`

Shiv Chhatrapa Shikshan Sanstha’s

SANT TUKARAM NATIONAL MODEL JUNIOR COLLEGE, LATUR
(Affiliated to Central Board of Secondary Educa on, New Delhi. Affilia on No. - 1130272)
Screening Test CBSE (2025) Ques on Booklet Sr. No.
PCB
Sample Paper
Total no. of pages =

Time: 3.00 Hrs. Marks: = 720

Important Instructions:
1. First you fill the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet as well as OMR with Black
or Blue Ball Pen. Use of pencil strictly prohibited.
2. Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
3. This Test Booklet contains of 180 questions.
4. There are four sections in the question paper i.e. Section-A (80 marks), Section-B (160
marks), Section-C (160 marks) and Section-D (320 marks).
5. The Section-A contains three parts i.e. Part I, Part II and Part III.
6. The Part I contains 5 questions of English, each question carries four marks.
7. The Part II contains 5 questions of Mental Ability, each question carries four marks.
8. The Part III contains 10 questions of Basic Mathematics, each question carries four
marks.
9. In Section-A, there is no negative marking.
10. The Section-B contains 40 questions of Physics, each question carries four marks.
11. The Section-C contains 40 questions of Chemistry, each question carries four marks.
12. The Section-D contains 80 questions of Biology, each question carries four marks.
13. In the Section-B, C & D, each question carries 4 marks. There is negative marking
system. For each wrong answer 1 mark will be deducted.
14. There are four choices for every question, out of which only one is correct.
15. Filling up more than one response in any question will be treated as wrong response and
mark for this will be deducted according to negative system.
16. Rough work is to be done on the space provided in the Test Booklet only.
17. On the completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the OMR to the Invigilator
on duty. However, candidates are allowed to carry this question paper with them.
18. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

Name of the candidate (in Capital letters): _______________________________

Seat Number: In figures

1|Pa ge
 `
******************************************************************
Space for Rough Work
******************************************************************

2|Pa ge
 `

Section-A (80 marks)

Part I – English (20 marks)
**********************************************************************
1. Choose the correct determiners from the ones given below:
Due to his tours, he got to meet __________ of people.
(A). a lot (B). much
(C). little (D). several

2. Which tense is used to express that an action started in the past and is continuing
till now?
(A). Present perfect tense (B). Past perfect continuous tense
(C). Past continuous tense (D). Present perfect continuous tense

3. Mango is sweeter than guava. The sentence is in which degree? –

(A). positive (B). comparative
(C). superlative (D). none

4. Choose the right option to report the dialogue given below:

The driver said, “Do you want to halt for a while?”

(A). The driver said if we wanted a halt for a while.

(B). The driver asked if we want to halt for a while.
(C). The driver asks if we wanted to halt for a while.
(D). The driver asked if we wanted to halt for a while.

5. Choose the right verb in coordination with the subject from the given example:
The lawyer and the assistant ____ _______ together.
(A). enters (B). has enter
(C). entered (D). had enter

Section-A
Part II – Mental Ability (20 marks)
6. It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2006. What was the day of the week Jan 1, 2010?
(A) Sunday (B)Saturday
(C)Friday (D)Wednesday

7. One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a crossing. If
Vishal's shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction was Udai facing?
(A)East (B)West
(C)North (D)South
8. Look at the series: 21 26 36 51 71 ? What number should come next?
(A) 109 (B) 91
(C) 96 (D) 89
9. In certain code, TOGETHER is written as RQEGRJCT. In the same code PAROLE
will be written as?
(A) NCPQJG (B) NCQPJG
(C) RCPQJK (D) RCTQNG

3|Pa ge
 `
10. A and B are brothers. E is the daughter of F. F is the wife of B. What is the relation of E
to A?
(A) niece (B) Sister-In-Law
(C) Sister (D) daughter

**********************************************************************
Section A
Part III – Basic Mathematics (40 marks)

11. If x+√15 =4 then find the value of x+

(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 1
12. If p+q+r =13 and pq+qr+rp =30, then the value of p3+q3+r3-3abc is:
(A)1027 (B)1125
(C)1145 (D)1216
13. If 4 workers can dig 20m long ditch in 6 days, find the part dug by 2 workers in a
day(in meter).
(A) 5/3 (B) 14/4
(C) 11/3 (D) 1
14. A and B together can complete a work in 12 days. A alone can complete it in 20 days. If
B now does the work for half a day daily then in how many days A and B together will
complete the work?
(A) 15 days (B) 20 days
(C) 45 days (D) 30 days
15. A solid piece of iron in the form of a cuboid of dimensions 49 cm × 33 cm × 24 cm, is
moulded to form a solid sphere. The radius of the sphere is
(A) 21 cm (B) 23 cm
(C) 25 cm (D) 19 cm
16. Two identical solid cubes of side a are joined end to end. Then the total surface area of
the resulting cuboid is
(A) 12a2 (B) 10a2
(C) 8a2 (D) 11a2
17. If sin A + sin A = 1, then the value of the expression (cos2A + cos4A) is
2

(A) 1 (B) 1/2

(C) 2 (D) 3
18. If x=r sin and y=rcos then , the value of x2 + y2 is:
(A) r (B) r2
(C) 1/r (D) 1
19. Write the logarithmic form of 92 = 4.

(A) log92 4 = (B) log4 4 =

(C) log92 = 3 (D) None of these
20. If log4(X2−1) – log4(X+1)=1 then X is equal to?

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 5

4|Pa ge
 `
**********************************************************************

Section-B (160 marks)

Physics

21. A ray falls on a prism ABC (AB = BC) and travels as shown in figure. The minimum
refractive index of the prism material should be

(A) 4/3 (B) √2

(C) 1.5 (D) √3

22. A metal sheet is placed in a variable magnetic field which is increasing from zero to
maximum. Induced current flows in the directions as shown in figure. The direction of
magnetic field will be

(A) normal to the paper, inwards (B) normal to the paper, outwards
(C) from east to west (D) from north to south

23. At what altitude in metre will the acceleration due to gravity be 25% of that at the
earth's surface (Radius of earth = R metre)
(A) 1/4R (B) R
(C) 3/8 R (D) R/2

24. A sound wave of wavelength 0.332 m has a time period of 10-3 s. If the time period is
decreased to 10-4 s, calculate the frequency of new wave.
(A) 11500 Hz (B) 10,000 Hz
(C) 7500 Hz (D) 9000 Hz

5|Pa ge
 `
25. A bird is sitting in a wire cage hanging from the spring balance. Let the reading of the
spring balance be W1. If the bird flies about inside the cage, the reading of the spring
balance becomes W2. Which of the following is true?
(A) W1 > W2 (B) W1 < W2
(C) W1 = W2 (D) None of the above

26. Which of the following graphs correctly represents velocity-time relationship for a
particle released from rest to fall freely under gravity?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

27. In the last year board examination, Rahul were asked a question where he had to choose
the statement which was/were incorrect? Will you be able to answer this question?
(A) The scattering of light by particles in its path is called Tyndall effect.
(B) The blue coloured light present in white sunlight is scattered much more easily
than the red light.
(C) Dust particles and water droplets suspended in the atmosphere are much larger
than the wavelength range of visible light.
(D) The nitrogen and oxygen gas molecules present in the atmosphere are bigger than
the wavelength range of visible light.

28. Light rays are deviated by a prism

The deviation angle d is measured for light rays of different frequency, including blue
light and red light. Which graph is correct?

6|Pa ge
 `

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

29. The average velocity of a body moving with uniform acceleration travelling a distance
of 3.06 m is 0.34 m/s. If the change in velocity of the body is 0.18 m/s, then during this
time, its uniform acceleration is
(A) 0.01 m/s2 (B) 0.02 m/s2
(C) 0.03 m/s2 (D) 0.04 m/s2

30. A mirror is inclined at an angle of ɵ with the horizontal. If a ray of light is incident at an
angle of incidence ɵ, then the reflected ray makes the following angle with horizontal

(A) ɵ (B) 2ɵ
(C) ɵ/2 (D) None of these

31. In the network shown in figure, each resistance is R. The equivalent resistance between
points A and B is
7|Pa ge
 `

20 19
(A) R (B) R
11 20
8 R
(C) R (D)
15 2
32. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity of 1200 ms-1.
The man holding it can exert a maximum force on 144 N on the gum. How many bullets
can he fire per second at the most?
(A) One (B) four
(C) two (D) Three

33. A variable mass body with an initial mass of 10 kg is moving with a velocity of 7 m/s
initially, after some time the velocity increases to 14 m/s, what is the new mass if the
body is moving in the absence of any external force?
(A) 2.5 Kg (B) 5 Kg
(C) 7.5 Kg (D) 10 Kg

34. If the current I through a resistor is increased by 100% the increased in power
dissipation will be (assume temperature remain unchanged)
(A)100% (B) 200%
(C) 300% (D) 400%

35. An echo returned in 3 s. What is the distance of the reflecting surface from the source
given that the speed of sound is 342 ms-1?
(A) 513 m (B) 450 m
(C) 413 m (D) 521 m
36. The potential difference in volt across the resistance R3 in the circuit shown in figure, is
(R1 = 15 ohm, R2 = 15 ohm, R3 = 30 ohm, R4 = 35 ohm)

(A) 5 (B) 7.5

(C) 15 (D) 12.5
37. The north pole of a long bar magnet was pushed slowly into a short solenoid connected
to a short galvanometer. The magnet was held stationary for a few seconds with the north
pole in the middle of the solenoid and then withdrawn rapidly. The maximum deflection
of the galvanometer was observed when the magnet was
(A) moving towards the solenoid (B) moving into the solenoid
(C) at rest inside the solenoid (D) moving out of the solenoid

8|Pa ge
 `
38. A girl is carrying a school bag of 3 kg mass on her back and moves 200 m on a levelled
road. If the value of g be 10 m/s2, the work done by the girl against the gravitational
force will be:
(A) 6000 J (B) 0.6 J
(C) 0 J (D) 6 J
39. The acceleration of a body due to the attraction of the earth (radius R) at a distance 2R
from the surface of the earth is (g = acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the
earth)
(A) g/9 (B) g/3
(C) g/4 (D) g
40. An object has an image thrice of its original size when kept at 8 cm and 16 cm from a
convex lens. Focal length of the lens is
(A) less than 8 cm (B) 8 cm
(C) 16 cm (D) between 8 and 16 cm
41. A cricket ball is projected vertically upward such that it returns back to the
thrower. The variation in kinetic energy with time is best represented by

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

42. If R1 and R2 be the resistance of the filament of 40 W and 60 W respectively operating

220 V, then
(A) R1 < R2 (B) R2 < R1
(C) R1 = R2 (D) R1 ≥ R2
9|Pa ge
 `
43. Assertion: Current I is flowing through a cylindrical wire of non-uniform cross-
section as shown. Section of wire near A will be more heated compared to the
section near B.

Reason: Current density near A is more.

(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation
of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

44. A convex mirror of focal length of produces an image 1/nth of the size of the
object. The distance of the object from the mirror is
(A) f (B) (n+1) f

(C) (n-1) f (D) f

45. The variation of velocity of a particle with time moving along a straight line is
illustrated in the adjoining figure. The distance travelled by the particle in 4 s is

(A) 60 m (B) 55m

(C) 25m (D) 30 m

46. If the earth suddenly shrinks (without changing mass) to half of its present
radius, the acceleration due to gravity will be
(A) g/2 (B) 4g
(C) g/4 (D) 2g

47. When we change feeble sound to loud sound, we increase its

(A) frequency (B) amplitude
(C) velocity (D) wavelength

10 | P a g e
 `
48. A parrot is sitting on the floor of a closed glass cage which is in a boy’s hand. If
the parrot starts flying with a constant speed, the boy will feel the weight of the
cage as
(A) unchanged (B) reduced
(C) increased (D) nothing can be said

49. An electron beam enters a magnetic field at right angles to it as shown in the
Figure.

The direction of force acting on the electron beam will be:

(A) to the left (B) to the right
(C) into the page (D) out of the page

50. A convex mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm is shown in figure. An object O is

placed in front of this mirror. Its ray diagram is shown. How many mistakes are
there in the ray diagram (AB is principal axis)

(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 0

51. A boy hears the echo of his own voice from a distant hill after 0·8 second. If the
speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, calculate the distance of hill from the boy.
(A) 146 m (B) 150 m
(C) 125 m (D) 136 m

52. A point object is placed at a distance of 10 cm and its real image is formed at a
distance of 20 cm from a concave mirror. If the object is moved by 0.1 cm towards
the mirror. The image will shift by about
(A) 0.4 cm away from the mirror (B) 0.4 cm towards the mirror
(C) 0.8 cm away from the mirror (D) 0.8 cm towards the mirror

53. A steady current flow in a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross-section. The

quantity/ quantities which remain constant along the length of the conductor is/are
(A) current, electric field and drift speed (B) drift speed only
(C) current and drift speed (D) current only

11 | P a g e
 `

54. A bucket is placed in the open where the rain is falling vertically. If a wind
begins to blow at double the velocity of the rain, how will be the rate of filling of
the bucket change?
(A) Remains unchanged (B) Doubled
(C) Halved (D) Becomes four times

55. When the momentum of a particle is increased by 1%, its kinetic energy
increases by x%. When the kinetic energy of the particle is increased by 300%,
its momentum increases by y%. The ratio of y to x is:
(A) 300 (B) 150
(C) 100 (D) 50+

56. The mains power supply of a house is through a 20A fuse. When a 1500 W
heater is used in this house, how many 100 W bulbs can be used simultaneously?
(The supply is at 220 V and the appliances are rated for 220V)
(A) 35 (B) 29
(C) 30 (D) 19

57. If the distance between the earth and the sun were reduced to half its present
value, then the number of days in one year would have been
(A) 65 (B) 129
(C) 183 (D) 730

58. A plane glass slab is placed over various coloured letters. The letter which
appears to be raised the least is
(A) violet (B) yellow
(C) red (D) green

59. An object of mass m held against a vertical wall by applying horizontal force F
as shown in the figure. The minimum value of the force F is

(A) Less than mg (B) Equal to mg

(C) Greater than mg (D) Cannot determine

60. A near sighted person cannot see distinctly beyond 50 cm from his eye. The
power in dioptre of spectacle lenses which will enable him to see distant objects
clearly is
(A) +50 (B) -50
(C) +2 (D) -2

********************************************************************
12 | P a g e
 `

Section-C (160 marks)

Chemistry

61. Which of the following is a major source of water pollution?

(A) Sulphur dioxide (B) Nitrogen oxide
(C) DDT (D) Hydrogen oxide
62. The phenomenon of marble cancer is due to
(A) soil particles (B) fog
(C) CFCs (D) acid rain
63. What is the percentage composition of hydrogen in water (H₂O)?
(A) 11.11% (B) 22.22%
(C) 55.56% (D) 88.89%
64. Which of the following correctly represents 360 g of water?
(i) 2 moles of H20 (ii) 20 moles of water
(iii) 6.022 × 1023 molecules of water (iv) 1.2044×1025 molecules of water
Choose the option:
(A) (i) (B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iv)
65. Which of the following is isoelectronic with Cl–1?
(A) S2– (B) P3–
+
(C) K (D) All
66. Given that the abundances of isotopes Fe54, Fe56 and Fe57 are 5%, 90%, and 5%
respectively, calculate the average atomic mass of Fe.
(A) 54.78 (B) 56.65
(C) 55.95 (D) 55.67
67. Heating pyrites to remove sulphur is called
(A) Smelting (B)Calcination
(B) Liquation (D)Roasting
68. Which among the following statements is incorrect for magnesium metal?
(A) It burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame
(B) It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas
(C) It reacts with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas
(D) It reacts with steam to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas
69. Four set ups as given below are arranged to identify the gas evolved when dilute
hydrochloric acid was added to zinc granules. Which is the most appropriate set up?

(A) I (B) II
(C) IV (D) III
70. 2 mL each of concentrated hydrochloric acid HCl, nitric acid HNO3 and a combination
of concentrated HCl and concentrated nitric acid HNO3 in the ratio of 3: 1 were taken
in test tubes labelled as A, B & C. A few pieces of metal were put in each test tube. No
change occurred in test tubes A & B, but the metal dissolved in test tube C. The metal
could be
(A) Al (B) Au
(C) Cu (D) Pt

13 | P a g e
 `
71. What happens when calcium is treated with water?
(i) It does not react with water
(ii) It reacts violently with water
(iii) It reacts less violently with water
(iv) Bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of calcium
(A) (i) & (iv) (B) (ii) & (iii)
(C) (i) & (ii) (D) (iii) & (iv)

72. Which of the following is the weakest bond?

(A) Ionic bonds (B) Metallic bonds
(C) Covalent bonds (D) Van der Waals forces

73. Almost 95% of compounds are of carbon because they can form
(A) single bonds (B) double bonds
(C)triple bonds (D) multiple bonds
74. In a crystal, covalent molecules are held together by
(A) Dipole-dipole attraction (B) Hydrogen bonds
(C) Van der Waals attraction (D) Electrostatic attraction
75. The nature of bonding in CCl4 and CaH2 is
(A) electrovalent in both CCl4 and CaH2
(B) covalent in CCl4 and electrovalent in CaH2
(C) electrovalent in CCl4 and covalent in CaH2
(D) covalent in both CCl4 and CaH2
76. When does a real gas start to behave like an ideal gas?
(A) At high temperatures and high pressures
(B) At low temperatures and high pressures
(C) At high temperatures and low pressures
(D) At low temperatures and low pressures
77. Assertion (A) Liquids tend to have the maximum number of molecules at their surface.
Reason (R) Small liquid drops have spherical shape.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
78. Two samples of lead oxide were separately reduced to metallic lead by heating in a
current of hydrogen. The weight of lead from one oxide was half the weight of lead
obtained from the other oxide. The data illustrates
(A) Law of reciprocal proportions
(B) Law of constant proportions
(C) Law of multiple proportions
(D) Law of equivalent proportions
79. pH of different solutions are given in the table below:
Solution pH

P 2.2–2.4

Q 13.8–14.0

R 6.5–7.5

S 8.0–9.0

14 | P a g e
 `
Arrange these solutions in the increasing order of OH– ion concentration.
(A) S < R < Q < P (B) P < R < S < Q
(C) R < S < Q < P (D) Q < S < R < P

80. Which of the following compound is most acidic?

(A) Cl2O7 (B) P4O10
(C)SO3 (D) B2O3

81. Sodium hydrogen carbonate, when mixed with acetic acid, evolves a gas. Which of the
following given statements are true about how the gas evolved?
(i) It changes lime water milky
(ii) It extinguishes a burning splinter
(iii) It dissolves in a solution of (NaOH) sodium hydroxide
(iv) It has a pungent smell
(A) (i) & (ii) (B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iv)

82. The pH of 0.1M aqueous solutions of NaCl, CH3COONa and NH4Cl will follow the
order
(A) NaCl<CH3COONa<NH4Cl
(B) NH4Cl<NaCl<CH3COONa
(C) NH4Cl<CH3COONa<NaCl
(D) NaCl<NH4Cl<CH3COONa

83. 2 ml of HCl was taken in each of the three test tubes P, Q and R to which 2 gm of
limestone was added. The gas liberated from each of them were passed through
limewater, water and hydrochloric acid respectively. Which of the test tube(s) will give
a milky solution?
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) Both P and R
(D) All three test tubes.

84. Study the experimental set-up shown in given figure and choose the correct option from
the following:

P Q Change observed in calcium hydroxide solution

(A) K2CO3 Cl2 gas No change
(B) KHCO3 CO2 gas No change
(C) KHCO3 H2 gas Turns milky
(D) K2CO3 CO2 gas Turns milky

85. Ethanol on complete oxidation gives

(A) acetic acid/ethanoic acid
(B) CO2 and water
(C) ethanal
(D) acetone/ethenone

86. Ethanol reacts with Na metal to form

(A) CH3ONa + H2CH3ONa + H2
(B) C2H5ONa + H2C2H5ONa + H2
(C) CH3COONa + H2CH3COONa + H2
(D) CH3COOH + H2OCH3COOH + H2O
15 | P a g e
 `
87. Which of the following organic compounds does not have the same chemical properties
as methanol?
(A) C2H6O (B) C5H10O
(C) C4H10O (D) C7H16O
88. The given diagram shows the arrangement of valence electrons in organic compound
Q, having molecular formula X2YZ2.

What could be the compound Q?

(A) Methanol (B) Ethanol
(C) Methanoic acid (D) Ethanoic acid

89. An organic compound X with molecular formula C2H4O2 turns blue litmus red and
gives brisk effervescence with sodium bicarbonate.
Identify the compound.
(A) Methanoic acid (B) Ethanoic acid
(C) Ethanol (D) Methanol

90. The structural formula of 2-methyl-2-butene is

(A) CH3 – CH(CH3) – CH = CH2 (B) CH3 – CH2 – C(CH3) = CH2
(C) CH3CH =CH – CH3 (D) CH3CH = C(CH3)– CH3

91. Sodium hydrogen carbonate when added to acetic acid evolves a gas. Which of the
following statements is true about the gas evolved?
(i) It turns lime water milky.
(ii) It extinguishes a burning splinter.
(iii) It dissolves in a solution of sodium hydroxide.
(iv) It has a pungent odour.
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii). (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iv)

92. Curd cannot be stored in

(i) Brass vessel (ii) Steel
(iii) Copper vessel (iv) Bronze
(A) (I),(ii),(iii) (B) (ii),(iii),(iv)
(C) (i),(ii),(iv) (D) (I),(iii),(iv)

93. The pair of compounds which cannot exist together in the solution is:
(A) NaHCO3 and NaOH (B) NaHCO3 and H2O
(C) NaHCO3 and Na2CO3 (D) Na2CO3 and NaOH

94. PFA is abbreviated as

(A) Prevention of Food Act
(B) Protection of Food Act
(C) Prevention of Food Adulteration Act
(D) None of the above

95. Consider reaction is an example of

4NH₃ (g) + 5O₂ (g) → 4NO (g) + 6H₂O (g)
(a) Displacement reaction, (b) Combination reaction
(c) Redox reaction (d) Neutralization reaction.
(A) (a) & (d) (B) (b) & (c)
16 | P a g e
 `
(C) (a) & (c) (D) (c) & (d)
96. An element X on exposure to moist air turns reddish-brown and a new compound Y is
formed. The substances X and Y are
(A) X = Fe, Y = Fe₂O₃ (B) X = Ag, Y = Ag₂S
(C) X = Cu, Y = CuO (D) X = Al, Y = Al₂O₃
97. Which of the following represents a redox reaction?
(A) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
(B) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl
(C) CuSO4 + 2H2O → Cu(OH)2 + H2SO3
(D) Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
98. When copper turnings are added to silver nitrate solution, a blue coloured solution is
formed after some time. It is because, copper
(A)Displaces silver from the solution
(B)Forms a blue coloured complex with AgNO3
(C)Is oxidized to Cu2+
(D)Is reduced to Cu2+
99. What is the oxidation state of chlorine in NaClO₃?
(A) -1 (B) +1
(C) +5 (D) +7
100. Observe the given reaction carefully and identify (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) Undergoes Oxidation Reduction Undergoes reduction

Oxidation

(B) Reducing agent Reduction Oxidation Oxidising agent

(C) Oxidising agent Oxidation Reduction Reducing agent

(D) Undergoes Reduction Oxidation Undergoes Oxidation

Reduction

17 | P a g e
 `

**********************************************************************
Section-D (160 marks)
Biology
101. Given are different parts of respiratory tract.
P. Nasal cavity
Q. Alveolar duct
R. Larynx
S. Respiratory bronchioles
T. Epiglottis
U. Terminal bronchioles
V. Lobular bronchioles
W. Trachea
X. Bronchus
Which path a molecule of carbon dioxide in the alveolus of the inferior lobe of
lung takes on its journey to the outside?
(A) Q → U → S → V → X → W → R → T→ P
(B) Q → S → U → V → X → W →T→ R→ P
(C) Q → S → U → V→ X → W→ R → T →P
(D) Q → s → U → X→ V → W → R → T → P

102. Find out the correct sentence.

(A) Enzymes packed in lysosomes are made through RER (rough endoplasmic
reticulum).
(B)Rough endoplasmic reticulum and smooth endoplasmic reticulum produce
lipid and protein respectively.
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum is related with the destruction of plasma membrane.
(D) Nucleoids present inside the nucleoplasm of eukaryotic nucleus.

103. Assertion : Absorption of most nutrients from the intestine is active transport.
Reason : Active transport requires energy.
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is The correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

104. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding epithelial tissue?

(A) It does not have a free surface
(B) Provides a covering for some part of the body
(C) Cells are compactly packed
(D) It is of two types
105. While doing work and running, you move your organs like hands, legs etc.
Which among the following is correct?
(A) Smooth muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones.
(B) Smooth muscles contract and pull the tendons to move the bones.
(C) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones.
(D) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon to move the bones.
18 | P a g e
 `

106. A heterozygous red-eyed female Drosophila mated with a white-eyed male

would produce
(A) red-eyed females and white-eyed males in the F1
(B) white -eyed females and red – eyed males in the F1
(C) half red and half white – eyed females as well as males in the F1
(D) half red and half white-eyed females and all white eyed males in the F1

107. Which statement about the genotypes of organisms is correct?

(A) Dominant alleles are only found in homozygotes
(B) One recessive allele always causes a recessive phenotype
(C) Recessive phenotypes must be homozygous
(D) The dominant phenotype must be heterozygous

108. Making anti-viral drugs is more difficult than making anti-bacterial medicines
because
(A) Viruses make use of host machinery
(B) Viruses are on the border line ofliving and non-living
(C) Viruses have very few biochemical mechanisms of their own
(D) Viruses have a protein coat

109. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to genetically
modified organisms?
(A) In this technique, a gene from one organism is isolated and transferred to the
cell of another organism.
(B) This technique has applications only in plants.
(C) Genes for insect resistance may spread from crop plants to wild plants.
(D) To produce a transgenic animal the novel genes are inserted at a very early
stage of development.

110. Fertilisers are used on farmlands to increase the nutritive quality of soil and
thus, the crop productivity. However, they greatly impact our environment in
negative ways. A fertiliser industry is planning to release nitrate-free or
reduced nitrate containing fertiliser to make it more environment-friendly. This
control of nitrate rich fertilisers is necessary because (a) nitrates cause acid rain,
killing trees and fishes.
(A) when released in the environment
(B) They decrease the natural fertility to the soil
(C) Nitrates may lead to excessive growth of water plants
(D) it poisons different crop plants

111. From the list of organisms given below, those that reproduce by the asexual
method are
(i) Banana (ii) Dog
(iii) Yeast (iv) Amoeba
(A) (ii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv).

19 | P a g e
 `
112. Which of the following is the correct order of meninges from the inner side?
(A) Pia mater – arachnoid mater – durometer
(B) Pericardium – myocardium – endocardium
(C) Durometer – pia mater – arachnoid mater
(D) Durometer – arachnoid mater – pia mater

113. Chromosome structure can be observed best during ____

(A) Anaphase (B) Metaphase
(B) Prophase (D) None of the above

114. Mitosis can be observed in _____

(A) Polyploid individual (B) Diploid individual
(C) Haploid individual (D) Both (1,) (2) and (3)

115. Complete the given analogy

Stomach: Columnar epithelium::Fallopian tube:--------------
(A) Cuboidal epithelium (B) Squamous epithelium
(C) Ciliated epithelium (D) Compound epithelium

116. Which of the following cells is found in the cartilaginous tissue of the body?
(A) Mast cells (B) Basophils
(C) Osteocytes (D) Chondrocytes

117. A recessive homozygote is crossed with a heterozygote of the same gene. What
will be the phenotype of the F1-generation?
(A) All dominant
(B) 75% dominant, 25% recessive
(C) 50% dominant, 50% recessive
(D) 25% dominant, 50% heterozygous, 25% recessive

118. Which statement is true for a dominant allele?

(A) It cannot undergo mutation
(B) It gives a greater chance of survival than a recessive allele
(C) It gives the same phenotype in heterozygotes and homozygotes
(D) It is only responsible for male characteristics

119. Choose the wrong statement

(A) High blood pressure is caused by excessive weight and lack of exercise.
(B) Cancers can be caused by genetic abnormalities
(C) Peptic ulcers are caused by eating acidic food
(D) Acne in not caused by staphylococci

120. Identify the factor which led to the Green Revolution in India.
(A) Judicious use of pesticides
(B) Proper use of water
(C) Increase in land area under cultivation
(D) Introduction of high-yielding varieties of crops

121. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be
available to?
20 | P a g e
 `
Peacock as food in the following chain?
Plant Mice Snake Peacock
(A) 0.02 J (B) 0.002 J
(C) 0.2 J (D) 0.0002 J

122. Assertion : Gibberellins induce internodal growth in dwarf plant varieties.

Reason : Gibberellins when applied to normal plants, it increases the length of the
plant.
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

123. The end product of glycolysis is

(A) Pyruvic acid (B) Glucose
(C) Ethyl alcohol (D) CO2

124. The _______ state implies the exit of cells from the cell cycle
(A) S (B) G1
(C) G2 (D) G0

125. Mechanical support, enzyme circulation, protein synthesis and detoxification of

drugs are the functions of
(A) Golgi bodies (B) Chloroplast
(C) Ribosomes (D) ER

126. All the xylem elements, when mature, are dead except
(A) Tracheids (B) Vessels
(C) Xylem parenchyma (D) Xylem fibres

127. Which of the following is true about parenchymatous cells?

(A) Presence of intercellular space
(B) Presence of highly thickened dead cells with narrow cavity
(C) Presence of thickening at corner
(D) Presence of lignified wall

128. Who have a perfect pair of sex chromosomes?

(A) Girls
(B) Boys
(C) Both
(D) It depends upon many factors

129. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow
seeded plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green
seeded plants would you expect in F1-generation
(A) 9 : 1 (B) 50 : 50
(C) 1 : 3 (D) 3 : 1

21 | P a g e
 `
130. Active immunity is:
(A) Borrowed from an active disease case.
(B) Developed in direct response to a disease agent.
(C) The product of borrowed antibodies.
(D) Passive immunity that is activated.

131. Which of the following is a protein containing rabi crop?

(A) Peas (B) Black gram
(C) Green gram (D) Pigeon pea

132. As energy is passed from one trophic level to another, the amount of usable
energy
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains the same
(D) Energy is not passed from one trophic level to another

133. Sequence of blood flow in human kidney:

(A) Renal artery → Afferent arteriole → Efferent arteriole → Glomerulus →
Renal vein
(B) Renal artery → Afferent arteriole→ Glomerulus→ Efferent arteriole → Renal
vein
(C) Renal artery → Afferent arteriole → Glomerulus → Renal vein → Efferent
arteriole
(D) Renal vein → Efferent arteriole → Afferent arteriole → Glomerulus → Renal
artery

134. Variegated leaf experiment is carried to test the presence of -------------

(A) Fructose (B) Chlorophyll
(C) Water (D) CO2

135. Identify the correct order of organization of genetic material from largest to
smallest.
(A) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
(B) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene
(C) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
(D) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene

136. Match the columns and identify the correct option.

Column I Column II
A. Thylakoids 1. Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
B. Cristae 2. Condensed structure of DNA
C. Cisternae 3. Flat membranous sacs in stroma
D. Chromatin 4. Infoldings in mitochondria
(A) 4 3 1 2 (B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 1 4 2 (D) 3 4 2 1

137. Read the given statements and select the correct ones.
(a) There is no demarcation of dividing and non- dividing regions in animals.
(b) Animals consume less energy as compared to plants.
22 | P a g e
 `
(c) Most of the tissues that plants contain are living.
(d) Structural organization of organs and organ systems are more specialized
animals than even in very complex plants.
(e) Growth of animals is indefinite.
(A) 2, 3 and 5 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 1 and 5

138. Tracheids, vessels, wood fibres and parenchymatous tissues are found in
(A) xylem (B) cambium
(C) cortex (D) phloem

139. Sex is determined in human beings

(A) by ovum
(B) at the time of fertilisation
(C) 40 days after fertilisation
(D) seventh to eighth week when genitals differentiate in foetus

140. Which statement is true for a dominant allele?

(A) It cannot undergo mutation
(B) It gives a greater chance of survival than a recessive allele
(C) It gives the same phenotype in heterozygotes and homozygotes
(D) It is only responsible for male characteristics

141. Identify the disease that is caused by protozoa.

(A) Cholera (B) Hepatitis B
(C) Jaundice (D) Malaria

142. Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium are examples of

(A) Micro-nutrients (B) Macro-nutrients
(C) Fertilizers (D) Both I and II

143. Which of the following is not a digestive enzyme contained in the pancreatic
juice?
(i) Lipase (ii) Hydrochloric acid (iii) Mucus (iv) Trypsin
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) and (iii)

144. The waste products from plants are removed through:

(A) Stomata (B) Lenticels
(C) Felling of fruits (D) All the above

145. In which stage DNA replication takes place

(A) Metaphase (B) G1-phase
(C) G2- phase (D) S- phase

146. Select the correct statement related to mitosis

(A) Amount of DNA in the parent cell is first halved and then distributed into two
daughter cells
(B) Amount of DNA in the parent cell is first doubled and then distributed into
two daughter cells
23 | P a g e
 `
(C) Amount of DNA in the parent cell is first halved and then distributed into four
daughter cells
(D) Amount of DNA in the parent cell is first doubled and then distributed into
four daughter cells

147. Identify the features of striated muscles.

(A) Cylindrical, striped, skeletal and voluntary
(B) Spindle, unbranched and uninucleated
(C) Cylindrical, unstriped and without nucleus
(D) Cylindrical, striped and branched

148. A person met with an accident in which two long bones of hand were dislocated.
Which among the following may be the possible reason?
(A) Tendon break
(B) Cartilage
(C) Ligament break
(D) Areolar tissue break

149. Which of the following is Heterozygous?

(A) TTRR (B) ttrr
(C) TT (D) Tt

150. Assertion: Haemophilia is a congenital disease.

Reason: Haemophilia is caused by a gene mutation during one's own life span.
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(D) Both the assertion and reason are false.

151. Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts
coughing while swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to
improper movement of
(A) diaphragm (B) neck
(C) Epiglottis (D) Tongue

152. Arrange the sentences given below in order to describe the process of
fertilization.
W: The pollen tube grows down through the style reaches the ovary.
X: The pollen grain germinates on reaching the stigma.
Y: The male gamete moves into the ovule to fuse with the ovum.
Z: The pollen tube grows out from the pollen.

Which of these options are in the correct order?

(A) WXYZ
(B) XZWY
(C) YWZX
(D) WZXY

24 | P a g e
 `
153. The exchange of gases in the alveoli of the lungs takes place by
(A) Active transport (B) Osmosis
(C) Simple diffusion (D) Passive transport

154. Read the given statements and select the correct option
Statement I: Cell membrane is composed of lipids that are arranged in a bilayer
Statement II: In lipid bilayer, hydrophobic parts are present at outer side.
(A) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(D) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

155. Inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchi and bronchioles are lined by epithelial
cells. Find the type of epithelia which lines them.
(A) Squamous epithelium (B) Ciliated epithelium
(C) Columnar (D) Cubical epithelium

156. Which statement is true for a dominant allele?

(A) It cannot undergo mutation
(B) It gives a greater chance of survival than a recessive allele
(C) It gives the same phenotype in heterozygotes and homozygotes
(D) It is only responsible for male characteristics

157. Which one is an acute disease?

(A) Diabetes (B) Tuberculosis
(C) Hypertension (D) Typhoid

158. A human female reaches menopause around the age of

(A) 50 years (B) 15 years
(C) 70 years (D) 25 years

159. Which of the following is not a male accessory gland?

(A) Seminal vesicle (B) Ampulla
(C) Prostate (D) Bulbourethral gland

160. Which of the following is true for nucleolus?

(A) It takes part in spindle formation
(B) It is a membrane-bound structure
(C) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells
(D) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis

161. How many equational divisions are necessary in a cell of onion root tip to form
128 cells
(A) 64 (B) 7
(C) 128 (D) 127

162. Parenchyma cells containing air cavities are called

(A) aerenchyma (B) sclerenchyma
(C) chlorenchyma (D) prosenchyma

25 | P a g e
 `

163. Who were awarded Nobel Prize for discovering the causative organism of peptic
ulcer?
(A) Alexander Fleming and Darwin
(B) Barry Marshall and Leeuwenhoek
(C) Barry Marshall and Robin Warren
(D) Fleming and Edward Jenner

164. Which of the following have same O2 content?

(A) Blood entering the lungs and blood leaving the lungs
(B) Blood entering the right side of the heart and blood leaving the right side of
the heart
(C) Blood entering the right side of the heart and blood leaving the left side of the
heart
(D) Blood entering the tissue capillaries and blood leaving the tissue capillaries

165. Adrenaline hormone is secreted in the body during emergency situations. What
would be the effects of increased concentration of adrenaline on body?
Concentration Concentration
of glycongen of glucose in
in the the blood
liver
(A) Decrease Increase

(B) Increase Increase

(C) No effect Decrease
(D) Increase No effect
166. Which of the following is not a function of the vacuole in plants?
(A) They store toxic metabolic wastes
(B) They help in the process of cell division
(C) They help to maintain turgidity
(D) They provide rigidity and mechanical support

167. The Genotype of offspring formed from Tt X tt will be-

(A) TT and tt (B) Tt and tt
(C) only tt (D) only TT

168. Select the correct matches.

Disease Type
1. Arthritis Chronic
2. Tuberculosis Acute
3. Cancer Infectious
4. Night blindness Non-infectious

(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 2 and 4 (D) 1 and 3
26 | P a g e
 `

169. The diagram shows part of a river into which sewage is being pumped. Some of
the effects of adding sewage to the river are shown in the graph. At which point in
the river are decomposers most active?

(A) D (B) C
(C) B (D) A

170. Exhalation is the process of expulsion of air through respiratory tract. Which
figure illustrates the process of exhalation.

171. The plants given below are similar as they are

(A) Weeds (B) Oil crops

(C) Cash crops (D) Grass plants
172. Pick up the correct food chain.
(A) Grass Chameleon Insect Bird
(B) Grass Fox Rabbit Bird
(C) Phytoplankton Zooplankton Fish
(D) Fallen leaves Bacteria Insect larvae

27 | P a g e
 `
173. The figure given below shows three stages in cardiac cycle

Which of the following sequence is correct regarding this

(A) 2, 3, 1 (B) 1, 2, 3
(C) 2, 1, 3 (D) 3, 1, 2

174. The following graph shows the concentration of oxygen in a river, measured at
Stations 1-5 each 100m apart. A sewage out flow is observed just after station
At which stations will the concentration of organic matter be lowest?

(A) 1 and 5
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 4 and 5

175. What is true for photo autotrophs?

(A) Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen from organic compounds
(B) Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen from inorganic compounds
(C) Obtain energy from organic compounds
(D) Obtain energy from inorganic compounds

176. All of the following are the effective current preventive methods for HIV
infection, EXCEPT?
(A) Safe and protected sex
(B) Use of sterile injection needles
(C) Use of available vaccines
(D) Safe blood transfusion method

178. Larger subunit of 80S ribosome is composed of

(A) 40S (B) 60S.
(C) 50S (D) 30S.

179. Assertion : Mitochondria and chloroplasts are semiautonomous organelles.

Reason : They are formed by division of pre-existing organelles and contain
DNA but lack protein synthesizing machinery.

28 | P a g e
 `
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (Aand reason (R) is both are false

180. Identify the number of chromosomes that can be in human germ cell
(A) (23+ XX) (B) (23+XY)
(C) (22+XY) (D) (22+X)

***********************Best of Luck****************************

29 | P a g e