-Sector Undertaking.
Which of the statements given above are
2. CCI undertakes commercial purchase
correct?
operations to fulfil the raw material
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only requirement of the domestic textile
(c) 1 and 3 only industry.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. CCI can undertake price support
operations when market prices of cotton
13. Which one of the following statements is
fall below the minimum support prices.
correct with Thomas Shoal, sometimes
mentioned in the news? Which of the statements given above are

(a) China and the Philippines engage in correct?

maritime disputes over this shoal in the (a) 1 and 2 only
South China Sea. (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) China and Taiwan engage in maritime (c) 1 and 3 only
disputes over this shoal in the Taiwan
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Strait.
(c) The shoal is part of the Lakshadweep
Islands, closer to the territory of Maldives. 16. The Darfur region, recently seen in the news,

(d) An island near Andaman and Nicobar is related to which of the following events?
Islands where the Indian Coast Guard (a) A Palestinian enclave on the border of
harbours Rohingya refugees. Egypt where Israeli forces conducting
military operations
14. Consider the following Pairs:
Temples Associated (b) A region where a special military operation

Dynasty conducted by Russia in Ukraine

1. Trimbakeshwar - Vijayanagar (c) A region in Arunachal Pradesh where
Temple dynasty Chinese and Indian soldiers clashed
2. Chausath Yogini - Pala dynasty (d) A region where Sudanese armed forces and
Temple
Rapid Support Forces are involved in
3. Naganathaswamy - East Ganga
armed conflict.
Temple dynasty

(5-A)
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17. With reference to the UN Permanent Forum on 20. With reference to e-Gram Swaraj, often seen in
Indigenous Issues (UNPFII), consider the the news, consider the following statements :

following statements : 1. It is a user-friendly web-based portal

1. UNPFII has been set up by a resolution of launched by the Ministry of Electronics

and Information Technology.
the United Nations Security Council.
2. It serves as a single platform for
2. UNPFII is the only UN body mandated to
addressing all the planning and
deal specifically with Indigenous People’s
accounting requirements of the Gram
issues.
Panchayats.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
3. It is a recipient of National Awards for e-
(a) 1 only Governance under the category of
(b) 2 only 'Excellence in Providing Citizen Centric
(c) Both 1 and 2 Delivery'.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 How many of the above statements are
correct?
18. Consider the following statements with respect (a) Only one

to Black Tigers: (b) Only two

(c) All three
1. They are geographical subspecies of tiger.
(d) None
2. They are found in dense forests of
Myanmar (Burma), Bangladesh, and
21. Which of the following is correct about ‘Project
eastern India.
Kusha’ by the Indian government?
3. In India, they are found only in the
(a) Development of Artificial intelligence
Similipal Tiger Reserve in Odisha.
Supercomputing systems
How many of the statements given above are (b) Development of long-range air-defence
correct? system
(a) Only one (c) Development of Central Bank Digital
(b) Only two Currency by RBI
(c) All three (d) Development of a Satellite-based internet

(d) None service provider

22. Recently, India signed the first-ever historic

19. The term “CSpace” is recently seen in news is
Memorandum of Understanding on ‘Local
related to:
Currency Settlement System’ with which of
(a) Block Chain Technology
the following countries ?
(b) Artificial Intelligence
(a) Japan
(c) OTT Platform
(b) Russia
(d) Cloud Storage (c) UAE
(d) France
(6-A)
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23. With reference to Bio-computers, consider 26. Consider the following statements with respect
the following statements: to the Swachh Survekshan Awards, 2024:
1. It is a combination of brain organoids with
1. It was hosted by the Ministry of Housing
modern computing methods.
2. It helps to decode the pathology of drug and Urban Affairs.

development for devastating 2. Prayagraj City backed the first rank under
neurodevelopmental and degenerative the category of Cleanest Ganga Town.
diseases.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

24. Consider the following pairs : 27. The term ‘Square Kilometre Array’ project is
Place of Pilgrimage Location recently seen in the news is related to :
1. Tashiding Monastery - Sikkim (a) Supercomputers
2. Jang Palpung Zangdok - Ladakh (b) Artificial Intelligence
Palri Monastery
(c) Space Technology
3. Sed-Gyued Monastery - West
(d) Solar Energy
Bengal
How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched ? 28. 'Vitrification technique' is used in which of the
(a) Only one
following situations ?
(b) Only two
1. Freezing eggs for in vitro fertilisation
(c) All three
(d) None 2. Manufacturing of tiles

3. Production of biodegradable plastics

25. Boko Haram is the militant group fighting to
4. Management of nuclear wastes
overthrow the government and has caused
Select the correct answer using the code given
havoc through a wave of bombings,
assassinations and abductions in which of the below :
following countries? (a) 1 only
(a) Ethiopia
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Libya
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) Nigeria
(d) Sudan (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

(7-A)
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29. Consider the following statements : 32. Consider the following statements with respect
As per the Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, to the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme of 2023:
2024 : 1. The Carbon Market Association of India
1. If the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) is will be responsible for overseeing the
implemented, it becomes easier for the scheme.
applicants to apply for Indian citizenship
2. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency will issue
even if they do not have a valid passport or
carbon credits under this scheme.
visa.
3. The generation of Green Credit under the
2. The eligibility certificate for obtaining
Green Credit Rules of 2023 is independent
citizenship under CAA will be issued by
the respective District Magistrate, of this scheme.

confirming the applicant's religion. How many of the statements given above are
Which of the above statements is/are correct ? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None

30. The Green Tug Transition Programme is an 33. Which one of the following protected areas has
initiative of which of the following ministries
the highest elephant density as per the forest
that aims to convert at least 50% of all tugs
department census?
into Green Tugs by 2030?
(a) Bandipur Tiger Reserve
(a) Inland Waterways Authority of India
(b) Malai Mahadeshwara Wildlife Sanctuary
(b) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
(c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (c) Nagarahole Tiger Reserve
(d) Indian Coast Gaurd and Indian Navy (d) Agasthyamalai Elephant Reserve

31. Which of the following best describes about 34. Arrange the following sectors in decreasing
the Suspension of Operations Agreement in order based on their anthropogenic
Manipur? greenhouse gas emissions according to India’s
(a) It is an agreement between the Central Third National Communication to the
government and Kuki militant groups to UNFCCC:
stop any form of violence. 1. Industrial Process and Product Use
(b) It is an agreement brokered by the central
2. Waste
government and state government between
3. Energy
Kukis and Meiteis to stop the ethnic clash.
4. Agriculture
(c) It is an agreement between the Central
Select the correct answer from the options
government and Meitei militant groups to
stop any form of violence. given below:
(d) It is an agreement between the central (a) 1 – 3 – 4 – 2
government and the Manipur government (b) 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
to fence the border along Myanmar to (c) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
restrict free movement. (d) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

(8-A)
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35. Recently, for the first time in our country, Select the correct answer using the code
which of the following States has granted its below:
residents the 'Right to Health' through (a) 1 only
legislative enactment?
(b) 1 and 2 only
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(c) 3 only
(b) Tamil Nadu
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
38. Consider the following statements :

36. With reference to India's Bharat 6G Alliance 1. The artificial insemination method,

(B6GA), consider the following statements : regardless of the use of frozen or fresh
1. B6GA is a collaborative platform of Indian semen, is a universally accepted approach
industries established to advance the to breeding cattle.
development of 6G technology in the 2. The frozen semen has been associated
country.
with significantly lower conception rates
2. Foreign companies incorporated and
compared to fresh semen.
registered in India are eligible to become
3. Liquid nitrogen is employed for storing
corporate members of the alliance.
frozen semen for extended durations, even
3. The vision of B6GA revolves around the
at room temperature.
principles of Affordability, Sustainability
and Ubiquity. How many of the above statements are not

Which of the above statements is/are correct ? correct ?

(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) All three
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

37. With reference to communications

39. The Silkyara-Barkot tunnel is part of the
technologies, what is the difference between
ambitious Char Dham Pariyojana, under
5G (fifth-generation) and 6G (sixth-generation)
which several highways and roads are being
technology ?
1. 6G offers data speeds almost 100 times constructed and widened in which of the

faster than 5G. following Indian state/Union territories?

2. 6G offers better service at a reduced cost (a) Himachal Pradesh
compared to 5G. (b) Uttarakhand
3. The frequency used by 6G is (c) Ladakh
comparatively lower than that of 5G.
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

(9-A)
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40. Consider the following: 43. Which of the following temples was built by
1. International Container Transshipment Hoysala king Vishnuvardhana to mark his
port victories against the Cholas?
2. Dual-use military-civil international (a) Chennakeshava temple in Belur
airport (b) Hoysaleswara Temple in Halebidu
(c) Keshava Temple in Somanathapura
3. Dedicated Freight corridor
(d) Srimukhalingam temple at Srikakulam
4. Township and area development
5. Power plant
44. Consider the following pairs :
6. Textile mega parks
Tradition State
How many of the facilities/amenities 1. Sao Joao festival - Sikkim
mentioned above are planned to be built 2. Gulabi Minakari - Manipur
under the Great Nicobar Project? 3. Shumang Leela - Meghalaya
(a) Only three How many of the above pairs are correctly
(b) Only four matched ?
(c) Only five (a) Only one
(d) All six (b) Only two
(c) All three

41. Which one of the following rivers flows (d) None

through the Jim Corbett National Park?

45. Dogra architecture is an architectural style
(a) Ramganga river
associated with the buildings and structures
(b) Alaknanda River
constructed during the rule of the Dogra
(c) Bhagirathi river
Hindu kings in which of the following regions?
(d) Yamuna river (a) Odisha
(b) Assam
42. Consider the following statements with respect (c) Jammu and Kashmir
to the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana: (d) Rajasthan
1. The scheme provides insurance coverage
to agricultural crops and horticultural 46. Consider the following statements with respect
crops, including oilseeds. to the fortified town of Tughladabad:
2. The premium to be paid by farmers is fixed 1. Muhammad Bin Tughluq built the fortified
at just 1.5% of the sum insured for rabi town of Tughluqabad.
2. The fort retains some of the characteristics
crops and 2% for kharif crops.
of Khalji architecture with a slightly-
3. All small and marginal land-holding
pointed Tartar dome.
farmers throughout the country can avail
3. The distinguishing feature of the fort is the
of this benefit.
absence of a citadel and palaces.
How many of the statements given above are How many of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None

(10-A)
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47. ‘Channapatna’, ‘Kondapalli’ and ‘Tanjore 50. Consider the following statements with respect

towns’ are known for which of the following? to the United Nations Relief and Works Agency

(a) Fort cities of South India for Palestine Refugees (UNRWA):

1. It was established by the United Nations
(b) Toy making industry
General Assembly as its subsidiary organ
(c) Shrines of Jain Tirthankaras
after the Israel-Gaza war.
(d) Temple architecture
2. UNRWA services include education,
healthcare, relief and social services to
48. With reference to Minicoy Island, consider the Palestine refugees.
following statements: 3. The majority of financing is provided by

1. It is located very close to the nine-degree voluntary contributions, with the United

channel that separates the Union Territory States being the largest contributor.
4. The agency operates in Gaza, Lebanon,
of Lakshadweep from Minicoy.
Syria, and Jordan.
2. Recently, the Indian Navy commissioned
How many of the statements given above are
its first naval base in Lakshadweep at
correct?
Minicoy Island.
(a) Only one
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) Only two
correct? (c) Only three

(a) 1 only (d) All four

(b) 2 only
51. Consider the following statements with respect
(c) Both 1 and 2
to the Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA):
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. GRCA was launched at the United Nations
Climate Change Conference COP28.
49. The term ‘BioTRIG,’ recently seen in the news,
2. The National Mission for Clean Ganga
is related to : implements the program for river
(a) Next-generation DNA sequencing process conservation and sustainable water

(b) Novel pollutant that triggers the human management in India.

immune system Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
(c) Waste management technology based on
(a) 1 only
pyrolysis
(b) 2 only
(d) Unusual life forms at the boundary
(c) Both 1 and 2
between the living and the non-living
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(11-A)
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52. The ”Economic Activity Index” is released by 55. Recently, the Government of India launched a
which of the following? Central Sector Scheme for providing drones to

(a) Niti Aayog Women Self Help Groups. Consider the

(b) Ministry of Finance following statements with respect to the

(c) Reserve Bank of India scheme:

1. Central financial assistance is provided for
(d) World Bank
80% of the cost of the drone or a
maximum of eight lakhs.
53. Consider the following statements with respect
2. Women Self Help Group shall apply for a
to the International Sugar Organization:
loan from the National Agriculture Infra
1. It was established under the International
Financing Facility to purchase drones.
Sugar Agreement of 1968.
3. Drone pilot training facilities are provided
2. It is headquartered in New Delhi.
along with the supply of drones.
3. India was chosen as the chair of the 4. Women Self Help Groups can rent drones
organisation for the year 2024. to farmers for agriculture purposes.
4. All the Members of the BRICS grouping are How many of the statements given above are
also part of this organisation. correct?
How many of the statements given above are (a) Only one

correct? (b) Only two

(a) Only one (c) Only three

(b) Only two (d) All four

(c) Only three

56. Consider the following descriptions:
(d) All four
1. He is most associated with Advaita
Vedanta.
54. Which of the following is the objective of the
2. He contributed to Metaphysics and
National Creche Scheme?
theology.
(a) Provides safe and conveniently located
3. His most notable works are the
accommodation for working women.
commentaries on the 10 Upanishads, the
(b) Provide nutritional support to school girls
Brahmasutra and the Gita.
in the age group of 11-14 years. Which of the following personalities is
(c) Provide rehabilitation to women who are described above?
victims of difficult circumstances. (a) Sri Ramanujacharya
(d) Provide day-care facilities for children in (b) Adi Shankaracharya
the age group of 6 months to 6 years of (c) Iyothee Thass Pandithar
working mothers. (d) Kanakadasa

(12-A)
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57. Consider the following statements with respect 60. Consider the following statements with respect
to the Pichvai paintings: to the MRAShM:
1. The paintings were mostly found in large 1. It is a medium-range, lightweight surface-
cloth pieces. to-surface missile.
2. It originated in the 17th century and 2. It is an anti-ship missile designed to strike
flourished under the patronage of the warships and coastal fortifications.
Nathdwara temple.
3. It is indigenously developed by the Defence
3. The central figure of the painting was often
Research and Development Organisation.
that of Lord Krishna, a seven-year-old boy.
How many of the statements given above are
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None (d) None

58. Consider the following statements with respect 61. What is the sole purpose of a Uniform civil
to the Agni-5 missile: code being implemented in a country?
1. It is a three-stage solid-fuelled engine (a) Promote uniformity and equality in
under the Integrated Guided Missile personal laws.
Development Programme. (b) Encourage harmonious relationships
2. It can carry nuclear warheads and hit among the citizens and foreigners
targets more than 5,000 km away. (c) Implement Directive Principles of State
3. It is an MIRV-equipped missile which can Policy
accommodate multiple warheads, each of
(d) Recognises diversity and plurality among
which can be programmed to strike a
the people
separate target.
How many of the statements given above are
62. Consider the following statements with respect
correct?
to the Global Initiative of Academic Networks:
(a) Only one
1. It is an initiative of India launched during
(b) Only two
the 2023 BRICS summit.
(c) All three
2. It aims to bring in eminent scholars from
(d) None
across the world to teach at Indian

59. Who presided over the third Buddist council, universities.

which was held in Pataliputra under the Which of the statements given above is/are
patronage of the Mauryan king? correct?
(a) Mahakasyapa (a) 1 only
(b) Sabakami (b) 2 only
(c) Moggaliputta Tissa (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Vasumitra (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(13-A)
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63. Which of the following embroideries is known 66. Who among the following is associated with
for its geometric patterns such as squares, the Battle of Saraighat, and after whom is a
circles, triangles, rectangles, diagonal and gold medal awarded to the best cadet from the
parallel lines? National Defence Academy named ?
(a) Parsi Gara embroidery (a) Rani Gaidinliu
(b) Lambani embroidery (b) Birsa Munda
(c) Phulkari embroidery (c) Matangini Hazara
(d) Kashida embroidery (d) Lachit Borphukan

64. With reference to the Global Alliance of

67. Consider the following statements with respect
National Human Rights Institution (GANHRI),
to the Open Network for Digital Commerce:
consider the following statements :
1. It is an open network for all aspects of the
1. It is a recognised and trusted partner of
exchange of goods and services over digital
the United Nations.
networks.
2. It accredits NHRIs based on their
2. ONDC allows providers and consumers to
compliance with the Universal Declaration
use selected applications for information
of Human Rights.
exchange and transactions.
3. NHRIs with accreditation status are
Which of the statements given above is/are
eligible for full membership of GANHRI,
correct?
including the right to vote.
(a) 1 only
4. India’s National Human Rights
Commission has recently been re- (b) 2 only

accredited by GANHRI. (c) Both 1 and 2

Which of the above statements is/are correct ? (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 68. Consider the following statements:
(c) 3 and 4 only 1. Promote Maritime industrial clusters to
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only facilitate export
2. Promote Ocean, Coastal & River Cruise
65. Consider the following: Sector.
1. Armenia 3. Promote inland water transport.
2. Serbia 4. Promote maritime professional services,
3. Chad including financial incentives.
4. West Bank 5. Promote world-class education, research
5. Moldova and training.
6. Congo How many of the above are part of the
How many of the above countries are Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047?
landlocked ?
(a) Only two
(a) Only three
(b) Only three
(b) Only four
(c) Only four
(c) Only five
(d) All five
(d) All six
(14-A)
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69. The earliest miniature painting, “Chawand Which of the statements given above are
Ragamala series”, belongs to : correct ?
(a) Mewar school (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Kangra school (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Kishangarh school
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Bundi school
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

70. Consider the following statements with respect

72. Consider the following statements with respect
to the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi
to the Supreme Court Legal Service Committee
Sah-Yojana (PM-MKSSY):
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Sub-scheme (SCLSC):

under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya 1. It is a statutory body.

Sampada Yojana. 2. It was established in accordance with
2. The objective is to provide a one-time Article 32 of the Indian Constitution.
incentive to beneficiaries to purchase 3. A retired Judge of the Supreme Court of
aquaculture insurance. India acts as the Chairman of (SCLSC).
3. It will be implemented for four years, from
How many of the statements given above are
FY 2023-24 to FY 2026-27, in the coastal
correct?
States and UTs.
(a) Only one
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Only two
correct ?
(c) All three
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) None

(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only 73. Consider the following statements with respect
to eSoil:
71. With reference to the Investor Education and 1. They can electrically stimulate the root
Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA), consider system and enhances the growth
the following statements: environment of plants.
1. It is aimed at increasing financial literacy
2. They use mineral wool as a cultivation
and empowering investors to protect from
substrate.
financial fraud.
3. They have very low energy consumption.
2. It administers the Investor Education and
How many of the statements given above are
Protection Fund, which refunds shares,
unclaimed dividends, and matured correct?

deposits and debentures. (a) Only one

3. Recently, SBI signed a MoU to spread (b) Only two

awareness on investment and fraudulent (c) All three
schemes. (d) None

(15-A)
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74. Consider the following statements with respect 77. Consider the following statements with respect
to the Universal Postal Union (UPU): to Trichoderma:
1. It is a specialised agency of the United 1. It is a type of fungi.
Nations. 2. It is used to control soil-borne diseases.

2. Only member countries of the United 3. It promotes nutrient utilisation efficiency

Nations can become members of the UPU. in plants.

How many of the above statements are
3. India is a member of UPU.
correct?
How many of the statements given above are
(a) Only one
not correct?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) All three
(b) Only two
(d) None
(c) All three
(d) None
78. Consider the following statements with respect
to the Himalayan Wolf:
75. Which of the following explains the term “E- 1. It is endemic to India.
Prime Layer”? 2. It is found in the high-altitude ecosystems
(a) A layer formed at the outermost part of of the Himalayas.
Earth's core as a result of surface water 3. It is classified as vulnerable in the IUCN
penetrating deep into the planet. Red List of Threatened Species.
(b) A layer formed at the innermost part of How many of the above statements are
Earth's core as a result of surface water correct?
penetrating deep into the planet. (a) Only one

(c) A layer formed at the outermost part of (b) Only two

(c) All three
Earth's core as a result of the flow of
(d) None
groundwater into the other layers.
(d) A layer formed at the innermost part of
79. Consider the following statements with respect
Earth's core as a result of groundwater
to National Transit Pass System:
flowing into the other layers.
1. It is an online Transit Pass generation
system for timber, bamboo and other
76. Consider the following statements with respect
forest produce.
to Distress Alert Transmitter (DAT):
2. The Transit pass issued from this system
1. It is indigenously developed by DRDO. will be valid across India except North
2. It helps the fishermen at sea to send Eastern States.
emergency messages from fishing boats. Which of the above statements is/are not
Which of the above statements is/are correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(16-A)
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80. Recently, the Government of India has 83. The Government of India recently banned
launched ‘Prerana: An Experiential Learning 'Dicofol', 'Dinocap', and 'Methomyl', which are

Program’, aiming to improve leadership related to?

(a) Food preservatives
qualities among the students of classes IX to
(b) Plasticizer
XII. It was first launched in the which of the
(c) Antibiotics
following states?
(d) Insecticides
(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) West Bengal 84. With reference to Ground Water Resource

(c) Maharashtra Assessment 2023, consider the following

(d) Gujarat statements:

1. It is carried out at periodic intervals by the
Central Water Commission.
81. Consider the following:
2. As per the assessment, the annual
1. Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana
groundwater extraction rate is less than
2. Special Central Assistance to Scheduled
75% of the annual extractable
Castes Sub Plan groundwater.
3. Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana Which of the statements given above is/are
How many of the schemes given above are correct?

merged into Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
Abhyuday Yojana?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Only one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two

(c) All three 85. Consider the following countries:

(d) None 1. South Africa
2. Indonesia

82. Consider the following statements with respect 3. Vietnam

4. Senegal
to the Corruption Perceptions Index:
5. India
1. It is released by the World Bank.
Which of the countries mentioned have formed
2. India is ranked among the top 10
Just Energy Transition Partnerships (JETP)
corruption clean countries.
with wealthier nations to fund their energy
Which of the above statements is/are correct? transition?
(a) 1 only (a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 5 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(17-A)
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86. With reference to Potassium Derived from 88. With reference to Rani Velu Nachiyar, consider
the following statements:
Molasses (PDM), consider the following
1. She was one of the few Indian rulers who
statements:
fought against British colonial rule and
1. It is a potassium-rich fertiliser obtained as regained her kingdom.

a by-product of the sugar-based ethanol 2. She led an armed rebellion against the
British in response to the Doctrine of
industry.
Lapse.
2. It is 100% indigenously manufactured and 3. ‘Veera Mangai’, the mascot of the Khelo
has been included under the Nutrient India Youth Games 2023, was inspired by
her to embody the strength of women's
Based Subsidy (NBS) scheme.
power.
3. Its potash content is higher than that How many of the statements given above are
found in Muriate of Potash (MoP), which correct?
(a) Only one
India imports.
(b) Only two
How many of the statements given above are
(c) All three
correct? (d) None

(a) Only one

89. Consider the following pairs:
(b) Only two
(Martial art) (States)
(c) All three 1. Khukuri dance - Manipur
(d) None 2. Gatka - Punjab
3. Kalari Payattu - Kerala
4. Thang-ta - Sikkim
87. Recently, a new Global Partnership on 5. Mardani Khel - Maharashtra
Ecological Connectivity (GPEC) was launched How many of the pairs given above are
correctly matched?
by which of the following?
(a) Only two pairs
(a) International Union for Conservation of
(b) Only three pairs
Nature (c) Only four pairs

(b) Convention on the Conservation of (d) All five pairs

Migratory Species of Wild Animals

90. Which of the following became the first State
(c) Convention on the International Trade in in India to declare ‘dandapatta’, the gauntlet
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and sword, as its state weapon?
(a) Odisha
Flora
(b) Telangana
(d) United Nations Convention to Combat (c) Maharashtra
Desertification (d) Karnataka

(18-A)
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91. Consider the following statements regarding 94. With reference to 'Extra-judicial killings',
the Competition (Amendment) Act 2023 : frequently in the news, consider the following
1. The amendment limits the scope of anti- statements :
competitive agreements. 1. It refers to unlawful killings of an accused
2. It extended the time limit for filing
by any government authority without
information regarding alleged
receiving an order from the court of law.
contraventions.
2. The Criminal Procedure Code of 1973
3. It allows the parties to conduct market
authorises Indian police officers to use any
purchases without prior notification to the
Competition Commission of India. degree of force necessary to apprehend the

Which of the above statements is/are correct ? accused or prevent their escape.

(a) 1 only 3. Encounters carried out by police officers in

(b) 1 and 2 only charge do not fall under the ambit of
(c) 2 only extra-judicial killings.
(d) 3 only How many of the above statements are
correct?
92. Which of the following best describes the idea
(a) Only one
behind the concept of 'Advance Pricing
(b) Only two
Agreement,' often seen in the news ?
(c) All three
(a) To promote fair competition in the global
(d) None
agricultural market by limiting distortions
caused by government intervention
(b) To prevent large multinational 95. Which of the following countries are
corporations from engaging in tax evasion susceptible to heavy rainfall as a result of the
(c) To aim at faster resolution of stressed El Nino phenomenon ?
assets of Rs. 50 crore or more, which are 1. Malawi
under consortium lending 2. Somalia
(d) To lessen the Government of India's
3. Indonesia
perennial burden of fiscal deficit and
4. Australia
current account deficit
5. Peru
6. Canada
93. Which one of the following British islands is
considering to become a part of Norway for an Select the correct answer using the code given

alternate form of government? below :

(a) Northern Ireland (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) Shetland Island (b) 2 and 5 only
(c) Orkney Island (c) 1, 5 and 6 only
(d) Faroe Island (d) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only

(19-A)
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96. Consider the following statements with respect 98. Consider the following statements with respect
to the Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan: to the National Food Security Act (NFSA) of
1. It is an integrated, centrally sponsored 2013:
1. The quantity of grains to which a
scheme for Primary and Secondary
beneficiary is entitled cannot be changed
Education.
without Parliament’s approval.
2. The scheme focuses on girls, minority
2. All the beneficiary households under the
communities and transgender individuals.
NFSA are entitled to receive food grains
3. It addresses non-academic components according to the number of family
with a focus on early childhood care and members.
education. 3. Subsidised prices are specified in the
4. The scheme has the objective of enhancing Schedule I of the NFSA, and Schedule II
the capabilities of educational institutions prescribes the nutritional standards for
various groups.
by strengthening and upgradation of
How many of the statements given above are
teacher training.
correct?
How many of the statements given above are
(a) Only one
correct?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one (c) All three
(b) Only two (d) None
(c) Only three
(d) All four 99. Puraquequara Lake, which has been affected
by drought, recently in news is located in

97. Consider the following statements with respect which of the following river basins?
(a) Amazon River
to the Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman:
(b) Nile River
1. This scheme covers government and
(c) Congo River
government-aided schools.
(d) Niger River
2. State governments shall provide dry
rations through the One Nation One 100. Which of the following is the primary objective
Ration card when schools lack kitchen of Project BHISHM being implemented by the
facilities. Government of India?
3. The scheme is extended to students (a) No expense delivery for all pregnant

studying in pre-primary and Government- women delivering in Public health

institutions.
aided primary schools.
(b) Vaccination campaign against cervical
How many of the statements given above are
cancer for all girls aged 9-14.
correct?
(c) It offers a portable disaster hospital to save
(a) Only one lives in the most challenging
(b) Only two circumstances.
(c) All three (d) It aims to address the declining Child Sex
(d) None Ratio and related issues.
(20-A)
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1. The second rocket launch port of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) at
Kulasekarapattinam in Tamil Nadu will be extensively and exclusively used for the launch of:
(a) Small Satellite Launch Vehicle
(b) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
(c) Geosynchronous Space Launch Vehicle
(d) Launch Vehicle Mark-III
EXPLANATION:
Recently, Honourable Prime Minister of India laid the foundation stone of the second rocket launchport
of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) at Kulasekarapattinam, situated at a geographically
advantageous location in coastal Tamil Nadu’s Thoothukudi district. It will be extensively and exclusively
used for commercial, on-demand, and small satellite launches in the future. The second rocket launch
port will be exclusively used for Small Satellite Launch Vehicles (SSLVs) developed by the private sector.
SSLV is a 3-stage launch vehicle capable of launching approximately 500kg satellites in 500-km planar
orbit. According to ISRO, the key features of SSLV are low cost, with low turnaround time, flexibility in
accommodating multiple satellites, launch-on-demand feasibility, and minimal launch infrastructure
requirements. So, Option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
OTHER LAUNCH VEHICLES
PSLV ➢ PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) is an indigenously-developed expendable
launch system of the ISRO (Indian Space Research Organization).
➢ It comes in the category of medium-lift launchers with a reach up to various orbits,
including the Geo Synchronous Transfer Orbit Lower Earth Orbit, and Polar Sun
Synchronous Orbit.
➢ PSLV has a four-stage system comprising a combination of solid and liquid-fuelled
rocket stages.
➢ All the operations of PSLV are controlled from the Satish Dhawan Space Center,
Sriharikota, east coast, India.
GSLV ➢ Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) is a space launch vehicle
designed, developed, and operated by the Indian Space Research Organization
(ISRO) to launch satellites and other space objects into Geosynchronous Transfer
Orbits.
➢ GSLV has the capability to put a heavier payload in the orbit than the Polar Satellite
Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
➢ Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (or GSLV) is a three-stage launcher with
strap-on motors.
➢ First Stage: GS1 The first stage uses the 138 tonne S139 solid rocket motor with
four liquid engine strap-on motors. This stage generates maximum thrust of 4700
kilo Newton.
LVM3 ➢ Launch Vehicle Mark-III, also known as GSLV Mark-III, is a three-stage medium-lift
launch vehicle developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
➢ It was renamed in October 2022 to identify its task of placing satellites into a variety
of orbits.
➢ LVM3 made its debut in space in 2014 and carried Chandrayaan-2 in 2019.
➢ It is capable of launching a four-tonne class of satellite into Geosynchronous
Transfer Orbit (GTO).
➢ LVM3 is also used for India's maiden human space flight tentatively scheduled for
late 2024 and is emerging as a favourite for ISRO's commercial launches after the
successful placing in orbits of 36 OneWeb satellites in March 2022.
➢ LVM3 is also the launch vehicle of Chandrayaan-3, a composite of propulsion,
lander, and rover.
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2. Consider the following:
1. Cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil sources to reach 40% by 2030.
2. Reduction of emissions intensity of GDP by 33-35% compared to 2005 levels.
3. Creation of an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through
additional forest and tree cover.
Which of the above goals of India’s Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) to UNFCCC
submitted in the year 2015 have been achieved well ahead of time?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and its Paris Agreement, India
submitted its first Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) in the year 2015 comprising the following
two quantifiable targets:
➢ To reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 percent by 2030 from the 2005 level.
➢ To achieve about 40 percent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based
energy resources by 2030.
These two targets have been achieved well ahead of time. As of 31 October 2023, the cumulative electric
power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources is 186.46 MW, which is 43.81% of
the total cumulative electric power installed capacity. As per the third national communication submitted
by India to the UNFCCC in December 2023, the emission intensity of its GDP has been reduced by 33
percent between 2005 and 2019.
➢ Creation of an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through additional
forest and tree cover is not yet achieved. So, Opion (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
INDIA’S NATIONALLY DETERMINED CONTRIBUTION
Recently Nationally Determined Contributions, or NDCs, are any country's national action plans to
Updated limit the earth's average temperature rise to well below two degrees Celsius and preferably
Goals to 1.5 degrees Celsius compared to the pre-industrial (19850-1900) levels.
India’s NDC is ambitious and a significant contribution to achieving the goals of the Paris
Agreement. Environmentally sustainable, low-carbon initiatives underpin all key sectors
of the Indian economy. India reaffirms its commitment to the UNFCCC and the Paris
Agreement on Climate Change. India’s existing NDC is a step forward towards our long-
term goal of reaching net zero by 2070.
➢ Advocating for a healthy and sustainable way of life rooted in the principles of
conservation and moderation is of utmost urgency. This includes a mass movement
for ‘LIFE’– ‘Lifestyle for Environment’, which is a crucial tool in our fight against
climate change [ UPDATED].
➢ Adopt a climate-friendly and cleaner path than the one followed hitherto by others at
the corresponding level of economic development.
➢ To reduce the Emissions Intensity of its GDP by 45 percent by 2030, from the 2005
level [UPDATED].
➢ To achieve about 50 percent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-
fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030, with the help of the transfer of technology
and low-cost international finance, including from the Green Climate Fund (GCF)
[UPDATED].
➢ To create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent
through additional forest and tree cover by 2030.

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3. Purana Qila, which is built on the banks of the Yamuna River and considered to be one of the oldest
forts in Delhi, is associated with which of the following rulers?
(a) Akbar and Humayun
(b) Sher Shah Suri and Sikander Lodi
(c) Alauddin Khilji and Iltutmish
(d) Humayun and Sher Shah Suri
EXPLANATION:
Purana Qila is one of the oldest forts in Delhi and is built on the banks of the Yamuna River. The present
citadel at Purana Qila was believed to have been built under Humayun and Afghan Sher Shah Suri (‘The
Lion King’). Excavations point to traces from the 3rd century BC, the pre-Mauryan period.
The fort was the inner citadel of the city of Din Panah during Humayun’s rule, who renovated it in 1533
and completed it five years later.
The founder of the Suri Dynasty, Sher Shah Suri, defeated Humayun in 1540, naming the fort Shergarh;
he added several more structures to the complex during his five-year reign. Purana Qila and its environs
flourished as the “sixth city of Delhi”. Thus, the medieval rulers associated with the Purana Qila were
Humayun and Sher Shah Suri. So, Option (d) is correct.

4. Consider the following pairs :

Monuments State where it is located
1. Statue of Equality - Andhra Pradesh
2. Statue of Social Justice - Maharashtra
3. Statue of Prosperity - Telangana
4. Statue of Valour - Assam
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
Statue of Equality is located in Hyderabad, Telangana. The 216-feet tall Statue of Equality commemorates
the 11th century Bhakti Saint Sri Ramanujacharya, who promoted the idea of equality in all aspects of
living including faith, caste and creed. The Statue is made of ‘panchaloha’, a combination of five metals:
gold, silver, copper, brass, and zinc and is among one of the tallest metallic statues in sitting position,
in the world. It is mounted on a 54-ft high base building, named ‘Bhadra Vedi’, has floors devoted for a
Vedic digital library and research centre, ancient Indian texts, a theatre, an educational gallery detailing
many works of Sri Ramanujacharya. It is located in Hyderabad, Telangana. So, Pair (1) is not correct.
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Statue of Social Justice is located in Andhra Pradesh. The Andhra Pradesh government proudly unveiled
the world's tallest statue of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar recently. Ambedkar is also known as the principal
architect of the Indian Constitution. Nestled in Vijayawada's Swaraj Maidan grounds, this statue is a
tribute to social justice and stands tall at 206 ft upon an 81 ft pedestal. With innovative design elements
such as shear walls and tilted beams, the statue not only symbolizes strength and resilience but also
captivates with its unique visual allure. Thus, Statue of Social Justice is not located in Maharashtra. So,
Pair (2) is not correct.

Statue of Prosperity is located in Karnataka. Prime Minister of India unveiled the 'Statue of Prosperity',
the 108-feet tall bronze statue of Bengaluru founder Nadaprabhu Kempegowda on the premises of the
Bengaluru International Airport. It has been built to commemorate the contribution of Kempegowda
towards development of the city. Thus, 'Statue of Prosperity' is located in Karnataka. So, Pair (3) is not
correct.

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Statue of Valour is located in Assam. Lachit Borphukan, a revered figure in Assam's history, was not
only a distinguished military commander but also hailed as a hero of the Assamese people. His significant
contributions unfolded during the Ahom-Mughal War, most notably in the pivotal Battle of Saraighat in
1671. He is widely regarded as a symbol of Assam’s historical autonomy and resistance against foreign
invaders. On March 9, 2024, Prime Minister of India unveiled statue of Lachit Borphukan measuring
125 ft and made of bronze at Hollongapar in Jorhat. The statue, known as the ‘Statue of Valour’, is part
of the Lachit Barphukan Maidam Development Project, which aims to celebrate the legacy of the Ahom
general and boost tourism in the region. Thus, Statue of Valour is located in Assam. So, Pair (4) is
correct.

5. With reference to the National Generic Document Registration System (NGDRS), consider the
following statements :
1. The NGDRS is an initiative of the Ministry of Rural Development.
2. It aims to create a uniform online land record registration system applicable to all types of
transactions across the country.
3. It operates in compliance with state-specific laws and legislations.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
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EXPLANATION:
A project initiated by the Department of Land Resources, Ministry of Rural Development, Government of
India, the National Generic Document Registration System (NGDRS) is a common, generic and
configurable application developed for registration departments across the country. The application is
specifically designed for the use of sub-registrars, citizens and apex users from registration departments.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
The NGDRS has made a major shift from the existing manual registration system to an online one for all
types of deeds of transactions, including sale, purchase and transfer of land.
The system has enabled the Union Government to maintain a uniform land record registration system
across the country. Citizens are empowered as all their activities, be it submission of documents,
calculation of stamp duty and fees, depositing the fees, etc., can be done online. This brings transparency
and efficiency to the system and brings ease of living to the commoner. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The NGDRS will have to deal with State-specific laws and legislation. It needs to accommodate the
internal and external factors as per the indigenous rules, regulations and practices followed in the State
concerned. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
NATIONAL GENERIC DOCUMENT REGISTRATION SYSTEM
Recently in Secretary of the Department of Land Resources has rolled out the National Generic
News Document Registration System (NDGRS) throughout Assam, along with the launch
of the Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN).
About ➢ The ULPIN (Unique Land Parcel Identification Number) is taken as the unique
blockchain ID, and the land parcel is uniquely identified using ULPIN.
➢ The ULPIN, a 14-digit alphanumeric identification number for every land parcel,
can be described as the AADHAR or fingerprint for land.
➢ The identification is based on the longitude and latitude of the land parcel and
is dependent on geo-referenced cadastral maps.
➢ The benefits of ULPIN are
• To ensure uniqueness in all transactions,
• Keeping the spatial records up to date,
• Linking of property transactions,
• Sharing of land records data across departments, financial institutions, and
• To eliminate fraudulent transactions.
➢ In NGDRS, the deed is digitally signed and stored in the blockchain after the
approval of the deed.
➢ The Blockchain will offer security, accountability, and record scrutinization from
start to end. Blockchain technology’s unique combination of cryptography and
distributed network nodes allows data to be maintained and validated in a
trusted ecosystem.
➢ The District level Blockchain based cadastre and land records registry Pilot is
launched in Darrang district and will be rolled out pan Assam shortly.

6. Which of the following autonomous bodies of the Ministry of Culture has proposed to create a
‘Language Atlas’ of India, enumerating languages spoken across the country?
(a) Indira Gandhi National Centre of Arts
(b) Sahitya Akademi
(c) Centre for Cultural Resources and Training
(d) Kalashektra Foundation
EXPLANATION:
The Indira Gandhi National Centre for Arts, an autonomous body under the Union Culture Ministry,
proposes to conduct a linguistic survey across the country to create a 'Language Atlas' of India.

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As India makes efforts towards imparting education in the mother tongue, especially at the primary level,
a crucial question remains on the actual number of languages that can be considered to be "active" in
the country. A proposed linguistic survey across the country by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for
Arts (IGNCA), which aims to enumerate how many languages are spoken and in which States and regions,
can provide the answer.
India recognizes 22 languages officially, which are part of Schedule 8 of the Indian Constitution.
According to Census data, 97 % of the Indian population speaks one of these languages. There are an
additional 99 non-scheduled languages included in the Census, and according to the 2011 Census,
around 37.8 million people identify one of these non-Scheduled languages as their mother tongue.
The native language of 1.2 million people remains unaccounted for due to the decision not to include
languages with less than 10,000 speakers in the Census since 1971. Many of these languages not
recorded in the official Census records are spoken by tribal communities.
IGNCA has identified the Central Institute of Indian Languages, the National Museum, Centres for
Endangered Languages, and the Linguistic Departments of various universities as potential partners and
collaborators in carrying out the survey. So, Option (a) is correct.
The Sahitya Akademi, an autonomous organization, was formally inaugurated by the Government of
India on 12 March 1954. The Government of India Resolution, which set forth the constitution of the
Akademi, described it as a national organization to work actively for the development of Indian letters
and to set high literary standards, to foster and co-ordinate literary activities in all the Indian languages
and to promote through them all the cultural unity of the country. It was registered as a society on 7
January 1956 under the Societies Registration Act 1860.
Akademi gives 24 awards annually to literary works in the 24 Indian languages it has recognized and an
equal number of awards to literary translations from and into the languages of India, both after a year
long process of scrutiny, discussion and selection. It also gives special awards called Bhasha Samman
for significant contributions to the languages not formally recognized by the Akademi and also for
contributions to classical and medieval literature. The Sahitya Akademi does not propose to create a
'Language Atlas' of India. So, Option (b) is not correct.
The Centre for Cultural Resources and Training (CCRT) is one of the premier institutions working in the
field of linking education with culture. Established in 1979, it functions as an autonomous organization
under the aegis of the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. The CCRT conducts education grounded
in cultural knowledge and understanding as conducive to clarity, creativity, independence of thought,
tolerance and compassion.
CCRT's main thrust is to make a variety of training programmes for in-service teachers, teacher
educators, educational administrators and students throughout the country. CCRT does not propose to
create a 'Language Atlas' of India. So, Option (c) is not correct.
Kalakshetra Foundation was founded in the year 1936 by the legendary cultural ambassador Smt.
Rukmini Devi Arundale. It was declared as an Institution of National Importance by an Act of Parliament
in 1993. The pioneering vision of Smt. Rukmini Devi's philosophical bedrock of 'art without vulgarity,
beauty without cruelty and education without fear' inspires Kalakshetra.
As a leading institution for teaching Bharatanatyam and Carnatic Music in the country, Kalakshetra
creates a cultural ambience which nurtures the various units under it, which include the Rukmini Devi
College of Fine Arts, which is devoted to Bharatanatyam, Carnatic Music and the visual arts. Kalakshetra
Foundation does not propose to create a 'Language Atlas' of India. So, Option (d) is not correct.

7. Consider the following statements :

1. The Constitution of India prescribes the criteria for defining a community as Scheduled Tribes
(STs).
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria considered for determining ST status.
3. The consent of the Registrar General of India is mandatory for the inclusion of a specific
community in the state-wise STs List.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
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EXPLANATION:
The criterion followed for specification of a community, as scheduled tribes are indications of primitive
traits, distinctive culture, geographical isolation, shyness of contact with the community at large, and
backwardness. This criterion is not spelt out in the Constitution but has become well established. It
subsumes the definitions contained in 1931 Census, the reports of first Backward Classes Commission
1955, the Advisory Committee (Kalelkar), on Revision of SC/ST lists (Lokur Committee), 1965 and the
Joint Committee of Parliament on the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes orders (Amendment) Bill
1967 (Chanda Committee), 1969. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Government of India follows the following criteria for identifiaction of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal
Groups (PVTGs).
➢ Pre-agricultural level of technology
➢ Low level of literacy
➢ Economic backwardness
➢ A declining or stagnant population.
Thus, A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria considered for determining PVTGs not for
ST status. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Only those claims for inclusion or exclusion of a community from the ST status, that have been agreed
to by the concerned State Government, the Registrar General of India and the National Commission for
Scheduled Tribes are taken up for consideration. Thus, the consent of the Registrar General of India is
mandatory for the inclusion of a specific community in the state-wise STs List. So, Statement 3 is
correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PROCEDURE FOR INCLUSION IN OR EXCLUSION FROM THE LIST OF STs
About ➢ Only those claims that have been agreed to by the concerned State Government, the
Registrar General of India and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes are taken
up for consideration.
➢ Whenever representations are received in the Ministry for inclusion of any community
in the list of Scheduled Tribes of a State/UT, the Ministry forwards that representation
to the concerned State Government/UT Administration for recommendation as
required under Article 342 of the Constitution.
➢ If the concerned State Government recommends the proposal, the same is sent to the
Registrar General of India (RGI) for their comments/views.
➢ The RGI, if satisfied with recommendation of the State Government, recommends the
proposal to the Central Government.
➢ Thereafter, the Government refers the proposal to the National Commission for
Scheduled Tribes for their recommendation.
➢ If the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes also recommends the case, the matter
is processed for the decision of the Cabinet after consulting the concerned
administrative Ministries. Thereafter the matter is put up before the Parliament in the
form of a bill to amend the Presidential Order.
➢ Claims for inclusion, exclusion or other modifications that neither the RGI nor the
concerned State Governments have supported would not be referred to the National
Commission. These would be rejected at the level of the Ministry for Social Justice &
Empowerment.
➢ In case, there is disagreement between the views of the State Government and the RGI,
the views of the RGI are sent to the State Government for reviewing or further justifying
their recommendation. On receipt of the further clarification from the State
Government/Union Territory Administration, the proposal is again referred to the RGI
for comments. In such cases, where the RGI does not agree to the point of view of the

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State Government/UT Administration on a second reference, the Government of India
may consider rejection of the said proposal.
➢ Similarly, those cases where the State Government and the RGI favour
inclusion/exclusion, but not supported by the National Commission for Scheduled
Tribes are also rejected.
➢ Claims recommended suo-moto by the National Commission would be referred to RGI
and the State Governments. Depending on their responses, they would be disposed of
in accordance with the modalities indicated above as may be applicable.

8. Consider the following statements with respect to “Spaghettification”:

1. It is the tidal effect caused by strong gravitational fields.
2. Due to this effect, the object can be distorted into a long, thin version of its undistorted shape.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Spaghettification, also known as the “noodle effect,” is a tidal effect caused by strong gravitational fields
in astrophysics. When an object falls into a black hole, it experiences varying gravitational pulls at its
ends, stretching it into a long, thin, distorted version of its undistorted shape as though being stretched
like spaghetti.
Spaghettification stretches objects vertically and compresses them horizontally. A human undergoing
spaghettification would likely die in less than a second. The process has been observed on large
astronomical objects. It can occur before or after an object crosses a black hole’s event horizon, depending
on the black hole’s size. So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

9. India’s first cheetah conservation breeding centre is being set up in which of the following protected
areas ?
(a) Kuno-Palpur National Park
(b) Banni Grasslands Reserve
(c) Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Panna Tiger Reserve
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EXPLANATION:
Kuno-Palpur National Park is a national park and wildlife sanctuary situated in Madhya Pradesh, India.
It is named after the Kuno River, which flows through the park. Kuno National Park was established in
1981 as a wildlife sanctuary with an initial area of 344.686 square kilometers. In 2018, it was given the
status of a national park. India’s first cheetah conservation breeding centre is not set up in Kuno-Palpur
National Park. So, Option (a) is not correct.
Recently, the central government has approved setting up a cheetah breeding and conservation centre
in Banni Grassland, a reserved forest spread over 2,618 sq. km in the Kutch district of Gujarat. To
support the restoration of the cheetah population in the country, the state government had prepared a
proposal under the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management Authority (National CAMPA)
for using Banni Grassland as one of the centres.
Banni Grassland Reserve is the India's first cheetah conservation breeding centre. This reserve was
identified by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) as one of the last remaining cheetah habitats in the
country. So, Option (b) is correct.

The Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary situated on the northern boundary of
Mandsaur and Nimach districts in Madhya Pradesh, India. It is spread over an area of 368.62 square
kilometers (142.32 sq mi) adjoining Rajasthan state in India.
The Chambal River passes through the sanctuary, dividing it into two parts. The western part is in
Nimach district and the eastern part is in Mandsaur district. It was notified in 1974 and more area was
added in 1983. India’s first cheetah conservation breeding centre is not set up in Gandhi Sagar Wildlife
Sanctuary. So, Option (c) is not correct.
The Panna Tiger Reserve is a beautiful and important wildlife sanctuary located in the Vindhyan Hills of
northern Madhya Pradesh, India. Established in 1981 as a national park, it was designated a tiger
reserve in 1994, becoming the 22nd tiger reserve in India and the fifth in Madhya Pradesh.
The park was once home to a healthy population of tigers. However, by 2009, poaching had sadly driven
the tiger population to extinction. Since then, extensive conservation efforts have been underway,
including reintroduction programs. India’s first cheetah conservation breeding centre is not set up in
Panna Tiger Reserve. So, Option (d) is not correct.

10. With reference to MethaneSAT, consider the following statements:

1. It is the first spacecraft to identify and quantify Earth’s methane emissions.
2. It will orbit the earth 15 times a day, monitoring methane emissions from the oil and gas sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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EXPLANATION:
MethaneSAT is a planned earth observation mission by MethaneSAT LLC, an affiliate of the
Environmental Defense Fund (EDF), to measure methane pollution from oil and gas facilities worldwide
with both broad scope and exacting precision.
The satellite will provide global, high-resolution coverage of methane emissions from oil and gas facilities.
It can also measure surface-level methane emissions from other major sources of human-caused
methane emissions. The 200-plus kilometer satellite view path is large enough to quantify known sources
and to discover and quantify previously unknown sources.
It is not the first spacecraft to identify and quantify methane emissions; rather it will provide more details
and have a much wider field of view than any of its predecessors.
So, Statement 1 is not correct.
MethaneSAT will orbit the Earth 15 times a day, monitoring the oil and gas sector. It will create a large
amount of data, which will tell “how much methane is coming from where, who’s responsible, and are
those emissions going up or down over time. The data collected by MethaneSAT will be made public for
free in near real-time. This will allow stakeholders and regulators to take action to reduce methane
emissions. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
MethaneSAT
Recently in Recently, MethaneSAT was launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon9 rocket from California.
news It was launched in March 2024 which aims to monitor and measure methane in the
atmosphere, and determine its sources.
About ➢ Methane is the second largest contributor to global warming, after carbon dioxide.
➢ MethaneSAT will identify how much methane is coming from where, who’s
responsible, and are those emissions going up or down over time.
➢ MethaneSAT is designed to locate and measure methane from human sources
worldwide, giving both companies and governments new ability to track, quantify,
and reduce those emissions and supplying the public with data to see that the job
is being done.
➢ It’s designed to measure regions at intervals under seven days, regularly monitoring
roughly 50 major regions accounting for more than 80 percent of global oil and gas
production.
➢ With its moderately high spatial resolution and very high precision, MethaneSAT will
have the capacity to detect lower emission sources while being able to attribute the
source of those emissions at scales relevant to oil and gas infrastructure.

11. Consider the following statements with respect to the United Nations Educational, Scientific and
Cultural Organization:
1. The Executive Board of the organisation determines the policies and main lines of work of the
organisation.
2. The Executive Board shall be elected by the general conference and consist of fifty-eight member
states.
3. States which are not members of the United Nations Organization may be admitted to membership
of the organization.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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EXPLANATION:
The General Conference (not the Executive Board) determines the policies and the main lines of work of
the Organization. It has to set the programmes and the budget of the United Nations Educational,
Scientific and Cultural Organization UNESCO. It also elects the Members of the Executive Board and
appoints, every four years, the Director-General. The working languages of the General Conference are
Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian and Spanish. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The General Conference shall elect the Executive Board and it shall consist of fifty-eight Member States.
The President of the General Conference shall sit as ex officio in an advisory capacity on the Executive
Board. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Membership of the United Nations Organization shall carry with it the right to membership of the United
Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
States not members of the United Nations Organization may be admitted to membership of the
Organization, upon recommendation of the Executive Board, by a two-thirds majority vote of the General
Conference. For example, State of Palestine is the member of UNESCO, who is not the member of United
Nation Organisation. Palestine is the observer state since 2012.
So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
UNITED NATIONS EDUCATIONAL, SCIENTIFIC AND CULTURAL ORGANIZATION
About The purpose of the Organization is to contribute to peace and security by promoting
collaboration among the nations through education, science and culture in order to further
universal respect for justice, the rule of law and the human rights and fundamental
freedoms which are affirmed for the peoples of the world, without distinction of race, sex,
language or religion, by the Charter of the United Nations.
General ➢ The General Conference shall consist of the representatives of the States Members of
Conference the Organization.
➢ The Government of each Member State shall appoint not more than five delegates, who
shall be selected after consultation with the National Commission, if established, or
with educational, scientific and cultural bodies.
➢ The General Conference shall, when it deems desirable and in accordance with the
regulations to be made by it, summon international conferences of states on education,
the sciences and humanities or the dissemination of knowledge; non-governmental
conferences on the same subjects may be summoned by the General Conference or by
the Executive Board in accordance with such regulations.
➢ The General Conference shall, in adopting proposals for submission to the Member
States, distinguish between recommendations and international conventions
submitted for their approval. In the former case a majority vote shall suffice; in the
latter case a two-thirds majority shall be required.
➢ Each of the Member States shall submit recommendations or conventions to its
competent authorities within a period of one year from the close of the session of the
General Conference at which they were adopted.

12. Consider the following statements with respect to the SARAS Aajeevika Mela 2023:
1. The event will provide a platform for rural self-help group women to sell and promote their self-
made products.
2. Handicrafts, handloom, and natural food items from different rural areas across the country will
be displayed at the event.
3. SARAS Melas are organised by the Ministry of Rural Development, the National Institute of Rural
Development, and the Panchayati Raj.

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Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Recently, Lieutenant Governor of Jammu and Kashmir inaugurated the SARAS Aajeevika Mela 2023 at
Aquaplex Crown at Bagh-e-Bahu, Jammu.
Saras Aajeevika Mela 2023 is an exhibition of hand-crafted rural products and traditional arts by Self
Help Groups run by women. The fair is organized by the Ministry of Rural Development, National Institute
of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj (NIRDPR). The self-help groups displayed handicrafts,
handloom and natural food items from different rural areas across the country in these stalls. This
national-level food and cultural fair will exhibit unique and famous indigenous products from various
states and UTs of the country.
The event will provide a platform for the participants to sell and promote their self-made products &
create marketing linkages with the various selling platforms. The aim is to make them independent and
provide them with a source of income. Women Self-Help Groups from PAN India are participating in this
fair.
The mela has a variety of Handlooms and Food items to choose from Handloom: Silk saree, cotton saree,
handloom cloth, cotton suit from Jharkhand, Bihar and bedsheets from Uttar Pradesh; Stich sarees and
dress materials from Gujrat exclusive sarees of Karnataka; Woollen and Pashmina shawls of Jammu &
Kashmir; dress materials, woollen shawls from Himachal Pradesh.
The SARAS Aajeevika Mela is helping in spreading the vision of the ‘Vocal for Local, Local to Global’
concept. So, Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

13. Which one of the following statements is correct with Thomas Shoal, sometimes mentioned in the
news?
(a) China and the Philippines engage in maritime disputes over this shoal in the South China
Sea.
(b) China and Taiwan engage in maritime disputes over this shoal in the Taiwan Strait.
(c) The shoal is part of the Lakshadweep Islands, closer to the territory of Maldives.
(d) An island near Andaman and Nicobar Islands where the Indian Coast Guard harbours Rohingya
refugees.
EXPLANATION:
Second Thomas Shoal Island which lies within the Philippines’ Exclusive Economic Zone 200km west of
the archipelago and 1,000km from the nearest Chinese landmass has been occupied by the Philippines
since the 1990s. But the reef, which Manila calls Ayungin Shoal, has been a flashpoint for a decade, as
Beijing continues its campaign to assert territorial control over the South China Sea.
The Philippines claims that the shoal lies within its exclusive economic zone (EEZ), which, under
international law, extends up to 200 nautical miles. The Second Thomas Shoal lies about 108 nautical
miles (200 km) from the Philippine Island of Palawan.
A recent incident in the Second Thomas Shoal area, where the Philippines claims that China Coast Guard
ships caused two collisions with their boats and water cannoned one of them.
Therefore, Thomas Shoal is the Island where China and the Philippines engage in maritime disputes in
the South China Sea. So, Option (a) is correct.

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Taiwan, officially known as the Republic of China (ROC), is an island separated from China by the Taiwan
Strait. It has been governed independently from mainland China, officially the People’s Republic of China
(PRC), since 1949. The PRC views the island as a renegade province and vows to eventually “unify” Taiwan
with the mainland.
Recently, China has doubled down on the legitimacy of its intrusive maritime patrols around a group of
Taiwanese islands just off the Chinese coast. China and Taiwan engage in maritime disputes over the
Islands in the Taiwan Strait, not in Thomas Shoal. So, Option (b) is not correct.
The Minicoy Island is the southernmost island of Lakshadweep, situated at a distance of 398 km (215
nautical miles) southwest of Kochi, having an area of 4.80 sq km. This island lies near the 9-degree
Channel, which is one of the busiest shipping routes and is about 130 km from the northernmost island
of Maldives. The Minicoy Island (Not Thomas Shoal Island) is part of the Lakshadweep Islands, closer to
the territory of Maldives. So, Option (c) is not correct.
A boat carrying at least 142 suspected Rohingya refugees, including women and children, was
intercepted by coastal security agencies near Shaheed Dweep in Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The boat
was towed to Shaheed Dweep Island. All of them were taken to Port Blair and kept in a temporary shelter
by the local administration. Thomas Shoal was not associated with an island near Andaman and Nicobar
Islands where the Indian Coast Guard harbours Rohingya refugees. So, Option (d) is not correct.

14. Consider the following Pairs:

Temples Associated Dynasty
1. Trimbakeshwar Temple - Vijayanagar dynasty
2. Chausath Yogini Temple - Pala dynasty
3. Naganathaswamy Temple - East Ganga dynasty
How many of the above pairs is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The Trimbakeshwar Temple holds a rich historical legacy that dates back over a thousand years. It is
believed that the Yadava dynasty (not the Vijayanagar dynasty) initially constructed this sacred site in
the 12th century. However, the present-day temple structure was built during the reign of the Peshwas
in the 18th century. The temple holds immense religious significance as it is considered one of the twelve
Jyotirlingas, which are believed to be the abodes of Lord Shiva. So, Pair (1) is not correct.

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The grand Chausath Yogini temple stands atop a hillock in Mitaoli in the Morena district of Madhya
Pradesh. It was built around 1323 by Kachchhapaghata king Devapala who belonged to the Pala dynasty,
Dedicated to the 64 (Chaunsath in Hindi) yoginis, its architecture is different from the temples dedicated
to one deity. The 64 yoginis are believed to be powerful warriors. So, Pair (2) is correct.

The Naganathaswamy temple is located in Tamilnadu and belongs to the 11th century AD. The Chola
King, Rajendra I, has constructed it. The stone temple was built around 1016 CE, much before the king's
masterpiece, the Gangaikondaan temple, was raised.
The Period is ascertained from the style of sculptures found in the main temple and vimana (i.e., the
style of the Vesara vimana).
Thus, The Naganathaswamy temple belongs to the Chola dynasty (not the East Ganga dynasty). So, Pair
(3) is not correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CHAUSATH YOGINI TEMPLE
Recently in The circular, collonaded Parliament building has long been a symbol of India's
News democracy. However, a similar round and pillared structure pre-dates the
Parliament by several centuries. This is the Chausath Yogini temple in Mitaoli.
About ➢ The Chausath Yogini Mitaoli temple is circular, with 64 chambers dedicated to
the 64 yoginis and a central shrine dedicated to Shiva. The temple has a diameter
of 125 feet.
➢ While most Hindu temples have a shikhara, or projecting dome, the Mitaoli
temple, like other Chausath Yogini temples, is hypaethral, which means it has
no roof.
➢ The Parliament-like pillars are on the inside of the stone temple complex. The
central shrine has a slab with perforations for excess rainwater to drain off.
➢ The Chausath Yogini Temple is in a Seismic Zone 3 area. Since its construction
in the 1300s, the temple has withstood many an earthquake with almost no
visible damage.

15. Consider the following statements with respect to the Cotton Corporation of India (CCI):
1. CCI was established under the administrative control of the Ministry of Textiles as a Public-Sector
Undertaking.
2. CCI undertakes commercial purchase operations to fulfil the raw material requirement of the
domestic textile industry.
3. CCI can undertake price support operations when market prices of cotton fall below the minimum
support prices.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Cotton Corporation of India Limited (CCI) was established on July 31, 1970, under the administrative
control of the Ministry of Textiles as a Public Sector Undertaking under the Companies Act 1956.
In the initial period of setting up, as the only public sector undertaking in the field of marketing of cotton,
CCI played the role of a canalizing agency for imports of cotton and
purchase of raw cotton for giving necessary price support to enterprising cultivators and also for
procuring raw cotton for textile mills. So, Statement 1 is correct.

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The major role of the Cotton Corporation of India (CCI) is to undertake price support operations whenever
the market prices of cotton fall below the minimum support prices (MSP) announced by the Government
of India.
Besides MSP operations, CCI undertakes commercial purchase operations to fulfil the raw material
requirement of the domestic textile industry particularly in the lean season. So, Statements 2 and 3
are correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
COTTON CORPORATION OF INDIA
Recently in Of the total allocation of ₹4,392.85 crore compared with ₹3,443.09 crore last year,
News the Budget provided ₹600 crore for the procurement of cotton by the Cotton
Corporation of India (CCI) under the price support schem.
About ➢ The Interim Budget 2024 saw ₹1,000 crore higher allocation for the textile and
apparel sector.
➢ Of the total allocation of ₹4,392.85 crore compared with ₹3,443.09 crore last
year, the Budget provided ₹600 crore for the procurement of cotton by the Cotton
Corporation of India (CCI) under the price support scheme. However, there was
almost no allocation for this in the previous financial year.
➢ With a slump in cotton prices, the CCI has been buying cotton from farmers in
several parts of the country at the minimum support price (MSP) since the
beginning of the cotton season in October 2023.
➢ The Budget also increased the allocations for schemes for handicraft
development, the National Technical Textiles Mission, and the PM MITRA
scheme.
➢ With a view to safeguarding the economic interest of cotton farmers in all the
cotton growing regions and to ensuring a smooth supply of good quality cotton
to the textile industry in India, the Cotton Corporation of India has Pan India
presence through headquarters at CBD Belapur, Navi Mumbai, Nineteen
branches and around 350 cotton procurement centres in all major cotton
growing States.
➢ As a premier organization in the Public Sector and engaged in the marketing of
cotton, CCI acts as a role model in the procurement of kapas (seed cotton)
through auctions conducted by the APMCs in the notified market yards.

16. The Darfur region, recently seen in the news, is related to which of the following events?
(a) A Palestinian enclave on the border of Egypt where Israeli forces conducting military operations
(b) A region where a special military operation conducted by Russia in Ukraine
(c) A region in Arunachal Pradesh where Chinese and Indian soldiers clashed
(d) A region where Sudanese armed forces and Rapid Support Forces are involved in armed
conflict.
EXPLANATION:
Gaza Strip is a densely populated enclave 41km (25 miles) long and 10km wide, bounded by the
Mediterranean Sea on one side and fenced off from Israel and Egypt at its borders - has "simply become
uninhabitable", according to United Nations officials.
Gaza Strip (not the Darfur region) is a Palestinian enclave on the border of Egypt where Israeli forces are
conducting military operations. So, Option (a) is not correct.

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Russia has launched a special military operation aimed at the "demilitarisation and denazification" of
Ukraine and also bring to justice those who committed numerous crimes against peaceful people,
including Russian nationals. A region where a special military operation conducted by Russia in Ukraine
is the Donbas region(not the Darfur region). So, Option (b) is not correct.

A region in Arunachal Pradesh where Chinese and Indian soldiers clashed is related to Tawang Valley
(not the Darfur region). Chinese troops tried to cross the Line of Actual Control (LAC) in the Tawang
sector of Arunachal Pradesh to unilaterally change the status quo. Still, they were forced to retreat due
to the timely intervention of Indian military commanders. So, Option (c) is not correct.
Darfur region, recently seen in the news, is related to a region where Sudanese armed forces and Rapid
Support Forces are involved in armed conflict.
Darfur region is located in the westernmost portion of present-day Sudan. Darfur, which has been
witnessing internal fighting since 2003, is the most severely hit region in the country. According to the
UN, about 2.6 million people are already displaced by the long conflict in Darfur. The renewed conflict
has pushed the people in the region to flee the country and seek refuge in Chad. So, Option (d) is
correct.
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17. With reference to the UN Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII), consider the following
statements :
1. UNPFII has been set up by a resolution of the United Nations Security Council.
2. UNPFII is the only UN body mandated to deal specifically with Indigenous People’s issues.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The Permanent Forum is a high-level advisory body to the Economic and Social Council (not United
Nations Security Council) established by resolution 2000/22 of the ECOSOC on 28 July 2000. The
Forum has the mandate to discuss indigenous issues related to economic and social
development, culture, the environment, education, health and human rights. So, Statement 1 is not
correct.
The Permanent Forum is one of three UN bodies that is mandated to deal specifically with indigenous
peoples’ issues. The others are the Expert Mechanism on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples and
the Special Rapporteur Rights of Indigenous Peoples. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PERMANENT FORUM ON INDIGENOUS ISSUES
Mandate According to its mandate, the Permanent Forum will:
➢ provide expert advice and recommendations on indigenous issues to the Council,
as well as to programmes, funds and agencies of the United Nations, through
ECOSOC;
➢ raise awareness and promote the integration and coordination of activities
related to indigenous issues within the UN system;
➢ prepare and disseminate information on indigenous issues The Permanent
Forum holds annual two-week sessions.
Members of the ➢ The Permanent Forum is comprised of sixteen independent experts, functioning
United Nations in their personal capacity, who serve for a term of three years as Members and
Permanent may be re-elected or re-appointed for one additional term. Eight of the experts
Forum are nominated by governments and eight are nominated directly by indigenous
organizations in their regions.

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➢ The experts nominated by governments are elected by ECOSOC based on the five
regional groupings of States normally used at the United Nations (Africa; Asia;
Eastern Europe; Latin America and the Caribbean; and Western Europe and
Other States).
➢ The experts nominated by indigenous organizations are appointed by the
President of ECOSOC and represent the seven socio-cultural regions determined
to give broad representation to the world’s indigenous peoples.
➢ The regions are Africa; Asia; Central and South America and the Caribbean; the
Arctic; Central and Eastern Europe, Russian Federation, Central Asia and
Transcaucasia; North America; and the Pacific—with one additional rotating seat
among the three first listed above.

18. Consider the following statements with respect to Black Tigers:

1. They are geographical subspecies of tiger.
2. They are found in dense forests of Myanmar (Burma), Bangladesh, and eastern India.
3. In India, they are found only in the Similipal Tiger Reserve in Odisha.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
A black tiger or pseudo-melanistic tiger is a rare colour variant of the tiger and is not a distinct species
or geographic subspecies. The black tigers are due to pseudo-melanism. Pseudo-melanistic tigers have
thick stripes so close together that the tawny background is barely visible between the stripes. So,
Statement 1 is not correct.

Black tigers have been reported less frequently from the dense forests of Myanmar (Burma), Bangladesh,
and eastern India.
The Simlipal Tiger Reserve (STR) is the only habitat where these cats are found in the wild. More than
60% of Simlipal's tigers are 'black'. The STR, which sprawls over 2,750 square km in Odisha's
Mayurbhanj district adjoining Jharkhand and West Bengal, is Asia's second largest biosphere and the
country's only wild habitat for melanistic royal Bengal tigers. So, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
BLACK TIGER
Recently in Odisha will start a melanistic tiger safari near Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR). The safari will
News be the first of its kind anywhere in the world to see "the rare and majestic" melanistic tiger
species "found only in Odisha".
About ➢ Melanism is a genetic condition in which an increased production of melanin, a
substance in the skin that produces hair, eye, and skin pigmentation, results in black
(or nearly black) skin, feathers, or hair in an animal.
➢ Many royal Bengal tigers of Similipal belong to a unique lineage with higher-than-
normal levels of melanin, which gives them black and yellow interspersed stripes on
their coats. These tigers are not entirely black and are, therefore, more accurately
described as being pseudo-melanistic.
➢ According to research, a single mutation in the gene Transmembrane Aminopeptidase
Q (Taqpep) causes black tigers to develop stripes that seem to have broadened or
spread into the tawny background.
➢ Genetic analyses of other tiger populations in India and computer simulations suggest
that the Similipal black tigers may have arisen from a very small founding population
of tigers and are inbred. The STR cats live isolated from other tigers; because of which
they breed among themselves.
➢ The safari aims to allow wildlife conservationists, researchers, and enthusiasts to see
the rare big cats close and to create awareness about the need for their conservation.
The sighting of tigers is difficult in STR because of its vast area, and the safari has
been proposed as an added attraction for visitors to Similipal.

19. The term “CSpace” is recently seen in news is related to:

(a) Block Chain Technology
(b) Artificial Intelligence
(c) OTT Platform
(d) Cloud Storage
EXPLANATION:
The Term “CSpace” has recently been seen in the news and is related to the OTT Platform. Kerala has
launched a government-owned OTT platform, ‘CSpace’, terming it as a decisive step in the onward
journey of Malayalam cinema. It is a pioneering initiative that would give prominence to films with artistic
and cultural value without hurting the mainstream film industry.
Noting that earning profit was the prime motive of the private-sector OTT platforms that mostly go for
commercial movies, CSpace was set to make a mark as a medium to promote quality films. So, Option
(c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CSPACE
About ➢ The launch of CSpace by the Kerala government is aligned well with the
government’s policy of supporting art and artists representing diverse traditions.
➢ The films that win State, national and international awards will be streamed on
the platform.
➢ The decision that CSpace will only stream films that are already released in
theatres signifies that this is not a move that will harm the interests of the film
industry.
➢ It aims to promote good cinema without hurting the interests of the producers
and exhibitors.
➢ CSpace will be managed by the Kerala State Film Development Corporation.

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➢ A total of 42 films have been selected in the first phase for streaming on CSpace,
including 35 feature films, six documentaries, and one short film.
➢ The platform, which operates on a pay-per-view basis, allows viewers to watch a
feature film for ₹75 and shorter content for a much lesser price. Exactly half of
the amount charged goes to the content provider.

20. With reference to e-Gram Swaraj, often seen in the news, consider the following statements :
1. It is a user-friendly web-based portal launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology.
2. It serves as a single platform for addressing all the planning and accounting requirements of the
Gram Panchayats.
3. It is a recipient of National Awards for e-Governance under the category of 'Excellence in Providing
Citizen Centric Delivery'.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) (not the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology) has
launched eGramSwaraj, a user friendly web-based portal to strengthen e-Governance in Panchayati Raj
Institutions (PRIs) across the country. eGramSwaraj aims to bring in better transparency in the
decentralised planning, progress reporting and work-based accounting.
So, Statement 1 is not correct.
E-Gram Swaraj aims to bring in better transparency and strengthening of the e-Governance in
Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) across the country through decentralized planning, progress reporting
and work-based accounting. It will also assist in enhancing the credibility of Panchayats which would
induce greater devolution of funds to PRIs. Furthermore, e-Gram Swaraj provides a platform for effective
monitoring by higher authorities. Furthermore, it unifies the planning, accounting and monitoring
functions of Gram Panchayats. So, Statement 2 is correct.
It provides a single window for capturing Panchayat information with the complete Profile of the
Panchayat, details of Panchayat finances, asset details, activities taken up through Gram Panchayat
Development Plan (GPDP), Panchayat information from other Ministries/ Departments such as Census
2011, SECC data, Mission Antyodaya survey report etc.
E-Panchayat Mission Mode Project that includes the eGram Swaraj and Audit Online portals of Ministry
of Panchayati Raj has won the GOLD AWARD under the category “Excellence in Government Process Re-
engineering for Digital Transformation” (not Excellence in Providing Citizen Centric Delivery)of the
National Awards for e-Governance. The award is recognition of the excellent and exemplary work done
by Team eGovernance and supported by Team NIC-MoPR. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

21. Which of the following is correct about ‘Project Kusha’ by the Indian government?
(a) Development of Artificial intelligence Supercomputing systems
(b) Development of long-range air-defence system
(c) Development of Central Bank Digital Currency by RBI
(d) Development of a Satellite-based internet service provider
EXPLANATION:
Project Kusha, also known as XR-SAM or LR-SAM, is an Indian long-range mobile surface-to-air missile
defence system being developed by the Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO).
India has initiated a programme to develop long-range surface-to-air missile (LRSAM) systems for the
Indian Air Force (IAF) to strengthen its air defence capabilities. LR-SAM system is designed to perform

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tasks akin to Israel's Iron Dome. The LRSAM programme – termed 'Project Kusha' – is "in the initial phase
of design".
It is envisaged to detect and neutralise aerial threats such as stealth fighters, aircraft, ballistic and cruise
missiles, precision-guided munitions, and unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) to ranges of nearly 350 km.
The IAF aims to operationally deploy the system by 2028–29. The Ministry of Defence (MoD) has cleared
five units of the LRSAM systems – with similar capabilities to the Russian S-400 Triumf self-propelled
SAM (surface-to-air missile) systems – for the IAF. So, Option (b) is correct.

22. Recently, India signed the first-ever historic Memorandum of Understanding on ‘Local Currency
Settlement System’ with which of the following countries ?
(a) Japan
(b) Russia
(c) UAE
(d) France
EXPLANATION:
The Local Currency Settlement System (LCSS) mechanism has been established under the historic
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on the establishment of a framework mechanism for using local
currencies for cross-border transactions exchanged in July 2023 between India and the United Arab
Emirates (UAE). The framework aims to promote the use of the Indian rupee and UAE Dirham (AED) for
cross-border transactions.
The creation of the LCSS would enable exporters and importers to invoice and pay in their respective
domestic currencies, which in turn would enable the development of an INR-AED foreign exchange
market.
India's first-ever LCSS and is expected to reduce transaction costs and time and increase reliance on
local currencies. This will further add to the preferential terms accruing from the Comprehensive
Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA). Traders can choose the payment currency based on mutual
agreement. Further, the surplus balance in local currencies can be used for investing in local currency
assets like corporate bonds, Government securities, equity markets etc. So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
INDIA AND INDONESIA LOCAL CURRENCY TRADE
Recently in RBI and Indonesia's central bank, signed an agreement for local currency trade.
News
About ➢ The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indonesia's central bank signed an agreement
to promote cross-border local currency transactions.
➢ It is India's second such local currency trade agreement after the UAE.
➢ The MoU covers all current account transactions, permissible capital account

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transactions and any other economic and financial transactions agreed upon by the
two countries.
➢ The arrangement would enable exporters and importers to invoice and pay in their
domestic currencies, helping the development of an INR and IDR foreign exchange
market.
➢ The use of local currencies would optimise costs and settlement time for
transactions.
➢ The use of local currencies in bilateral transactions will eventually contribute to
promoting trade between India and Indonesia as well as deepen financial integration
and strengthen the long historical, cultural and economic relations between India
and Indonesia.

23. With reference to Bio-computers, consider the following statements:

1. It is a combination of brain organoids with modern computing methods.
2. It helps to decode the pathology of drug development for devastating neurodevelopmental and
degenerative diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Scientists at Johns Hopkins University (JHU) outlined a plan for a potentially revolutionary new area of
research called “organoid intelligence”, which aims to create “biocomputers”. The scheme will combine
brain organoids with modern computing methods to create “bio-computers”. The plan is to couple the
organoids with machine learning by growing the organoids inside flexible structures affixed with multiple
electrodes (similar to the ones used to take EEG readings from the brain). So, Statement 1 is correct.
While human brains are slower than computers at, say, simple arithmetic, they outshine machines at
processing complex information.
Brain organoids can also be developed using stem cells from individuals with neurodegenerative diseases
or cognitive disorders. Comparing the data on brain structure, connections, and signalling between
‘healthy’ and ‘patient-derived’ organoids can reveal the biological basis of human cognition, learning, and
memory.
They could also help decode the pathology of drug development for devastating neurodevelopmental and
degenerative diseases such as Parkinson’s disease and microcephaly. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
BIO COMPUTER
About ➢ Bio-computers will be able to record the firing patterns of the neurons and also
deliver electrical stimuli to mimic sensory stimuli.
➢ The response pattern of the neurons and their effect on human behaviour or biology
will then be analysed by machine-learning techniques.
➢ Recently, scientists were able to grow human neurons on top of a microelectrode
array that could both record and stimulate these neurons. Using positive or
negative electric feedback from the sensors, they were able to train the neurons to
generate a pattern of electrical activity that would be generated if the neurons were
playing table tennis.
Are ‘Bio- ➢ Currently, brain organoids have a diameter of less than 1 mm and have fewer than
Computers’ 100,000 cells (both on average), which makes it roughly three-millionth the size of
Ready for an actual human brain. So scaling up the brain organoid is key to improving its

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Commercial computing capacity – as well as incorporating non-neuronal cells involved in
Use biological learning.
➢ Second, researchers will also have to develop microfluidic systems to transport
oxygen and nutrients and remove waste products. These hybrid systems will
generate very large amounts of data (i.e. of neural recordings from each neuron and
connection), which researchers will need to store and analyse using ‘Big Data’
infrastructure. They will also need to develop and use advanced analytical
techniques (with help from machines) to correlate the structural and functional
changes in the brain organoids to the various output variables.
➢ There is also a proposal to have an ethics team to parallelly identify, discuss, and
analyse ethical issues as they arise in the course of this work.

24. Consider the following pairs :

Place of Pilgrimage Location

1. Tashiding Monastery - Sikkim

2. Jang Palpung Zangdok Palri Monastery - Ladakh

3. Sed-Gyued Monastery - West Bengal
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Recently, Bhumchu Festival will be held on March 7, 2024. The Bhumchu festival is a major festival in
Sikkim and it is unique in that it reveals the state's destiny for that particular year. The festival is
celebrated at Tashiding Monastery in West Sikkim and it is attended by thousands of pilgrims every year.
The Tashiding Monastery is located in Western Sikkim, northeastern India.
It's considered one of the most sacred and holy monasteries in Sikkim. It was founded in 1641 by Ngadak
Sempa Chempo Phunshok Rigzing, who was one of the three wise men who held the consecration
ceremony crowning the first King of Sikkim at Yuksom. Tashiding Monastery is part of the Buddhist
religious pilgrimage circuit starting with the first monastery at Yuksam known as the Dubdi Monastery,
Norbugang Chorten, Pemayangtse Monastery, the Rabdentse ruins, the Sanga Choeling Monastery, and
the Khecheopalri Lake. So, Pair (1) is correct.

Recently, Buddhist monastery in Arunachal Pradesh introduces dances of two deities such as Palden
Lhamo and Gonpo, or Mahakala, in Tawang district of Arunachal Pradesh (not in Ladakh). These
monastic dances will be an annual feature after 11-12 lunar months. The monastery houses rare
scriptures that were brought into India, including the rare Kangyur text in 108 volumes.
So, Pair (2) is not correct.
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Recently, Dalai Lama arrives at Siliguri's Sed-Gyued Monastery to deliver teachings to his devotees. Dalai
Lama will deliver a two-hour-long teaching on Bodhicitta, the main cause of Buddha and the thoughts
that help bring peace to the mind.
The Sed-Gyued Monastery is the main seat of the Sed-Gyued lineage of Tibetan Buddhism, situated in
Salugara, West Bengal, India. It follows the pure tradition of an unbroken line descending from Jetsun
Sherab Senge, a disciple of Je Tsong Khapa Lobsang Dakpa, the founder of the Gelukpa school of Tibetan
Buddhism. The lineage is passed from one Great Master to the next, with no reincarnation recognized.
So, Pair (3) is correct.

25. Boko Haram is the militant group fighting to overthrow the government and has caused havoc
through a wave of bombings, assassinations and abductions in which of the following countries?
(a) Ethiopia
(b) Libya
(c) Nigeria
(d) Sudan
EXPLANATION:
Nigeria's militant Islamist group Boko Haram - which has caused havoc in Africa's most populous
country through a wave of bombings, assassinations and abductions - is fighting to overthrow the
government and create an Islamic state.
Boko Haram promotes a version of Islam which makes it "haram", or forbidden, for Muslims to take part
in any political or social activity associated with Western society. This includes voting in elections,
wearing shirts and trousers or receiving a secular education.
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Boko Haram regards the Nigerian state as being run by non-believers, regardless of whether the president
is Muslim or not - and it has extended its military campaign by targeting neighbouring states.
The largest mass abduction by Boko Haram occurred when more than 270 schoolgirls were seized from
their dormitory in Chibok town, also in north-eastern Borno state, in 2014.
Nigeria, situated in West Africa, borders the Republic of Benin to the west, Chad and Cameroon to the
east, and Niger to the north. To the south, the coastline extends for approximately 853 kilometers along
the Gulf of Guinea in the Atlantic Ocean.
Nigeria is one of the most ethnically diverse countries on the planet. Nigeria has more than 500 languages
and no less than 250 ethnic groups, of which the Yoruba from the west of the country and the Igbo from
the southeast are the most predominant.
The Niger River and its main tributary, the Benue River, dominate Nigeria's aquatic landscape. The Niger
River, originating from the highlands of Guinea, travels through Nigeria before emptying into the Gulf of
Guinea. So, Option (c) is correct.

26. Consider the following statements with respect to the Swachh Survekshan Awards, 2024:
1. It was hosted by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
2. Prayagraj City backed the first rank under the category of Cleanest Ganga Town.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The Swachh Survekshan Awards is an important initiative that recognizes and encourages cleanliness
efforts across India. The awards are given by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). The
goal is to encourage and recognize efforts towards cleanliness and sanitation in urban areas. The theme
for 2024 it's "Reduce, Reuse and Recycle". This reflects a growing focus on sustainable waste
management practices. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Varanasi secured the top spot, and Prayagraj was second best as the 'Cleanest Ganga Towns' nationwide
in the Swachh Survekshan 2023 results, even as 65 Uttar Pradesh cities were adjudged garbage-free.
Additionally, three cities from U.P, namely Barwar, Anupshahr and Gajraula, received the Clean City
North Zone award. Noida received the state-level Clean City award in the population category of one lakh.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
SWACHH SURVEKSHAN
About ➢ Swachh Survekshan is a ranking exercise taken up by the Government of India to assess
rural and urban areas for their levels of cleanliness and active implementation of
Swachhata mission initiatives in a timely and innovative manner.
➢ The objective of the survey is to encourage large scale citizen participation and create
awareness amongst all sections of society about the importance of working together
towards making towns and cities a better place to live in.
➢ Additionally, the survey also intends to foster a spirit of healthy competition among
towns and cities to improve their service delivery to citizens, towards creating cleaner
cities and towns.
➢ The Ministry of Urban Development, Government of India, takes up the Swachh
Survekshan in urban areas and the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation in rural
areas.
➢ The Quality Council of India (QCI) has been commissioned with the responsibility of
carrying out the assessment.

27. The term ‘Square Kilometre Array’ project is recently seen in the news is related to :
(a) Supercomputers
(b) Artificial Intelligence
(c) Space Technology
(d) Solar Energy
EXPLANATION:
The Square Kilometre Array (SKA) project will be a group of radio telescopes operating out of South Africa
and Australia (headquarters) in two radio frequency ranges. The Square Kilometre Array Observatory
(SKAO) is a new intergovernmental organisation dedicated to radio astronomy, headquartered in the UK
with ten countries - Australia, Canada, China, India, Italy, New Zealand, South Africa, Sweden, and the
Netherlands participating.
It will not be a single large telescope but a collection of thousands of dish antennas operating as a single
unit. Unlike optical telescopes, radio telescopes can detect invisible gas and, therefore, they can reveal
areas of space that may be obscured by cosmic dust.
Its mission is to build and operate cutting-edge radio telescopes to transform our understanding of the
Universe and deliver benefits to society through global collaboration and innovation.
Composed of respectively hundreds of dishes and thousands of antennas, the SKAO’s telescopes will be
the two most advanced radio telescopes on Earth. So, Option (c) is correct.

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28. 'Vitrification technique' is used in which of the following situations ?
1. Freezing eggs for in vitro fertilisation
2. Manufacturing of tiles
3. Production of biodegradable plastics
4. Management of nuclear wastes
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
EXPLANATION:
Vitrification is the process of freezing so rapidly that that the water molecules don’t have time to form ice
crystals, and instead instantaneously solidify into a glass-like structure. It’s a much more complicated
practice than previous “slow freezing” methods, and it has yielded good results
Vitrification makes it possible to cool and warm human eggs and embryos with far less cryo-damage than
'slow-freeze' and allows nearly intact survival of embryos with very high survival rates for eggs as well.
This has resulted in a complete transformation how we manage treatment for in vitro fertilization
patients. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The vitrification process hardens and weatherproofs the tiles, allowing them to be used inside as well as
making them perfect for exterior use. They may also be included on the balcony or on the lawn because
they can resist a great deal of pressure. As outdoors cladding is subjected to all kinds of harsh conditions
and vitrified tiles are built to outlast almost everything. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Biodegradable plastics are formed from the fermentation of sugar or canola oil to produce Polylactic acid
(PLA) or Polyhydroxyalkanoates (PHA), which in turn are converted into biodegradable plastics. Thus,
Production of biodegradable plastics is not an application of Vitrification technology. So, Statement 3
is not correct.
Vitrification is a proven and reliable technology used at U.S. and foreign defense waste processing
facilities. The process converts liquid radioactive and chemical waste into a solid, stable glass,
eliminating environmental risks. So, Statement 4 is correct.

29. Consider the following statements :

As per the Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2024 :
1. If the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) is implemented, it becomes easier for the applicants to
apply for Indian citizenship even if they do not have a valid passport or visa.
2. The eligibility certificate for obtaining citizenship under CAA will be issued by the respective
District Magistrate, confirming the applicant's religion.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The application process for citizenship under CAA has been made under Section 6B of the Citizenship
Act, 1955. The application process has been made online. It can be accessed through the CAA-2019
mobile app or the web portal. Applicants will need to fill out an application, upload the required
documents, and pay a Rs 50 fee.
Applicants need to establish their country of origin, religion, date of entry into India, and knowledge of
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Country of origin: The requirement for a valid passport from the respective countries, along with a
Residential Permit of India, has been relaxed. Various documents including birth certificates, educational
certificates, and identity documents issued by countries are acceptable.
Date of entry into India: Applicants can provide a range of documents such as visas, immigration stamps,
driving licenses, Aadhaar cards, ration cards, Government issued IDs, employment records, utility bills,
school certificates from India, and more to establish their entry date.
Thus, If the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) is implemented, it becomes easier for the applicants to
apply for Indian citizenship even if they do not have a valid passport or visa. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The applicants can also submit any of 20 documents like copy of visa and immigration stamp on arrival
in India, certificate issued by an elected member of any rural or urban body or a revenue officer to prove
that he or she has entered India on or be according to the rules of the CAA.
The rules also state that the applicants will have to provide an eligibility certificate issued by a locally
reputed community institution confirming that he or she belongs to either Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain,
Parsi or Christian community and continues to be a member of that community. So, Statement 2 is
not correct

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CITIZENSHIP (AMENDMENT) RULES, 2024
About ➢ An online system for application, processing, and grant of citizenship for
persecuted minorities from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan under the
Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA).
➢ The members of the specified communities by excluding the requirement of a
“valid passport” of their origin countries or a valid visa from India.
➢ It include individuals of Indian origin, spouses of Indian citizens, minor children
of Indian citizens, individuals with registered Indian citizen parents, and
Overseas Citizens of India Cardholders among others.
➢ Requires submission of Form VIIIA, an affidavit, and a declaration of proficiency
in an Eighth Schedule language.
➢ It should be issued by a “locally reputed community institution” confirming that
he/she belongs to “Hindu/ Sikh/ Buddhist/ Jain/ Parsi/ Christian community
and continues to be a member of the above mentioned community.”
➢ A certificate issued by an elected member of a local body can be a replacement
for a visa.
➢ A committee led by the Director (Census Operations) and including various
officials will review applications.
➢ It will be headed by Senior Superintendent or Superintendent of Post which will
also involve in the scrutiny process.
➢ Applicants must renounce their previous citizenship and take an oath of
allegiance.

30. The Green Tug Transition Programme is an initiative of which of the following ministries that aims to
convert at least 50% of all tugs into Green Tugs by 2030?
(a) Inland Waterways Authority of India
(b) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
(c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(d) Indian Coast Gaurd and Indian Navy
EXPLANATION:
With an aim to make India a global hub for building green ships, the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and
Waterways (MoPSW) launched ‘Green Tug Transition Programme’ (GTTP) that will convert all tugboats
(Boat with a powerful engine which can change direction easily and is used to pull large ships into and

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out of port) working in the country into ‘Green Hybrid Tugs’, running on non-fossil fuel like Methanol,
Ammonia, Hydrogen. The GTTP aims to convert at least 50% of all tugs into Green Tugs by 2030 and to
have Green Tugs operating at all major ports. The plan is to make India the ‘Global hub for building
Green Ships’ by 2030.
The plan is to expand the exercise of conversion of tugboats into green tugs into full-fledged
manufacturing of these all-important boats in the country that are essential elements of any port, helping
in the mooring or berthing operation of a ship by either towing or pushing a vessel towards the port.
GTTP will first convert tugs into green hybrid tugs powered by hybrid propulsion systems and
subsequently adopt non-fossil fuel solutions.
With these initiatives, the Centre aims to achieve the UN’s Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) to
sustainably manage and protect marine and coastal ecosystems from pollution, conservation &
sustainable use of ocean-based resources.
So, Option (b) is correct.

31. Which of the following best describes about the Suspension of Operations Agreement in Manipur?
(a) It is an agreement between the Central government and Kuki militant groups to stop any
form of violence.
(b) It is an agreement brokered by the central government and state government between Kukis and
Meiteis to stop the ethnic clash.
(c) It is an agreement between the Central government and Meitei militant groups to stop any form
of violence.
(d) It is an agreement between the central government and the Manipur government to fence the
border along Myanmar to restrict free movement.
EXPLANATION:
The Suspension of Operation was first signed between the Government of India, Manipur government
and Kuki National Organisation (KNO) on August 22, 2008, to cease hostilities. The militant groups
agreed to completely stop any form of violence. The Centre and the state also agreed that no force (army,
paramilitary, state police) would launch operations against the signatories if they abide by the
agreement’s terms.
A Joint Monitoring Group (JMG) comprising of principal secretary (Home), inspector general of additional
director general (intelligence), representatives of army, paramilitary forces and home ministry was set
up. The JMG is tasked to meet every month and check if the militant groups are abiding by the terms of
the agreement.
The two groups are Meitei: The majority community inhabiting the Imphal Valley (mostly Hindu). Kuki-
Zo: A tribal community residing in the surrounding hills (predominantly Christian).
It was signed by the Centre, the Manipur Government with two umbrella groups, the Kuki National
Organisation (KNO) and the United People’s Front (UPF), comprising 25 groups – 17 under KNO and 8
under the UPF.
So, Option (a) is correct.

32. Consider the following statements with respect to the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme of 2023:
1. The Carbon Market Association of India will be responsible for overseeing the scheme.
2. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency will issue carbon credits under this scheme.
3. The generation of Green Credit under the Green Credit Rules of 2023 is independent of this
scheme.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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EXPLANATION:
The Carbon Credit Trading Scheme assigns a value, known as a carbon credit, to each tonne of carbon
dioxide equivalent (tCO2e) reduced or avoided. These credits could be bought, sold and traded within the
country's carbon market framework.
The National Steering Committee for the Indian Carbon Market (NSCICM) (not the Carbon Market
Association of India) will be responsible for overseeing the Carbon Credit Trading scheme. The committee
will comprise nine Ministries, two State departments, and two subject matter experts. The NSCICM will
play a crucial role in establishing rules, regulations, and procedures for the institutionalisation of the
Indian carbon market. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) will develop the trajectory and targets under the compliance
mechanism, issue carbon credits, and establish market stability mechanisms, among other functions. It
will be responsible for developing data submission formats and maintaining the IT infrastructure for the
market. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Green Credit Initiative was launched on the sidelines of COP 28. It is an initiative within the government's
Lifestyle for Environment or LIFE movement. The generation of Green Credit under Green Credit Rules,
2023 is independent of the carbon credit under the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme 2023. So, Statement
3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CARBON CREDIT TRADING SCHEME
Recently in Power Ministry notifies carbon credit trading scheme. Carbon markets will help drive
News momentum towards meeting the target of 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity by
2030.
About ➢ The National Steering Committee for the Indian Carbon Market shall make
recommendations on a wide range of issues regarding the functioning of the
carbon market to the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), which will be heading
the administration of the carbon market.
➢ The BEE will ensure the security of the database while following all security
protocols.
➢ The government plans to develop the Indian Carbon Market (ICM) where a
national framework will be established with an objective to decarbonise the
Indian economy by pricing the Green House Gas (GHG) emission through trading
of the Carbon Credit Certificates.
➢ Bureau of Energy Efficiency, Ministry of Power, along with Ministry of
Environment, Forest & Climate Change are developing the Carbon Credit
Trading Scheme for this purpose.
➢ As India currently has an energy savings-based market mechanism, the new
avatar Carbon Credit Trading Scheme will enhance the energy transition efforts
with an increased scope that will cover the potential energy sectors in India.
➢ The ICM will enable the creation of a competitive market that can provide
incentives to climate actors to adopt low-cost options by attracting technology
and finance towards sustainable projects that generate carbon credits.

33. Which one of the following protected areas has the highest elephant density as per the forest
department census?
(a) Bandipur Tiger Reserve
(b) Malai Mahadeshwara Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Nagarahole Tiger Reserve
(d) Agasthyamalai Elephant Reserve

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EXPLANATION:
Bandipur National Park was formed by including most of the forest areas of the then Venugopala Wildlife
Park established under Government Notification dated 19th February 1941 and the area was enlarged
in 1985. It is an important part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve that constitutes Karnataka’s Rajiv Gandhi
National Park (Nagarahole) to its Northwest, Tamil Nadu’s Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary to its South,
and Kerala’s Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary to its Southwest. The reserve was brought under Project Tiger
in 1973.
Bandipur Tiger Reserve, with 1,116 elephants, has accounted for the highest density of 0.96 per sq km,
followed by Nagarahole Tiger Reserve, which has 831 elephants with a density of 0.93. Similarly,
Biligirirangana Hills (BRT) Tiger Reserve, with 619 elephants, accounts for a density of 0.69, while Malai
Mahadeshwara Wildlife Sanctuary (MM) Hills Wildlife Sanctuary has a density of only 0.60 despite having
706 elephants.
The number of elephants in Karnataka has increased by 346, from an estimated 6,049 in 2017 to 6,395,
which is the highest in the country, according to an interim report on Asian Elephant population and
demography estimates — 2023. Their population range is estimated to be between 5,914 and 6,877. So,
Option (a) is correct.
Malai Mahadeshwara (MM) Hills, located in Chamrajnagar district of Karnataka, was declared as a
wildlife sanctuary in 2013. The Malai Mahadeshwara (MM) Wildlife Sanctuary shares its borders with
the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary, BRT Tiger Reserve in Karnataka and Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve in
Tamil Nadu. There are 10-12 tigers and 706 elephants in MM Hills. Apart from tigers and elephants,
spotted deer, sambar deer, Indian bison or Gaurs and wild dogs were also seen in the sanctuary. MM
Hills Wildlife Sanctuary has a density of only 0.60 (not the highest) despite having 706 elephants. So,
Option (b) is not correct.
“Nagarahole Tiger Reserve”, previously known as Rajiv Gandhi National Park, is named after the stream
‘Nagarahole’, which literally means serpent stream (Nagara – serpent, hole – stream) in Kannada
language. The protected area is located in both the districts of Mysuru and Kodagu. The Kabini and
Taraka reservoirs are large waterbodies located towards the west and southeastern parts of the park,
respectively.
Nagarahole is contiguous with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) to the south and Bandipur Tiger
Reserve to its south eastern parts. It is declared as the thirty-seventh Tiger Reserve in India and declared
as a World Heritage site by UNESCO.
Bengal Tiger, Indian Leopard, Sloth Bear, and Striped Hyena are the predators, and Herbivores like
Elephants, Chital, Sambar Deer, and Barking Deer are also spotted around the national park. Nagarhole
Tiger Reserve does not have the highest elephant density. So, Option (c) is not correct.
Union government on the occasion of World Elephant Day in 2022, announced the establishment of
Agasthiyamalai elephant reserve in Tirunelveli district. It will be the 32nd elephant reserve in the country
and the fifth in Tamil Nadu, adding 1,197 sq km of area dedicated to the conservation of jumbos. Nilgiris-
Eastern Ghat, Nilambur Silent Valley in Coimbatore, Srivilliputhur and Annamalai are the four existing
elephant reserves in the state. Agasthiyamalai Elephant Reserve does not have the highest density of
elephants. So, Option (d) is not correct.

34. Arrange the following sectors in decreasing order based on their anthropogenic greenhouse gas
emissions according to India’s Third National Communication to the UNFCCC:
1. Industrial Process and Product Use
2. Waste
3. Energy
4. Agriculture
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) 1 – 3 – 4 – 2
(b) 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
(c) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
(d) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

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EXPLANATION:
India's Third National Communication to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
was submitted on December 9, 2023. The report contains information on India's greenhouse gas
emissions, its vulnerability to climate change, and the measures it is taking to mitigate emissions and
adapt to its impacts.
According to the third national communication, the energy sector accounted for the maximum share of
anthropogenic emissions (75.81 per cent), followed by agriculture (13.44 per cent), Industrial Process
and Product Use (8.41 per cent), and waste (2.34 per cent).
So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
INITIAL ADAPTATION COMMUNICATION
About India submitted the Initial Adaptation Communication to UNFCCC. India has been
diligently working towards adaptation in mission mode. Several policies and measures
have been put in place across key economic sectors, keeping in mind the wide scope of
adaptation activities. India has been spending a significant amount of resources on
adaptation-relevant actions despite the competing demands for limited resources in a
developing economy.
India's first Adaptation Communication to the UNFCCC also comprises chapters on
National Circumstances and Impacts, Vulnerability Assessment of India's Third National
Communication. This Annexure contains additional information to communicate India's
Adaptation Efforts and future needs of India for Adaptation.
The first chapter highlights India's adaptation efforts in climate-sensitive sectors such as
water, agriculture, disaster management, coast and islands, forestry and biodiversity, and
the Himalayan ecosystem. It also highlights the country's institutional arrangements for
adaptation, monitoring and evaluation related to adaptation, the co-benefits of mitigation,
and synergies with international and multilateral frameworks.
The second chapter emphasizes the future needs for adaptation, identifying key gaps and
barriers to adaptation, adaptation priorities for the country, implementation constraints
and resource needs. These adaptation efforts align with the long-term vision outlined by
the Government of India in the NAPCC and NDC. The exercise of putting together the
AdCom report is part of a broader process of climate change action conducted in line with
UNFCCC guidelines.

35. Recently, for the first time in our country, which of the following States has granted its residents the
'Right to Health' through legislative enactment?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
EXPLANATION:
The Rajasthan Assembly in March 2023 passed the Right to Health Bill with the provision for mandatory
free-of-cost emergency treatment for every resident of the State at both the government hospitals and the
privately-run institutions. With this, Rajasthan has become the first and the only State in the country to
legislate the right to health.
The Bill was referred to a Select Committee. The Bill gives every resident of the State the right to
emergency treatment care "without prepayment of requisite fee or charges" by any public health
institution, health care establishment and designated health care centres.

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The Act is consistent with the Right to Life under Article 21 of the Constitution, which the Supreme Court
has interpreted as the right to live with dignity. So far, India already guarantees its citizens the right to
food, education, employment, and information, but no right to health.
So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
RIGHT TO HEALTH ACT
About ➢ The Bill makes it mandatory for hospitals to provide treatment in emergency cases without
waiting for medico-legal formalities and give medicines and transport facilities without
charging money.
➢ The implementation of the law is expected to do away with out-of-pocket expenditure and
bring transparency and accountability within the health care system.
➢ Despite several provisions and schemes introduced by the government, citizens continued
to bear a significant percentage of the health expenditure as per the National Health
Accounts 2018-19 released in 2022.
➢ Out-of-pocket expenses are one of the primary reasons people slip into poverty. According
to National Sample Survey Office(NSSO) estimates for the year 2011-12, nearly 2.9 million
people slid into poverty every year.
➢ A significant number of people sought either no medical care while sick or availed treatment
from unqualified persons.
➢ One of the reasons citizens did not get the full benefit of the schemes was that these were
not entitlements. Breach or non-availability of services was not tantamount to a violation.
The right to health obligates the government to ensure health services as needed by citizens.
➢ The Act commits the government to provide free OPD (Outpatient Department) and IPD
(Inpatient Department) services including drugs, diagnostics, emergency transport, etc, in
public health facilities.
➢ It guarantees patients the right not to be denied treatment or be given delayed treatment by
any health institution in case of an emergency, as defined in the Act.
➢ The Act covers patients who were admitted to private facilities and failed to make the
required payments post-stabilisation.
➢ It also gives patients the right to have access to their records and itemised bills and to know
the name, professional status, etc., of the health care provider.
36. With reference to India's Bharat 6G Alliance (B6GA), consider the following statements :
1. B6GA is a collaborative platform of Indian industries established to advance the development of
6G technology in the country.
2. Foreign companies incorporated and registered in India are eligible to become corporate members
of the alliance.
3. The vision of B6GA revolves around the principles of Affordability, Sustainability and Ubiquity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Bharat 6G Alliance (B6GA) is a collaborative platform consisting of public and private companies,
academia, research institutions, and standards development organizations. The Department of
Telecommunications has launched Bharat 6G Alliance to drive innovation and collaboration in next-
generation wireless technology. Therefore, B6GA aims to bring together Indian startups, companies, and
the manufacturing ecosystem to establish consortia that drive the design, development and deployment
of 6G technologies in India. So, Statement 1 is correct.

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Foreign companies incorporated and registered in India are not eligible to become a corporate member
of the alliance (but they can become its affiliated member).
The following shall be eligible for admission as Corporate members of the Society:
➢ Domestic companies/entities incorporated and registered and having Headquarters in India, who are
designing or manufacturing products, offering services, developing software/applications or involved
in the testing of technology equipment (including startups, venture capital funds, etc.) and
Government and Government institutions;
➢ Academia and Research & Development entities having Headquarters in India; and
➢ Telecom Service Providers licensed to operate by the Government of India. Corporate Members shall
have the power to elect the Governing Council and to participate in the various Expert
Committees/Working Groups that the Society may constitute.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Bharat 6G Vision is based on principles of Affordability, Sustainability and Ubiquity. It ensures that
India takes its rightful place in the world as a leading supplier of advanced telecom technologies and
solutions that are affordable and contribute to the global good. Thereafter, the efforts of the Department
of Telecommunications, Ministry of Communications in prioritising 6G standardisation have successfully
resulted in adoption of Ubiquitous Connectivity, Ubiquitous Intelligence and Sustainability as key
elements of 6G Technology and have also enhanced India’s position in the International
Telecommunication space. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
INDIA'S BHARAT 6G ALLIANCE (B6GA)
Aims and ➢ To enable India to become a leading global supplier of IP, products and solutions of
Objectives affordable 5G and 6G and other future telecom solutions.
➢ To deploy 6G technologies to act as a powerful force multiplier for India by 2030.
➢ To support and energise Indian participation in standard development
organizations.
➢ To build coalitions with similar 6G Global Alliances and other global technology
alliances and associations.
➢ To address India’s priorities for contribution to 6G and other future technology-
related global standards, deployments, products, operations and services.
➢ To promote the ecosystem for research, design, prototyping, development, proof of
concept testing, IPR creation, field testing, security, certification and
manufacturing of telecom products, end-to-end Solutions, Use-cases, Pilots, inter
alia.
➢ To study and recommend national requirements and enable their inclusion in
Indian and international standardization bodies.
➢ To develop recommendations for Bharat 6G Vision implementation readiness in
India.
➢ To bring together academic institutions, domestic industries, research and
development entities, test labs, Government entities, telecommunication service
providers, technology and innovation start-ups etc. as well as the Government of
India, to help create synergies for a balanced growth of the technology and
innovations ecosystem in the country for the benefit of the common people.
➢ To identify priority areas for research by involving all stakeholders including
industry, academia, and service providers, spanning theoretical and simulation
studies, proof-of concept prototypes and demonstrations, and early market
interventions led by start-ups.

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37. With reference to communications technologies, what is the difference between 5G (fifth-generation)
and 6G (sixth-generation) technology ?
1. 6G offers data speeds almost 100 times faster than 5G.
2. 6G offers better service at a reduced cost compared to 5G.
3. The frequency used by 6G is comparatively lower than that of 5G.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
India is preparing for the arrival of 6G wireless broadband technologies, with commercial deployment
expected around 2030. 6G networks will offer data speeds up to 100 Gbps, almost 100 times faster than
5G, and improved network connectivity. 6G technology is even more advanced than the 5G technology
that claims to deliver a speed of 1Tbps or 8000 Gbps. Additionally, 6G may also connect ten times more
devices per square kilometre as the number of connected devices increases in the upcoming years.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
6G is built upon the infrastructure of 5G and it is hoped that it will accomplish more than 5G in terms
of adoption, reduction of cost, and better service. While 5G provided less than 1ms latency, 6G provides
less than 0.1ms latency. The important areas that will benefit from this technology are the likes of smart
devices and self-driving cars. 6G will also be beneficial to the advancement of Artificial Intelligence and
Machine Learning. Therefore, 6G offers better service at a reduced cost compared to 5G. So, Statement
2 is correct.
6G is the successor to 5G cellular technology. 6G networks will be able to use higher frequencies than
5G networks and provide substantially higher capacity and much lower latency. One of the goals of the
6G internet is to support one microsecond latency communications. The 6G technology market is
expected to facilitate large improvements in the areas of imaging, presence technology and location
awareness.
Therefore, The frequencies used by 6G are comparatively higher than that of 5G. So, Statement 3 is
not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
DIFFERENCE BETWEEN 5G AND 6G
About ➢ 6G technologies are even more advanced than the 5G technology that claims to
deliver a speed of 1Tbps or 8,000 Gbps. For example, users can download 142 hours
of Netflix's high-quality video every second with the 6G network. This network uses
a different spectrum than 5G which allows it to have multiple use cases for a variety
of industrial sectors to enhance their efficiency.
➢ 6G is expected to be 100 times faster than 5G and is likely to offer enhanced
reliability and wider network coverage.
➢ Additionally, 6G may also connect ten times more devices per square kilometre as
the number of connected devices increases in the upcoming years.
➢ Moreover, 4G networks offered a latency of about 50 milliseconds (ms) whereas 5G
networks had ten times lower latency than 4G -- 5ms. In the case of 6G, latency is
expected to come down to a range between 1millisecond to 1microsecond which will
allow huge data transmissions in less than a second.
➢ This upcoming network technology is expected to overcome the shortcomings of the
current networks, improve network design and optimise the network.
➢ Advanced AI systems and powerful edge computing will use 6G to coordinate with
complex systems and develop seamless internet connectivity.

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➢ Tech giants like Google, Apple and Samsung among others are all working on
developing this technology that will replace the 5G network.

38. Consider the following statements :

1. The artificial insemination method, regardless of the use of frozen or fresh semen, is a universally
accepted approach to breeding cattle.
2. The frozen semen has been associated with significantly lower conception rates compared to fresh
semen.
3. Liquid nitrogen is employed for storing frozen semen for extended durations, even at room
temperature.
How many of the above statements are not correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Artificial insemination is the technique in which semen with living sperms is collected from the male and
introduced into female reproductive tract at proper time with the help of instruments.
Regardless of the use of frozen or fresh semen, Artificial insemination (AI) is a globally accepted method
of breeding cattle and is also effective for other species. An estimated worldwide total of 150 million cows
are artificially inseminated, while the number of artificially inseminated females of other species is
uncertain. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The liquid semen was used within the first two days after processing, insignificant differences were found
between the conception rates of cows inseminated with liquid semen and those inseminated with deep-
frozen semen. However, liquid semen seems to achieve higher conception rates if inseminations are
carried out in the early oestrus phase. Using frozen semen, it is found that between five and ten million
progressive motile sperm per insemination are needed in order to ensure optimal fertility rates.
For example, In ewes, fertility results with fresh semen are still superior to those of thawed semen.
Therefore, in sheep, most AI is performed with diluted liquid semen while only a few ewes are inseminated
with frozen semen. Deep-frozen semen is not easy to use, mainly because of three factors:
➢ fertility of deep-frozen semen is about 20 percent lower than that of fresh semen;
➢ the required number of spermatozoa appears to be higher than in fresh semen; and
➢ The technique is more expensive and more complicated (Colas, 1975).
Even when semen was stored for eight hours in a refrigerator, conception rates were significantly lower
with refrigerated semen than fresh semen. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The foremost advantage of Artifical Insemination is that it can be carried out independently of the sire's
presence. Furthermore, it allows an enormous multiplication of outstanding genetic material and serves
as a prophylaxis against spreading venereal diseases. Semen can be stored deep-frozen in liquid nitrogen
(LN2), in a chilled liquid form or at room temperature. In terms of costs, the production of frozen semen
requires a much higher investment in laboratory equipment while the necessary machinery and
instruments incur heavy maintenance costs.
So, Statement 3 is correct.

39. The Silkyara-Barkot tunnel is part of the ambitious Char Dham Pariyojana, under which several
highways and roads are being constructed and widened in which of the following Indian state/Union
territories?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Ladakh
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

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EXPLANATION:
The Silkyara-Barkot tunnel is part of the ambitious Char Dham Pariyojana, under which several
highways and roads are being constructed and widened in Uttarakhand.
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired has given its approval to the construction of 4.531
km long 2-Lane Bi-Directional Silkyara Bend - Barkot Tunnel with escape passage including approaches
on Dharasu-Yamunotri section between Chainage 25.400 Km. and Chainage 51.000 Km in Uttarakhand.
So, Option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
SILKYARA-BARKOT TUNNEL
Recently in Recently, an under-construction Silkyara-Barkot tunnel in Uttarakhand collapsed
News trapping 40 workers inside.
About ➢ The project will be falling along NH-134 (old NH-94) in the State of Uttarakhand.
➢ The project will be built under Engineering, Procurement and Construction (EPC)
Mode.
➢ This is funded under NH (O) Scheme of Ministry of RT&H and forms part of
ambitious Chardham Plan.
➢ The construction of this tunnel will provide all weather connectivity to Yamunotri,
one of the dham on Chardham Yatra, encouraging regional socio-economic
development, trade and tourism within the country.
➢ It will reduce the travel distance from Dharasu to Yamunotri by about 20 km and
travel time by about an hour. The proposed tunnel will save number of trees that
would have been required to be removed in the road improvement of 25.600 km,
had the original alignment been followed.
➢ The project will be implemented by the Ministry of Road Transport & Highways
(MoRTH), through National Highways & Infrastructure Development Corporation
Ltd. (NHIDCL), a wholly state owned company, formed in 2014 for development of
highways in states on the international borders.

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40. Consider the following:
1. International Container Transshipment port
2. Dual-use military-civil international airport
3. Dedicated Freight corridor
4. Township and area development
5. Power plant
6. Textile mega parks
How many of the facilities/amenities mentioned above are planned to be built under the Great Nicobar
Project?
(a) Only three
(b) Only four
(c) Only five
(d) All six
EXPLANATION:
The Ministry of Environment & Forests (MoEF) has approved a mega project worth `72,000 crore for the
"holistic development" of Great Nicobar. To be implemented over the next 30 years, the project involves
developing an
➢ International Container Transshipment Terminal (ICTT). So, Statement 1 is correct.
➢ A Greenfield International Airport. The proposed airport will be a joint military-civil, dual-use airport.
It will be under the Indian Navy's operational control. So, Statement 2 is correct.
➢ A township and area development. So, Statement 4 is correct.
➢ A solar-based power plant. So, Statement 5 is correct.
These would be spread across 166 sq km of the 910 sq km island. The project was conceptualised by
NITI Aayog and overseen by the Home Ministry. It involves a Union territory that will change the remote,
secluded island to a global tourism and shipping hub.

Ministry of Railways has taken up construction of two Dedicated Freight Corridors (DFC), viz. Eastern
Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC) from Ludhiana to Sonnagar (1337 Km) and the Western Dedicated
Freight Corridor (WDFC) from Jawaharlal Nehru Port Terminal (JNPT) to Dadri (1506 Kms). 861 Km on
EDFC and 863 Km on WDFC have been completed.
Dedicated Freight Corridors will promote industrial activities and the development of new industrial hubs
and townships. National Industrial Corridor Corporation (NICDC) under the Ministry of Commerce is

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implementing a number of projects along the corridor for the development of Integrated Industrial
Townships. However, Dedicated Freight Corridors are not a proposed facility under the Great Nicobar
Project. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
Textile mega parks are proposed under the PM MITRA (Pradhan Mantri Mega Integrated Textile Region
and Apparel) scheme. PM MITRA Parks will help in creating world-class industrial infrastructure that
would attract large-scale investment, including foreign direct investment (FDI) and encourage innovation
and job creation within the sector. The Ministry of Textiles will oversee the execution of these projects.
Textile mega parks are not a proposed facility under the Great Nicobar Project.
So, Statement 6 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
THE GREAT NICOBAR PROJECT
Recently in Recently, Union Minister of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW) visits Galathea
News Bay in Great Nicobar Island and reviews the progress of proposed International
Container Transhipment Port (ICTP).
About ➢ As envisaged in the Maritime India Vision 2030, as well as one of the key projects in
the Amrit Kaal Vision 2047, the proposed International Container Transhipment Port
(ICTP) project has reached significant milestones, solidifying its position as a
transformative initiative with a total estimated cost of about ₹44,000 Crores.
➢ The project is strategically important for the country and crucial for the economic
and infrastructural development of the entire region, has garnered key approvals and
support from government bodies.
➢ The development of this Mega Container Terminal is a part of the holistic development
of Great Nicobar Island.
➢ The project focuses on three key drivers, which can result in making it a leading
container transshipment port, i.e.
• Strategic location in terms of proximity (40 nautical miles) with the International
shipping trade route,
• Availability of natural water depth of over 20m and
• Carrying capacity of transshipment cargo from all the Ports in the proximity including
Indian Ports.

41. Which one of the following rivers flows through the Jim Corbett National Park?
(a) Ramganga river
(b) Alaknanda River
(c) Bhagirathi river
(d) Yamuna river
EXPLANATION:
The Jim Corbett National Park is a part of the largest Corbett Tiger Reserve; the Project Tiger lies in the
Nainital district of Uttarakhand. The Majestic landscape of Corbett is well-known for its tiger richness.
It was established in 1936 as Hailey National Park, Corbett has the glory of being India’s oldest and most
prestigious National Park. It is also being honoured as the place where Project Tiger was first launched
in the year 1973.
The Ramganga River (West), along with its significant tributaries Sonanadi, Palain, and Mandal, forms
the prominent hydrological resource for the Corbett. Ramganga River is the lifeline for Corbett National
Park. It is the largest of all the precious water bodies in the park. The park was named Ramganga
National Park for a brief period from 1954-1957 before it was named Corbett National Park. The river is
fed by rain and originates from the Gairsain region in the Lesser Himalayas. Approximately it flows 40
km east to west inside the park till Kalagarh, where it meets the plains.

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The river Kosi also flows by the national park and serves as a significant water resource for the nearby
area. The major portion of the Corbett Wild is situated on the bank of River Kosi. Therefore, the Ramganga
River flows through the Jim Corbett National Park.
So, Option (a) is correct.

Originating in the Indian state of Uttarakhand, the Alaknanda is a Himalayan River and one of the two
headstreams of the river Ganga. The Alaknanda River emerges from the meeting point of two famous
glaciers in the Uttarakhand- the Satopanth and Bhagirath Kharak. The river length is 190 Km.
Alaknanda meets Dhauliganga River at Vishnuprayag, Nandakini river at Nandaprayag, Pindi river at
Karnaprayag, Mandakini River at Rudraprayag. Then, it meets the Bhagirathi River at Devprayag, where
it officially becomes the Ganga River. Alaknanda River does not flow across Jim Corbett National Park.
So, Option (b) is not correct.
The Bhagirathi River is a Himalayan River which flows in Uttarakhand state. It is one of the two
headstreams of the pious Ganga River. The river has a length of 205 km. The headwaters of the
Bhagirathi River are formed at Gaumukh, at the foot of the Gangotri glacier and Khatling glaciers in the
Garhwal Himalaya. Bhilangna, which is the major tributary of the Bhagirathi River, rises at the foot of
the Khatling Glacier. The Bhilangna River flows about 205 km from its source before meeting the
Alaknanada River in Devprayag. The Bhagirathi River does not flow across Jim Corbett National Park.
So, Option (c) is not correct.
Yamuna River (also known as Jumna) is the major tributary of the Ganges River. The 1,376 km long
Yamuna flows solely through India, crossing three states: Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Haryana. The
Yamuna also flows part of the border between the states of Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand and later
on its course between the states of Haryana and Uttar Pradesh. The Yamuna rises in the high Himalayas
in the Yamunotri Glacier. It then flows onto the North Indian Plain, describing a broad arc convex to the
southwest along its course. The Yamuna joins the Ganges in Triveni Sangam, Allahabad.
The Chambal River is Yamuna’s biggest tributary on the right. Other important tributaries of the
Yamuna include the Hindon, Sarda and Giri rivers on the right and Betwa and Sindh on the left. River
Yamuna does not flow across Jim Corbett National Park. So, Option (d) is not correct.

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42. Consider the following statements with respect to the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana:
1. The scheme provides insurance coverage to agricultural crops and horticultural crops, including
oilseeds.
2. The premium to be paid by farmers is fixed at just 1.5% of the sum insured for rabi crops and 2%
for kharif crops.
3. All small and marginal land-holding farmers throughout the country can avail of this benefit.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) will provide a comprehensive insurance cover against the
failure of the crop, thus helping in stabilising the income of the farmers and encouraging them to adopt
innovative practices. The Scheme will cover all Food & Oilseeds crops and Annual
Commercial/Horticultural Crops for which past yield data is available and for which the requisite number
of Crop Cutting Experiments (CCEs) will be conducted being a part of the General Crop Estimation Survey
(GCES). So, Statement 1 is correct.
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The Maximum Premium payable by the farmers will be 2% for all Kharif Food & Oilseeds crops, 1.5% for
Rabi Food & Oilseeds crops and 5% for Annual Commercial/Horticultural Crops. So, Statement 2 is
correct.
The scheme is compulsory for loanee farmers to obtain a Crop Loan /Kishan Credit Card (KCC) account
for notified crops. However, voluntary for other/non-loanee farmers who have insurable interest in the
insured crop(s).
Every farmer, including sharecroppers and tenant farmers growing the notified crops, is eligible for
insurance coverage under this scheme. All farmers can obtain voluntary coverage, including Crop Loan
Account or Crop Kisan Credit Card (KCC) holders whose credit limit is not renewed.
Since inception of the scheme in 2016-17, 27 States/Union Territories (UTs) implemented the scheme in
one or more seasons. At present, States of Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Andaman & Nicobar Islands,
Chhattisgarh, Goa, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Manipur, Meghalaya, Odisha, Puducherry, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tripura, Tamil
Nadu, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand are implementing the scheme.
Therefore, All the farmers, including small and marginal land-holding farmers can avail of this benefit.
So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PRADHAN MANTRI FASAL BIMA YOJANA (PMFBY)
About ➢ PMFBY was launched in 2016 in order to provide a simple and affordable crop
insurance product to ensure comprehensive risk cover for crops to farmers against
all non-preventable natural risks from pre-sowing to post-harvest and to provide
adequate claim amounts.
➢ The scheme is demand-driven and available for all farmers.
➢ The Scheme shall be implemented through a multi-agency framework by selected
insurance companies under the overall guidance & control of the Department of
Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Welfare (DAC&FW), Ministry of Agriculture &
Farmers Welfare (MoA&FW), Government of India (GOI) and the concerned State in
coordination with various other agencies.
➢ The Scheme shall be implemented on an ‘Area Approach basis’. The unit of insurance
shall be Village/Village Panchayat level for major crops, and for other crops, it may
be a unit of size above the level of Village/Village Panchayat.
➢ In case the majority of insured crops of a notified area are prevented from
sowing/planting the insured crops due to adverse weather conditions, they will be
eligible for indemnity claims up to a maximum of 25% of the sum insured.
➢ However, losses due to localised perils (Hailstorm, landslide & inundation) and Post-
Harvest losses due to specified perils (Cyclone/Cyclonic rain & Unseasonal rains)
shall be assessed at the affected insured field of the individual insured farmer.
➢ Three levels of Indemnity, viz., 70%, 80% and 90%, corresponding to crop Risk in the
areas shall be available for all crops.
➢ The Threshold Yield (TY) shall be the benchmark yield level at which Insurance
protection shall be given to all the insured farmers in an Insurance Unit Threshold
of the notified crop will be the moving average of yield of the last seven years,
excluding yield up to two notified calamity years multiplied by Indemnity level.

43. Which of the following temples was built by Hoysala king Vishnuvardhana to mark his victories
against the Cholas?
(a) Chennakeshava temple in Belur
(b) Hoysaleswara Temple in Halebidu
(c) Keshava Temple in Somanathapura
(d) Srimukhalingam temple at Srikakulam
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EXPLANATION:
The Chennakeshava temple, dedicated to Lord Vishnu, was consecrated around 1117 AD by the mighty
Hoysala king Vishnuvardhana to mark his victories against the Cholas. It is thus also called the Vijaya
Narayana temple. It has been recently inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage site.
The Hoysalas used soft soapstone for their structures as they were found suitable for intricate carvings.
Enclosed by a Prakara with a Gopura built in the Vijayanagar style, the temple stands on a platform or
Jagati and looks like a huge casket. The Chennakesava temple is a fine example of a quality work of art
in stone. There are more than 80 Madanika sculptures in the temple, dancing, hunting, standing under
canopies of trees and so on. The 4 Madanika figures (striking elegant dancing poses) on the wonderfully
engraved columns of Navaranga are unique creations of Hoysala artistry. So, Option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
OTHER IMPORTANT TEMPLES
Recently in Three Hoysala temples of Karnataka are inscribed as UNESCO World Heritage sites.
News
About ➢ The Hoysala temples, namely, the Chennakeshava temple in Belur, the
Hoysaleswara temple in Halebidu and the Kesava temple in Somanathapura in
Karnataka, were declared UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
➢ They will bring global recognition with prospects of an increase in international
tourism to these places.
➢ The Archaeological Survey of India protects all three temples, and the
nominations were entered as ‘The Sacred Ensembles of Hoysalas.’
➢ The Hoysala temples are known for evolving a distinct style that is ornate with
temple architecture following a stellate plan built on a raised platform.
Hoysaleswara ➢ The Hoysaleswara temple in Halebidu is believed to be the largest Shiva temple
Temple in built by the Hoysalas and is dated to the 12th century.
Halebidu ➢ Its base consists of 8 rows of friezes carved with elephants, lions, horses and
floral scrolls.
➢ Its walls are adorned with intricately carved Hindu deities, sages, stylised
animals, birds and a frieze depicting the life of Hoysala kings.
➢ Imagery from epics like the Ramayana, Mahabharatha and Bhagavad Gita adorn
the outer walls with highly ornate temple doorways. It is believed that no other
temple in the country captures the Indian epics as elegantly as Hoysaleswara
Temple.
➢ The Nandimantapa is positioned right in front of the temple, wherein there is a
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huge Nandi richly decorated with stone ornaments.

44. Consider the following pairs :

Tradition State
1. Sao Joao festival - Sikkim
2. Gulabi Minakari - Manipur
3. Shumang Leela - Meghalaya
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Recently, Goa tourism department extended its support to the two events, Chikal Kalo in Marcel and Sao
Joao in a bid to highlight local cultures.
The Sao Joao Festival is an annual Catholic religious festival celebrated on June 24th in Goa, India (not
in the state of Sikkim). It's a vibrant celebration of the birth of St. John the Baptist who leapt with joy at
his mother Elizabeth's womb when she was told of the birth of Christ. The festival is marked by young
men jumping into wells to retrieve gifts thrown in by the villagers. So, Pair (1) is not correct.

Gulabi Minakari is a rare and beautiful form of enamelling practiced in the city of Varanasi, India (not
in the state of Manipur). The word "Gulabi" means "pink" in Hindi, and this is the dominant color used
in this art form. The art form is given the Geographical Indications (GI) tag for its beauty and uniqueness.
In this art, the artisans colour or decorate a metal surface by attaching or fusing pieces of different
mineral substances over it. The metal used is called ‘chitras’.

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Often considered the most alluring and technical of all metal decorations, the Gulabi meenakari was
earlier done on gold which is widely replaced by silver and copper primarily.
So, Pair (2) is not correct.

Recently, it was argued that many Shumang Leela performers have turned to construction work,
blacksmithing, and driving taxis or auto-rickshaws.
Shumang Leela is a vibrant traditional theatre form originating from Manipur, a state in Northeast India
(not in the state of Meghalaya). The name translates to "courtyard performance" in Meitei language.
Shumang Leela is a significant part of Manipuri culture and continues to be an important platform for
social commentary and artistic expression. So, Pair (3) is not correct.

45. Dogra architecture is an architectural style associated with the buildings and structures constructed
during the rule of the Dogra Hindu kings in which of the following regions?
(a) Odisha
(b) Assam
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Rajasthan

EXPLANATION:
Dogra architecture is an architectural style associated with the buildings and structures constructed
during the rule of the Dogra Hindu kings in the Jammu and Kashmir region.
Dogra dynasty in the Kashmir region of the northwestern Indian subcontinent form the chief, or main,
portion of Rajputs of the territory centred on Jammu. They attained prominence in the 19th century.
The Dogra rulers of Jammu also built a number of forts and palaces in the Jammu region, the prominent
among them being the Akhnoor and Ramnagar forts. The mural paintings in Sheesh Mahal, Ramnagar,
represent the exemplary Dogra style of the 19th century CE. So, Option (c) is correct.

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46. Consider the following statements with respect to the fortified town of Tughladabad:
1. Muhammad Bin Tughluq built the fortified town of Tughluqabad.
2. The fort retains some of the characteristics of Khalji architecture with a slightly-pointed Tartar
dome.
3. The distinguishing feature of the fort is the absence of a citadel and palaces.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The Tughlaq Dynasty, which ruled a large part of India from Delhi, enjoyed the prowess of three
prominent rulers: Ghiasuddin Tughlaq, his son Muhammad bin Tughlaq, and his nephew Firoz Shah
Tughlaq.
Ghiasuddin Tughlaq (not Muhammad Bin Tughluq) built the fortified town of Tughlaqabad, the third city
of Delhi. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Tughluqabad was raised as a stronghold rather than as an architectural enterprise. It is distinctly divided
into three parts: the wider city area, originally built along a rectangular grid towards the north, the
citadel, and the adjacent palace that once held the royal residences, towards the southwest. Thus, there
is the presence of a citadel and palaces. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Across the main entrance of Tughluqabad on the south is Ghiasuddin Tughlaq’s tomb. Faced with red
sandstone relieved by marble and with batter on the exterior, it is enclosed within high walls, forming an
irregular pentagon. With a ‘spearhead’ fringe on the underside of its arched openings on three sides and
its colour scheme, it still retains some of the characteristics of Khalji architecture.
But its arch, with an ogee curve at the apex recalling the ‘Tudor’ arch, a slightly-pointed ‘Tartar’ dome,
and the use of beam-and-arch for openings are new features. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ARCHITECTURE OF THE TUGHLAQS
About ➢ A significant feature of Tughlaq architecture is the use of grey quartzite, which is
abundant and easily quarried in and around Delhi.
➢ It provided a strong and popular building material, but it was also hard and notoriously
difficult to carve.
➢ The Tughlaqs, who were more keen on quickly building their forts rather than focussing
on beauty, were happy to use quartzite.
➢ Perhaps that explains why Tughlaq buildings are often of plain, solid grey stone
(sometimes with the original outer plaster still to be seen), and more practical than pretty.
➢ Tughlaq architecture is not devoid of ornamentation, and it reflects a step in the evolution
of Indo-Islamic architecture: the blending of indigenous elements with elements imported

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from Central Asia. For example, a door lintel was used in India to shore up a doorway;
the true arch in Central Asia performed the same function.
➢ Similarly, indigenous elements like the Kalash (a small round pot) and carved lotus buds
had become common.

47. ‘Channapatna’, ‘Kondapalli’ and ‘Tanjore towns’ are known for which of the following?
(a) Fort cities of South India
(b) Toy making industry
(c) Shrines of Jain Tirthankaras
(d) Temple architecture
EXPLANATION:
It is believed that the existence of toys and dolls in India dates back to the civilization of Indus, around
5000 years ago.
Channapatna toys & dolls are made of wood and mostly manufactured in the town of Channapatna near
Bangalore. It is said that some pieces of Channapatna Toys are found even in the White House of America.
The traditional making process of these toys used to be done with the locally found glazy ivory woods of
‘Aale Mara’, which is also known as Wrightia tinctoria. Channapatna is also called ‘Toy Town’ or locally
‘Gombegala Ooru’.

Kondapalli is a town in the Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh. The city has a 400-year-old toy-making
tradition passed from generation to generation. These toys are made with softwood from the Tella Poniki
tree, which the skilled artisans craft into toys based on many themes, especially Indian
mythology. Artisans paint the toys or figurines with soft and thin brushes dipped in water or oil colours.
The toys showcase animals, life scenes, rural folks, gods and characters from epics. Soldiers, Ambari
elephants, Dasavatar sets and pen stands are some of the more popular items.
The iconic Thanjavur doll comes from the Thanjavur district, Tamil Nadu. The craft of the doll is an
ancient skill where few or no tools are used to handcraft the figurines. The unique feature of the
Thanjavur Doll is that it is a combination of roly-poly and bobblehead dolls. Bobblehead dolls have a
head larger than the body, and when hit, roly-poly dolls bounce back and forth but come back into a
standing position. The craft of the Thanjavur Doll or as it is called in Tamil — Thanjavur thalayatti
bommai (Thanjavur head-shaking doll) dates to the early 19th century Kingdom of King Saboji. The
heritage doll is traditionally made with terracotta and cast as a pair of king and queen in a doll-like
semblance, which symbolizes the dynasties that ruled Thanjavur. The dolls are also made with wood
pulp, plaster of Paris, marble, alabaster, and papier-mache. Therefore, Channapatna, Kondapalli and
Tanjore towns are known for Toy making Industry. So, Option (b) is correct.

48. With reference to Minicoy Island, consider the following statements:

1. It is located very close to the nine-degree channel that separates the Union Territory of
Lakshadweep from Minicoy.
2. Recently, the Indian Navy commissioned its first naval base in Lakshadweep at Minicoy Island.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
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(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The Minicoy Island is the second largest and the southern-most island of Lakshadweep, situated at a
distance of 398 km south-west of Kochi between 8° 15′ and 8° 20′ N latitude and 73° 01′ and 73° OS’ E
longitude, having an area of 4.80 Sq km. This island lies near the 9 degree Channel, which is one of the
busiest shipping routes and is about 130 km from the northern-most island of Maldives.
Lakshadweep island group is separated from Maldives by the Eight Degree Channel. The 9 degree
channel separates Lakshadweep and Minicoy.
Therefore, Minicoy island is located very close to the nine-degree channel that separates the Union
Territory of Lakshadweep from Minicoy. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Recently, The Indian Navy commissioned INS Jatayu at Minicoy Island in the Lakshadweep Islands, its
second base in Lakshadweep after INS Dweeprakshak in Kavaratti. INS Jatayu is an upgraded naval
base, marking an important milestone in the Navy's efforts to augment security infrastructure at the
strategic Lakshadweep Islands. While India has had a naval detachment in Minicoy since the 1980s, INS
Jatayu will effectively be the country's second naval base in Lakshadweep.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.

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49. The term ‘BioTRIG,’ recently seen in the news, is related to :
(a) Next-generation DNA sequencing process
(b) Novel pollutant that triggers the human immune system
(c) Waste management technology based on pyrolysis
(d) Unusual life forms at the boundary between the living and the non-living
EXPLANATION:
Next-generation sequencing (NGS) is a new technology used for DNA and RNA sequencing and
variant/mutation detection. NGS can sequence hundreds and thousands of genes or whole genome in a
short period of time. The sequence variants/mutations detected by NGS have been widely used for
disease diagnosis, prognosis, therapeutic decision, and follow up of patients. The capacity of its massive
parallel sequencing offers new opportunities for personalized precision medicine.
For example, DNA NGS involves DNA fragmentation, library preparation, massive parallel sequencing,
bioinformatics analysis, and variant/mutation annotation and interpretation. Therefore, BioTRIG is not
associated with Next-generation DNA sequencing process. So, Option (a) is not correct.
A novel pollutant is any substance or energy introduced into the environment that is relatively new and
has undesired effects. These effects can be harmful to human health, wildlife, or the overall environment.
Unlike traditional pollutants, which may have established regulations and monitoring in place, novel
pollutants are often not well understood and can pose challenges for mitigation.
Nanoparticles, Microplastics, Pharmaceuticals and personal care products, Forever chemicals etc., are
some of the other emerging pollutants that have the potential to trigger the immune system. Therefore,
BioTRIG is not associated with novel pollutants. So, Option (b) is not correct.
‘BioTRIG’ is a new waste management technology that allows pyrolysis at a community level could help
rural Indians cut indoor air pollution, improve soil health, and generate clean power. It is designed to
utilize agricultural waste to produce bioenergy. Computer simulations have projected that the BioTRIG
system could significantly reduce greenhouse gas emissions by nearly 350 kilograms of carbon dioxide
equivalent per capita per annum, signaling a substantial positive impact on climate emissions and public
health. This innovative approach not only addresses environmental concerns but also offers economic
viability for the communities living below the poverty line. So, Option (c) is correct.
For nearly seven decades since their discovery in 1898, viruses were the only organisms at the boundary
between the living and the non-living. Their obligate host dependence, parasitism, and small genome
sizes collectively. Each virion is composed of a nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) core that serves as the genetic
material, surrounded by a protein coat, and, in some cases, a lipid (fat) layer outside that coat. Viruses’
life cycle is simple: they infect a host cell, use the cell’s machinery to make more copies of themselves,
and then infect a new cell to repeat the cycle.
When analysing genetic material from bacteria present in the human gut, the scientists identified a new
form of life lying between viruses and viroids on the scale of simplicity. They called them ‘obelisks’.
Obelisks comprise a class of diverse RNAs that have colonized, and gone unnoticed in, human, and global
microbiomes. Named after the highly-symmetrical, rod-like structures formed by its twisted lengths of
RNA, the Obelisks' genetic sequences are only around 1,000 characters (nucleotides) in size. BioTRIG is
not associated with Obelisks. . So, Option (d) is not correct.

50. Consider the following statements with respect to the United Nations Relief and Works Agency for
Palestine Refugees (UNRWA):
1. It was established by the United Nations General Assembly as its subsidiary organ after the Israel-
Gaza war.
2. UNRWA services include education, healthcare, relief and social services to Palestine refugees.
3. The majority of financing is provided by voluntary contributions, with the United States being the
largest contributor.
4. The agency operates in Gaza, Lebanon, Syria, and Jordan.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
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(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
The United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees in the West Asia (UNRWA) was
established as a subsidiary organ of the United Nations General Assembly on December 8 1949 and
became operational on May 1 1950. The operational definition of Palestine refugees is people whose
normal place of residence was Palestine between June 1946 and May 1948 and who lost both their homes
and means of livelihood as a result of the 1948 Arab-Israeli conflict (Not the Israel-Gaza war). So,
Statement 1 is not correct.
UNRWA is mandated to provide assistance and protection to a population of some five million registered
Palestine refugees. Its mission is to help Palestine refugees in Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, the West Bank,
and the Gaza Strip to achieve their full potential in human development pending a just solution to their
plight.
UNRWA’s services encompass education, health care, relief and social services, camp infrastructure and
improvement, microfinance, and emergency assistance. So, Statements 2 and 4 are correct.
UNRWA is funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions. The only exception is a very limited subsidy
from the Regular Budget of the United Nations, which is used exclusively for administrative costs. The
work of UNRWA could not be carried out without sustained contributions from state and regional
governments, the European Union and other government partners, which represented 94.9 per cent of
all contributions in 2022.
In 2022, 44.3 per cent of the Agency’s total pledges of US$ 1.17 billion came from EU member states,
who contributed US$ 520.3 million, including through the European Commission. The United States,
Germany, the EU, and Sweden were the largest individual donors, contributing a cumulative 61.4 per
cent of the Agency’s overall funding. Therefore, almost all funding comes from voluntary contributions,
with the USA being the largest contributor. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
UNITED NATIONS RELIEF AND WORKS AGENCY FOR PALESTINE REFUGEES (UNRWA)
Recently in News Seventeen countries suspended their payments to the UNRWA after a dozen
employees were removed from their posts due to their alleged involvement in the
October 7 attack (Israel-Palestine war).
About ➢ Palestine refugees registered with the Agency are eligible to access its services
within the UNRWA areas of operations (Lebanon, Jordan, Syria, the West
Bank, including East Jerusalem and the Gaza Strip).
➢ UNRWA basic education and primary healthcare services are accessible to all
Palestine refugees who seek them in UNRWA fields of operations. In contrast,
other services like cash and food assistance or hospitalization support are
provided based on eligibility criteria, which target those most in need.
➢ The Agency is not responsible for security or law and order in refugee camps
and has no police force or intelligence service. The responsibility for ensuring
the physical security of Palestine refugees residing in the Agency’s fields of
operations falls within the sovereignty and sole responsibility of the respective
host government.
➢ UNHCR does not have a mandate over Palestine refugees within the UNRWA
fields of operations. In 1949, the UN General Assembly established two
different UN refugee agencies – the UN Office of the High Commissioner for
Refugees (UNHCR) and the United Nations Relief and Works Agency for
Palestine Refugees in the Near East (UNRWA) – to respond to distinct refugee
crises.

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➢ Unlike UNHCR, UNRWA does not have a mandate to resettle Palestine
refugees and has no authority to seek lasting, durable solutions for refugees.
The UN General Assembly mandates UNRWA to provide services to Palestine
refugees in five fields of operations, pending a just and lasting solution to
their plight. Palestine refugees within the Agency’s fields of operations are
excluded from the mandate of UNHCR, which has a resettlement mandate.
However, according to UNHCR, less than 1 per cent of refugees are resettled
each year.

51. Consider the following statements with respect to the Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA):
1. GRCA was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference COP28.
2. The National Mission for Clean Ganga implements the program for river conservation and
sustainable water management in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The Global River Cities Alliance (GRCA) was launched at COP28, the United Nations Climate Change
Conference in Dubai, United Arab Emirates. It is a unique alliance covering 275+ global river cities in 11
countries, international funding agencies and knowledge management partners. It is the first of its kind
in the world. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), which implements the government’s flagship Namami
Gange programme under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, the Government of India has launched the Global
River Cities Alliance (GRCA).
The launch of GRCA signifies a momentous step in global efforts toward river conservation and
sustainable water management. Following this, partner countries are poised to coordinate post-COP
activities, shaping the architecture of GRCA for effective implementation. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
GLOBAL RIVER CITIES ALLIANCE (GRCA)
Recently in Recently, India-led Global River Cities Alliance launched at COP28.
News
About ➢ Countries namely India, Egypt, Netherlands, Denmark, Ghana, Australia, Bhutan,
Cambodia, Japan and river-cities of The Hague (Den Haag) from the Netherlands,
Adelaide from Australia, and Szolnok of Hungary and International funding agencies
like the World Bank, Asian Development Bank (ADB), Asian Infrastructure
Investment Bank (AIIB) enters into a partnership, widely expanding the reach of the
existing River Cities Alliance (RCA) in association with National Institute of Urban
Affairs (NIUA).
➢ The River Cities Alliance (RCA) was launched in 2021 to foster the sustainable
development of river cities.
➢ RCA has emerged as a catalyst for key frameworks for sustainable urban river
management. It has received recognition and appreciation from international
stakeholders.
➢ The visionary goal of globalizing the RCA by integrating urban water management
into Urban Planning serves as a monumental stride in global endeavors against
climate change.

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52. The ”Economic Activity Index” is released by which of the following?
(a) Niti Aayog
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) World Bank
EXPLANATION:
Economic Activity Index for India is released by the Reserve Bank of India, constructed from 27 monthly
indicators using a dynamic factor model suggests that the economy rebounded sharply from May/June
2020 with the reopening of the economy, with industry normalising faster than contact-intensive service
sectors. The index tracks GDP dynamics closely. RBI’s Economic Activity Index (EAI) has nowcast GDP
growth for Q3 (October-December) FY24 at 7 percent. So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ECONOMIC ACTIVITY INDEX
Key findings ➢ RBI’s economic activity index nowcasts Q3 growth at 7%.
➢ This is higher than the real GDP growth projection of 6.5 per cent for Q3 FY24
made in the Governor’s December 2023 monetary policy statement.
➢ In India, economic activity remained resilient on the back of robust domestic
demand, notwithstanding the external headwinds.
➢ The authors noted that the Indian economy recorded stronger than expected
growth in 2023-24, underpinned by a shift from consumption to investment.
➢ Further, the government’s thrust on capex is starting to crowd-in private
investment.
➢ Headline inflation recorded a marginal uptick in December to 5.7 per cent (from
5.6 per cent in November), driven by higher food inflation due to unfavourable
base effects.
➢ Private consumption, which accounts for 57 per cent of GDP, languished in the
backwash of the slow but steady revival of the rural economy.

53. Consider the following statements with respect to the International Sugar Organization:
1. It was established under the International Sugar Agreement of 1968.
2. It is headquartered in New Delhi.
3. India was chosen as the chair of the organisation for the year 2024.
4. All the Members of the BRICS grouping are also part of this organisation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
The International Sugar Organization is a unique intergovernmental body devoted to improving
conditions in the world's sugar market through Debate, Analysis, Special Studies, Transparent Statistics,
Seminars, Conferences and Workshops.
The lnternational Sugar Organization established under the International Sugar Agreement, 1968, and
maintained in existence under the International Sugar agreements, 1973, 1977, 1984 and 1987, shall
continue in being for the purpose of administering this Agreement and supervising its operation, with
the membership, powers and functions set out in this Agreement. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The headquarters of the Organization shall be in London (not Delhi) unless the Council decides otherwise
by special vote. The Organization shall function through the International Sugar Council, its
Administrative Committee and its Executive Director and staff. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

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In its 63rd council meeting, the International Sugar Organisation (ISO) has announced India to be the
Chair of the organization for 2024. This is a huge achievement for the country to lead the global sugar
sector and a reflection of the growing stature of the country in this domain. So, Statement 3 is
correct.
BRICS nations include Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. The grouping of BRICS has
become a 10-nation body now, with Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates
joining it as new members in January 2024. Among the BRICS nations, China is not a member of the
International Sugar Organization. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
INTERNATIONAL SUGAR ORGANIZATION
Recently in Recently, India becomes Chair of the International Sugar Organisation (ISO) for 2024 to
News lead the global sugar sector.
About ➢ India has been the largest consumer and second-largest producer of sugar in the
world.
➢ With about 15% share in global sugar consumption and about 20% production of
sugar, Indian sugar trends affect the global markets profusely.
➢ This leading position makes India the most suitable nation to lead the International
Sugar Organisation (ISO), which is the apex international body on sugar and related
products, having about 90 countries as members.
➢ With Brazil in the Western Hemisphere, India is the market leader in the Eastern
Hemisphere for the sugar market.
➢ Now, being the 3rd largest country in the world in ethanol production after the USA
and Brazil, India has shown commitment towards green energy and its capability to
twist the challenges of surplus sugar in the domestic market to the solution of fossil
fuels imports and a tool to meet COP 26 targets for India.
➢ Remarkably, the ethanol blending percentage in India has increased from 5% in 2019-
20 to 12% in 2022-23.
➢ The Indian sugar industry has come a long way in modernization and expansion as
well as in diversification to exploit of potential of its by-products to generate additional
revenue streams to make the whole business model both sustainable and profitable.

54. Which of the following is the objective of the National Creche Scheme?
(a) Provides safe and conveniently located accommodation for working women.
(b) Provide nutritional support to school girls in the age group of 11-14 years.
(c) Provide rehabilitation to women who are victims of difficult circumstances.
(d) Provide day-care facilities for children in the age group of 6 months to 6 years of working
mothers.
EXPLANATION:
The objective of the Working Women Hostel scheme is to promote the availability of safe and conveniently
located accommodation for working women, with daycare facilities for their children, wherever possible,
in urban, semi-urban, or even rural areas where employment opportunities for women exist. Thus,
Providing safe and conveniently located accommodation for working women is an objective of the Working
Women Hostel Scheme (not the National Creche Scheme). So, Option (a) is not correct.
Scheme for Adolescent Girls (SAG), a centrally-sponsored scheme aimed at providing nutritional support
to out-of-school girls in the age group of 11-14 years to improve their health and nutritional status and
motivated them to go back to formal schooling, provided life skill training, accessing public services etc.
Thus, providing nutritional support to school girls in the age group of 11-14 years is an objective of the
Scheme for Adolescent Girls (not the National Creche Scheme). So, Option (b) is not correct.

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The Ministry of Women and Child Development is implementing the Swadhar Greh Scheme, which
targets women victims of difficult circumstances who are in need of institutional support for
rehabilitation so that they can lead their lives with dignity. Thus, Providing rehabilitation to women who
are victims of difficult circumstances is an objective of the Swadhar Greh Scheme (not the National
Creche Scheme). So, Option (c) is not correct.
National Creche Scheme (earlier named as Rajiv Gandhi National Creche Scheme) is being implemented
as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme through States and Union Territories. A creche is a facility which
enables parents to leave their children while they are at work and where children are provided stimulating
environment for their holistic development.
The objective of the National Creche Scheme includes,
➢ To provide daycare facilities for children (6 months to 6 years) of working mothers in the community.
So, Option (d) is correct.
➢ To improve the nutrition and health status of children.
➢ To promote physical, cognitive, social and emotional development (Holistic Development) of children.
➢ To educate and empower parents /caregivers for better childcare.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
NATIONAL CRECHE SCHEME
Recently in Recently, the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) has registered an FIR of cheating and
News criminal breach of trust in connection with the alleged financial irregularities in the
running of the Rajiv Gandhi National Creche Scheme in which the Indian Council for
Child Welfare (ICCW) was one of the implementing agencies.
About ➢ Several policies between 1986 and 2005 recognised the need for childcare,
culminating in the Rajiv Gandhi National Crèche Scheme for the Children of Working
Mothers (RGNCS) in 2006.
➢ The Union Government has since reformulated the framework twice.
• In 2017, when RGNCS was discontinued and implemented as the centrally-sponsored
‘National Crèche Scheme’ (NCS).
• In 2022, when the NCS was revised and subsumed as part of the ‘Palna’ scheme
under Mission Shakti, “to provide daycare facilities for children (six months to six
years) of working mothers and to improve nutrition and health status of children.”
➢ The National Creche Scheme falls under the umbrella of Integrated Child
Development Services (ICDS) under the Ministry of Women and Child Development
(MWCD).
➢ Per the revised policy, 60% of funding comes from the Union Government, 30% from
State Government and 10% from individual NGOs. State Governments were made
responsible for making, enforcing and monitoring the relevant rules.
Facilities ➢ The scheme provides support to women of low-income groups who go to work at least
under the 15 days a month or six months a year.
Scheme ➢ They can avail of crèche facilities available for 7.5 hours a day, 26 days a month.
➢ The subsidised facilities charge ₹20 a month per child for families below the poverty
line and between ₹100-200 for other families.
➢ Each creche is required to provide “holistic development of children,” a space tasked
with providing quality nutrition, sleep, education and “stimulation” activities.
➢ A creche of 25 children, say, should at least have one creche worker, helper and
doctor, the NCS guidelines note.

55. Recently, the Government of India launched a Central Sector Scheme for providing drones to Women
Self Help Groups. Consider the following statements with respect to the scheme:
1. Central financial assistance is provided for 80% of the cost of the drone or a maximum of eight
lakhs.
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2. Women Self Help Group shall apply for a loan from the National Agriculture Infra Financing
Facility to purchase drones.
3. Drone pilot training facilities are provided along with the supply of drones.
4. Women Self Help Groups can rent drones to farmers for agriculture purposes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
Recently, the Union Government has approved the Central Sector Scheme "NAMO DRONE DIDI" for
providing drones to the Women Self Help Groups (SHGs).
The scheme aims to provide drones to 15000 selected Women SHGs for providing rental services to
farmers for agriculture purposes (application of fertilizers and pesticides). Of the total 15,000 drones, the
first 500 drones will be procured by Lead Fertilizer Companies (LFCs) in 2023-24, using their internal
resources for distribution to selected SHGs. The remaining 14500 drones will be provided under this
scheme during 2024-25 and 2025-26.
The Central Financial Assistance will be at 80% of the cost of drone and accessories/ancillary charges
up to a maximum of Rs. 8.0 lakhs will be provided to the women SHGs for the purchase of drones. So,
Statements 1 and 4 are correct.
The Cluster Level Federations (CLFs) of SHGs may raise the balance amount (total cost of procurement
minus subsidy) as a loan under the National Agriculture Infra Financing Facility (AIF). Interest
subvention at 3% on the AIF loan will be provided to the CLFs. The scheme will also provide sustainable
business and livelihood support to SHGs and they would be able to earn additional income of at least
Rs. 1.0 lakhs per annum. So, Statement 2 is correct.
One of the members of the women SHGs who is well qualified, 18 and above years of age, will be elected
by the State Rural Livelihood Mission (SRLM) and Lead Fertilizer Companies (LFCs) for 15-day training
comprising of 5-day mandatory drone pilot training and additional 10-day training for agriculture
purpose of nutrient and pesticide application.
The other member/family member of the SHG with the inclination to take up repairs of electrical goods,
fitting and mechanical works will be selected by the State Rural Livelihood Mission (SRLM) and LFCs
who will be trained as drone technicians/assistants. This training shall be provided as a package along
with the supply of drones.
Considering the difficulties which SHGs may face in procuring the drones, and their repair and
maintenance, the lead fertiliser companies (LFCs) will act as a bridge between drone supplier companies
and SHGs. So, Statement 3 is correct.

56. Consider the following descriptions:

1. He is most associated with Advaita Vedanta.
2. He contributed to Metaphysics and theology.
3. His most notable works are the commentaries on the 10 Upanishads, the Brahmasutra and the
Gita.
Which of the following personalities is described above?
(a) Sri Ramanujacharya
(b) Adi Shankaracharya
(c) Iyothee Thass Pandithar
(d) Kanakadasa
EXPLANATION:
Ramanuja, born in Tamil Nadu in the eleventh century, was deeply influenced by the Alvars. According
to him, the best means of attaining salvation was through intense devotion to Vishnu. Vishnu, in His

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grace helps the devotee to attain the bliss of union with Him. He propounded the doctrine of
Vishishtadvaita, or qualified oneness, in that the soul, even when united with the Supreme God,
remained distinct. Ramanuja's doctrine greatly inspired the new strand of bhakti which developed in
north India subsequently. So, Option (a) is not correct.
Shankara, one of the most influential philosophers of India, was born in Kalady, Kerala, on the bank of
the river Periyar in the eighth century.
➢ He was an advocate of Advaita, or the doctrine of the oneness of the individual soul and the Supreme
God, which is the Ultimate Reality. Advaita Vedanta articulates an ontological position of radical
nondualism — it posits that all that we perceive is ultimately illusory (maya) and that the principle
of Brahman, the only or Ultimate Reality, was formless and without any attributes, transcending
empirical plurality.
➢ The fundamental thrust of Advaita Vedanta lies in the unity of atman, or individual consciousness,
and brahman or the ultimate reality. This philosophical tradition found its most sustained early
articulation in the works of Shankara, who "endeavoured to communicate nonduality through
systematized theories of metaphysics, language, and epistemology" and whose "philosophy and
methods comprise a teaching tradition intended to culminate in a direct liberating recognition of
nonduality that is synonymous with liberation or freedom (moksha)".
➢ He is also popularly identified as the author of 116 works, including celebrated commentaries
(or bhashyas) on 10 Upanishads, the Brahmasutra, and the Bhagavad Gita. However, the authorship
of many works attributed to Shankara remains disputed. So, Option (b) is correct.
Iyothee Thass Pandithar was born on 20 May 1845 in Madras. He was a prominent Tamil anti-caste
activist and a practitioner of Siddha medicine. In the 1870s, Iyothee Thass organized the Todas and other
tribes of the Nilgiri Hills into a formidable force for the freedom movement. In 1876, Thass established
the Advaidananda Sabha and launched a magazine called Dravida Pandian in collaboration with Rev.
John Rathina. He established the "Dravida Mahajana Sabha '' in 1891 along with Rettamalai Srinivasan.
His activities served as an inspiration to Sri Lanka's Buddhist revivalist Anagarika Dharmapala. So,
Option (c) is not correct.
Kanaka Dasa (1509-1609) was a great poet and musician of Karnataka, in the tradition of Purandara
Dasa. He belonged to the Kurube Gowda community, who were warriors. He later turned to the Haridasa
tradition and became a poet who composed beautiful lyrics in Kannada. Kanaka Dasa composed
beautiful literary works in Kannada. He was a poet-composer, a religious and social reformer, and a
devotee of Lord Vishnu. He was a social reformer who lashed out at the evils of society, like the caste
system and the divide between the privileged and the poor. So, Option (d) is not correct.

57. Consider the following statements with respect to the Pichvai paintings:
1. The paintings were mostly found in large cloth pieces.
2. It originated in the 17th century and flourished under the patronage of the Nathdwara temple.
3. The central figure of the painting was often that of Lord Krishna, a seven-year-old boy.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The Pichvai paintings were mostly on large cloth pieces called pichvais, traditionally used as backdrops
for the idol in Shrinathji’s haveli in Nathdwara. Originally, these were works of sacred art created by the
artists as an expression of their devotion and depicted the many moods of the lord Krishna.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
One of the most exquisite styles in the Indian painting tradition, the pichvai paintings of Nathdwara,
originated in the 17th century and flourished under the patronage of the Nathdwara temple.

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The central figure was often that of Shrinathji — Lord Krishna as a seven-year-old boy — with crescent-
shaped eyes, a garland of lotus buds around his neck and his left arm raised, a reference to when the
young god lifted Mount Govardhan to protect the inhabitants of Vraj from Indra’s flood.
So, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PICHVAI PAINTINGS
About ➢ Pichwai art Annakut Srinathji painting is a traditional type of Indian art that represents
Lord Krishna in the avatar of Srinathji that is hung behind the idols in the shrines of Lord
Shrinathji at Nathdwara and other temples of Pushti Marga sect.
➢ The word Pichwai means ‘hanging at the back’ and is derived from the Sanskrit words
‘Pich’, which means back and ‘Wai’ means hanging.
➢ The painting is usually done on a massive piece of fabric and depicts a colourful
assortment of food items donated to the deity during the Annakut festival.
➢ They describe the life events of Lord Krishna and are hung in temples behind the idol. The
main theme of these paintings is Shrinathji and his Leelas (past times).
➢ A Pichwai Annakut painting of Srinathji is a time-consuming and labour-intensive
procedure that demands excellent expertise and attention.
➢ The painters draw the design onto the cloth and then produce the intricate patterns and
details with brushwork and hand-stitching.

58. Consider the following statements with respect to the Agni-5 missile:
1. It is a three-stage solid-fuelled engine under the Integrated Guided Missile Development
Programme.
2. It can carry nuclear warheads and hit targets more than 5,000 km away.
3. It is an MIRV-equipped missile which can accommodate multiple warheads, each of which can be
programmed to strike a separate target.
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How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The agni-5 missile is a three-stage solid-fuelled engine developed by India’s Defence Research and
Development Organisation (DRDO). It is designed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development
Programme. It can carry nuclear warheads and hit targets more than 5,000 km away and is aimed mainly
at thwarting the challenge from China. So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The agni-5 missile is an MIRV-equipped missile. MIRV (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry
Vehicle) technology is the capability that allows multiple warheads to be loaded on a single missile
delivery system.
Thus, MIRV-equipped missiles can accommodate multiple warheads, each of which can be programmed
to strike a separate target. They can all be made to hit the same location, too, one after the other, thus
ensuring the destruction of the target. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
MIRV TECHNOLOGY
Recently India has successfully tested an Agni-5 missile equipped with MIRV technology, joining a
in News small group of countries with this capability. Apart from inflicting crippling damage on the
enemy, these missiles can dodge most defence systems.
About ➢ The Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) technology is not new.
It was developed in the 1960s and first deployed in the 1970s by the United States and
the then-Soviet Union. But it is a complicated technology.
➢ The warheads have to be miniaturised, equipped with independent guidance and
navigation controls, and released sequentially from the delivery system.
➢ Over the years, France, the United Kingdom, and eventually China have developed this
technology.
➢ Pakistan too has claimed to have tested an MIRV-equipped missile called Ababeel, first
in 2017 and then in 2023.
➢ The number of warheads that a missile can carry depends on its design, weight, size,
range and other parameters. The one that India tested recently can carry three to four
warheads. There are other systems that can carry as many as 15 warheads, or even
more.
➢ The development of MIRV capability marks a significant upgrade for India’s missile
systems and expands its nuclear options.

59. Who presided over the third Buddist council, which was held in Pataliputra under the patronage of
the Mauryan king?
(a) Mahakasyapa
(b) Sabakami
(c) Moggaliputta Tissa
(d) Vasumitra
EXPLANATION:
Mahakasyapa was one of the ten principal disciples of Gautama Buddha, who was foremost in ascetic
practice. According to tradition, Mahakasyapa assumed the leadership of the Sangha following the death
of the Buddha, presiding over the First Buddhist Council held in the Saptapami cave near Rajagriha in
483 BC.

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All the teachings of the Buddha were divided into two Pitakas, namely Vinaya Pitaka and Sutta Pitaka.
The text of Vinaya Pitaka was established under the leadership of Upali, and that of Sutta Pitaka was
settled under the leadership of Ananda.
He is considered to be a patriarch in the Zen traditions. In the Pali tradition, he is considered to be the
Buddha's third chief disciple, surpassed only by the chief disciples Sariputta and Maha Moggallana.
So, Option (a) is not correct.
The Second Buddhist Council presided by Sabagami was held at Vaishali in 383 BCE. The monks of
Vaishali and Pataliputra had accepted certain rules which were declared as contrary to the teaching of
the Buddha by the monks of Kaushambi and Avanti. The Council failed to bring about a compromise
between the two opposing groups. Hence the council ended in a permanent split in the Buddhist order
into Sthaviravadins and Mahasangikas. The former upheld the orthodox Vinaya Pitaka, while the latter
favoured the new rules and their further relaxation. So, Option (b) is not correct.
The third Council was held at Pataliputra during the reign of Ashoka under the chairmanship of
Moggaliputta Tissa. In this Council the philosophical interpretations of the doctrines of the Buddha were
collected into the third Pitaka called Abbidhamma Pitaka. An attempt was made in this Council to free
the Buddhist order from dissidents and innovations. Heretical monks numbering sixty thousand were
expelled from the order. The true canonical literature was defined and authoritatively settled to eliminate
all disruptive tendencies.
So, Option (c) is correct.
Many Kushana kings adopted Buddhism. Kadphises and Kaniska-I were followers of Buddhism. It was
during Kaniska's rule that Buddhism reached a supreme position.
During Kaniska's reign, the Fourth Buddhist Council was convened on the advice of Parsva -the Buddhist
monk. The council was held in Kundalvan, Kashmir. Vasumitra presided over the council. It compiled
three commentaries (Vibhashas) of the three Pitakas. It decided certain controversial questions of
differences that arose between the Sarvastivada teachers of Kashmir and Gandhara. It was in this council
that Buddhism was split into Hinayana and Mahayana. So, Option (d) is not correct.

60. Consider the following statements with respect to the MRAShM:

1. It is a medium-range, lightweight surface-to-surface missile.
2. It is an anti-ship missile designed to strike warships and coastal fortifications.
3. It is indigenously developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The Medium Range Anti-Ship Missile (MRAShM) has been designed as a lightweight Surface-to-Surface
Missile. It is intended to serve as the primary offensive weapon aboard Indian naval ships. It is an anti-
ship missile designed to penetrate a wide variety of targets, including commerce vessels, coastal
fortifications, and warships. So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
MRAShM has been indigenously developed by the Indian Defence Wing under the Defence Research and
Development Organisation. The incorporation of the MRAShM into the armament of the Indian Navy will
substantially bolster its offensive capabilities, thereby furnishing a formidable deterrent to potential
adversaries. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
MEDIUM RANGE ANTI-SHIP MISSILE
Recently Medium Range Anti-Ship Missiles (MRAShM) will be added to the Indian Navy to improve
in News its offensive power.

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About ➢ The acquisition of the Medium Range Anti-Ship Missile (MRAShM) by the Indian Navy
has been authorized by the Defense Acquisition Council (DAC), which will substantially
enhance the navy's offensive capabilities.
➢ On November 30, 2023, under the leadership of the Defense Minister, the DAC approved
the Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for the acquisition of the MRAShM missiles.
➢ The MRAShM will be installed on twenty-four present and future warships, including
six Next Generation Missile Vessels (NGMV) that are scheduled to enter service within
the next decade, three destroyers of the Delhi class, and four missile corvettes of the
Kora class.
➢ The improved missile's capabilities in terms of range, accuracy, and anti-ship combat
will bolster the Indian Navy's capacity to defend its maritime interests and safeguard its
territorial waters.

61. What is the sole purpose of a Uniform Civil Code being implemented in a country?
(a) Promote uniformity and equality in personal laws.
(b) Encourage harmonious relationships among the citizens and foreigners
(c) Implement Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Recognises diversity and plurality among the people
EXPLANATION:
The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) aims to establish a uniform legal framework for all citizens, regardless of
their religion. Article 44 in the DPSP, found in Part IV of the Constitution, states that “the State shall
endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India”.
The fundamental idea behind a UCC is to establish a single set of laws governing personal matters like
marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption, applicable to all citizens regardless of their religious
affiliations.
Thus, the sole purpose of a Uniform civil code being implemented in a country is to Promote uniformity
and equality in personal laws. So, Option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
UNIFORM CIVIL CODE
Recently in Towards uniformity: On the Uniform Civil Code adopted by the Uttarakhand Assembly
News
About ➢ A Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is a desirable and progressive goal for a secular country.
➢ The UCC adopted by the Uttarakhand Assembly aims to consolidate the laws relating
to marriage, divorce and succession among all communities.
➢ The State has become the first since pre-independence Goa to adopt a uniform code
for civil matters.
Different In India, personal laws governing various aspects of life are deeply rooted in religious
Civil Codes texts and customs, resulting in distinct civil codes for different religious communities.
in India ➢ Hindu Personal Law:
• Governed by acts like the Hindu Marriage Act of 1955 and the Hindu Succession Act
of 1956, Hindu personal laws derive from ancient religious texts and customs.
• These laws ensure equal inheritance rights for Hindu women, a significant step
towards gender equality.
➢ Muslim Personal Law:
• Muslims in India follow the Muslim Personal Law based on Shariah principles.
• The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act of 1937 regulates matters such as
marriage, divorce, inheritance, and maintenance among Muslims.
➢ Other Communities:
• Christians, Parsis, and Jews are governed by the Indian Succession Act of 1925, each
with its own provisions concerning marriage, inheritance, and related matters.

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62. Consider the following statements with respect to the Global Initiative of Academic Networks:
1. It is an initiative of India launched during the 2023 BRICS summit.
2. It aims to bring in eminent scholars from across the world to teach at Indian universities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The Global Initiative of Academic Networks (GIAN) programme was formally launched by the Union
Minister for Human Resource Development, at the IIT Gandhi Nagar. Thus, It is an initiative of India not
launched during the 2023 BRICS summit. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Government of India approved a new program titled Global Initiative of Academic Networks (GIAN) in
Higher Education aimed at tapping the talent pool of scientists and entrepreneurs, internationally to
encourage their engagement with the institutes of Higher Education in India so as to augment the
country's existing academic resources, accelerate the pace of quality reform, and elevate India's scientific
and technological capacity to global excellence. It is funded by the Ministry of Education, Government of
India. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
RASHTRIYA UCHCHATAR SHIKSHA ABHIYAN (RUSA)
Recently in Eight years after its inception, past its brief discontinuation during the COVID period,
News the Ministry of Education is gearing up to restart the fourth phase of the Global Initiative
of Academic Networks (GIAN)— the Indian Prime Minister’s pet project to recruit eminent
scholars from across the world to teach at Indian universities.
About ➢ Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme
(CSS), launched in 2013 aims at providing strategic funding to eligible state higher
educational institutions.
➢ The central funding (in the ratio of 60:40 for general category States, 90:10 for special
category states and 100% for union territories) would be norm based and outcome
dependent.
➢ The funding to states would be made on the basis of critical appraisal of State Higher
Education Plans, which would describe each state’s strategy to address issues of
equity, access and excellence in higher education.
Objectives ➢ Improve the overall quality of state institutions by ensuring conformity to prescribed
norms and standards and adopt accreditation as a mandatory quality assurance
framework.
➢ Usher transformative reforms in the state higher education system by creating a
facilitating institutional structure for planning and monitoring at the state level,
promoting autonomy in State Universities and improving governance in institutions.
➢ Ensure reforms in the affiliation, academic and examination systems.
➢ Ensure adequate availability of quality faculty in all higher educational institutions
and ensure capacity building at all levels of employment.
➢ Create an enabling atmosphere in the higher educational institutions to devote
themselves to research and innovations.
➢ Expand the institutional base by creating additional capacity in existing institutions
and establishing new institutions, in order to achieve enrolment targets.
➢ Correct regional imbalances in access to higher education by setting up institutions
in unserved & underserved areas.
➢ Improve equity in higher education by providing adequate opportunities of higher

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education to SC/STs and socially and educationally backward classes; promote
inclusion of women, minorities, and differently abled persons.

63. Which of the following embroideries is known for its geometric patterns such as squares, circles,
triangles, rectangles, diagonal and parallel lines?
(a) Parsi Gara embroidery
(b) Lambani embroidery
(c) Phulkari embroidery
(d) Kashida embroidery
EXPLANATION:
Parsi Gara, also known as Parsi Gara embroidery or Parsi Gara work, is a traditional embroidery style
originating from the Parsi community in India. It is known for its intricate and highly detailed floral and
nature-inspired designs. Typically, Parsi Gara embroidery is done on silk or georgette fabrics using
colourful silk threads.
This rich craft traces its roots to the 19th century when Parsi traders and artisans migrated to India from
Persia. In the Parsi Gara embroidery technique, the motifs often include flowers, birds, butterflies, and
other elements of nature, and they are meticulously stitched onto garments like saris, blouses, and
dresses. So, Option (a) is not correct.

There are various theories related to the origins of the Lambanis – some say they are descendants of the
Romanis of Europe. In contrast, others suggest they migrated from the Ghor province of Afghanistan and
settled in Rajasthan, further travelling across India.
Their traditional attire can identify Lambanis. They incorporate a distinct embroidery in their costumes
called Lambani embroidery, which combines pattern darning, mirror work, cross stitch, overlaying,
quilting, patchwork, and appliqué on loosely woven cloth. Numerous stitches form geometric shapes,
including squares, circles, triangles, rectangles, diagonal lines and parallel lines.
The types of stitches used are chain, herringbone, running, interlacing, blanket and brick stitch. Beads,
small cowrie shells, mirrors, metal buttons, ghungroo and even low-denomination coins are stitched
together to decorate the edges of these embroidered threads.
The process of Lambani embroidery is completely sustainable as the costumes with the embroidery are
made by attaching several pieces of fabric, and they do not discard any old fabric. Therefore, Lambani
Embroidery is known for its geometric patterns such as squares, circles, triangles, rectangles, diagonal
and parallel lines. So, Option (b) is correct.

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Phulkari, a traditional hand embroidery technique hailing from the vibrant region of Punjab, has etched
its colourful presence onto the canvas of Indian fashion and culture. Translating to ‘Flower work’,
Phulkari is an art form that adorns fabrics, particulary saris, dupattas, and shawls. Phulkari is believed
to have roots dating back to the 15th century. Some historian attributes its introduction to Punjab to the
Jat tribes who migrated from Central Asia.
Even though Phulkari means floral work, the designs in this embroidery comprised not only flowers but
also included various motifs and geometrical patterns and shapes. The Phulkari embroidery is overall
very bright and vibrant, and it brings color to people’s lives. The Phulkari embroidery is very popular
worldwide. Women made it, and it celebrates womanhood. So, Option (c) is not correct.

Kashida is the general term used to signify Kashmiri embroidery. It originally started with the ‘darn’
stitch used by raffugars or darners to finish a shawl. It is a simple running stitch which gives a woven
effect (of a design) on a shawl.
Kashmir embroidery is done on different base materials, like wool, cotton, and silk. Kashida is a very fine
variety of embroidery done exclusively by hand. It includes ari work, needlework, sozni work and
Jamavar.
The close link between nature, history and the crafts of Kashmir is reflected in the characteristics and
development of embroidery.
Kashmir embroidery draws inspiration from the gentle colours of the landscape and its varied natural
beauty. The designs are all taken from nature, like sprays of flowers (rose, lily, and iris), almonds, birds
of many kinds, flowering shrubs and floral motifs of Persian style. So, Option (d) is not correct.

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64. With reference to the Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institution (GANHRI), consider the
following statements :
1. It is a recognised and trusted partner of the United Nations.
2. It accredits NHRIs based on their compliance with the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
3. NHRIs with accreditation status are eligible for full membership of GANHRI, including the right
to vote.
4. India’s National Human Rights Commission has recently been re-accredited by GANHRI.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
EXPLANATION:
The Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI) is a recognized and trusted partner
of the United Nations. It is a member-based organization that represents more than 110 national human
rights institutions (NHRIs). GANHRI's mission is to unite and strengthen NHRIs, ensure they operate in
accordance with the Paris Principles, and provide leadership in promoting and protecting human rights.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
GANHRI unites, promotes, and strengthens NHRIs to operate in accordance with the Paris Principles and
provides leadership in promoting and protecting human rights. The Paris Principles, adopted in 1993 by
the U.N. General Assembly, provide the international benchmarks against which National Human Rights
Institutions (NHRIs) can be accredited (not by the Universal Declaration of Human Rights).
The Paris Principles set out six main criteria that NHRIs are required to meet. These are mandate and
competence, autonomy from government, independence guaranteed by a statute or Constitution,
pluralism, adequate resources, and adequate powers of investigation. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
NHRIs that are assessed as complying with the Paris Principles are accredited with ‘A status’, while those
that partially comply are accredited with ‘B status’.
‘A status’ NHRIs have independent participation rights at the UN Human Rights Council, its subsidiary
bodies and some General Assembly bodies and mechanisms. They are eligible for full membership of
GANHRI, including the right to vote and hold governance positions.
NHRIs accredited with ‘B status’ participate in GANHRI meetings but are unable to vote or hold
governance positions. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
For the second time in a decade, the U.N.-recognised Global Alliance of National Human Rights
Institutions (GANHRI) deferred the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission, India
(NHRC-India), citing objections like political interference in appointments, involving the police in probes
into human rights violations, and poor cooperation with civil society. Without the accreditation, the
NHRC will be unable to represent India at the United Nations Human Rights Council. So, Statement 4
is not correct.

65. Consider the following:

1. Armenia
2. Serbia
3. Chad
4. West Bank
5. Moldova
6. Congo
How many of the above countries are landlocked ?
(a) Only three
(b) Only four
(c) Only five
(d) All six
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EXPLANATION:
Armenia covers an area of 29,743 sq. km in Eurasia's South Caucasus region. It is a landlocked country
with no access to the world's oceans. Armenia is one of the most mountainous nations on Earth and has
an average elevation of 5,900 feet (1,800 meters) above sea level. Armenia is landlocked by countries like
Iran, Turkey, Georgia and Azerbaijan. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Serbia is a landlocked country in South East Europe which covers part of the Pannonian Plain and
Central and Western Balkan Peninsula. Serbia is landlocked by Bosnia And Herzegovina, Hungary,
Macedonia, Romania, Montenegro, Croatia, Bulgaria, and Albania. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Chad is a landlocked country in the North Central part of Africa. Six countries that border Chad are
Cameroon, Central African Republic (CAR), Niger, Nigeria, Libya, and Sudan. So, Statement 3 is
correct.

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The name “West Bank” was a term first used by the Jordanians when they annexed the territory in 1949,
following the first Arab-Israeli war. Many Israelis refer to it as Judea (Hebrew: Yehuda) and Samaria
(Hebrew; Shomron), denoting the fact that it was the territory in which the Biblical kingdoms of Judah
and Israel (also called Shomron) were situated. Much of the West Bank’s territory consists of north-south
oriented limestone hills. These hills are divided between the Samarian Hills north of Jerusalem, and the
Judean Hills in the south. The hills slope down into the Jordan Valley and the area adjacent to the Dead
Sea, which is the lowest place on Earth.
The West Bank has a total land area of 6,220 sq. km. This includes part of the holy city of Jerusalem,
known as East Jerusalem. It is bordered by the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan to the east and by Israel
in all other directions. Therefore, West bank is a landlocked country by Israel and Jordan. So, Statement
4 is correct.

Moldova is a small landlocked Eastern European country with an area of 33,846 km2 (13,068 sq mi)
including the disputed territory of Transnistria. Excluding it, Moldova occupies an area of 29,683 km2
(11,461 sq mi). It is positioned in the Northern and Eastern hemispheres of the Earth. Moldova is situated
in the east of the Carpathian Mountains between the Prut and Dniester Rivers. Moldova is landlocked by
Romania in the west and Ukraine in the north, east and south. So, Statement 5 is correct.

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The Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) is the second largest country in Africa and located in Central
Africa. DR Congo is surrounded by ten countries. It is not landlocked as it has access to the sea through
the great River Congo. So, Statement 6 is not correct.

66. Who among the following is associated with the Battle of Saraighat, and after whom is a gold medal
awarded to the best cadet from the National Defence Academy named ?
(a) Rani Gaidinliu
(b) Birsa Munda
(c) Matangini Hazara
(d) Lachit Borphukan
EXPLANATION:
The Battle of Saraighat is considered one of the most notable historical events that occurred during the
reign of the Ahom Kingdom (1228 CE-1826 CE). Instrumental in shaping the history of the Brahmaputra
valley and the north-eastern region, the battle was fought between the Mughal army led by Raja Ram

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Singh (son of Mirza Raja Jai Singh) and the Ahom Kingdom led by Lachit Borphukan in 1671 CE, at
Saraighat, in Guwahati.
The confrontation is said to be one of the last major attempts of the Mughals to expand their empire into
Assam and its neighbouring areas. The medal awarded to the best cadet at the National Defence Academy
is named after Lachit Borphukan. So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
OTHER IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES
Rani Gaidiniliu ➢ Gaidinliu was born in 1915 in Lungkao, a Rongmei Naga village in today's
Manipur. Gaidinliu became part of the revolutionary world at the age of 13
when she joined the Heraka Movement.
➢ Her cousin, Haipou Jadonang, had initiated the movement during the
1920s as a protest against British interference in the religious and cultural
practices of the local inhabitants.

Birsa Munda ➢ Birsa Munda was a young freedom fighter and a tribal leader, whose spirit
of activism in the late nineteenth century, is remembered to be a strong
mark of protest against British rule in India.
➢ The Hindutva narrative paints Birsa Munda as a saviour of ‘Hindus’ and
‘Hindu culture’ against attack from the Christian missionaries.
➢ He belonged to the Munda tribe in the Chhotanagpur Plateau area.
➢ He received his early education at Salga under the guidance of his teacher
Jaipal Nag.
➢ On the recommendation of Jaipal Nag, Birsa converted to Christianity in
order to join the German Mission School. He, however, opted out of the
school after a few years.
➢ During the period, 1886 to 1890, Birsa Munda spent a large amount of
time in Chaibasa which was close to the centre of the Sardars agitation.
➢ On March 3, 1900, Birsa Munda was arrested by the British police while
he was sleeping with his tribal guerilla army at Jamkopai forest in
Chakradharpur. He died in Ranchi jail on June 9, 1900 at a young age of
25.

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Matangini Hazra ➢ Matangini Hazra was an extraordinary woman and an Indian revolutionary
who was devoted to the cause of the country’s freedom from British rule.
➢ Like the Mahatma, her frail body did not deter her from being an inspiring
force in the freedom movement, and she was so influenced by Gandhiji’s
beliefs, that she earned the name “Gandhi Buri” (the old Gandhian
woman).

67. Consider the following statements with respect to the Open Network for Digital Commerce:
1. It is an open network for all aspects of the exchange of goods and services over digital networks.
2. ONDC allows providers and consumers to use selected applications for information exchange and
transactions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is an initiative aiming at promoting open networks for all
aspects of the exchange of goods and services over digital or electronic networks. ONDC is to be based
on open-sourced methodology, using open specifications and open network protocols independent of any
specific platform.
Providers and consumers would be able to use any compatible application (Not Selected applications) of
their choice for the exchange of information and carrying out transactions over ONDC. So, Statement
1 is correct and Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
OPEN NETWORK FOR DIGITAL COMMERCE
About ➢ Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is an initiative aimed at promoting open
networks for all aspects of the exchange of goods and services over digital or electronic
networks. It is being developed as a counter to the current duopoly in the Indian e-commerce
market, which Amazon and Walmart-owned Flipkart largely dictate.
➢ The foundations of an Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) are to be open protocols
for all aspects of the entire chain of activities in the exchange of goods and services, similar
to hypertext transfer protocol for information exchange over the internet, simple mail
transfer protocol for exchange of emails and unified payments interface for payments.
➢ These open protocols would be used for establishing public digital infrastructure in the form
of open registries and open network gateways to enable the exchange of information between
providers and consumers.
➢ ONDC goes beyond the current platform-centric digital commerce model where the buyer
and seller have to use the same platform or application to be digitally visible and do a
business transaction.
➢ ONDC protocols would standardize operations like cataloguing, inventory management,
order management and order fulfilment. Thus, small businesses would be able to use any
ONDC-compatible applications instead of being governed by specific platform-centric
policies. This will provide multiple options for small businesses to be discoverable over the
network and conduct business. It would also encourage easy adoption of digital means by
those currently not on digital commerce networks.

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➢ ONDC is expected to make e-commerce more inclusive and accessible for consumers.
➢ Consumers can potentially discover any seller, product or service by using any compatible
application or platform, thus increasing freedom of choice for consumers.
➢ It will enable the consumers to match demand with the nearest available supply. This would
also give consumers the liberty to choose their preferred local businesses.
➢ Thus, ONDC would standardize operations, promote the inclusion of local suppliers, drive
efficiencies in logistics and lead to the enhancement of value for consumers.
➢ US firm Microsoft has become the first big tech company to join the (ONDC).

68. Consider the following statements:

1. Promote Maritime industrial clusters to facilitate export
2. Promote Ocean, Coastal & River Cruise Sector.
3. Promote inland water transport.
4. Promote maritime professional services, including financial incentives.
5. Promote world-class education, research and training.
How many of the above are part of the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
EXPLANATION:
The Amrit Kaal Vision 2047 Action Points have been defined across 11 key themes:
➢ Lead the World in Safe, Sustainable & Green Maritime Sector
➢ Promote Ocean, Coastal & River Cruise Sector. So, Statement 2 is correct.
➢ Enhance modal share of coastal shipping & Inland Water Transport. So, Statement 3 is correct.
➢ Promote Maritime Cluster. So, Statement 1 is correct.
➢ Promote maritime professional services including financial incentives. So, Statement 4 is correct.
➢ Become a global player in Shipbuilding, repair & recycling
➢ Develop World Class Education, Research & Training. So, Statement 5 is correct.
➢ Strengthen India’s global maritime presence
➢ Develop World Class next generation ports
➢ Enhance Efficiency through Technology & Innovation
➢ Enhance India’s Tonnage.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
AMRIT KAAL VISION 2047
About ➢ The Prime Minister of India inaugurated the third edition of Global Maritime India
Summit 2023 in Mumbai. The Prime Minister also unveiled ‘Amrit Kaal Vision 2047’, a
blueprint for the Indian maritime blue economy.
➢ In line with this futuristic plan, the Prime Minister inaugurated, dedicated to the nation
and laid the foundation stone for projects worth more than Rs 23,000 crores that are
aligned with the ‘Amrit Kaal Vision 2047’ for the Indian maritime blue economy.
➢ Amrit Kaal Vision 2047 - a roadmap for maritime sector development for the next 25
years, the Amrit Kaal to make India Atmanirbhar by 2047. He shared his vision of
unlocking investment of ₹80 lakh crores for the development of maritime sector during
this period.

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69. The earliest miniature painting, “Chawand Ragamala series”, belongs to :
(a) Mewar school
(b) Kangra school
(c) Kishangarh school
(d) Bundi school
EXPLANATION:
Recently, the spotlight on the Mewar school of painting were seen by discoveries the unseen paintings,
international exhibitions and the new books have pushed up the prices of this 17th-century miniature
art form that is still practised by experimental young artists. The emergence of the Mewar School is
widely associated with an early-dated set of Ragamala paintings painted at Chawand in 1605 by an artist
named Nisardin. The Chawand Ragamala represents the final phase of the early Rajput style, and the
foundation for the later Mewar style. This group of paintings is the earliest dated Rajasthani ‘Ragamala’
and is an important landmark in the history of Rajasthani painting.
The folios are mostly vertical and depict the rocky landscape as mounds, and the use of architectural
elements help to compartmentalise the composition. Tall trees are well depicted and undulating horizon
lines are seen painted as well. Animals and birds are a common part of the folio. The set is now scattered
across different museums and collections. So, Option (a) is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
OTHER PAINTINGS
Kangra ➢ Kangra painting is the pictorial art of Kangra, named after Kangra, Himachal Pradesh,
painting a former princely state, which patronized the art.
➢ It became prevalent with the fading of Basohli School of painting in mid-18th century,
and soon produced such a magnitude in paintings both in content as well as volume,
that the Pahari painting school, came to be known as Kangra paintings.

Kishangarh ➢ The Kishangarh School of Painting is a tradition of Rajput painting that emerged in
School of the state of Kishangarh in central Rajasthan in the 18th century.
Painting ➢ It is distinguished by its individualistic facial type and religious intensity. The
sensitive, refined features of the men and women are drawn with pointed noses and
chins, deeply curved eyes, and serpentine locks of hair.
➢ The brilliant series of paintings on the Radha-Krishna theme were due largely to the
inspiration of Raja Svant Singh.
➢ The school of Kishangarh Miniature paintings began and flourished the most during
the era of Sawant Singh, and several worthy successors took the reins of this art form.

Bundi ➢ The Bundi School" is an important school of the Rajasthani style of Indian miniature
school painting that lasted from the 17th to the end of the 19th century in this princely state.
➢ One of the earliest examples of the Bundi Paintings is the Chunar Ragamala painted
in 1561.
➢ Bundi paintings emphasized on hunting, court scenes, festivals, processions, life of
nobles, lovers, animals, birds and scenes from Lord Krishna's life.
➢ The Bundi School had a close association with the Mughal style yet it was never
fundamental to the evolution and growth of Bundi paintings, however the delicacy of
the Mughal style was also not abandoned.

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70. Consider the following statements with respect to the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-
Yojana (PM-MKSSY):
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Sub-scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana.
2. The objective is to provide a one-time incentive to beneficiaries to purchase aquaculture
insurance.
3. It will be implemented for four years, from FY 2023-24 to FY 2026-27, in the coastal States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana (PM-MKSSY)" a Central Sector (not centrally
sponsored scheme) a sub-scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada for the fisheries sector
micro and small enterprises and envisages an investment of over rupees six thousand crore in the next
four years from FY 2023-24 to FY 2026-27 in all States/Union Territories. So, Statements 1 and 3 are
not correct.
The objectives of PM-MKSSY are:
➢ Gradual Formalization of the unorganized fisheries sector through self registration of fishers, fish
farmers and supportive workers under a National Fisheries Sector Digital Platform including creation
of work based digital identifies of fish workers for improved service delivery.
➢ Facilitating access to institutional financing fisheries sector micro and small enterprises.
➢ Providing one-time incentive to beneficiaries for purchasing aquaculture insurance.
➢ Incentivizing fisheries and aquaculture microenterprises through performance grants for improving
fisheries sector value-chain efficiencies including creation and maintenance of jobs.
➢ Incentivising micro and small enterprises through performance grants for adoption and expansion of
fish and fishery product safety and quality assurance systems including creation and maintenance
of jobs. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PRADHAN MANTRI MATSYA KISAN SAMRIDHI SAH-YOJANA
Beneficiary ➢ Fishers, Fish (Aquaculture) Farmers, Fish workers, Fish Vendors or such other person
directly engaged in fisheries value chain.
➢ Micro and Small enterprises in the form of Proprietary Firms, Partnership Firms and
Companies registered in India, Societies, Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs),
Cooperatives, Federations, Village Level Organizations like Self Help Groups (SHGs),
Fish Farmers Producer Organizations (FFPOs) and Startups engaged in fisheries and
aquaculture value chains.
➢ FFPOs also include Farmers Producer Organizations (FPOs).
➢ Any other beneficiaries that may be included by the Department of Fisheries, Gol as
targeted beneficiaries.

71. With reference to the Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA), consider the
following statements:
1. It is aimed at increasing financial literacy and empowering investors to protect from financial
fraud.
2. It administers the Investor Education and Protection Fund, which refunds shares, unclaimed
dividends, and matured deposits and debentures.
3. Recently, SBI signed a MoU to spread awareness on investment and fraudulent schemes.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
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(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) was set up on September 7, 2016, under
the aegis of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India, for administering the Investor
Education and Protection Fund for making refunds of shares, unclaimed dividends, and matured
deposits/debentures, among other things, to investors. The IEPFA has conducted several Investor
Awareness Programmes aimed at increasing financial literacy and empowering investors to protect
themselves from financial fraud.
So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed between the Investor Education and Protection Fund
Authority (IEPFA) under the aegis of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), and DBS Bank (not by SBI),
a prominent financial institution with a strong presence in Asia and Southeast Asia. According to the
MoU, DBS Bank aims to support IEPFA's investor awareness activities by disseminating safety messages
via its various digital platforms. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
THE INVESTOR EDUCATION AND PROTECTION FUND AUTHORITY (IEPFA)
About For the administration of Investor Education and Protection Fund, Government of
India has on 7th September, 2016 established Investor Education and Protection
Fund Authority under the provisions of section 125 of the Companies Act, 2013.
The IEPF is to ➢ The refund in respect of unclaimed dividends, matured deposits, matured
be utilized for debentures, the application money due for refund and interest thereon.
➢ Promotion of investors’ education, awareness and protection.
➢ Distribution of any disgorged amount among eligible and identifiable applicants
for shares or debentures, shareholders, debenture-holders or depositors who
have suffered losses due to wrong actions by any person, in accordance with the
orders made by the Court which had ordered disgorgement.
➢ Reimbursement of legal expenses incurred in pursuing class action suits under
sections 37 and 245 by members, debenture-holders or depositors as may be
sanctioned by the Tribunal.
➢ Person whose amounts referred to in clauses (a) to (d) of sub-section (2) of section
205C transferred to Investor Education and Protection Fund, after the expiry of
the period of seven years as per provisions of the Companies Act, 1956, shall be
entitled to get refund out of the Fund in respect of such claims in accordance with
rules made under this section.

72. Consider the following statements with respect to the Supreme Court Legal Service Committee
(SCLSC):
1. It is a statutory body.
2. It was established in accordance with Article 32 of the Indian Constitution.
3. A retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India acts as the Chairman of (SCLSC).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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EXPLANATION:
The Supreme Court Legal Services Committee (SCLSC) was constituted under Section 3A of the Legal
Services Authorities Act, 1987, to provide “free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of
society” in cases falling under the top court’s jurisdiction.
The SCLSC is a Statutory body and is a government Department under the Department of Justice,
Ministry of Law & Justice, Government of India. So, Statement 1 is correct.
As per Article 39-A of the Indian Constitution, the State shall secure that the operation of the legal system
promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid by
suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are
not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
Supreme Court Legal Services Committee is an effort to provide legal aid and assistance to the
marginalized and weaker sections of the Society in accordance with Article 39-A (Not Article 32) of the
Constitution. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Section 3A of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 states that the Central Authority (the National
Legal Services Authority or NALSA) shall constitute the committee. It consists of a Sitting SC judge (not
a retired Judge), who is the chairman, along with other members possessing the experience and
qualifications prescribed by the Centre.
The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court (CJI) will nominate both the chairman and other members.
Further, the CJI can appoint the Secretary to the Committee. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
LEGAL SERVICES AUTHORITIES ACT
Recently in Justice Gavai was nominated as SC Legal Services Committee Chairman
News
About ➢ In 1987, the Legal Services Authorities Act was enacted to give a statutory base to
legal aid programmes.
➢ It aims to provide free and competent legal services to eligible groups, including
women, children, SC/ST and EWS categories, industrial workers, disabled persons,
and others.
➢ Under the Act, NALSA was constituted in 1995 to monitor and evaluate the
implementation of legal aid programmes and to lay down policies for making legal
services available.
➢ A nationwide network has been envisaged under the Act for providing legal aid and
assistance. It also disburses funds and grants to State Legal Services Authorities
and NGOs for implementing legal aid schemes and programmes.
➢ Subsequently, in every state, State Legal Services Authorities (SLSA) were
established to implement NALSA’s policies and directions, give free legal services to
people, and conduct Lok Adalats.
➢ An SLSA is headed by the Chief Justice of the respective High Court and includes
the senior HC judge as its Executive Chairman. While the HC Chief Justice is the
patron-in-chief of the SLSA, the CJI is the patron-in-chief of NALSA.
➢ Similarly, District Legal Services Authorities (DLSAs) and Taluk Legal Services
Committees were established in districts and most taluks. Situated in the District
Courts Complex in every district, each DLSA is chaired by the District Judge of the
respective district.
➢ A senior civil judge heads the Taluka or Sub-Divisional Legal Services Committees.
Collectively, these bodies organize legal awareness camps, provide free legal
services, and supply and obtain certified order copies and other legal documents,
among other functions.

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73. Consider the following statements with respect to eSoil:
1. They can electrically stimulate the root system and growth environment of plants.
2. They use mineral wool as a cultivation substrate.
3. They have very low energy consumption.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
According to the study, in hydroponic environments, eSoil is a low-power bioelectronic growth substrate
that can electrically stimulate the root system and growth environment of plants. This novel substrate is
not only environmentally friendly, being derived from cellulose and a conductive polymer called PEDOT,
but also offers a low energy, safe alternative to previous methods that required high voltage and non-
biodegradable materials.
eSoil uses low energy and minimises resource consumption. Its active material is an organic mixed-ionic
electronic conductor.
So, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Hydroponic systems often use mineral wool as a cultivation substrate in hydroponics. However, these
wools are often non-biodegradable and are produced using energy-intensive processes. eSoil is made of
cellulose, a biopolymer mixed with a conductive polymer called PEDOT. Therefore, eSoil does not use
mineral wool as a cultivation substrate.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
eSOIL
Recently in Researchers have developed a new electronic soil that was found to increase the growth
News of barley seedlings by 50 per cent in a new study.
About ➢ The study found that the roots of barley seedlings were electrically stimulated for 15
days. They showed a 50% increase in growth using eSoil. This research promotes
more effective and sustainable development while increasing the variety of crops that
can be grown hydroponically.
➢ In hydroponics, plants are grown without soil, requiring only water, nutrients and a
substrate - something for their roots to attach to. This closed system allows water to
be recirculated, ensuring that each seedling receives exactly the nutrients it needs.
➢ As a result, very little water is used, and all the nutrients remain in the system -
something that is not possible with conventional farming. In this paper, the scientists
show that barley seedlings can be grown hydroponically and that electrical
stimulation improves the plants' growth rate.

74. Consider the following statements with respect to the Universal Postal Union (UPU):
1. It is a specialised agency of the United Nations.
2. Only member countries of the United Nations can become members of the UPU.
3. India is a member of UPU.
How many of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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EXPLANATION:
Established in 1874, the Universal Postal Union (UPU), with its headquarters in the Swiss capital, Berne,
is the second oldest international organization worldwide. With its 192 member countries, the UPU is
the primary forum for cooperation between postal sector players. It helps to ensure a truly universal
network of up-to-date products and services.
The UPU became a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) on 1 July 1948. So, Statement 1 is
correct.
Any member country of the United Nations may become a member of the UPU.
Any non-member country of the United Nations may become a UPU member, provided that at least two-
thirds approve its request of the member countries of the UPU. The UPU has now 192 member countries.
India has been a member of the Universal Postal Union in 1876. So, Statement 2 is not correct, and
Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
UNIVERSAL POSTAL UNION (UPU)
About The UPU consists of 4 bodies
➢ Congress
• Congress is the supreme authority of the Universal Postal Union (UPU) and meets
every four years.
• Plenipotentiaries from the UPU's 192 member countries gather on this occasion to
decide on a new World Postal Strategy and set the future rules for international
mail exchanges.
• An Extraordinary Congress may also be convened at the request or with the
consent of at least two-thirds of the member countries of the UPU.
• The UPU has held three Extraordinary Congresses to date: one in 1900 in Berne,
Switzerland; one in 2018 in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia; and one in 2019 in Geneva,
Switzerland.
➢ The Council of Administration (CA)
• CA consists of 41 member countries and meets annually at UPU headquarters in
Berne.
• The Council ensures the continuity of the UPU's work between Congresses,
supervises its activities and studies regulatory, administrative, legislative and legal
issues.
➢ The Postal Operations Council (POC)
• It is the technical and operational mind of the UPU and consists of 48 member
countries elected during Congress.
• The body elects its chair and meets annually at the UPU's headquarters in Berne.
• The POC's work programme is geared towards helping Posts modernize and
upgrade their postal products and services.
➢ The International Bureau - the UPU's headquarters - is located in Berne (Switzerland).
It has a staff of about 250 employees drawn from about 50 different countries.
• Fulfilling a secretariat function, the International Bureau provides logistical and
technical support to the UPU's bodies.
• It serves as an office of liaison, information and consultation and promotes
technical cooperation among Union members.
➢ The Chair of the Postal Operations Council for the current cycle is France.

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75. Which of the following explains the term “E-Prime Layer”?
(a) A layer formed at the outermost part of Earth's core as a result of surface water penetrating
deep into the planet.
(b) A layer formed at the innermost part of Earth's core as a result of surface water penetrating deep
into the planet.
(c) A layer formed at the outermost part of Earth's core as a result of the flow of groundwater into
the other layers.
(d) A layer formed at the innermost part of Earth's core as a result of groundwater flowing into the
other layers.
EXPLANATION:
The formation of a new enigmatic layer – E prime layer – at the outermost part of Earth's core is a result
of "surface water penetrating deep into the planet, altering the composition of the metallic liquid core's
outermost region, a study by an international team of researchers. This discovery enhances our
comprehension of Earth's internal mechanisms. Earth comprises four primary layers: an inner core at
the planet's centre, surrounded by the outer core, mantle, and crust. For years it was believed that a
material exchange between the core and mantle is small. However, the experiments revealed that when
water reaches the core-mantle boundary, it reacts with silicon in the core, forming silica.
This latest research suggests that tectonic plates carrying surface water have transported it deep into
the Earth over billions of years. Upon reaching the core-mantle boundary about 1,800 miles below the
surface, this water initiates significant chemical changes, influencing the core's structure.
The subducted water reacts chemically with core materials under high pressure. This reaction leads to
the formation of a hydrogen-rich, silicon-depleted layer at the outer core, resembling a film-like structure.
Silica crystals generated by this process ascend and blend into the mantle, impacting the overall
composition. These modifications in the liquid metallic layer could potentially result in reduced density
and altered seismic characteristics, aligning with anomalies detected by seismologists. So, Option (a) is
correct.

76. Consider the following statements with respect to Distress Alert Transmitter (DAT):
1. It is indigenously developed by DRDO.
2. It helps the fishermen at sea to send emergency messages from fishing boats.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has developed an indigenous technological solution namely
Distress Alert Transmitter (DAT) for the fishermen at sea to send emergency messages from fishing boats.
The messages are sent through a communication satellite and received at a central control station
(INMCC: Indian Mission Control Centre) where the alert signals are decoded for the identity and location
of the fishing boat. The extracted information is forwarded to Maritime Rescue Co-ordination Centres
(MRCCs) under Indian Coast Guard (ICG). Using this information the MRCC co-ordinates to undertake
Search and Rescue operations to save the fishermen at distress. The DAT is operational since 2010 and
till now more than 20000 DATs are being used. So, Statement 1 is not correct and Statement 2 is
correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
DISTRESS ALERT TRANSMITTER (DAT)
About ➢ Taking advantage of technological developments in satellite communication and
satellite navigation ISRO has improvised DAT with advanced capabilities and features

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evolving to Second Generation DAT (DAT-SG).
➢ The DAT-SG has the facility to send back acknowledgement to the fishermen who
activates the distress alert from sea. This gives an assurance to him of rescue coming
to him.
➢ Apart from transmitting distress signal from Sea, DAT-SG has the capability to receive
messages from control centre.
➢ Using this, advance alert messages can be sent to the fishermen at sea whenever there
are events of bad weather, cyclone tsunami or any other emergencies. Thus, the
fishermen will be able to sail back home or go to safe places.
➢ Further, the information about Potential Fishing Zones (PFZs) are also transmitted to
fishermen using DAT-SG on regular intervals. This helps fishermen to get good yield
in the catch and savings in terms of time and fuel.
➢ DAT-SG can be connected to mobile phones using Bluetooth interface and the
messages can be read in native language using an App in the mobile.
➢ The central control centre (INMCC) has a web based network management system
called “SAGARMITRA” which maintain a database of registered DAT-SGs and helps
MRCCs to access the information about boat, coordinate the boat at distress in real
time. This helps Indian Coast Guard to undertake Search & Rescue operations at the
time of distresses, without any time delay.

77. Consider the following statements with respect to Trichoderma:

1. It is a type of fungi.
2. It is used to control soil-borne diseases.
3. It promotes nutrient utilisation efficiency in plants.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Trichoderma is a type of bio-control fungus widely distributed worldwide. Trichoderma has a huge
application value and potential in the field of biological control of plant diseases. So, Statement 1 is
correct.
Trichoderma is mainly used to control soil-borne diseases as well as some leaf and panicle diseases of
various plants. Trichoderma can not only prevent diseases but also promotes plant growth, improves
nutrient utilization efficiency, enhances plant resistance, and improves agrochemical pollution
environment. So, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
TRICHODERMA
Recently The Indian Institute of Spices Research (IISR) Kozhikode have successfully developed a
in News new granular lime-based Trichoderma formulation, ‘Tricholime’.
About ➢ Tricholime made with integrating Trichoderma- a fungal biocontrol agent used for
controlling a variety of soil-borne pathogens- and Lime into a single product, making
the application easier for the farmers.
➢ This lime-based formulation neutralizes the soil acidity while promoting plant growth
and shields crops from soil-borne pathogens, all in a single application.
➢ Trichoderma has proven effective in suppressing several soil-borne plant pathogens
and serves as a successful bio-pesticide and bio-fertiliser in crop production. This
formulation can also boost the growth of useful microbes in soil and also benefits the

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crop by improving the physical condition of the soil, enhancing secondary nutrient
availability and by boosting soil microbial activity,
➢ The significance of this formulation lies in its ability to mitigate soil acidity and supply
bio agents concurrently ensuring optimal plant growth and nutrient uptake.
➢ The institute hopes that the technology behind this product can also be extended to
include other beneficial bioagents, opening new possibilities in product development
to support sustainable organic farming,

78. Consider the following statements with respect to the Himalayan Wolf:
1. It is endemic to India.
2. It is found in the high-altitude ecosystems of the Himalayas.
3. It is classified as vulnerable in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The Himalayan Wolf (Canis lupus chanco), a prominent lupine predator found across the Himalayas has
been by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)’s Red List. The Himalayan wolf is
found in the Himalayan region encompassing India, Nepal and the Tibetan Plateau of Western China.
Thus, Himalayan Wolf is not endemic to India. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Himalayan Wolf is found at an altitude between 7000- 13000ft above in the Western Himalayas. This
carnivore preys upon larger mammals to rodents, birds or even crabs etc. This wolf differs from the
common wolf (Canis lupus lupus) in its thick blackish coat and heavier build. This wolf is thought to be
the ancestor of the domestic dog. They have powerful jaws and vocal communication is well developed
between them. Thus, the Himalayan Wolf has specifically adapted to life in the high-altitude ecosystems
of the Himalaya and the Tibetan Plateau. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The Himalayan Wolf has been categorised as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List. It is listed in Schedule I
of the Wildlife Protection Act (1972) and the wolves in India and Nepal are listed in CITES Appendix I as
endangered due to international trade. So, Statement 3 is correct.
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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
THE HIMALAYAN WOLF
Recently in The Himalayan wolf was recently classified as vulnerable in the IUCN Red List of
news Threatened Species, with only 2,275 to 3,792 individuals left in the wild.
About ➢ In India specifically, an estimated 227 to 378 Himalayan wolves are found,
distributed in the upper Himalayan region in Lahaul, Spiti in Himachal Pradesh,
Ladakh and in small areas of Sikkim, Uttarakhand and possibly Arunachal
Pradesh, according to the Wildlife Institute of India (WII).
➢ The species was found to have a distinct genetic lineage of ancient origin, different
from the grey wolf lineage to which it was previously assumed to belong.
➢ Habitat loss, conflict with humans as retaliatory killings, competition with feral
dogs and hunting for illegal wildlife trade threaten the survival of the species.
➢ Experts note that grassland conservation, monitoring of unplanned development,
management of feral dog populations and better waste disposal methods are needed
to conserve the Himalayan wolf population.

79. Consider the following statements with respect to National Transit Pass System:
1. It is an online Transit Pass generation system for timber, bamboo and other forest produce.
2. The Transit pass issued from this system will be valid across India except North Eastern States.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The National Transit Pass System (NTPS) provides seamless issuance of online transit pass. This system
helps in monitoring and keeping records of transit permits for inter-state and intra-state transportation
of timber and bamboo from private lands/government/private depot and other minor forest produce. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
The NTPS expedites issuance of transit pass system. A Transit pass issued from this system will be valid
across India. There will not be any requirement of lieu Transit Pass a state borders. There is no need to
visit forest office for issuance of Transit Pass. Thus, this transit passes valid across India including north
eastern states. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
NATIONAL TRANSIT PASS SYSTEM
Key features ➢ It is a role based and work flow based application available as desktop based web
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portal as well as mobile application.
➢ Online registration and submission of the applications for Transit Permit (TP) or No
Objection Certificate (NOC) through web-portal and mobile app.
➢ Online generation of Transit Permit or NOC on the basis of category of species.
➢ E-payment system: Payment can be made online through mobile app/web portal
before downloading T.P.
Benefits ➢ Expedite issuance of transit permits for timber, bamboo and other minor forest
produce without physically going to forest offices.
➢ Replace manual paper based transit system by online transit system
➢ One permit for whole India for transit of timber, bamboo and other minor forest
produce for ease of doing business.
➢ Seamless movement across state borders from origin to destination through help of
Mobile App.
➢ Prevent hardships of timber and bamboo producers, farmers and transporters in
obtaining permits and at forest check posts.
➢ Promotion of agro-forestry activities.
➢ Saving of transportation cost and time which will benefit farmers and traders and
will in turn help in increasing farmer's income.

80. Recently, the Government of India has launched ‘Prerana: An Experiential Learning Program’, aiming
to improve leadership qualities among the students of classes IX to XII. It was first launched in the
which of the following states?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) West Bengal
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Gujarat
EXPLANATION:
Department of School Education & Literacy, Ministry of Education, Government of India has launched
‘Prerana: An Experiential Learning program’, aiming to offer a meaningful, unique, and inspiring
experience to all participants, thereby empowering them with leadership qualities.
Prerana program will run from a Vernacular School, established in 1888, in one of the oldest living cities
of India, Vadnagar, district Mehsana, Gujarat. The school stands as a tribute to Vadnagar's indomitable
spirit, a living city that has triumphed over challenges like earthquakes and natural calamities and is
home to ancient heritage sites and monuments inhabited since the early historic period and in the
modern day. The school signifies the fact that extraordinary lives often find their roots in ordinary
foundations. Grounded in the timeless wisdom of India's rich civilization, this unique initiative embodies
a vision aligned with the principles and ideals of our Hon’ble Prime Minister, who is an alumnus. So,
Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PRERANA
About ➢ Prerana is driven by a strong commitment to integrate principles of Indian education
system and the philosophy of value-based education which is a corner stone of the
National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
➢ Prerana is a week-long residential program for selected students of class IX to XII.
➢ It is an experiential and inspirational learning program for students with the best-in-
class technology where heritage meets innovation. A batch of 20 selected students (10
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boys and 10 girls) will attend the program, every week from various parts of the
country.
➢ The curriculum of Prerana School prepared by IIT Gandhi Nagar is rooted in nine
value based themes: Swabhiman and Vinay, Shaurya and Sahas, Parishram and
Samarpan, Karuna and Sewa, Vividhta and Ekta, Satyanishtha and Shuchita,
Navachar and Jigyasa, Shraddha aur Vishwas, and Swatantrata and Kartavya.
➢ The program based on above themes will inspire the youth and foster respect for
Bharat's unity in diversity, embodying the spirit of "Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam" and
will contribute by making the youth of today, a flame holder for Viksit Bharat. Towards
this endeavour, the participants will be guided by mentors from prestigious
institutions.
➢ Students can register through the portal, wherein applicants can fill the requisite
details to be a part of the ambitious and aspirational Prerana program.
➢ The registered applicants will go through a selection process, as prescribed on the
portal.
➢ Applicants can also join the selection procedure conducted at the School/block level,
on designated ‘Prerana Utsav’ day, through various activities based on the ethos of
Prerana to evaluate for well rounded personalities keen to shape the future of our
nation.
➢ Upon selection, the 20 participants (10 boys and 10 girls) will be attending the Prerana
program and embark on a journey of inspiration, innovation, and self-discovery. After
the program, the participants will carry the ethos of Prerana into their respective
communities, become change makers and spark positive change to inspire others.

81. Consider the following:

1. Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana
2. Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub Plan
3. Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana
How many of the schemes given above are merged into Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday
Yojana?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhuyday Yojana (PM-AJAY) is a merged scheme of three Centrally
Sponsored Scheme namely Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY), Special Central Assistance
to Scheduled Castes Sub Plan (SCA to SCSP) and Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana (BJRCY) and
has been implemented since 2021-22 with an aim to reduce poverty of the SC communities by generation
of additional employment opportunities through Skill development, income generating schemes and
other initiatives and to improve socio-economic developmental indicators by ensuring adequate
infrastructure and requisite services in the SC dominated villages. So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PRADHAN MANTRI ANUSUCHIT JAATI ABHUYDAY YOJANA (PM- AJAY)
About ➢ The Scheme has three components:
• Development of SC dominated villages into an “Adarsh Gram”.
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• ‘Grants-in-aid’ for District/State-level Projects for socio-economic betterment of SCs
that may include creation of infrastructure in SC dominated villages including those
selected under Adarsh Gram component, construction of Hostels/Residential schools,
Comprehensive Livelihood Projects which may include components such as Skill
development, related infrastructure development, financial assistance towards loans
taken by beneficiaries for acquisition/creation of assets required for livelihood
generation etc.
• Construction of Hostels in higher educational institutions which are top-ranked as
per the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) of Government of India and
are funded by the Centre/State/UT Governments either fully or partially. Similarly,
construction of hostels in schools which are either fully or partially funded by the
Centre/State/UT Governments and recommended by the Ministry of Education.
➢ Objectives of Adarsh Gram Component {erstwhile Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram
Yojana} is to ensure integrated development of SC majority villages so that, inter alia,
there is:, Adequate infrastructure, All requisite infrastructure necessary for socio-
economic development needs are to be provided under the Scheme. Improvement in
Socio-Economic Indicators.
➢ The identified socio-economic indicators, known as Monitorable indicators, are to be
improved so that the disparity between SC and non-SC population is eliminated and
the level of indicators is raised to atleast that of the National average.
➢ More specifically, all BPL SC families should have food and livelihood security, all SC
children should complete education at least up to the secondary level, all factors
leading to maternal and infant mortality are addressed and incidence of malnutrition,
especially among children and women, is eliminated.

82. Consider the following statements with respect to the Corruption Perceptions Index:
1. It is released by the World Bank.
2. India is ranked among the top 10 corruption clean countries.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) is an index that scores countries on the perceived levels of government
corruption by country. The CPI is published annually by Transparency International (not by the World
Bank), an organization that seeks to stop bribery, fraud, and other forms of public sector corruption. So,
Statement 1 is not correct.
India ranked 93 out of 180 countries on the corruption perceptions index for 2023 as its overall score
remained largely unchanged, according to a Transparency International report.
The index, which ranks 180 countries and territories by their perceived levels of public sector corruption
according to experts and business people, uses a scale of 0 to 100, where 0 is highly corrupt, and 100 is
very clean.
In 2023, India's overall score was 39, while in 2022, it was 40. India's rank in 2022 was 85. "India (39)
shows score fluctuations small enough that no firm conclusions can be drawn on any significant change.
However, ahead of the elections, India sees further narrowing of civic space. Therefore, India is not ranked
among the top 10 corruption-clean countries. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CORRUPTION PERCEPTION INDEX 2023
Recently India ranks 93 out of 180 countries in corruption perceptions index 2023.
in News
➢ Countries with continued high scores, such as New Zealand (3) and Singapore (5),
maintain their positions at the top of the index globally, followed closely by other
countries with stronger corruption control mechanisms, such as Australia (14), Hong
Kong (14), Japan (16), Bhutan (26), Taiwan (28) and South Korea (32).
➢ The bottom of the index includes fragile states with authoritarian regimes, including
North Korea (172) and Myanmar (162). Afghanistan (162) continues to face one of the
worst humanitarian crises in history.
➢ In South Asia, both Pakistan (133) and Sri Lanka (115) grapple with their respective
debt burdens and ensuing political instability.
➢ Bangladesh (149) emerges from the least developed country (LDC) status, with
economic growth supporting a continued reduction in poverty and improving living
conditions. The flow of information on the public sector is hindered amidst an ongoing
crackdown against the press.
➢ Noting that China (76) has made an aggressive anti-corruption crackdown by
punishing more than 3.7 million public officials for corruption over the last decade,
the report said a closer study of the cases with guilty verdicts found that public officials
often use corruption as a way to drive up their income.
➢ Seventy-one per cent of the countries across Asia and the Pacific have a CPI score
below the regional average score of 45 and the global average of 43 out of 100. These
weak scores reflect the lack of delivery by elected officials on anti-corruption agendas,
together with crackdowns on organized civil society and attacks on freedoms of press,
assembly and association.

83. The government recently banned 'Dicofol', 'Dinocap', and 'Methomyl', which are related to?
(a) Food preservatives
(b) Plasticizer
(c) Antibiotics
(d) Insecticides
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EXPLANATION:
Government of India issued an order to ban four hazardous insecticides – Dicofol, Dinocap, Methomyl
and Monocrotophos. Pesticide Action Network India welcomes this development, and urge Government
to urgently ban the remaining pesticides among the 27 listed in the 2020 draft ban order.
➢ Dicofol is used in agriculture and horticulture to control spider mites and soft-bodied mites in apples,
pears, soft fruit, cucumbers, tomatoes, hops, vines, lettuce and ornamental plants. Dicofol is
considered persistent under acidic conditions. Based on persistence, bio-concentration, high aquatic
toxicity, it can cause significant adverse human health and environmental effects.
➢ Dinocap, a dinitrophenyl, was first registered in the late 1950s and has been used as a contact
fungicide to control fungus and, to a lesser extent, as an acaricide for control of ticks and mites. It is
applied to limit mites in apple crops, as well as foliage for control of powdery mildew on fruit,
vegetable, nursery, and ornamental crops. It is available as dust, liquid concentrate, and wettable
powder formulations.
➢ Methomyl is an n-methyl carbamate insecticide used to control foliage and soil-borne insect pests on
a variety of food and feed crops, including field vegetables and orchard crops. The only non-
agriculture use of methomyl is a fly bait product.
Thus, Dicofol, Dinocap and Methomyl are Insecticides. So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
BANNING OF PESTICIDES
Pesticides ➢ Alachlor(Vide S.O. 3951(E), dated 08.08.2018)
Which Are ➢ Aldicarb (vide S.O. 682 (E) dated 17th July 2001)
Banned And ➢ Aldrin
Restricted Use ➢ Benzene Hexachloride
➢ Benomyl (vide S.O 3951(E) dated 8th August, 2018)
➢ Calcium Cyanide
➢ Carbaryl (vide S.O 3951(E) dated 8th August, 2018)
➢ Chlorbenzilate (vide S.O. 682 (E) dated 17th July 2001)
➢ Chlordane
➢ Chlorofenvinphos
➢ Copper Acetoarsenite
➢ Diazinon (vide S.O 3951(E) dated 8th August, 2018)
➢ Dibromochloropropane (DBCP) (vide S.O. 569 (E) dated 25th July1989)
➢ Dichlorovos(Vide S.O. 3951(E), dated 08.08.2018)
➢ Dieldrin (vide S.O. 682 (E) dated 17th July 2001)
➢ Endosulfan (vide ad-Interim order of the Supreme Court of India in the Writ
Petition (Civil) No. 213 of 2011 dated 13th May, 2011 and finally disposed of dated
10thJanuary, 2017)

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➢ Endrin
➢ Ethyl Mercury Chloride
➢ Ethyl Parathion
➢ Ethylene Dibromide (EDB) (vide S.O. 682 (E) dated 17th July 2001)
➢ Fenarimol (vide S.O 3951(E) dated 8th August, 2018)
➢ Fenthion (vide S.O 3951(E) dated 8th August, 2018)
➢ Heptachlor
➢ Lindane (Gamma-HCH)
➢ Linuron (vide S.O 3951(E) dated 8th August, 2018)
➢ Maleic Hydrazide (vide S.O. 682 (E) dated 17th July 2001)
➢ Menazon
➢ Methoxy Ethyl Mercury Chloride (vide S.O 3951(E) dated 8th August, 2018)
➢ Methyl Parathion (vide S.O 3951(E) dated 8th August, 2018)
➢ Metoxuron
➢ Nitrofen
➢ Paraquat Dimethyl Sulphate
➢ Pentachloro Nitrobenzene (PCNB) (vide S.O. 569 (E) dated 25th July 1989)
➢ Pentachlorophenol
➢ Phenyl Mercury Acetate
➢ Phorate(Vide S.O. 3951(E), dated 08.08.2018)
➢ Phosphamidon(Vide S.O. 3951(E), dated 08.08.2018)
➢ Sodium Cyanide ( banned for Insecticidal purpose only vide S.O 3951(E) dated
8th August, 2018)*
(*Regulation to be continued in the extant manner for non-insecticidal uses)
➢ Sodium Methane Arsonate
➢ Tetradifon
➢ Thiometon (vide S.O 3951(E) dated 8th August, 2018)
➢ Toxaphene(Camphechlor) (vide S.O. 569 (E) dated 25th July 1989)
➢ Triazophos(Vide S.O. 3951(E), dated 08.08.2018)
➢ Tridemorph (vide S.O 3951(E) dated 8th August, 2018)
➢ Trichloro acetic acid (TCA) (vide S.O. 682 (E) dated 17th July 2001)
➢ Trichlorfon(Vide S.O. 3951(E), dated 08.08.2018)
84. With reference to Ground Water Resource Assessment 2023, consider the following statements:
1. It is carried out at periodic intervals by the Central Water Commission.
2. As per the assessment, the annual groundwater extraction rate is less than 75% of the annual
extractable groundwater.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment Report 2023 was carried out jointly by the Central
Ground Water Board (CGWB) and States and Union Territories (not by the Central Water Commission).
The Assessment Report can be used for taking suitable interventions by various stakeholders. This
exercise, comprises assessment of Annual Ground Water Recharge, Extractable Ground Water Resource,
Ground Water Extraction. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
As per the assessment, the annual groundwater extraction as a percentage of annual extractable
groundwater is less than 60%. The exact percentage of groundwater extraction stands at 59.23%. So,
Statement 2 is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
GROUND WATER RESOURCE ASSESSMENT 2023
Recently in Union Minister for Jal Shakti releases dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment
News Report for the country for the year 2023.
About ➢ A detailed analysis of the information collected from the Ground Water Resource
Assessment Report indicates an increase in groundwater recharge, which may
mainly be attributed to an increase in recharge from canal seepage, return flow
of irrigation water and recharges from water bodies/tanks & water conservation
structures.
➢ Further, analysis indicates improvement in groundwater conditions in 226
assessment units in the country when compared with 2022 assessment data.
➢ In addition, the overall decrease in the number of over-exploited units and the
decrease in the stage of groundwater extraction level has also been observed.
➢ Other key observations are,
• The assessment indicates an increase in groundwater recharge.
• Analysis indicates improvement in groundwater conditions in 226 assessment
units in the country compared with 2022 assessment data.
• The total annual groundwater recharge for the entire country is 449.08 billion
cubic meters (BCM), while extraction is 241.34 BCM.
• Out of a total of 6553 assessment units, 4793 units were categorized as ‘Safe’.
• Such joint exercises between CGWB & States/UTs were carried out earlier in
1980, 1995, 2004, 2009, 2011, 2013, 2017, 2020 and 2022.

85. Consider the following countries:

1. South Africa
2. Indonesia
3. Vietnam
4. Senegal
5. India
Which of the countries mentioned have formed Just Energy Transition Partnerships (JETP) with
wealthier nations to fund their energy transition?
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
EXPLANATION:
Just Energy Transition Partnerships (JETPs), a significant global initiative, was officially launched at the
prestigious COP26 in Glasgow in 2021. This initiative, which received substantial support from the G7
countries and other stakeholders, is dedicated to facilitating energy transitions in developing countries
and aiding them in achieving their climate goals.
JETP funding can go through grants, loans, or investments. As of March 2023, the donor pool includes
the International Partners Group (IPG) and the Glasgow Financial Alliance for Net Zero (GFANZ) Working
Group. The IPG consists of Japan, the USA, Canada, Denmark, France, Germany, Italy, Norway, the EU,
and the UK. The GFANZ Working Group comprises multilateral and national development banks and
finance agencies such as HSBC and Citi Bank.
➢ The first JETP was announced at COP26 in Glasgow (2021). The partnership involves South Africa,
which was to receive USD 8.5 billion in financial aid from France, Germany, the United Kingdom
(UK), the United States (US), and the European Union (EU).
➢ Commitments included concessional funding and policy loans. South Africa's JETP Investment Plan
(JETP IP), released at COP27 (2022), showcased a transition pathway with three focus areas: the

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electricity sector, new energy vehicles, and green hydrogen. The updated JETP IP pathway estimated
a funding requirement of USD 98 billion.
➢ The second JETP was announced at the G20 leaders' summit in Bali in November 2022 between
Indonesia and an international partners group (IPG), amounting to USD 20 billion.
➢ The third JETP, which amounts to USD 15 billion, was announced in December 2022 between
Vietnam and an IPG. The IPG consists of the UK, the EU, Northern Ireland, the US, Japan, Germany,
France, Italy, Canada, Denmark, and Norway.
➢ The fourth JETP, amounting to EUR 2.5 billion, was announced at the June 2023 Summit for a New
Global Financing Pact between Senegal and an IPG.
Indonesia and Vietnam have signed JETP deals, but India is not expected to do so in the near future due
to the JETP's focus on phasing out coal, the small financing involved, and the debt nature of the
financing.So, Option (C) is correct.

86. With reference to Potassium Derived from Molasses (PDM), consider the following statements:
1. It is a potassium-rich fertiliser obtained as a by-product of the sugar-based ethanol industry.
2. It is 100% indigenously manufactured and has been included under the Nutrient Based Subsidy
(NBS) scheme.
3. Its potash content is higher than that found in Muriate of Potash (MoP), which India imports.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Potassium Derived from Molasses (PDM) is a potassium-rich fertilizer derived from ash in molasses-based
distilleries and is a by-product of the sugar-based ethanol industry. These distilleries produce a waste
chemical called spent wash during the production of ethanol, which is burnt in an Incineration Boiler
(IB), generating Ash to achieve Zero Liquid Discharge (ZLD). So, Statement 1 is correct.
The potash-rich ash can be processed to produce PDM, having 14.5% potash content, and can be used
by farmers in the field as an alternative to Muriate of Potash (MOP). The MOP has 60% potash content.
Currently, potash as a fertilizer is totally imported in the form of MoP.
Thus, the potash content in PDM is lower (not higher) than that found in Muriate of Potash (MoP), which
India imports. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
To promote Potash derived from Molasses (PDM), which is 100% indigenously manufactured fertilizer,
PDM has been notified under the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) regime. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
POTASH DERIVED FROM MOLASSES
Recently in Centre facilitates mutually agreed price of PDM for sale by sugar mills to fertilizer
News companies for the current year.
About ➢ The Central Government has facilitated a mutually agreed price of Potassium
Derived from Molasses (PDM) at ₹ 4263/MT for sale by sugar mills to fertilizer
companies for the current year.
➢ In addition, PDM Manufacturers can also claim a subsidy at Rs. 345/Ton at
present rates under the Nutrients Based Subsidy Scheme (NBS) of Department
of Fertilizers.
➢ Now, both, sugar mills and fertilizer companies are discussing modalities to enter
into long-term sale/purchase agreement on PDM.
➢ Presently about 5 lakh tonnes of Potash ash generated from ethanol distilleries
is being sold domestically, whereas the potential to produce this ash could reach

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up to 10-12 lakh tonnes
➢ Manufacturing and sale of PDM is going to be another revenue stream for sugar
mills to add to their cash flows and also to make payment to farmers in timely
manner.
➢ It is another initiative of Central Government to reduce import dependence in
Fertilizer Sector.

87. Recently, a new Global Partnership on Ecological Connectivity (GPEC) was launched by which of the
following?
(a) International Union for Conservation of Nature
(b) Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals
(c) Convention on the International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(d) United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
EXPLANATION:
IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) is a membership Union of governments and civil
society organizations. Created in 1948, IUCN is the world's largest and most diverse environmental
network, harnessing the knowledge, resources and reach of our more than 1,400 Member organizations
and 16,000 experts.
Through their affiliation with IUCN, Member organizations are part of a democratic process, discussing
and approving Resolutions, which lay the foundations for the global conservation agenda. Members meet
every four years at the IUCN World Conservation Congress to set priorities and agree on the Union's work
programme.
IUCN congresses have produced several key international environmental agreements, including the
Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species
of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), the World Heritage Convention, and the Ramsar Convention on
Wetlands. IUCN does not launch the Global Partnership on Ecological Connectivity (GPEC). So, Option
(a) is not correct.
The destruction, degradation and fragmentation of natural habitat is one of the two greatest threats to
migratory species of wild animals. A new initiative was launched at the UN wildlife meeting taking place
in Samarkand, Uzbekistan, to ensure that areas of importance to migratory species are identified,
protected and connected. Known as the Global Partnership on Ecological Connectivity (GPEC), the
announcement took place on the margins of the 14th Meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP14)
to the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS).
The GPEC's overarching objective is to ensure that ecological connectivity is maintained, enhanced, and
restored in places of importance for migratory species of wild animals. Migratory species depend on a
network of specific types of sites and habitats during their life cycles and seasonal movements. While
many such sites have been identified, not all are under any form of protection or conservation. Moreover,
many sites of importance have yet to be identified and mapped. So, Option (b) is correct.
The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) regulates
trade in specimens of over 38,000 species. It contains strict conditions under which international trade
can be authorized through the issuance of export permits or licences. The Convention was adopted in
1973 and entered into force on 1 July 1975. Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties – in other
words, they have to implement the Convention – it does not take the place of national laws. Rather it
provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its domestic legislation to ensure
that CITES is implemented at the national level. As of now, CITES has 184 members. CITES does not
launch the Global Partnership on Ecological Connectivity (GPEC). So, Option (c) is not correct.
The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), adopted in 1994, is the sole legally
binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management.
The Convention addresses specifically the arid, semi-arid, and dry sub-humid areas, known as the
drylands, where some of the most vulnerable ecosystems and peoples can be found. Parties to the
Convention meet in Conferences of the Parties (COPs) every two years, as well as in technical meetings
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throughout the year, to advance the aims and ambitions of the Convention and achieve progress in its
implementation. UNCCD does not launch the Global Partnership on Ecological Connectivity (GPEC). So,
Option (d) is not correct.

88. With reference to Rani Velu Nachiyar, consider the following statements:
1. She was one of the few Indian rulers who fought against British colonial rule and regained her
kingdom.
2. She led an armed rebellion against the British in response to the Doctrine of Lapse.
3. ‘Veera Mangai’, the mascot of the Khelo India Youth Games 2023, was inspired by her to embody
the strength of women's power.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Rani Velu Nachiyar was the first ever woman from a royal family to have challenged the mighty British
Empire. According to historian Prof. Sanjeevi, brave heart queen Velu Nachiyar revolted against the
English empire 85 years before Rani of Jhansi challenged Colonial power. Another historian, Venkatam,
further stated that Velu Nachiyar was India’s Joan of Arc.
In 1780, Rani Velu Nachiyar fought the British with the military assistance of her allies and won the
battle. Thus, she became the first queen who successfully fought against the British in India. She ruled
her regained kingdom for a decade. So, Statement 1 is correct.
When Rani Velu Nachiyar's husband was killed, she was drawn into battle. Her husband and his second
wife were killed by a few British soldiers and the son of the Nawab of Arcot. She escaped with her daughter
and lived under the protection of Hyder Ali at Virupachi near Dindigul for eight years. During this period,
she formed an army and sought an alliance with Gopala Nayaker and Hyder Ali with the aim of attacking
the British. In 1780 Rani Velu Nachiyar fought the British with military assistance from Gopala Nayaker
and Hyder Ali and won the battle. Rani Velu Nachiyar fought against the British in 1780 and this was
not against the Doctrine of Lapse of Lord Dalhousie.
Therefore, Rani Velu Nachiyar led an armed rebellion against the British in response to the killing of her
Husband (Not Doctrine of Lapse). So, Statement 2 is not correct.
‘Veera Mangai’, the mascot of the Khelo India Youth Games 2023, was inspired by Rani Velu Nachiyar
and symbolizes the valour and spirit of Indian women, embodying the strength of women's power. The
logo for the games incorporated the figure of the poet Thiruvalluvar. So, Statement 3 is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
RANI VELU NACHIYAR
Recently in Indian Prime Minister inaugurates the opening ceremony of the Khelo India Youth
News Games 2023 in Chennai, Tamil Nadu. VeeraMangai Velu Nachiyar is the mascot of this
edition of the games.
About ➢ Rani Velu Nachiyar was the first queen to fight against the British colonial power in
India.
➢ Tamils know her as Veeramangai.
➢ She was the princess of Ramanathapuram and the only child of Raja Chellamuthu
Vijayaragunatha Sethupathy and Rani Sakandhimuthal of the Ramnad kingdom.
➢ Rani Velu Nachiyar was trained in war match weapons usage, martial arts like Valari,
Silambam (fighting using a stick), horse riding and archery.
➢ She was a scholar in many languages, and she had proficiency in languages like
French, English and Urdu.
➢ She married the king of Sivagangai, with whom she had a daughter.
➢ Frustrated by the joining of forces against him, the Nawab ordered that Velu Nachiar
and Marudhu Brothers were permitted to return to Sivaganga and rule the country
subject to payment of Kist to the Nawab. Abiding by this Order, Rani Velu Nachiar,
accompanied by the Marudu brothers and Vellachi Nachiar, entered Sivaganga.
➢ An agreement was reached where Rani Velu Nachiar was permitted to govern the
Sivaganga Country. Chinna Marudu, the younger, was appointed her minister and
the elder Vellai Marudu as the Commander-in-chief. Thus, the widow, Queen Velu
Nachiar, succeeded her husband in 1780.
➢ Queen Velu Nachiar granted powers to the Marudhu Brothers to administer the
country in 1780.

89. Consider the following pairs:

(Martial art) (States)
1. Khukuri dance - Manipur
2. Gatka - Punjab
3. Kalari Payattu - Kerala
4. Thang-ta - Sikkim
5. Mardani Khel - Maharashtra
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only two pairs
(b) Only three pairs
(c) Only four pairs
(d) All five pairs
EXPLANATION:
Khukuri dance is a Gorkha folk dance that originated in the state of Sikkim (not Manipur). In Gorkha
culture, ‘Khukuri’ is a small knife which symbolises victory, robustness and power. With its sharp blade
and carved wooden handle, the knife is used as a prop in the dance. Dancers perform various tricks
using the knife while moving to the beat. The dance is also performed as a tribute to soldiers for the
security they provide. So, Pair (1) is not correct.

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Gatka is a weapon-based martial art form performed by the Sikhs of Punjab. The name ‘Gatka’ refers to
the one whose freedom belongs to grace. Gatka features the skillful use of weapons, including stick,
Kirpan, Talwar and Kataar. The attack and defence in this art form are determined by the various
positions of hands and feet and the nature of the weapon used. So, Pair (2) is correct.

One of the oldest martial arts in India, Kalaripayattu, although practised in most parts of Southern India,
originated in the state of Kerala around the 3rd century BC. Kalari, a Malayalam word, refers to a specific
type of school gymnasium or training hall where martial arts are practised or taught.
Not accompanied by any drumming or song, the most important aspect is the style of fighting.
Kalaripayattu’s most important key is footwork; it also includes kicks, strikes and weapon-based
practice. Even women practice this art. Kalaripayattu is still rooted in the traditional rituals and
ceremonies. So, Pair (3) is correct.

Created by the Meitei people of Manipur (not Sikkim), Thang-ta is an armed martial art that finds its
mention as one of the most lethal combat forms. Thang refers to a ‘sword’, while Ta refers to a ‘spear’;
thus, sword and spear are the two main elements of Thang-ta. So, Pair (4) is not correct.

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Mardani Khel is a traditional Maharashtrian armed martial art, which is practiced widely in the district
of Kolhapur. Mardani Khel focuses primarily on skills of weaponry, especially swords, swift movements
and the use of low stances that are suited to its originating place, the hill ranges. It is known for the use
of the unique Indian Patta (sword) and Vita (corded lance). Famous practitioners included Shivaji. So,
Pair (5) is correct.

90. Which of the following became the first State in India to declare ‘dandapatta’, the gauntlet sword, as
its state weapon?
(a) Odisha
(b) Telangana
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Karnataka
EXPLANATION:
Maharashtra state government has decided to declare the gauntlet sword (also called Dandpatta in
Marathi) of Chattrapati Shivaji Maharaj as the state weapon. It is the first State in India to declare
‘Dandapatta’ as its state weapon. The announcement came on the occasion of the 350th anniversary of
the coronation of the 17th-century Maratha King warrior, Chattrapati Shivaji.
Forged in medieval India, the gauntlet sword was commonly used in the 17th and 18th centuries when
the Maratha empire came into prominence and was used in many wars. The Dandapatta has an
important place as a Maratha weapon in the history of Marathas.
It usually consists of a long, straight steel blade attached to an armoured gauntlet that can be worn on
the fist. Armoured gloves are designed to cover the forearm from the fist to the elbow. It was used in
hand-to-hand combat at close range. Especially the Maratha infantry used it effectively in many
campaigns. So, Option (c) is correct.

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91. Consider the following statements regarding the Competition (Amendment) Act 2023 :
1. The amendment limits the scope of anti-competitive agreements.
2. It extended the time limit for filing information regarding alleged contraventions.
3. It allows the parties to conduct market purchases without prior notification to the Competition
Commission of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The Competition (Amendment) Act 2023 broadens the scope of the provisions of Section 3 of the
Competition Act that deals with anti-competitive agreements. It provides for 'any other' types of
agreements to be captured within the ambit of anti-competitive agreements. Thus, the amendment not
limits the scope of anti-competitive agreements. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Competition (Amendment) Act introduces a three-year limitation period for entertaining information
or references regarding alleged contraventions under the Act. The Competition Commission of India (CCI)
is further empowered to condone delays in filing such information or references if sufficient cause is
demonstrated. This limitation period imparts certainty and finality to competition law enforcement,
preventing the reopening of cases long after the alleged contravention. It establishes a clear timeframe
for parties to file complaints and ensures the timely execution of competition law enforcement. Thus, the
amendment limits the time for filing information regarding alleged contraventions. So, Statement 2 is
not correct.
The Competition Act 2002 does not permit parties to acquire any shares (or pay any consideration) in a
proposed combination pending approval from CCI. This includes combinations involving open market
acquisition of shares listed on the stock exchange, including potential hostile acquisitions (takeovers). In
line with the international best practices, the proposed amendments seek to establish a special
framework for market purchases.
Under this framework, parties can conduct market purchases without prior notification and approval of
CCI. However, they subsequently shall give notice to CCI within the specified time and shall not exercise
any ownership or beneficial rights or interest in such shares till the approval of CCI. So, Statement 3
is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
THE COMPETITION (AMENDMENT) ACT 2023
Key ➢ Broadening the scope of anti-competitive agreements
Amendments ➢ Reduction in time-limit for review of Mergers and acquisitions (M&A) from 210 days
to 150 days
➢ Introduction of Deal Value as another criterion for notifying M&As

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➢ Limitation Period of 3 years for filing Information(s)
➢ Penalty indexed to Global Turnover
➢ Introduction of Settlement & Commitment framework for faster market correction
➢ Hub-and-Spoke type arrangements brought under the presumptive rule of
Appreciable Adverse Effect on Competition (AAEC)
➢ Framing of Regulations after public consultations
➢ Issuance of Guidelines
➢ Appointment of the Director General by the Commission, with prior approval of
Central Government.

92. Which of the following best describes the idea behind the concept of 'Advance Pricing Agreement,'
often seen in the news ?
(a) To promote fair competition in the global agricultural market by limiting distortions caused by
government intervention
(b) To prevent large multinational corporations from engaging in tax evasion
(c) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more, which are under consortium
lending
(d) To lessen the Government of India's perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit
EXPLANATION:
The Advance Pricing Agreement (APA) was introduced in 2012 by the Central Board of Direct Taxes to
minimize any confusion regarding the pricing of international transactions through a mutual agreement
between the taxpayer and the tax authority on the pricing of future intercompany transactions in case
of a roll-back, it would also include past years. The taxpayer and tax authority mutually agree on the
Transfer Pricing Methodology (TPM) to be applied and its application for a certain period of time for
covered transactions (subject to fulfillment of critical assumptions). The main purpose of transfer pricing
and APA is to keep a check on big MNCs so that they do not indulge in tax evasion. APA is an effective
tool used in several countries with established transfer pricing regimes to avoid potential disputes in a
cooperative manner. So, Option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ADVANCE PRICING AGREEMENT (APA)
Types An APA may be unilateral, bilateral or multilateral,
➢ Unilateral: APA entered into between a taxpayer and the tax administration of the
country where it is subject to taxation.
➢ Bilateral: APA entered into between the taxpayers, the tax administration of the
host country and the foreign tax administration.
➢ Multilateral: APA entered into between the taxpayers, the tax administration of the
host country and more than one foreign tax administrations, the Indian APA rules
allow for all the three types of APAs.
Key Benefits ➢ An APA provides certainty on the pricing and the transfer pricing methodology to
of an APA be adopted for covered intercompany transactions. Further, a bilateral or
multilateral APA also eliminates the risk of potential double taxation arising from
controlled transactions.
➢ The key advantages of APA can be summarised as:
• Certainty with respect to the outcome of covered transactions during the APA term.
• Agreement as to information to be kept for annual report, low annual reporting cost.
• Reduction in risk and cost associated with audits and appeals over the APA term.
• Imparts flexibility in developing practical approaches for complex transfer pricing
issues.
• APA renewal provides an excellent leverage of time and efforts expended during
negotiating the original APA.

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93. Which one of the following British islands is considering to become a part of Norway for an alternate
form of government?
(a) Northern Ireland
(b) Shetland Island
(c) Orkney Island
(d) Faroe Island
EXPLANATION:
Northern Ireland, a part of the United Kingdom, shares its western and southern borders with the
Republic of Ireland (which is separate from Northern Ireland and is formally known as Ireland), while the
North Channel separates it from Scotland to the east. Occupying a total area of approximately 5,460
square miles, the region is characterized by diverse geographical features, ranging from mountains and
plateaus to lowlands and water bodies. Northern Ireland is not considering becoming a part of Norway
for an alternate form of government. So, Option (a) is not correct.
Shetland is located in the North Atlantic Ocean, between Norway, the Faroe Islands, and Great Britain
(Scotland). It is Scotland’s and the United Kingdom’s northernmost point. The islands are approximately
300 km west of Norway, 80 kilometres off the southwest of Orkney, and 170 kilometres north of mainland
Scotland. Shetland is located between the Norwegian Sea on the west and the North Sea on the east.
Shetland is not considering becoming a part of Norway for an alternate form of government. So, Option
(b) is not correct.
Orkney Islands, an iconic archipelago off the northeast coast of Scotland is looking at ways to split off
from the U.K. and potentially become a self-governing territory of Norway.
Under new proposals brought forward by the local council, the Orkney Islands will explore “alternative
forms of governance,” including changing its legal status within Britain, as it seeks to provide more
economic opportunities for islanders. One potential route being considered could see the archipelago
leverage its energy production capabilities — including an oil terminal on Flotta Island and other
renewable resources — to gain greater economic independence.
Under the U.K.’s devolved system of government, Orkney, one of 32 council areas in Scotland, receives
allotted funding from the Scottish government.
Orkney was under Norwegian and Danish rule until the late 15th century when the islands were handed
to Scotland as security for the wedding dowry of Margaret of Denmark in her marriage to King James III
of Scotland.
The islands are home to some of the oldest and best-preserved Neolithic sites in Europe, as well as
stunning landscapes and a wealth of marine and avian wildlife. So, Option (c) is correct.

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The Faroe Archipelago is made up of a group of islands located between the North Atlantic and the
Norwegian Sea, which is about halfway between Iceland and Norway. The Faroe Islands is a sovereign
country in the Kingdom of Denmark. The land around the archipelago is weathered with a subpolar
oceanic climate. Faroe Island is not considering becoming a part of Norway for an alternate form of
government. So, Option (d) is not correct.

94. With reference to 'Extra-judicial killings', frequently in the news, consider the following statements :
1. It refers to unlawful killings of an accused by any government authority without receiving an order
from the court of law.
2. The Criminal Procedure Code of 1973 authorises Indian police officers to use any degree of force
necessary to apprehend the accused or prevent their escape.
3. Encounters carried out by police officers in charge do not fall under the ambit of extra-judicial
killings.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
'Extra-judicial killings' refers to the deliberate, unlawful killings of an accused person by any government
authority outside of any legal framework. (Popularly known as “encounters”). It is illegal, as it violates
the basic human rights guaranteed to every individual. The accused person in such cases is not even
given a right to prove himself/herself innocent before the court of law. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Sections from 96-106 of Indian Penal Code, 1860 deals with the Right to Private Defence. Under these
sections, death in an encounter will not amount to a criminal offence, when it is done as self-defence.
Section 46 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC), 1973 allows the police officers to use any degree of
force which is required to arrest the accused or prevent the accused from escaping. So, Statement 2 is
correct.
The physical torture, Encounters, sexual harassment, or mental torture of the accused in custody (i.e.
custodial violence) also comes under the ambit of extra-judicial killings. Thus, encounters carried out by
police officers in charge fall under the ambit of extra-judicial killings. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
16-POINT GUIDELINES
About ➢ In People’s Union for Civil Liberties vs State of Maharashtra, 2014, the Supreme court
provided 16-point guidelines to be followed during investigation of police encounters.
➢ The guidelines included the
• Mandatory registration of FIR
• Provisions for magisterial inquiry
• Keeping the written records of intelligence inputs
• Independent investigation by bodies such as the CID.
➢ The court directed that these norms must be strictly observed as a law declared under
Article 141 of the Indian Constitution.
➢ Article 141 states that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all
other courts in Indian territory.
➢ Prior to the Supreme court guidelines, the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
under the Chairmanship of Justice MN Venkatachaliah issued a guideline for
encounter cases in 1997.
➢ It deals with the procedure to be followed, obligation of states, compensation to be
awarded, etc.

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95. Which of the following countries are susceptible to heavy rainfall as a result of the El Nino
phenomenon ?
1. Malawi
2. Somalia
3. Indonesia
4. Australia
5. Peru
6. Canada
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 5 only
(c) 1, 5 and 6 only
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only
EXPLANATION:
El Nino is a natural climate pattern borne out of unusually warm waters in the eastern Pacific.
Floods linked to El Nino continue to impact parts of the Horn of Africa; countries in the South, such as
Malawi, face high risks of delayed rains and dry spells. Thus, Malawi is not susceptible to heavy rainfall
as a result of the El Nino phenomenon. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Somalia, a country in Horn of Africa, is susceptible to heavy rainfall as a result of El Nino Phenomenon.
Recently, severe flooding in Somalia, caused by unusually active El Nino rains, has displaced thousands
of people. The El Nino-induced rainfall has wreaked havoc in Horn of Africa. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Indonesia, home to a third of the world's rainforest after Brazil and Congo, expects the dry season as El
Nino increases the risk of forest fires and threatens supplies of clean water.
Two of the world's few tropical glaciers in Indonesia are melting, their ice under threat to vanish by 2026
or sooner, as an El Nino weather pattern lengthens the dry season in the southeast Asian nation of
Indonesia.
Thus, Indonesia is not susceptible to heavy rainfall as a result of the El Nino phenomenon. So,
Statement 3 is not correct.
According to the World Meteorological Organization, an El Nino event has raised fears of record-high
global temperatures, extreme weather and, in Australia, a severe fire season. El Nino can trigger extreme
heat and also cause severe droughts over Australia and other parts of the world. Thus, Australia is not
susceptible to heavy rainfall as a result of the El Nino phenomenon. So, Statement 4 is not correct.
Peru is susceptible to heavy rainfall as a result of the El Nino phenomenon. El Nino, characterized by
cyclical warming of the oceans and changes in weather patterns, has resulted in tropical cyclones and
increased rainfall in the Pacific region. Excessive rainfall has created breeding grounds for mosquitoes,
leading to the widespread prevalence of dengue in Peru. So, Statement 5 is correct.
El Nino caused dry, warm winters in the Northern U.S. and Canada and increased flooding risk on the
U.S. Gulf Coast and southeastern U.S. Thus, Canada is not susceptible to heavy rainfall as a result of
the El Nino phenomenon. So, Statement 6 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
EL NINO
Recently in Meteorologists expect that El Nino, coupled with excess warming from climate
News change, will see the world grapple with record-high temperatures.
About ➢ El Nino is the warming of sea waters in Central-east Equatorial Pacific that
occurs every few years.
➢ During El Nino, surface temperatures in the equatorial Pacific rise, and trade
winds, namely, east-west winds that blow near the Equator, weaken.
➢ Normally, easterly trade winds blow from the Americas towards Asia. Due to El
Nino, they falter and change direction to turn into westerlies, bringing warm

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water from the western Pacific towards the Americas.
➢ Deeper waters are usually more nutrient-rich, but upwelling (where deeper
waters rise towards the surface) is reduced under El Nino, in turn reducing
phytoplankton off the coast.
➢ Fish that eat phytoplankton are affected, followed by other organisms higher up
the food chain.
➢ Warmer water also carries tropical species towards colder areas, disrupting
multiple ecosystems.

96. Consider the following statements with respect to the Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan:
1. It is an integrated, centrally sponsored scheme for Primary and Secondary Education.
2. The scheme focuses on girls, minority communities and transgender individuals.
3. It addresses non-academic components with a focus on early childhood care and education.
4. The scheme has the objective of enhancing the capabilities of educational institutions by
strengthening and upgradation of teacher training.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan is an integrated scheme for School Education (Primary and Secondary
Education) that has been launched throughout the country as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with effect
from the year 2018-19. This programme subsumes the three erstwhile Centrally Sponsored Schemes of
Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) and Teacher Education
(TE). So, Statement 1 is correct.
Bridging gender and social category gaps at all levels of school education is one of the major objectives
of Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan. The scheme reaches out to girls and children belonging to SC, ST, minority
communities and transgender.
Under Samagra Shiksha, various interventions have been targeted for girls, which include the opening
of schools in the neighbourhood to make access easier for girls, free uniforms and textbooks to girls up
to Class VIII, additional teachers and residential quarters for teachers in remote/hilly areas, separate
toilets for girls, teachers sensitization programmes to promote girls participation. So, Statement 2 is
correct.
The major objectives of the Scheme are
➢ Support States and Union Territories in implementing the recommendations of the National
Education Policy 2020 (NEP 2020).
➢ Support States in the implementation of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education
(RTE) Act, 2009;
➢ Focus on Early Childhood Care and Education.
So, Statement 3 is correct.
➢ Emphasis on Foundational Literacy and Numeracy
The scheme also emphasizes improving learning outcomes, addressing social and gender gaps, ensuring
equity and inclusion, and enhancing the capabilities of educational institutions by strengthening and
upgradation of teacher training.
The scheme also focuses on strengthening and up-gradation of State Councils for Educational Research
and Training (SCERTs)/State Institutes of Education and District Institutes for Education and Training
(DIET) as a nodal agency for teacher training.
So, Statement 4 is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
SAMAGRA SHIKSHA ABHIYAN
Recently in The government is expected to spend ₹37,500 crore on the Samagra Shiksha
News scheme, an increase of ₹4,500 crore when compared with FY24 revised estimates.
About ➢ The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has approved the continuation of
the Centrally Sponsored Scheme- Samagra Shiksha Scheme, which is an
integrated scheme for the school education sector from 1st April 2021 to 31st
March 2026.
➢ The Scheme is in accordance with the Sustainable Development Goal for
Education (SDG-4).
➢ It has now been aligned with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 to ensure
inclusive, equitable, quality and holistic school education.
➢ It aims to ensure that all children have access to quality education with an
equitable and inclusive classroom environment by taking care of their diverse
backgrounds, multilingual needs, and different academic abilities and making
them active participants in the learning process.
➢ Focus on Skill Development includes,
• Exposure to Vocational Skills at the Upper Primary Level would be extended.
• Strengthening vocational education at the secondary level as an integral part of
the curriculum
• Vocational education, which was limited to Class 9-12, is to be started from
Class 6 as integrated with the curriculum and to be made more practical and
industry-oriented.

97. Consider the following statements with respect to the Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman:
1. This scheme covers government and government-aided schools.
2. State governments shall provide dry rations through the One Nation One Ration card when
schools lack kitchen facilities.
3. The scheme is extended to students studying in pre-primary and Government-aided primary
schools.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
The Government has approved the Centrally Sponsored Scheme ‘Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman
(PM POSHAN)’ for providing one hot cooked meal in Government and government–aided Schools from
2021-22 to 2025-26. The Ministry of Education is implementing the Scheme. So, Statement 1 is
correct.
Under the POSHAN guidelines, those Governments providing dry rations instead of cooked meals must
within three months start providing cooked meals in all Government and Government Primary Schools
in all half the Districts of the State (in order of poverty) and must within a further period of three months
extend the provision of cooked meals to the remaining parts of the State.
Thus, Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman is not linked with the One Nation One Ration card scheme
in order to provide dry rations. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Under the PM POSHAN Scheme, there is the provision of hot cooked meals to children of pre-schools or
Bal Vatika (before class I) in primary schools and children of classes I to VIII. The Scheme is implemented
across the country covering all the eligible children without any discrimination of gender and social class.

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The scheme is thus available to students studying in pre-primary or Bal Vatikas of Government and
Government-aided primary schools in addition to all the 11.80 crore children from elementary classes.
So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PRADHAN MANTRI POSHAN SHAKTI NIRMAN
Recently in The government is expected to spend ₹12,467 crore on the Pradhan Mantri Poshan
News Shakti Nirman (PM - POSHAN) scheme, an increase of ₹2,467 crore when compared
with FY24 revised estimates.
About ➢ The primary objective of the PM - POSHAN scheme is to improve the nutritional
status of children studying in classes I-VIII in eligible schools.
➢ It was earlier known as the National Programme of Mid-Day Meals in Schools.
➢ The scheme addresses two of the pressing problems for the majority of children
in India, viz. hunger and education.
➢ The scheme encourages poor children belonging to disadvantaged sections to
attend school more regularly and helps them concentrate on classroom activities.
Important Under the PM POSHAN Scheme,
Provisions under ➢ The concept of TithiBhojan will be encouraged extensively. TithiBhojan is a
the PM POSHAN community participation programme in which people provide special food to
Scheme children on special occasions and festivals.
➢ The government is promoting the development of School Nutrition Gardens in
schools to give children first-hand experience with nature and gardening. The
harvest of these gardens is used in the scheme, providing additional
micronutrients.
➢ Social Audit of the scheme is made mandatory in all the districts.
➢ Special provision is made for providing supplementary nutrition items to
children in aspirational districts and districts with a high prevalence of Anaemia.
➢ Cooking competitions will be encouraged at all levels, right from village level to
national level to promote ethnic cuisine and innovative menus based on locally
available ingredients and vegetables.
➢ Vocal for Local for Atmanirbhar Bharat: Involvement of Farmers Producer
Organizations (FPO) and Women Self Help Groups in the implementation of the
scheme will be encouraged. The use of locally grown traditional food items for a
fillip to local economic growth will be encouraged.

98. Consider the following statements with respect to the National Food Security Act (NFSA) of 2013:
1. The quantity of grains to which a beneficiary is entitled cannot be changed without Parliament’s
approval.
2. All the beneficiary households under the NFSA are entitled to receive food grains according to the
number of family members.
3. Subsidised prices are specified in Schedule I of the NFSA, and Schedule II prescribes the
nutritional standards for various groups.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

EXPLANATION:
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The National Food Security Act (NFSA) of 2013 guaranteed “access to adequate quantity of quality food
at affordable prices” under the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) to 50% of the urban and 75%
of the rural population of the country. The overall national coverage of the NFSA is about 67.5% of the
population.
The quantity of grains to which a beneficiary is entitled is also laid down in the law and cannot be
changed without Parliament’s approval. So, Statement 1 is correct.
There are two categories of beneficiary households under the NFSA, namely, the Antyodaya Anna Yojana
(AAY) households and the Priority Households (PHs).
➢ Each Antyodaya Anna Yojana household is entitled to 35 kg of foodgrains every month, irrespective
of the number of members in the household.
➢ The Priority Households (PHs) are entitled to receive food grains according to the number of family
members. Each member of a PH is entitled to receive 5 kg of food grains every month under the NFSA.
So, the bigger a PH family, the greater the quantity of food grains it gets.
Thus, not all the beneficiary households under the NFSA are entitled to receive food grains according to
the number of family members. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The subsidised prices are specified in Schedule 1 of the NFSA, which the government can change by
executive order.
The NFSA Schedule II fixes nutritional standards for nine groups, starting from children aged six months
to one year and those in upper primary classes (VI-VIII). Three new categories have been created for
malnourished children aged between six months to six years. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
NATIONAL FOOD SECURITY ACT OF 2013
Recently in Govt revises nutritional standards in its food safety schemes for kids.
News
About ➢ Until the end of 2022, NFSA beneficiaries paid Rs 3, Rs 2, and Re 1 per kg of
rice, wheat, and nutri-cereals (millets), respectively.
➢ These prices were not changed for years, even though the economic cost of
foodgrains and the food subsidy bill grew steadily. From this year onwards, the
rations were made entirely free.
➢ The nutritional standards for some existing categories, such as lower primary
classes and upper primary classes, have been revised.
➢ For instance, under the previous norms, every child in lower primary classes was
entitled to get 450 kilocalories (kcal) and 12 gm of protein with midday meals.
➢ Now, the protein quantity has been hiked to 15-20 gms, while fat (18-21 gms)
and carbohydrates (70 gms) are part of the mix as well.
➢ Standards for micronutrients have also been fixed:
• Calcium 170 mg, zinc 2 mg, iron 3.5 mg, dietary folate 50 micrograms, Vitamin
A 100 micrograms, Vitamin B6 0.43 micrograms, Vitamin B12 0.66 micrograms.

99. Puraquequara Lake, which has been affected by drought, recently in news is located in which of the
following river basins?
(a) Amazon River
(b) Nile River
(c) Congo River
(d) Niger River
EXPLANATION:
Severe Drought Leaves Floating Village Stranded in Brazil's Amazon. A severe drought in Brazil has left
a floating village stranded on a lakebed, causing food, water, and fuel shortages. Water levels in Lake
Puraquequara have dropped to record lows, leaving boats and structures beached in mud. Lake

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Puraquequara is part of the Rio Negro river system (major tributary of the Amazon river), and since the
end of September, water levels in this region have neared record lows. So, Option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
AMAZON RIVER SYSTEM
About ➢ Amazon River, the greatest river of South America and the
largest drainage system in the world in terms of the volume of its flow and the
area of its basin.
➢ The total length of the river—as measured from the headwaters of the Ucayali-
Apurímac river system in southern Peru—is at least 4,000 miles (6,400 km),
which makes it slightly shorter than the Nile River but still the equivalent of the
distance from New York City to Rome.
➢ Its westernmost source is high in the Andes Mountains, within 100 miles (160
km) of the Pacific Ocean, and its mouth is in the Atlantic Ocean, on the
northeastern coast of Brazil.
➢ However, both the length of the Amazon and its ultimate source have been
subjects of debate since the mid-20th century, and there are those who claim
that the Amazon is actually longer than the Nile

100. Which of the following is the primary objective of Project BHISHM being implemented by the
government of India?
(a) No expense delivery for all pregnant women delivering in Public health institutions.
(b) Vaccination campaign against cervical cancer for all girls aged 9-14.
(c) It offers a portable disaster hospital to save lives in the most challenging circumstances.
(d) It aims to address the declining Child Sex Ratio and related issues.
EXPLANATION:

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The government of India launched Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram (JSSK) in June 2011, which
entitles all pregnant women delivering in public health institutions to absolutely free and no-expense
delivery, including Caesarean section. The scheme aims to eliminate out-of-pocket expenses for both
pregnant women and sick infants. JSSK is not associated with Project BHISM. So, Option (a) is not
correct.
The National Technical Advisory Group for Immunization (NTAGI) recommended the introduction of the
HPV vaccine into the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) on June 28, 2022, proposing a one-time
catch-up program for adolescent girls aged 9-14 years, followed by a routine introduction at nine years
of age. Union Finance Minister, in her interim budget speech for 2024-25, indicated that the government
would actively "promote" vaccination to combat this deadly disease.
The primary objective of Project BHISHM is not the Vaccination campaign against cervical cancer for all
girls aged 9-14. So, Option (b) is not correct.
The Government of India's ambitious 'Project BHISHM' (Bharat Health Initiative for Sahyog Hita and
Maitri) portable hospital was developed that consists of a fully equipped operation theatre, mini-ICUs,
ventilators, blood-testing equipment, a X-ray machine and even a cooking station. It also includes a
shelter facility and power generator, making it entirely self-sufficient during emergencies.
The life-saving equipment is packed in a set of "mini-cubes", and a combination of these mini-cubes is
used to set up a mobile hospital capable of performing life-saving surgery. The mini-cubes are carried in
a "Aarogya Maitri Cube Cage", which has three frames, each accommodating 12 mini-cubes. An Aarogya
Maitri Cube Cage can fit 36 mini-cubes overall. Two such 'Aarogya Maitri' mother cubes combine to form
a "brick" to complete the kit which is also water- and corrosion-proof. The kit also comes with a unique
locking and tamper-proof system which is easy to locate, draw out and use. It can be dismantled in
various combinations based on the availability of space.
The "world's first portable disaster hospital" was developed in India and consists of a set of "mini-cubes"
which can be airlifted and deployed on any terrain. Easy-to-use, mobile medical facilities can be swiftly
deployed to save lives in the most challenging circumstances. It can provide critical medical care to 100
survivors for up to 48 hours, making it a lifeline on remote and tough terrains where immediate medical
attention is needed.
The cubes can handle bullets, burns, head, spinal and chest injuries, fractures, and major bleeding.
India is now equipped and ready to supply this to any country in need. So, Option (c) is correct.

Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) Scheme aims to address the declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR) and related
issues of empowerment of girls and women over a life cycle continuum. The primary objectives of the
scheme are to prevent gender-biased sex selective elimination, to ensure the survival and protection of
the girl child and to ensure the education and participation of the girl child. The key elements of the
scheme included nationwide media and advocacy campaigns and multi-sectoral interventions in selected
405 districts. The Scheme increases Awareness towards Valuing the Girl Child.
The primary objective of Project BHISHM is not to address the declining Child Sex Ratio and related
issues. So, Option (d) is not correct.

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