21-07-2024

1015CMD303001240019 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) Density of ice is 0.9 g / cm3 in the CGS system of units. The corresponding value in MKS units is :-

(1) 900
(2) 9
(3) 0.9
(4) 9000

2) The dimensions of universal gravitational constant are :

(1) [M–2 L3 T–2]

(2) [M–2 L2 T–1]
(3) [M–1 L3 T–2]
(4) [ML2 T–1]

3)

A student measure quantities a,b and c and then calculates S by the formula S = ab2/c3.
If the errors in a,b,c are 1%, 3% and 2% respectively, the maximum error in S can be :-

(1) 13%
(2) 7%
(3) 4%
(4) 1%

4) Find force exerted by the 2 kg block on 3 kg block :-

(1) 36 N
(2) 24 N
(3) 20 N
(4) 4 N

5) Two bodies of masses 10 kg and 15 kg are moving with equal momentum. The ratio of velocity of
both the bodies is :-

(1) 3 : 2
(2) 4 : 5
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 1 : 4

6) A girl pushes her physics book up against the horizontal ceiling of her room as shown in the
figure. The book weighs 20 N and she pushes upwards with a force of 25 N. The choices below list
the magnitudes of the contact force FCB between the ceiling and the book, and FBH between the book

and her hand. Select the correct pair.

(1) FCB = 20 N and FBH = 25 N

(2) FCB = 25 N and FBH = 45 N
(3) FCB = 5 N and FBH = 25 N
(4) FCB = 5 N and FBH = 45 N

7) For the arrangement in figure, the tension in the string to prevent it from sliding down, is

(1) 6 N
(2) 6.4 N
(3) 0.4 N
(4) zero

8) Two pulley arrangements (1) and (2) are as shown in the figure. Neglect the masses of the ropes
and pulleys and the friction at the axle of the pulleys. The ratio of the acceleration of mass m in

arrangement (1) to that in arrangement (2) is : (1) (2)

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1

9) The figure shows the position time graph of a particle of mass 40 kg. What is the force acting on

the particle for 0 < t < 4 s :-

(1) 30 N
(2) Zero
(3) 53.33 N
(4) 40 N

10) In the given figure by what acceleration the boy must go up so that 100 kg block remains
stationary on the wedge? The wedge is fixed and friction is absent everywhere (g = 10m/s2) :-

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 6 m/s2
(4) 8 m/s2

11) Two blocks are placed on a horizontal surface as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction
between the blocks is 0.5 and between block of 5 kg and the surface is 0.7. The maximum horizontal
force that can be applied to the block of mass 5 kg so that the two blocks move without slipping is:

(Take g = 10 m/s2):-

(1) 14 N
(2) 24 N
(3) 56 N
(4) 96 N

12) 250 litre of an ideal gas is heated at constant pressure from 27°C such that its volume becomes
500 liters. The final temperature is :

(1) 54°C
(2) 300°C
(3) 327°C
(4) 600°C

13)

Consider P-V diagram for an ideal gas shown in figure :

Out of the following diagrams, which represents the T–P diagram ?

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)
(1) iv
(2) ii
(3) iii
(4) i

14) At what temperature, rms velocity of O2 molecules will be 1/3 that of H2 molecules at –3ºC?

(1) 90 K
(2) 1167ºC
(3) –3ºC
(4) 207ºC

15) For a ideal gas gives :-

(1) Number of moles

(2) Number of molecules
(3) Density
(4) Mass of gas

16) When temperature and pressure of a gas are doubled, the r.m.s. velocity :-

(1) becomes twice

(2) becomes times
(3) remains same
(4) becomes 0.7 times

17) The initial temperature of a gas is 100°C. The gas is contained in closed vessel. If the pressure of
the gas is increased by 5%, calculate the percentage increase in temperature of the gas:

(1) 1 %
(2) 2 %
(3) 4 %
(4) 5 %

18) At what temperature the rms velocity of Helium molecule will be equal to that of Hydrogen
molecules at NTP :-

(1) 844 K
(2) 64 K
(3) 273°C
(4) 273 K

19) Which of the following gases possesses maximum rms velocity, all being at the same
temperature :-

(1) Oxygen
(2) Air
(3) Carbon dioxide
(4) Hydrogen

20) The volume of vessel A is twice the volume of another vessel B, and both of them are filled with
the same gas. If the gas in A is at twice the temperature and twice the pressure in comparison to the
gas in B, then the ratio of the gas molecules in A to that of B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Two identical cylinders contain helium at 2.5 atmosphere and argon at one atmosphere
respectively. If both the gases are filled in one of the cylinders, the pressure would be :-

(1) 3.5 atmosphere

(2) 1.75 atmosphere
(3) 1.50 atmosphere
(4) 1 atmosphere

22) Figure shows a process for a given amount of an ideal gas. If volume in state 1 is V1 & in state 2

is V2, then

(1) V1 > V2
(2) V1 < V2
(3) V1 = V2
(4) None

23) The capacity of a vessel is 3 litres. It contains 8 g oxygen, 7 g nitrogen and 11 g CO2 mixture at
27°C. If R = 8.31 J/mole × kelvin, then the pressure in the vessel in N/m2 will be (approx)

(1) 6.25 × 105

(2) 12.5 × 104
(3) 106
(4) 105

24) An ideal gas follows a process PT = constant. The correct graph between pressure & volume is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
25) A projectile is projected from ground with initial velocity . If acceleration due to
gravity (g) is along the negative y-direction then find the range of projectile in x-direction.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) A projectile is fired at an angle of 45° with the horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its
highest point as seen from the point of projection, is :-

(1) 45°
(2) 60°

(3)
tan–1

(4)
tan–1

27) A projectile is given an initial velocity of where is along the ground and is along
2
the vertical. If g = 10 m/s the equation of its trajectory is :-

(1) y = x – 5x2
(2) y = 2x – 5x2
(3) 4y = 2x – 5x2
(4) 4y = 2x – 25x2

28)

A bomber plane moves horizontally with a speed of 500 m/s and a bomb released from it, strikes the
ground in 10 sec. Angle at which it strikes the ground will be :- (g = 10 m/s2)

(1)

(2)

(3) tan–1 (1)

(4) tan–1 (5)

29) Two stones are projected horizontally from the same height with speeds 100 m/s and 40 m/s. The
ratio of their horizontal range is :-
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 5 : 2
(3) 2 : 5
(4) 3 : 4

30) A boy wants to jump from building A to building B height of building A is 39.2 m and building B
is 19.6 m. Distance between buildings is 20 m. Assuming boy jumps horizontally, then calculate
minimum velocity with which boy has to jump to land safely on building B :-

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 9.8 m/s
(4) 19.6 m/s

31) A boat which has a speed of 5 km/hr in still water crosses a river of width 3 km along the
shortest possible path in t min. The river flows at the rate of 3 km/hr. The time taken is :-

(1) 20 min
(2) 25 min
(3) 45 min
(4) 55 min

32) A force of (5 + 3x) N acts on a body of mass 20 kg along the x axis and displaces it from x = 2m
to x = 6m, the work done by the force is:-

(1) 20 J
(2) 48 J
(3) 68 J
(4) 86 J

33) Force acting on a particle of mass 0.1 kg varies with displacement as

shown. If the particle starts from rest at x = 0, then velocity of particle at x = 12 m is :-

(1) 0 m/s
(2)
(3)
(4) 40 m/s

34) A particle is moved from a position metre to a

position metre under the action of a force . The work done is equal to :-

(1) 32 J
(2) 64 J
(3) 96 J
(4) 46 J

35)

An object of mass 5 kg falls from rest through a vertical distance of 20 m and reaches to ground with
a velocity of 10 m/sec. Then work done by air resistance on the object is :-

(1) 750 J
(2) –750 J
(3) 270 J
(4) –270 J

SECTION-B

1) One centimetre on the main scale of Vernier callipers is divided into ten equal parts. If 8 divisions
of the main scale coincide with 10 small divisions of the vernier scale, the least count of the
callipers is:

(1) 0.01 cm
(2) 0.02 cm
(3) 0.05 cm
(4) 0.005 cm

2) The equation = At – BV is describing the rate of change of velocity of a body falling from rest
in a resisting medium. The dimensions of A & B are:

(1) LT–3, T
(2) LT–3, T–1
(3) LT, T
(4) LT, T–1

3) An impulse is supplied to a moving object with the force at an angle of 120° with the velocity
vector. What is the angle between the impulse and the change in momentum?

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 60°
(4) 120°

4) n balls each of mass m collides per second with a surface with velocity u and rebounds in opposite
direction with same speed. The average force experienced by the surface will be :-

(1) mnu
(2) 2mnu
(3) 4mnu

(4)

5) If system is released on frictionless fixed inclined plane then normal reaction

between 2 kg and 3 kg is :-

(1) 0 N
(2) 2 N
(3) 4 N
(4) 5 N

6) In the arrangement shown in figure the tension in the string connected between B and C is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Two blocks A & B of masses 2 kg & 1 kg rests on frictionless surface. A force of 3 N acts on A as

shown. The force exerted by A on B :-

(1) 1 N
(2) 3 N
(3) 2 N
(4) 0

8) Frictional force on the 2 kg block is :-

(1) 5 N
(2) zero
(3) 2.5 N
(4)

9) The coefficient of static friction, μs between block A of mass 2 kg and the table as shown in the
figure is 0.2. What would be the maximum mass value of block B so that the two blocks do not move?
The string and the pulley are assumed to be smooth and massless: (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 2.0 kg
(2) 4.0 kg
(3) 0.2 kg
(4) 0.4 kg

10) Under which of the following conditions is the law PV = RT obeyed most closely by a real gas ?

(1) High pressure and high temperature

(2) Low pressure and low temperature
(3) Low pressure and high temperature
(4) High pressure and low temperature

11) Pressure versus temperature graphs of an ideal gas are as shown in figure. Choose the wrong

statement :-
(1) Density of gas is increasing in graph (i)
(2) Density of gas is decreasing in graph (ii)
(3) Density of gas is constant in graph (iii)
(4) None of the above

12) If T1 and T2 are the times of flights for two complementary angles, then the range of projectile R
is given by :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A man walks in rain at 72 cm/s due east and observes the rain falling vertically. When he stops,
rain appears to strikes his back at 37° from the vertical. Find velocity of raindrops relative to the
ground.

(1) 100 cm/s

(2) 26 m/s
(3) 120 cm/s
(4) 54 cm/s

14) Initially car A is 10.5 m ahead of car B. Both start moving at time t = 0 in the same direction
along a straight line. The velocity time graph of two cars is shown in figure. The time when the car B

will catch the car A, will be :-

(1) t = 21 sec
(2) t =
(3) 20 sec
(4) None

15) In the fig. shown, all surfaces are smooth. In first 2 seconds of motion total work done by tension

on both the blocks is :-

(1)
J

(2)
J

(3)
J
(4) Zero

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following undergoes hydrolysis ?

(1) CH3COOK
(2) HNO3
(3) Na2SO4
(4) K2SO4

2) Ka for HCN is 5 × 10–10 at 25°C. For maintaining a constant pH of 9, the volume of 5 M KCN
solution required to be added to 10 mL of 2 M HCN solution is :-

(1) 4 mL
(2) 7.95 mL
(3) 2 mL
(4) 9.3 mL

3) Which of these solution of salts of given conc. have maximum degree of hydrolysis :-

(1) 1 × 10–5 M KCl

(2) 1 × 10–3 M KCl
(3) 1 × 10–2 M KCN
(4) 0.1 M KCN

4) Which of the following aqueous solutions has pH greater than 7 ?

(1) CuSO4
(2) FeCl3
(3) NaCl
(4) CH3COONa

5) What will be value of KH in solution of salt containing 0.1 M conc. formed by a strong base & weak
acid (Ka = 1 × 10–5) :-
(1) 1 × 10–9
(2) 1 × 10+9
(3) 1 × 10–11
(4) 1 × 10–3

6) Value of Kw in 1 × 10–3 M HNO3 at 25°C is :-

(1) 1 × 10–8
(2) 1 × 10–14
(3) 1 × 10–17
(4) 1 × 10–4

7) Degree of dissociation of 0.05 M NH3 at 25°C in a solution of pH = 11 is :-

(1) 2%
(2) 3%
(3) 4%
(4) 5%

8) When 10 ml of M/10 NaOH is added to 10 ml, M/20 solution of a strong base Q(OH)2, what will be
pH of resultant solution :-

(1) 13.0
(2) 1.0
(3) 12.7
(4) 12.0

9) pH of 0.1 M aqueous sodium iodide (NaI) solution will be :-

(1) 11.0
(2) 0.0
(3) 5.0
(4) 7.0

10) When 0.4 g of NaOH is dissolved in one litre of solution then pH of the solution is :-

(1) 12
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 10

11) Equal volumes of two solution of pH = 3 and 4 are mixed. The pH of the resulting solution will be
:-

(1) 7
(2) 3.5
(3) 2.96
(4) 3.3

12)

The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility product 1.6 × 10–10 in 0.1 M NaCl solution would be

(1) 1.6 × 10–11 M

(2) zero
(3) 1.26 × 10–5 M
(4) 1.6 × 10–9 M

13)

pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 is :-

(1) 0.5 × 10–15

(2) 0.25 × 10–10
(3) 0.125 × 10–15
(4) 0.5 × 10–10

14) The frequency of radiation emitted when the electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in a H-atom will
be : (Given ionization energy of H = 2.18 × 10–18J atom–1 and h = 6.625 × 10–34 Js):-

(1) 3.07 × 1015 s–1

(2) 2.00 × 1015 s–1
(3) 1.54 × 1015 s–1
(4) 1.03 × 1015 s–1

15) Calculate the energy of Ist excited state of Li+2 ion :-

(1) –13.6 eV
(2) –3.6 eV
(3) –30.6 eV
(4) –1.51 eV

16) Shortest wavelength in the Balmer series of He+ ion will be :-

(1) R
(2) 2R

(3)

(4)

17) What is the ratio of the De-Broglie wave lengths for electrons accelerated through 200 volts
and 50 volts :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 10
(4) 10 : 3

18) Which of the following configuration follows the Hund's rule :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) The element having electronic configuration [Ar]3d104s1 belongs to :

(1) s-block
(2) p-block
(3) d-block
(4) f-block

20) Which of the following pair of element having approximate equal radius :-

(1) Co, Ni
(2) Fe, Co
(3) Zr, Hf
(4) all of these

21) In a third period screening constant (σ), increases by :-

(1) 3.5
(2) 0.035
(3) 0.35
(4) 35

22) Maximum gaseous elements are present in which group :-

(1) 3rd
(2) 18th
(3) 15th
(4) 5th
23) Second IP of which element is maximum–

(1) Lithium
(2) Oxygen
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Fluorine

24) The species which have same no. of electron in outermost and penultimate shell is :-

(1) He
(2) Ne
(3) Cl
(4) Ar

25) The number of d-electrons in Mn is equal to that of :-

(1) p-electron in N
(2) s-electron in Na
(3) s-electron in He
(4) p-electron in B

26) The number of Radial nodes for 3p orbital is :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

27) Bohr model could explain successfully :-

(1) The spectrum of He atom

(2) The spectrum of species containing only one electron
(3) The spectrum of multi electron species
(4) The spectrum of CO2 molecule

28) Which graph show how the energy (E) of a photon of light is related to its wavelength (λ) ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

29) What is the 3rd separation energy (in eV) for He+ :-

(1) 13.6 eV
(2) 1.51 eV
(3) 0.85 eV
(4) 3.4 eV

30) In a H spectrum if e– moves from 5th to 2nd orbit by transition in multi step then total number of
lines in U.V. region will be :-

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 1

31) Which of the following is not an actinoid ?

(1) Curium (Z = 96)

(2) Californium (Z = 98)
(3) Uranium (Z = 92)
(4) Terbium (Z = 65)

32) Consider the isoelectronic species Na+, Mg+2, F– and O–2. The correct order of increasing length
of their radius is :-

(1) F– < O–2 < Mg+2 < Na+

(2) Mg+2 < Na+ < F– < O–2
(3) O–2 < F– < Na+ < Mg+2
(4) O–2 < F– < Mg+2 < Na+

33) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Largest group in terms of element will be 3/IIIB

(2) first man made element is Tc (Technetium)
(3) total number of liquid element in periodic table are 6
(4) most electropositive group is 17th group
34) Which of the following set of atomic number represent the representative element ?

(1) 3, 13, 60, 84

(2) 2, 24, 53, 116
(3) 7, 17, 37, 114
(4) 4, 33, 46, 95

35) Element having highest I.E. value is :-

(1) He
(2) Be
(3) Ne
(4) N

SECTION-B

1) 0.1 M CH3COONa solution is 1% hydrolysed. If concentration of CH3COONa increases and makes

0.4 M then percentage hydrolysis will be :-

(1) 0.01
(2) 0.001
(3) 0.2
(4) 0.5

2) Value of ionic product of water at 393 K is :-

(1) Less than 1 × 10–14

(2) More than 1 × 10–14
(3) Equal to 1 × 10–14
(4) Equal to 1 × 10–7

3) On mixing 50 ml of 0.04 M HCl and 50 ml of 0.02 M NaOH, pH of resulting solution would be :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 1.7
(4) None

4) How much sodium acetate should be added to 0.1 M solution of CH3COOH to give a solution of pH
equal to 5.5 :
(pKa of CH3COOH = 4.5)

(1) 0.1 M
(2) 0.2 M
(3) 1.0 M
(4) 10.0 M

5) If the solubility of AgCl (formula mass = 143) in water at 25°C is 1.43 × 10–4 g/100 mL of solution
then the value of Ksp will be :–

(1) 1 × 10–5
(2) 2 × 10–5
(3) 1 × 10–10
(4) 2 × 10–10

6) Calculate the approx wavelength in Å of a photon having energy 4 × 10–18 J :-

(1) 200Å
(2) 300Å
(3) 500Å
(4) 100Å

7) In Cr atom find out number of unpaired electrons with n = 3 and m = +1 :-

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

8) Which of the following pair is an example of isoster?

(1) CO2, NO2

(2) H2O, NH3
(3) CaO, KF
(4) K+, F–

9) Which of the following is smallest in size :-

(1) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s1

(2) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p5
(3) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p3
(4) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2

10) Identify the wrong statement in the following:

(1) Atomic radius of the elements increases as one moves down the first group of the periodic table
Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one-moves across from left to right in the 2nd period
(2)
of the periodic table
Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic
(3)
radius
 Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the negative charge on the anion, larger is the ionic
(4)
radius

11) The formula for effective nuclear charge is (if σ is screening constant):

(1) Z – σ
(2) Z + σ
(3) Zσ–1
(4) Zσ

12)

The energy corresponding to second line of Balmer series for H-atom will be :-

(1) 12.1 eV
(2) 1.89 eV
(3) 2.55 eV
(4) 13.6 eV

13) The pair of metals which posses chemical similarity :-

(1) Li, Mg
(2) Li, Ca
(3) Be, Ti
(4) Li, Al

14) Which of the following is incorrect match ?

(1) Z = 65, group no. = 3, period = 6th

(2) Z = 46, group no. = 10, period = 5th
(3) Z = 108, group no. = 10, period = 5th
(4) Z = 95, group no. = 3, period = 7th

15) Which of the following is correct order of Zeff ?

(1) Li < Na < K

(2) O < O– < O–2
(3) N+3 > N+2 > N+
(4) S < S–2

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Skin of frog does not possess

(1) Scales
(2) Mucous glands
(3) Chromatophores
(4) Epidermis

2) Frog respire through :-

(1) Lungs
(2) Skin
(3) Buccal cavity
(4) All of these

3) How many digits are found in forelimbs and hind limbs of frog respectively ?

(1) 5, 5
(2) 5, 4
(3) 4, 4
(4) 4, 5

4) Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs :-

(1) Testes → Bidder's canal → Kidney → Vasa efferentia → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(2) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(3) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal vesicle → cloaca → Urinogenital duct.
(4) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal → Ureter → Cloaca.

5) Female frogs do not have :

(1) Tympanum
(2) Nictitating membrane
(3) Vocal sacs and copulatory pads
(4) Hibernation and aestivation

6) How many vasa efferentia arises from testes in frog?

(1) 10-15
(2) 10-16
(3) 10-12
(4) 10-18

7) On the basis of antigens of blood group. which couple is not suitable for marrige ?

(1) Rh+ve male and Rh+ve female

(2) Rh–ve male and Rh+ve female
(3) Rh+ve male and Rh–ve female
(4) Rh–ve male and Rh–ve female
8) Feathers are found in :-

(1) Hemidactylus
(2) Psittacula
(3) Pteropus
(4) Hyla

9) Assertion (A) :- Air cavities are present in bones of pigeon.

Reason (R) :- Air cavities help in gaseous exchange.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

10) Which amphibian is limbless ?

(1) Toad
(2) Frog
(3) Salamander
(4) Ichthyophis

11) How many statements are correct for hippocompus?

(A) Its snout like a horse so also known as sea horse.
(B) It has 5-7 pairs of gills without operculum.
(C) Male has, copulatory organ 'clasper'.
(D) Donot swim continously due to air bladder.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

12) Following animals belongs to which classes ?

A-Petromyzon, B-Scoliodon, C-Pristis

A-Cyclostomata, B-Chondrichthyes,
(1)
C-Chondrichthyes
A-Osteichthyes, B-Chondrichthyes,
(2)
C-Chondrichthyes
A-Osteichthyes, B-Chondrichthyes,
(3)
C-Osteichthyes
A-Osteichthyes, B-Chondrichthyes,
(4)
C-Cyclostomata

13) Which of the following is not characteristic of chondricthyes ?

(1) Placoid scales

(2) Heterocercal tail
(3) Ventral mouth
(4) 4 pair gills

14) How many among following characteristics are common between chondricthyes and
osteichthyes?
a. Streamlined body b. Four pair gills
c. Two chambered heart d. Poikilothermal
e. Internal fertilization f. Dioecious

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

15) Vertebrates possess :-

(1) Well developed body cavity with GIT

(2) Dorsal tubular nerve cord
(3) Ventral muscular heart
(4) All of the above

16) Most abundant protein of blood plasma is :-

(1) Prothrombin
(2) Albumin
(3) Fibrinogen
(4) Globulin

17) Antibodies are :-

(1) α-globulins
(2) γ-globulins
(3) β-globulins
(4) Prothrombin

18) Mammalian RBC are :-

(1) Biconcave, circular , non nucleated

(2) Biconvex, Nucleated
(3) Oval, Nucleated
(4) Biconcave and nucleated

19) The haemoglobin of a human foetus

(1) Has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of an adult

(2) Has a lower affinity for oxygen than that of an adult
(3) Its affinity for oxygen is the same as that of an adult
(4) Has only 2 protein subunit instead of 4

20) The haemoglobin content per 100 ml of blood of a normal healthy adult is

(1) 12 - 16 g
(2) 5 - 11g
(3) 25 - 30g
(4) 17 - 20

21) Which clotting factor makes antiheparin agent :–

(1) Serotonin
(2) Fibrin
(3) Fibrinogen
(4) Thromboplastin

22) Correct match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Neutrophils I. 20-25% of WBC

(B) Basophils II. 2-3% of WBC

(C) Monocytes III. 6-8% of WBC

(D) Eosinophils IV. 0.5-1% of WBC

(E) Lymphocytes V. 60-65% of WBC

(1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II, E-V
(2) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-I
(3) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-II, E-III
(4) A-V, B-II, C-IV, D-III, E-I

23) Life span of RBC is :-

(1) 90 days
(2) 100 days
(3) 120 days
(4) 140 days

24)

Which of the following statements are correct ?

A. Basophils are most abundant cells of the total WBCs
B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin
C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory response
D. Basophils have kidney shaped nucleus
E. Basophils are agranulocytes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) C and E only

(2) B and C only
(3) A and B only
(4) D and E only

25) Which one of the following steps in the clotting of blood will not occur in the absence of vitamin
'K

(1) formation of thromboplastin

(2) synthesis of prothrombin
(3) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
(4) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

26) What is true about Bryophytes ?

(1) Sporophyte and gametophyte generations are independent

(2) Sporophyte itself completes the life cycle
(3) Sporophytes are dependent upon gametophytes
(4) Gametophytes are dependent upon sporophytes

27) "Sanjeevani" term commonly used for

(1) Moss
(2) Salvinia
(3) Selaginella
(4) Riccia

28) Read all statements carefully and select incorrect statement :-

(1) Asexual reproduction in filamentous algae commonly takes place by fragmentation

(2) Gemmae are unicellular structure.
(3) Sporophyte of Riccia have only capsule.
(4) Unicellular rhizoids are present in Riccia.

29) Identify the parts A, B and C with ploidy in the given figures :-
 Name of Part Ploidy

A - Rhizome Haploid
(1) B- Rhizoids Haploid
C- Seta Diploid

A- Roots Diploid
(2) B- Leaves Haploid
C- Seta Haploid

A- Rhizome Diploid
(3) B- Leaves Haploid
C- Seta Diploid

A- Rhizome Haploid
(4) B- Leaves Diploid
C- Seta Diploid
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30)

Pteridophytes are classified into

(1) Three classes

(2) Two classes
(3) Four classes
(4) Five classes

31)

Seed plants are all :-

(1) Dioecious
(2) Monoecious
(3) Homosporous
(4) Heterosporous

32) Which structure is formed in the life cycle of moss between spore and main plant body?

(1) Prothallus
(2) Spore mother cell
(3) Protonema
(4) Embryo

33) Cycas posses/shows :-

(1) Branched stem

(2) Monoecious condition
(3) Pinnately compound leaves
(4) Mycorrhiza

34) Life cycle of Polysiphonia and Chlamydomonas are respectively–

(1) Haplontic and diplontic

(2) Diplontic and haplodiplontic
(3) Haplodiplontic and diplontic
(4) Haplodiplontic and haplontic

35) Select a correct statement :-

(1) All bacteria are photoautotrophic

(2) Euglenoids do not have cell wall
(3) Dinoflagellates are not motile
(4) Diatoms are prokaryotic algae

SECTION-B

1) Frogs have the ability to change the colour to hide them from their enemies (camouflage). This
protective coloration is called :-

(1) Aestivation
(2) Burrowing
(3) Mimicry
(4) Hibernation

2) Which of the following feature distinguish Mammals from other vertebrates?

(1) Hairy skin and oviparous

(2) Hairy skin and mammary gland
(3) Mammary gland and teeth
(4) Pinnae and teeth

3) Match the column I with column II and select the correct option :-

Column I Column II
A Chameleon p krait
B Bungarus q Garden lizard
C Calotes r Tree lizard
D Chelone s Wall lizard
E Hemidactylus t Turtle
(1) A-q, B-p, C-r, D-t, E-s
(2) A-r, B-p, C-q, D-t, E-s
(3) A-s, B-p, C-q, D-t, E-r
(4) A-p, B-s, C-t, D-q, E-r

4) Read the following features :-

(a) Animals is ectoparasite on true fishes.
(b) Respiration through 6-15 pair gills.
(c) Mouth jawless and suctorial.
(d) Paired fins and scales are present on the body.
(e) Cranium and vertebral column is made up by bones.
(f) Spawning occurs in fresh water.
(g) Animal does not show migration.
Out of these which features are not exhibited by "Petromyzon" ?

(1) Only d and e

(2) Only b and c
(3) d, e and g
(4) d, e and f

5) The given figure shows some characteristic feature marked as chordates. Identify the correct
labelling A, B, C and D :-

A B C D
Noto Post anal
1 Gill Slits Nerve cord
chord Part
Nerve Post anal
2 Noto chord Gill Slits
cord Part
Noto Post anal
3 Nerve cord Gill Slits
chord Part
 Post anal
4 Gill Slits Nerve cord Noto chord
Part
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Which of the following plasma proteins are involved in defense mechanisms of our body ?

(1) Albumin
(2) Globulins
(3) Fibrinogen
(4) Prothrombin

7)

There are 3 drops of blood of Dr. Aaditya Sharma on a slide.

Identify the blood group.

(1) B +

(2) B–
(3) A+
(4) O+

8) You are required to draw blood from a patient and to keep it in a test tube for analysis of blood
corpuscles and plasma you are also provided with the following four types of test tubes. Which of
them you will not use for the purpose ?

(1) chilled test tube

(2) test tube containing heparin
(3) test tube containing sodium oxalate
(4) test tube containing calcium bicarbonate

9) Which of the following is a natural anticoagulant ?

(1) Heparin
(2) Sodium citrate
(3) Sodium oxalate
(4) EDTA
10) Which of the following statements is incorrect :-

(1) Blood group is designated on the basis of the presence of antibodies in the blood plasma
(2) A person of 'O' blood group has anti 'A' and anti 'B' antibodies in his blood plasma
(3) Person of 'B' blood group cannot donate blood to a person of 'A' blood group
(4) Person of AB blood group is a universal recipient

11) In fern, prothallus develops from :-

(1) Fertilisation
(2) Zygote
(3) Secondary protonema
(4) Spore

12) How many of the following plant groups show(S) formation of embryo?
Algae, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Angiosperms

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

13)

S.N. Character Bryophyta Pterid-ophyta Gymno-sperms

Main plant
(I) Gameto-phyte Sporo-phyte (A)
body

Vascular
(II) Absent (B) Present
tissue

Embryo
(III) (C) Occurs Occurs
formation

(IV) (D) Archego-nium Archego-nium Archego-nium

Identify A, B, C & D in the above table :-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Does not occur Female

(1) Sporo-phyte Absent
reproductive organ

Gameto- Female
(2) Absent Does not occur
phyte reproductive organ

Sporo- Female
(3) present Occurs
phyte reproductive organ

Male
Sporo- Does not
(4) present reproductive
phyte occur
organ
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Consider the following four statement (a - d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only:
(a) Slime moulds are also called naked fungi
(b) Bacteriophage generally contains double stranded DNA
(c) Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by prions
(d) Male cone is absent in Cycas plant

(1) Statement (a), (b) and (d) correct

(2) Statements (a) and (b) correct
(3) Statements (a), (b), (c) correct
(4) Statements (a), (b), (c), (d) correct

15) Choose the incorrect match :-

(1) Diatoms – Being gritty, used in polishing and filtration of oil

Pyrrophyta – Toxin releasing organisms, toxins may even kill other marine animals such
(2)
as fishes
(3) Slime mould – Spores possess no true walls
(4) Euglenophyta – Deprived of sunlight, they behave like heterotrophs

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Silica is found in cell wall of :-

(1) Diatoms
(2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Euglenoids

2) Which of the following is not true for dinoflagellates?

(1) They are mostly marine

(2) They are photosynthetic
(3) They have protein rich layer called pellicle
(4) They have two flagella, one lies longitudinally and the other transversely.

3) Protist which cause paralysis in human beings :-

(1) Noctiluca and Gonyaulax

(2) Gymnodinium and Gonyaulax
(3) Ceratium and Gymnodinium
(4) Noctiluca and Ceratium

4) Choose correct answer:

(A) Nuclear membrane is absent in protista
(B) Animalia are consumer in nature
(C) Cell wall is noncellulosic in Monera
(D) Protista is a prokaryotic organism

(1) A
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and D

5) Septate and branched mycelium is found in :-

(1) Basidiomycetes
(2) Deuteromycetes
(3) Ascomycetes
(4) All the above

6) "Contagium vivum fluidum" is related to the discovery of :-

(1) Bacteria
(2) Fungi
(3) Viruses
(4) Lichens

7) Which fungi causes rust and smut disease respectively :-

(1) Ustilago and Erysiphe

(2) Puccinia and Ustilago
(3) Puccinia and Erysiphe
(4) Ustilago and Puccinia

8) How many statement are true about chrysophytes?

A. Chief producers in oceans.
B. Most are photosynthetic.
C. Cell wall is made up of only silica.
D. Most are phytoplanktons.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
9)

Identify the (X), (Y) and (Z) in these figures

(1) X–DNA, Y–Sex organ, Z-Gemma cup

(2) X–RNA, Y–Daughter colony, Z-Air bladder
(3) X–DNA/RNA, Y–Oogonium, Z-Frond
(4) X–RNA, Y–Archegonium, Z-Stipe

10) Which of the following is true for alternation of generation?

(1) The sporophyte, undergoes syngamy to produce spores.

(2) The gametophyte, undergoes syngamy to produce spores.
(3) The sporophyte, undergoes meiosis to produce spores.
(4) The gametophyte, undergoes meiosis to produce gametes.

11) In liverworts, asexual reproduction takes place by :

(1) gemmae and fragmentation of thalli

(2) fragmentation and zoospores
(3) gemmae formation and spores formation
(4) isogamy and anisogamy

12) Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following sets ?

(1) Riccia, Dryopteris and Porella

(2) Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
(3) Zygnema, Alternaria and Hydrilla
(4) Fucus, Marsilea and Pinus.

13) Identify the structure. Marked A, B and C for diagram :-

 A-Antheridiophore, B-Gemma cup,
(1)
C-Unicellular rhizoids
A-Archegoniophore, B-Gemma cup,
(2)
C-Multicellular rhizoids
A-Antheridiophore, B-Multicellular scales,
(3)
C-Multicellular rhizoids
A-Archegoniophore, B-Gemma cup,
(4)
C-Unicellular rhizoids

14) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the correct option about them ?
(a) Virus, Viroids & Lichen are not classified in the five-kingdom-classification
(b) Five-kingdom classification were given by R.H. Whittacker.
(c) Classification of Aristotle is based on modern taxonomy
(d) Non-cellulosic cell wall is present in member of kingdom-monera only.

(1) Statement a and b

(2) Statements a, c, d
(3) Statement (a) only
(4) Statement a, b, c, d

15)

Division spermatophyte includes :-

(1) Bryophyta & Pteridophyta

(2) Dicotyledonae, gymnospermae & monocotyledonae
(3) Thallophyta, bryophyta & pteridophyta
(4) Only angiosperms

16) Which of the following includes both autotrophs and heterotrophs ?

(1) Kingdom-fungi
(2) Kingdom-monera
(3) Kingdom-Protista
(4) (2) & (3) Both

17) Yeasts are included in :-

(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Phycomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

18) The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is:

(1) Nucleus
(2) Plasma membrane
(3) Mitochondrian
(4) Cytoplasm

19) In animal cell, membrane less structure which helpfull for cell division is :-

(1) Golgi body

(2) Ribosome
(3) Centrosome
(4) Mitochondria

20) Name the scientist(s) who formulated the cell theory :-

(1) Schleiden and Schwann

(2) G.N. Ramachandran
(3) Robert Hook
(4) Rudolf virchow

21) Diameter of RBC is :-

(1) 7 µm
(2) 700 mm
(3) 6 µm
(4) 6000 mm

22) Which of the following is seen only in prokaryotic cell?

(1) Endoplasmic Reticulum

(2) Ribosome
(3) Lysosome
(4) Mesosome

23) Nucleolus is :

(1) Ribosome factory

(2) Present in cytoplasm
(3) Spherical, colloidal and basophilic body
(4) Is a membrane bound structure

24) The shorter and longer arms of a submetacentric chromosome are referred to as:

(1) m-arm and n-arm respectively

(2) s-arm and 1-arm respectively
(3) p-arm and q-arm respectively
(4) q-arm and p-arm respectively

25) 80 s ribosome has –

(1) 40 s + 50 s subunits
(2) 40 s + 60 s subunits
(3) 40 s + 40 s subunits
(4) 50 s + 30 s subunits

26) Which stage of cell cycle is marked by initiation of condensation of chromatin ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) G2–phase
(4) S–phase

27) Chromosomes are aligned at equitorial plate in the cytoplasm of the cell in which phase of
karyokinesis of mitosis ?

(1) Metaphase
(2) Prophase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Interphase

28) Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option -

Column-I Column-II

Non motile spores and

(A) Chlorophyceae (i)
non-motile gametes

(B) Phaeophyceae (ii) Pyriform gametes

(C) Rhodophyceae (iii) Pyrenoids-storage bodies

(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii)
(2) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i)
(4) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii)

29) Algin is obtained from -

(1) Chlamydomonas
(2) Gracilaria
(3) Fucus
(4) Gelidium

30) Read the following statement and choose the correct option.
Statement-I : Gammae are brown, multicellular, asexual bud found in mosses.
Statement-II : Protonema stage is the first stage of gametophyte of the life cycle of a moss.

(1) Both the Statements are correct.

(2) Both the Statements are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

31) Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

A. Chlorophyceae (i) Polytrichum

B. Rhodophyceae (ii) Marchantia

C. Liver worts (iii) Polysiphonia

D. Mosses (iv) Chara

(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)

32) How many following characters does not belongs to bryophyta ?

(i) Amphibians of the plant kingdom.
(ii) Reptiles of the plant kingdom.
(iii) Lack true root, stem and leaves.
(iv) Sporophytes depends on gametophyte.
(v) Vascular tissue system present.
(vi) Presence of embryo.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

33) Match the Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

A. Psilopsida (i) Psilotum

B. Lycopsida (ii) Equisetum

C. Sphenopsida (iii) Selaginella

D. Pteropsid (iv) Adiantum

(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(2) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(3) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)

34) Read the following statement and choose the correct option.
Statement-I : Gymnosperms include trees, shrubs and herbs.
Statement-II : Mostly tap roots are found in gymnosperm.

(1) Both the Statements are correct.

(2) Both the Statements are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

35) Match the Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option -

Column-I Column-II

One of the tallest

(A) Cycas (i)
tree species

(B) Pinus (ii) Mycorrhizal root

(C) Sequoia (iii) Coralloid root

(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii)
(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i)
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii)
(4) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii)

SECTION-B

1) Which one of the following is a correct statement :-

(1) Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy stage

(2) In gymnosperms, female gametophyte is free living
(3) Antheridia and archegonia absent in pteridophytes
(4) Pteridophytes are precursor to the seed habit.

2) Read the following statement. Select the correct option.

(A) LSD is obtained from claviceps
(B) Agar agar is obtained from pheophyta
(C) Citric acid is obtained by Aspergillus.
(D) Yeast is important source of proteins.

A B C D
(1) True True False True
(2) False True True True
(3) True False True True
(4) True False True False
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3)
Neurospora, which is popularly known as Drosophilla of plant kingdom, belongs to :-

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

4) Which of the following cell is smallest in size ?

(1) Mycoplasma
(2) Bacteria
(3) Human red blood cell
(4) Blue green algae

5) Cell to cell continuity of protoplasm is maintained through :-

(1) Stomata
(2) Trachieds
(3) Vessels
(4) Plasmodesmeta

6) Chromatin found in nucleus was discovered by :

(1) Flemming
(2) Schleiden
(3) Schwann
(4) Robert brown

7) Satellite chromosomes have :

(1) Primary constriction only

(2) Secondary constriction only
(3) Tertiary constriction only
(4) Both primary and secondary constriction

8) Genetically inactive and highly condensed region with tightly packed DNA is:

(1) Euchromatin
(2) Heterochromatin
(3) Chromatin
(4) Chromosome

9) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option ;
Assertion (A) : The members of rhodophyceae are commonly called red algae.
Reason (R) : Rhodophyceae have predominant red pigment r-phycoerythrin.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

10) Read the following statement and choose the correct option.
Statement-I : Storage food in rhodophyceae is mannitol and laminaria.
Statement-II : Rhodophyceae is found in both well-lighted regions close to the surface of water and
also at great depths in oceans.

(1) Both the Statements are correct.

(2) Both the Statements are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

11) Read the following statements -

(A) In chlorophyceae, sexual reproduction shows considerable variation in the type and formation of
sex cells.
(B) Pyrenoid contain protein besides nucleic acid.
(C) Chlorophyceae members are usually grass green due to the dominance of pigments chl a and chl
c.
(D) Kelps are profusely branched plants, members of rhodophyceae.
How many of the above statements are correct -

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

12) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option ;
Assertion (A) : Mosses reduce the impact of falling rain and prevent soil erosion.
Reason (R) : Mosses form dense mats on the soil.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

13) Read the following statements -

(i) The plant body of bryophytes is less differentiated than that of algae.
(ii) The main plant body of the bryophytes is haploid.
(iii) Sex organs in bryophytes are unicellular.
(iv) Zygotes donot undergo reduction division immediately in bryophytes.
(v) Bryophytes depends on insects for sexual reproduction.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

14) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option ;
Assertion (A) : Gymnosperms are naked seeded plants.
Reason (R) : Ovules of gymnosperms are not enclosed by ovary wall.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

15) Read the following statements -

(i) The stems are unbranched in Cycas and branched in Pinus and Cedrus.
(ii) In Cycas the pinnate leaves persist for a few years.
(iii) All gymnosperems are heterosporous.
(iv) In gymnosperm male and female gametophytes have an independent free-living existence.
(v) In Cycas male cones and megasporophylls are borne on same tree.
How many of the above statements are correct.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 1 2 1 3 4 2 2 3 4 3 3 4 2 2 4 3 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 1 2 1 3 2 3 2 1 2 1 3 3 2 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 2 1 2 1 3 1 2 4 3 3 4 3 1 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 1 3 3 4 1 2 1 1 4 1 4 4 1 1 3 4 1 1 3 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 1 4 2 4 2 4 4 1 4 2 4 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 2 3 1 3 1 3 3

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 4 4 2 3 3 3 2 2 4 2 1 4 2 4 2 2 1 1 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 2 3 2 2 3 3 2 3 3 4 3 3 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 2 3 2 2 2 4 1 1 4 1 3 2 3

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 2 2 4 3 2 3 2 3 1 1 4 1 2 4 1 4 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 4 1 3 2 1 1 3 3 4 3 2 2 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 4 2 1 4 1 4 2 1 4 4 1 3 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

= 900 kg/m3

2)

4) F = 2 (g + a) = 2 (10 + 2) = 24 N

6)

N=5N

7)

FL =μmgcosθ = 0.8 × 1 × 10 × cos37°= 6.4N

TOM = mgsinθ = 1 × 10 × sin37° = 6N
Since FL > TOM
∴T=0

8)

For A, aA = = ,

For B, aB = ⇒

9)

F = ma

10)
 T = 100 × 10 × sin 53°
T = 800 N
T – 500 = 50a
a = 6 m/s2

13) Process is isothermal and

P1 > P2 So (iii)

14)

or

or
or t = 480 – 273 = 207ºC

15)

PV = NKT

N=

16)

Vrms ∝ & it is independent of pressure.

17)

At V = C
P T

19)

vrms = ; vrms
vrms is maximum for hydrogen as its mass is minimum.

20) PV = nRT

∴ nB = and nB =

or nA =
∴

21)

nHe + nAr = nfinal

+
⇒ P = 3.5

23) P(3 × 10–3) = (300)

P 6.25 × 105 N/m2

25)

26)
tan θ =

⇒ θ = tan–1

28) Horizontal component of velocity vx = 500 m/s and vertical components of velocity while
striking the ground.

∴ Angle with which it strikes the ground.

 31)

t = 45 min

32)
= 20 + 48
= 68 J

34) W = =
⇒W=
= 44 + 11 – 9 = 46 J

35) Wmg + Wair = ΔKE

5 × 10 × 20 + Wair = × 5 × (10)2
1000 + Wair = 250
Wair = –750 J.

36)

Least count = 1 S.D. – 1 V.D.

37)

[At] = LT–2 B. = LT–2

A = LT–3 B = T–1

40)

Free fall so normal reaction is 0.

 43)

45)

At low pressure and high temperature, the molecules are farther apart so that molecular size in
negligible as compared to the size of the vessel and also molecular forces do not come in.

46)

ρ=
Density ρ remains constant when P/T or volume remains constant. In graph (i) volume is decreasing,
hence is increasing; while in graph (ii) and (iii) volume is increasing, hence, density is decreasing.
Note that volume would have been constant in case the straight line in graph (iii) had passed
through origin.

48)
= Velocity of rain = ?
= Velocity of man = 72 cm/s
= Velocity of rain w.r.t man
From figure.

49) SB = ,
SA = 10 t
⇒ SB = SA + 10.5

⇒
⇒ t2 – 20t – 21 = 0
t2 – 21t + t – 21 = 0
⇒ t = 21 s
CHEMISTRY

52) let VmL of KCN is required.

Then [KCN] =

[HCN] =

pH = pKa + log

9 = (10 – log5) + log

log = 0.3 = log(2)

V = 2mL

63) pH = 9 Ca(OH)2 ⇌ Ca+2 + 20H¯

s 2s
–5
pOH = 5 [OH¯] = 2s = 10 M

s = × 10–5 M
s = 5 × 10–6 M
Ksp = 4s3 = 4(5 × 10–6)3 = 0.5 × 10–15

64)

hν = 2.18 × 10–18

= 3.07 × 1015 s–1

67)

72) Maximum gaseous elements are present in group 18 (Noble gas).

 73)

74)

75)

Mn : [Ar]4s2, 3d5 d-e– ⇒ 5

N : 1s2, 2s2, 2p3 p-e– ⇒ 3
Na : 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1 s-e– ⇒ 5
He : 1s2 s-e– ⇒ 2
B : 1s2, 2s2, 2p1 p-e– ⇒ 1

76)

3p
Radial node : n – ℓ – 1
⇒ 3 –1 – 1 = 1

79)

0.85 × 4 = 3.4 eV

90) Given solubility of AgCl in water is 1.43 × 10–4g/100mL

but in mol L–1 is =

Ksp of AgCl = s2 = (10–5)2 = 10–10

92)

Cr = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p63d54s1

24

unpaired electrons with n = 3, m = +1 will be only 1

95)

Ans. (3)
Among isoelectronic species, higher the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic
radius.

BIOLOGY-I
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