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Final Book Brighter Nepal

The document outlines the preparation materials for the Brighter Nepal Bridge Course, including past year questions and chapter notes across subjects like Biology, Chemistry, Physics, English, and Mathematics. It provides detailed content pages, chapter summaries, and strategies for excelling in multiple-choice questions (MCQs). Additionally, it includes model questions from various colleges and tips for effective exam preparation.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

2K views

Final Book Brighter Nepal

Uploaded by

santo88814

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

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BRIGHTER NEPAL BRIDGE COURSE PREPARATION

PAST YEAR QUESTIONS

CONTENT PAGE No.

Past Year question Chemistry 20

Past year question physics 23
Past year questions Maths 29
Past year question Biology (ALL IN ONE) 39

CHAPTER NOTES + QUESTIONS (BIOLOGY)

CELL : THE UNIT OF LIFE

1. CELL And cell theory

2. Structure Of a Cell
3. Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cell
4. MIND MAP + MCQS

FIVE KINGDOM CLASSIFICATION

1. Taxonomy And Classification
2. Kingdom Animalia : Non-Chordata And Chordata
3. Bacteria And Fungi
4. Plant Kingdom
5. MIND MAP AND MCQS

CONTROL AND COORDINATION

1. Control and Coordination in Plants
2. Control and Coordination in animals
3. Neuron , Brain , Human Nervous System
4. MINDMAP + MCQs

LIFE PROCESS
1. Nutrition and Digestive system
2. Respiratory System
3. Circulatory System
4. Excretory System
5. Mindmap + MCQs

REPRODUCTION
1. Asexual and Vegetative Propagation in Plants
2. Sexual Reproduction in Plants (Flower and its structure)
3. Human Reproductive System
4. Mindmap and MCQs

HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION

1. Mendel’s Experiment
2. MindMap And MCQs

104

&217(176?

CHEMISTRY
CHEMISTRY PRACTICE QUESTIONS 112
THE LANGUAGE OF CHEMISTRY

1. Elements, Radicals and formulae

2. Atomic And Moleculor Masses

126

ACID , BASE AND SALTS

1. Acid
2. Base
3. Salt
4. MCQs + Mindmap

132

CARBON COMPOUNDS
1. Theory
2. MCQs + Mindmap

141

CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS

1. Chemical Change
2. Types Of Chemical Reaction
3. Some More Theories
4. MCQs + Mindmap

153

METALS AND NON-METALS

1. Properties of Metals and Non-metals
2. Ionic Compounds, Metallurgy and Corrosion
3. MCQs + Mindmap

162

PARTICLE NATURE (Atoms and Molecules)

1. Laws of Chemical Combination
2. Daltons Atomic Theory
3. Atoms, Molecules , Radicals
4. MCQs + Mindmap

174

STRUCTURE OF ATOM
1. Difference Between Electron Proton And Neutron
2. Some More theories
3. MCQs + Mindmap

179

PERIODIC TABLE
1. History Of Peridic Table
2. Mendleevs Periodic Table
3. Modern Periodic Table
4. Description Of Groups and Periods
5. MCQs + Mindmap

184

PHYSICS
MEASUREMENTS AND EXPERIMENTATION
1. International System Of Units
2. Fundamental And Derived Units
3. Dimensions

204

ELECTRICITY
1. Electric Current And Ohm’s law
2. Resistance And Resistivity
3. MCQs + Mindmap

207

MAGNETIC EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

1. Magnetic Effects
2. Magnetic Field
3. Domestic Electric Circuits
4. MCQs + Mindmap

216

WORK , ENERGY AND POWER

1. Work
2. Energy
3. Power
4. Mindmap + MCQs

224

MOTION IN ONE DIMENSION

1. Scalar And Vector Quantities
2. Distance, Displacement
3. Speed, Velocity , Acceleration
4. Equation Of Motion
5. Graphical Analysis
6. Projectile Motion
7. Mindmap + MCQs

229

LAWS OF MOTION
1. Contact And Non-Contact Force
2. Newtons Law of Motion
3. MCQ + Mindmap

239

GRAVITATION
1. Universal law Of Gravitation
2. Weight, Mass , Freefall, Weightlessness
3. Some More theories
4. Mindmap + MCQs
246

FLUIDS
1. Pressure in Fluids
2. Archimedes Law Of Floatation
3. Mindmap + MCQs

247

LIGHT REFLECTION AND REFRACTION

1. Reflection Of Light In Plane And Spherical Mirror
2. Magnification

255

3. Refraction
4. Lenses and Power of Lens
5. MindMap + MCQs

SOUND
1. Nature Of Sound Waves
2. Infrasonic And Ultrasonic Waves
3. Mindmap + MCQs

266

HEAT AND ENERGY

1. Concepts Of Heat And Temperature
2. Mindmap + MCQs

273

SIMPLE MACHINE 275

ENGLISH
Articles 279
Subject Verb Agreement 283
Tense Use 288
Time Adverbials 299
If Sentences 301
Causative verbs 304
Preposition 305
Reported Speech 309
Active And Passive Voice 319
Tag Questions 323
Transformation Of Sentences 326
Connectives 328

MATHEMATICS
Collection Of 1500+ Questions
(Includes Question From All The Chapters)
334

Formulas With Notes ( Includes Formulas From All The Chapters) 335
Real Numbers 361
Polynomials 368
Linear Equation 375
Quadratic Equations 382
Arithmatic Progressions 384
Triangles 386
Coordinate Geometry 388
Introduction To Trigonometry 391
Application Of Trigonometry 393
Circles 396

Area Related To Circle 398

Surface Area And Volume 400
Statistics 403
Probability 405
Linear Equation Set 2 407
Coordinate Geomertry Set 2 410
Polynomials Set 2 412
Number System 414
Probability Set 2 416
Surface Area And Volume Set 2 418
Circles Set 2 420
Areas Of Parallelograms and Triangle 422
Quadrilaterals 424
Triangles Set 2 426
Lines & Angles 428

MODEL QUESTIONS + PAST YEAR COLLECTIONS

St. XAVIER’s COLLEGE

1. Saint Xavier’s Past Year Questions Set 1

2. Saint Xavier’s Past Year Questions Set 2
3. Saint Xavier’s Past Year Questions 2075
4. Saint Xavier’s Model Questions (SET 1)
5. Saint Xavier’s Model Questions (SET 2)
6. Saint Xavier’s Model Questions (SET 3)
7. Saint Xavier’s Model Questions (SET 4)
8. Saint Xavier’s Model Questions (SET 5)

430 - 461

KATHMANDU METROPOLITIAN SCHLORSHIP

1. Kathmandu Metro Schlorship (Set 1)
2. Kathmandu Metro Schlorship (Set 2)

462 - 472

CCRC Model Set Science 587

NEPAL POLICE COLLEGE 479
GLOBAL COLLEGE MODEL SET SCIENCE
GLOBAL COLLEGE MODEL SET MANAGEMENT

484
487

BKVM COLLEGE, BIRATNAGAR 489

KIST COLLEGE MODEL SET SCIENCE(Contains 5 Set) 494 - 519
KMC MODEL SET SCIENCE
KMC MODEL MANAGEMENT

520
525

PRASADI MODEL MANAGEMENT 528

SOS MODEL SET 1
SOS MODEL SET 2

531
537

ST.MARY MODEL SETS SCIENCE + MANAGEMENT 543 - 553

SAINIK MODEL SET SCIENCE

SAINIK MODEL SET MANAGEMENT

553
582

UNITED MODEL SET SCIENCE

UNITED MODEL SET MANAGEMENT

559 -561
562 - 564

TRINITY MODEL SET SCIENCE

TRINITY MODEL SET MANAGEMENT & HUMANITIES

564 -571
572 - 580

PRACTICE MODEL QUESTION 592

SAINIK SYLLABUS SCIENCE
SAINIK SYLLABUS MANAGEMENT

`592

MODEL SETS OF SOME MORE COLLEGES ARE COLLECTED BELOW

594 - 595

Best 5 Strategies to Ace your MCQ Exams

What’s the full form of MCQ? Multiple Choice Questions? Nah! I call it Most Confusing Questions.
Ha-ha! Whatever we may call it, no-one can deny that they could be potentially the most scoring parts of
our exams. And with online exams these days, MCQ’s are the new favourite of our teachers.
I will give you –

1. 5 Perfect Strategies to Ace your MCQ Exams

2. 10 Tricks for guessing intelligently

But before that did you know which educational institution developed the first complete MCQ
Examination? Given below are four options

1. St Edwards School, England

2. Berlin School of Business and Innovation, Germany
3. Princeton University, USA
4. The University of Tokyo, Japan

Give your option as a comment below while I reveal the correct answer at the end

Strategy Number 1: Plan your Time

Time management is one of the key success factors for any MCQ exams. So, to tackle the continuous
panic of losing time here’s the trick. If you have one hour for your MCQ exams – divide that into three
parts
The First 15 minutes
for Skimming the paper. Read all the questions, and as you go along, you will find some small, very
easy to solve direct questions. Solve them instantly. This will give you the initial boost of confidence.
The next 30 minutes –
Go through the rest of the questions. If something is very hard, don’t spend more than one minute on it.
In her book A Mind for Numbers, Barbara Oakley recommends the “hard start-jump to easy” technique
where she says that as soon as you hit a mental roadblock, shift gears and get to work on easier
questions. The brain is a powerful organ, it keeps working. Also, you might get clues in some other
questions.
The last 15 minutes –
This is the time to tackle those challenging problems and make some intelligent guesses for some bad
toughies and we have 10 super tricks for that later on in this video

Strategy Number 2 – Don’t Rush

Read the question twice – pay attention to words like “not”, “always” which completely change the
question. Also double check the exact requirements of the question. Underline these words and other
important keywords

BRIGHTER NEPAL BRIDGE COURSE PREPARATION

If you think the first option is correct, don’t rush to circle the OMR sheet, check once if the last option is
‘all of the above’. Make sure you read all the options carefully before choosing your answer.

Strategy Number 3 – Use clues from the question

This strategy has three sub – parts (ha! ha! just like MCQ’s)

1. In math questions – If the calculation seems too long winded, one easy method is to put the
options back into the questions and check if the equation balances

2. In English or social studies based questions use grammar as a tool to help you – example this is
your question.

The people of Iceland

1. A country located just outside the Arctic Circle
2. Are the world’s most avid readers
3. Claim to be descendents of the Aztecs
4. The capital, Reykjavik, where arms talks have been held

Option (a) is missing the verb, and Option (d) has no connection to “the people of Iceland.” These
options can be eliminated, even though both are true, and you are left with options (b) and (c).

3. Check units and dimensions- these will give you vital clues. So if it is calculation of area for
example, rule out options that are not in square units even before you solve the question.

Strategy Number 4: Context-Based Memory

Sometimes we ponder upon MCQ questions with foggy answers in our mind. We try our level best to
recall it but just get stuck shaking our head. To our rescue, psychology has a trick called context-based
memory. It says that to recall some missing information, try to remember where you studied that piece
of information – was it in a book or online, was it from a tuition teacher or from a friend. Try to
remember which corner of the page that graph was. This will trigger your mind to connect the dots to
find the missing information.
It works even if you forgot where you kept your keys. And with that “key” information let’s move to our
next strategy.

Strategy Number 5 – Practice Practice Practice

There is no strategy to crack MCQ’s that can beat this one. Practice everyday, check your answers, go
back to the concepts and understand the type of questions being asked.
And if you want a perfect time table to study for any exam then I will drop a link for you under this
video. And if you are enjoying this then don’t forget to press that little thumbs up.
Now, you are left with the tough questions. And if there is no negative marking for the wrong answers
or it is very low, then we can go ahead and make some smart guesses.
So, here are my 10 tricks for intelligent guessing.

Tip Number 1: Eliminate the options 10

BRIGHTER NEPAL BRIDGE COURSE PREPARATION

The general formula of solving MCQ is to increase the probability of the right answer by removing all
the possible wrong answers. So, start by removing the options which are clearly wrong. Sometimes you
might get lucky and be left with only one option.

Tip no. 2 – Long-Tail Keyword

In the book “Rock Breaks Scissors: A Practical Guide to Outguessing and Outwitting Almost
Everybody” the author William Poundstone, has revealed marvellous findings in his research with huge
sets of MCQ data. His book reveals that the option with the longest statement has the highest probability
of being right because the test makers have to make sure that the right answer is indisputably right.

Tip Number 3: Avoid the footprint

Poundstone also discovered that two successive questions rarely have the same correct option. Example
if you are solving Q 30 and find yourself clueless , then look at the answer to Q 29 or Q31 and don’t
select the same letters. They have the least probability of being correct.

Tip Number 4: Golden options

Research has shown that if you don’t know the answer at all for any particular MCQ question and one of
the options has either “All of the Above” or “None of the Above” always bet on these options. They
have a disproportionately high probability of being correct.
One reminder here is to make sure that either there is no negative marking or it is very low, before you
try guessing too many answers.

Tip No. 5: True vs False

In the tug of war between True and False in a True-False question, Poundstone revealed that True is
more likely to be the correct answer than False. So if you are guessing wildly then choose True.

Tip no. 6: Avoid North-South Options

Remove extreme values or completely unrelated values. Example you have four options like –

1. banyan tree,
2. acacia tree,
3. koala bear
4. bamboo tree

clearly Koala bear would be the wrong answer

Similarly with numbers, remove extreme numbers. The middle-order options are much safer, for
example, if the options are 100, 150, 200, and 250 then choosing 150 or 200 could be a safe choice.

Tip No. 7 –
if two options are similar sounding or if the same keyword appears in two options – chances are that the
right answer is one of them. Also, if two options are completely opposite – chances are that the right
answer may be one of them

BRIGHTER NEPAL BRIDGE COURSE PREPARATION

Tip no. 8 –
grammatically incorrect options are most likely wrong

Tip no. 9 –
Poundstone found that when a question has three options – a, b, c, then there was no clear bias.
However, when there were four options – a, b, c, d – b had the highest probability of being right at 28%,
followed closely by c at 25%

Tip no. 10 –
Poundstone found that when a question has five options, the fifth option had the highest probability of
being right
But one caution here, avoid guessing more than 10% of the questions and try to practice more, learn
more, trust your own instinct and remember that hard work is the shortest path to success.
Now, coming to our question which we asked in the beginning, and the right answer is Option A, St
Edwards School, England. Kudos to those who guessed it right.

BRIGHTER NEPAL BRIDGE COURSE PREPARATION

NOTE ;- HERE ARE SOME PAST YEAR QUESTIONS DIRECTLY COLLECTED FROM STUDENTS
AND THESE ARE THE
PROOFS. MORE QUESTIONS ARE INCLUDED IN THE PAST YEAR QUESTIONS IN THE BOOK
WHICH IS IN THE
FRONT OF THE BOOK AND CHAPTERWISE QUESTIONS.

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BRIGHTER NEPAL BRIDGE COURSE PREPARATION

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IURP 6WXGHQWV

BRIGHTER NEPAL BRIDGE COURSE PREPARATION

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Simple Machine
The devices which are simple in construction and make our work easier and faster by changing the direction
of
force are called simple machine(s).

The Applications (Advantages) of Simple Machine are:

1. It helps to multiply force.

2. It helps to change the direction of force.

3. It helps to increase the speed of work.

4. It helps to do work safely.

Mechanical Advantage (MA):

Mechanical Advantage of a simple machines is the ratio of load to the effort. Mathematically,

MA = Load (L) / Effort (E)

Since, MA is the ratio of two loads, it has no unit.

MA depends on friction and weight of machine.

To increase MA of machines, lubricants and other products can be used to reduce frictional force and other
various forces which results in the decrease of MA.

Velocity Ratio (VR):

Velocity Ratio of a simple machines is the ratio of effort distance to the load distance.

Mathematically,

VR = Effort Distance (ED) / Load Distance (LD)

Since, VR is the ratio of two distance, it has no unit. It doesn't depend on friction and weight of machine.

Efficiency of a machine ( ):

Efficiency of a machine can be defined as the percentage ratio of output work to the input work of a machine.

i.e. = Output Work ( L x LD) / Input Work (E x ED) x 100%

or, = MA / VR x 100%

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Ideal Machine is not affected by friction. The machine whose efficiency is 100% is called an ideal machine.
In this
type of machine, the input work is always equal to the output work. This is not a practical machine because
no
machine is frictionless, in practice.

Types of Simple Machines:

1. Lever

2. Pulley

3. Wheel and axle

4. Inclined plane

5. Screw

6. Wedge

1. Lever:

Lever is a rigid rod which is free to rotate about a fixed point called fulcrum. A lever has Load, Load arm,
Effort,
effort arm, and fulcrum.

Lever can be categorized into three types depending on the position of load, fulcrum and effort.

I. First Class Lever (Fulcrum in between)

II. Second Class Lever (Load in between)

III. Third Class Lever (Effort in between)

Principle of Lever:

Load x load arm = Effort x effort arm

2. Pulley:
Pulley is a circular disc having a groove on it's circumference through which a rope can pass. It helps us by
changing the direction of Force applied and also by multiplying our force.

There are three types of pulley based on the number of pulleys attached in a system:

I. Single fixed pulley:

In this type of pulley, the pulley is fixed and it doesn't move up and down with load. The MA and VR of a
single
fixed pulley is always 1. Although, it doesn't multiply our force, it is widely in practice because it uses our
own
body weight to overcome load and it makes our work easier by changing the direction of Force applied.

II. Single movable pulley:

In this type of pulley, the pulley move up and down with load. The MA and VR of a single movable pulley is

always 2. It is used to overcome heavier load since it multiplies our applied effort by two times.

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III. Block and tackle system:

In this type of pulley, two or more pulleys are used in a combined form. The MA and VR of this type of
pulley is
determined by the number of pulley used.

3. Wheel and Axle:Wheel and axle is a system of two co-axial cylinders in which the bigger one is called
wheel and the smaller one is called axle.

Wheel and axle is called a continuous lever because like a lever, it has load, effort and fulcrum. Also, we
need to
continuously apply effort until the load is overcomed.

Example: door knob, spanner, paddle of a bicycle, etc.

MA = Load / Effort

VR = Radius of wheel (R) / Radius of axle (r)

Efficiency = MA / VR x 100%

4. Inclined plane:Inclined plane is a simple machine having a sloping surface. The VR of an inclined plane is
always more than one.

MA = Load / Effort

VR = Length of inclined plane (l) / height of inclined plane (h)

Efficiency= MA / VR x 100%
5. Screw:Screw is a modified inclined plane with raised spiral line along it's surface. Example: screw nail,
Jack
screw, driller ,etc.

6. Wedge:A wedge is a simple machine with two ends, one is a sharp pointed end while the other is a thick
end. Example: axe, knife, wedge, etc.

Moment:

Moment is the turning effect produced by a force. The SI unit of moment is Newton-metre (Nm).

Moment = Force (F) x Moment Arm (r)

Law of moment:

Sum of clockwise moment = Sum of anticlockwise moment

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4| Mathematics

1. ;d"x (Set)
dxTjk"0f{ ;'qx?
;j{Jofks ;d"x df / pk;d"xx? 5g\ eg]

-7Ls Pp6f_ cyjf -Pp6f dfq_

-sDtLdf Pp6f_ cyjf - jf jf b'j}_

-b'j}_
olb;d"xx¿ / ;j{Jofks ;d"x sf pk;d"xx¿ eP
-7Ls Pp6f_ cyjf -Pp6f dfq_
-sDtLdf Pp6f_
-7Ls b'O{j6f_

2. cÍul0ft (Arithmetic)
A. jf:tljs gfkmf, gf]S;fg, 5'6 /Eof6 (Net Profit, Loss, Discount and VAT)
dxTjk"0f{ ;'qx?

gfkmf
gfkmf k|ltzt
gfkmf /sd
jf:tljs 3f6f
3f6f k|ltzt
3f6f /sd
gfkmf ;lxtsf] lj=d"=
3f6f kl5sf] lj=d"=
5'6 /sd

5'6
5'6 kl5sf] lj= d"=
Eof6 ;lxtsf] lj= d"

Eof6 ;lxtsf] lj=d'=

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Note:
5'6 hlxn] klg c+lst d"Nodf lbOG5 .

Eof6 hlxn] klg 5'6kl5sf] d"Nodf hf]l8G5 .

5'6 glbPsf] cj:yfdf x'G5 .

For easy to understand

B. rqmLo Jofh (Compound Interest)

dxTjk"0f{ ;'qx? (Important Formulae)

d"nwg ;do ÷

Jofhb/ ldl>t jf rqmLo Jofh

rqmLo ld>wg

;fwf/0f Jofh

aflif{s rqmLo Aofhsf]nflu

cw{aflif{s rqmLo Aofhsf] nflu

x/]s jif{sf] Jofhb/ km/skm/s x'bf

qmo d"No laqmo d"No qmo d"Nogfkmf3f6f

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C.hg;ª\Vof j[l4 (Population Growth)

dxTjk"0f{ ;'qx? (Important Formulae)

aif{ kl5sf] hg;ª\Vof ;'?sf] hg;ª\Vof

a[l4 b/ ;do

jif{ kl5sf] hg;ª\Vof

jif{df a9]sf] hg;ª\Vof

i.e; vf; a[l4

olb klxnf tLg jif{sf] hg;ª\Vof j[l4b/x¿ qmdzM / eP,

D. ld> x|f; (Compound Depreciation)

dxTjk"0f{ ;"qx? (Important Formula)

aif{ kl5sf] d'No ;'?sf] d'No

x|f; b/ ;do

jif{kl5sf] -x|f; x'bf_ s'g} j:t'sf] d"No

jif{kl5sf] s'g} j:t'sf] x|f; d"No

i.e. vf; x|f;

3. If]qldlt (Mensuration)
A. ;dtnLo ;tx (Plane Surface)
dxTjk"0f{ ;'qx? (Important Formulae)

sf] If]qkmn cfwf/ prfO

sf] If]qkmn hxf,

cyf{t lqe'hsf] cw{kl/ldlt xf] .

;dafx' lqe'hsf] If]qkmn e'hf

A
cb

B
A

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llll
juf{sf/ cfwf/ ePsf]lk/fld8 cfotg -cfwf/sf] If]qkmn prfO{_ l

l
Note:

G.;+o'Qm 7f]; j:t'x? -lk|Hd / lk/fld8_Combined Solids (Prism and Pyramid)

dxTjk"0f{ ;'qx? (Important Formula)

ll
l

4. aLhul0ft (Algebra)
A. cfwf/e"t ;'qx? (Basic Formulae)
dxTjk"0f{ ;'qx? (Important Formulae)

d=;= ;femf u'0fg v08x?

n=;= ;femf u'0fg v08 afsL u'0fg v08x?

d=;= n=;= k=c= bf]=c=

olb x eP x'G5 .

B. 3ftfÍsx?sf] ;/nLs/0f (Simplification of Indices)

dxTjk"0f{ ;'qx? (Important Formulae)
Some rules used in operations of indices areoutlined below:

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C. 3ftfÍLo ;dLs/0f (Exponential Equation)

Important Facts:

olb x eP x x'G5 . x x
o'uky/]vLo ;dLs/0fx?

olb Pssf] :yfgsf] ;ª\Vof / bzsf] :yfgsf] ;ª\Vof"x" eP b'O{ c+sn] ag]sf] ;ª\VofnfO{ x n] hgfOG5 .
xx

b'O{ c+ssf] ;ª\Vof x df cª\sx?sf] :yfg kl/jt{g ubf{ aGg] ;ª\Vof x x'G5 .
xx

cg'jtL{ ;ª\Vofx? x, x+ x
cg'jtL{ hf]/ ;ª\Vofx? x x x x
cg'jtL{ ljhf]/ ;ª\Vofx?
x sf] Jo'Tqmdfg'kftLs x'G5 . x x

olb b'O{hgf JolQmsf] xfnsf] pd]/ xjif{ / jif{ eP

jif{kl5sf] pd]/ qmdzM x jif{ / jif{ x'G5 .

jif{cl3sf] pd]/ qmdzM x jif{ / jif{ x'G5 .

G. ju{ ;dLs/0f (Quadratic Equation)

Important Facts:

ju{ ;lds/0f x x hxf df x x'G5 . hxf /

sf dfgx? x'g\ .

xxx

5. Hofldlt (Geometry)
A. lqe'h / rt'e'{hsf] If]qkmn (Area of Triangle and Quadrilateral)
dxTjk"0f{ ;'qx? (Important Formulae)

Pp6} cfwf/ / pxL ;dfgfGt/ /]vfx?aLrdf /x]sf

;dfgfGt/ rt'e'{hsf] If]qkmn a/fa/

x'G5g\ .
lqe'hsf] If]qkmn ;dfgfGt/ rt'e'{hsf]

If]qkmnsf] cfwf x'G5 .

lqe'hsf] If]qkmn a/fa/ x'G5g\ .

Pp6f ;dfgfGt/ rt'e'{hsf] ljs0f{n]

o;nfO{ a/fa/ If]qkmn x'g] u/L b'O{

lqe'hx?df laefhg ub{5 .

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lqe'hsf] If]qkmn

lqsf]0fldtLo cg'kftx?sf dfgx? (Values of Trigonometric Ratios)

Note:

7. tYofÍzf:q (Statistics)
A. cÍul0flto dWos (Statistics)
dxTjk"0f{ ;'qx? (Important Formulae)
auL{s[t tYof+ssf] nflu

JolQmut >]0fL

vl08t >]0fL

cljlR5Gg >]0fL

dWos

dlWosf

rt'yf{+z

Summary
Primary Ratios Reciprocal Ratios

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8.;DefJotf(Probability)
A.cfwf/e"t ;'qx? (Basic Formulae)
dxTjk"0f{ ;'qx? (Important Formulae)

;DefJotf
hxf cg's"n kl/df0f ;ª\Vof

s'n kl/df0f ;ª\Vof

k|of]ufl>t ;DefJotf

cg's'n kl/df0f ;ªVØf

s'n k/LIf0f ;ªVØf

olb / b'O{j6f kf/:kl/s lgif]ws 36gfx¿ x'g eg],

olb / b'O{j6f cgfl>t 36gfx¿ x'g eg]

olb / b'O{j6f kf/:kl/s lgif]ws 36\gfx? xf]Ogg\ eg],

olb Pp6f 36gf eP 36\gf g36\g] ;DefJotf M

Pp6f ;d:ofnfO{ b'O{hgfn] ;dfwfg ug]{ ;DefJotf qmdzM / eP,

;d:of ;dfwfg x'g] ;DefJotf

b'j}n] ;d:of ;dfwfg ug]{ ;DefJotf

slDtdf Ps hgfn] pQm ;d:of ;dfwfg ug]{ ;DefJotf

/ b'O{cf]6f 36\gfx? dWo b'j} gcfpg] ;DefJotf

9. ;ª\Vofx? ;DaGwL s]xL hfgsf/L (Some information related to Numbers)

k|fs[lts ;ª\Vof
k"0f{ ;ª\Vofx?
k"0ff{ª\sx?
hf]/ ;ª\Vofx?
ljhf]/ ;ª\Vofx?
?9 ;ª\Vofx?
ju{ ;ª\Vofx?
3g ;ª\Vofx?

tf; ;DaGwL hfgsf/L

PSsf
jfbzfx
ldl:;
u'nfd
lrq ePsf tf;x? jfbzfx ldl:; u'nfd
lrq gePsf tf;x?

kQL

/ftf] sfnf]

kfg O{6 ;'/y rL8

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Maitighar, Kathmandu
+2 Science Admission Information Sheet 2017 (2074)

Admission is completely merit based. Any recommendation regarding admission will be a demerit for the
candidate.
A candidate can apply only for one group, either Biology or Physics.

ENTER OVERALL TOTAL CGPA & GPA LETTER GRADE in the application form.
Eligibility to be selected: T ompulsory

Mathematics, English and any Optional Subject

1. Return the completely filled application forms with an Internet Print of SEE Grade Sheet.

Applicants must fill the OMR sheet along with the application form. The application number in the main
application
form and the one you fill in the OMR sheet should be same. The OMR sheet has to be filled with a 2B pencil
or other
darker variants and should not be folded or stapled. Rough writings and scattering of ink in the form may
lead to disqualification of the candidate.

Forms taken on the 1st day should be submitted on the 2nd day by 3 PM.
Forms taken on the 2nd day should be submitted on the 3rd day by 3 PM. (in the same way on the following
days.)
Forms taken on the last day should be submitted on the same day by 12 noon.

2. Entrance Test is scheduled for 1st July, 2017 Saturday

3. Entrance Exam Schedule will be published in the College Website (sxc.edu.np) as well as in the College

Notice Board by 4 P.M. Friday 30th June, 2017. Applicants must attend the exam in the allotted shift. No
additional
arrangements will be made for late comers or the ones who missed the allotted shift.

The applicant must report to the college 30 minutes before the exam starts.
Use the NORTH GATE for ENTRY and the MAIN GATE for EXIT. \

4. Entrance result will be published by 3:00 pm on 3rd July, 2017 Monday ( ) in the college website
sxc.edu.np.

Interview on: 4th July, 2017 Tuesday ( ) at 8:00 A. M.

Candidates must be present with their parents or responsible guardian for the interview. They must bring
i. SEE Grade Sheet ii. Character certificate if available iii. SXC Entrance Exam Admit Card

5. Admission List will be published in the college website on 4th July, 2017 Tuesday ( ) by 7:00 PM.
6. Admission Schedule: 5th July, 2017 ( ) Biology Group - 9:45 AM 3:00 PM

6th July, 2017 ( ) Physics Group - 9:45 AM 2:00 PM

7. Orientation for students and Parents/Guardians is scheduled on 8th July, 2017 ( ) Saturday.
8. Classes begin on 10th July, 2017 Monday ( ) at

9:30 A.M. Students must enter the college by 9:15 A.M.

9. Fees once paid will not be refunded.
10. Things to bring for the Entrance Exam: Admit Card, Pencil

(At least 2B), Eraser and Calculator. No other electronic

device or smart watch is allowed. Mobiles must be switched
off at the gate.

11. The entrance examination will test the knowledge of the

candidate in English, Mathematics and Science through
objective type questions. The duration of the exam will be
75 minutes.

COACHING/BRIDGE COURSE INSTITUTE.

College does not have a parking facility for the

applicants. Please manage the parking space for your vehicle yourself.
Principal

Note: A sample copy of completely filled OMR sheet can be found in the college website (sxc.edu.np).

Final decision of all the applicants is left to the

College Admission Committee.

The admission of the student will be automatically cancelled if the Grade Sheet and Character Certificate are
found fake.

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Applicants must fill up the OMR sheet provided with

the application form as given in the sample.

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INSTRUCTION SHEET FOR ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2017

Read the following instructions carefully to attend the

Entrance Examination as we are using OMR system to mark

the answer sheets.

Note: Student must use 2B or any dark variant to answer and fill in the information.
1. Students should write their names in block

letters and must fill in the ovals as shown in

figure 1.
- Make sure that you fill in the correct oval
from the corresponding column.

- Example: Student Name Ram Thapa

should be written in block letters in the
rectangular boxes and darken the
corresponding alphabet as shown in
figure 1.

2. Application Number should be filled in as shown in figure 2.

Example: Application Number 123 should be written
as 000123 in the rectangular boxes and filled in as shown in figure 2.

3. Sample Question:
Which of the following is the area of a triangle formed by the line 3x+4y=12
with coordinate axes OX and OY?
a. 6 sq. unit b. 12 sq. unit c. 18 sq. unit d. 15 sq. unit e. 21 sq. unit
Sample Answer:

4. The oval should be filled in completely without leaving any space. No marks
will be awarded for the wrong method of answering. The correct and wrong
method of answering is shown below.

figure 1

figure 2

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Trinity Entrance Test 20

+2 Science

Set A
Time: 1 hr 30 mins

Full Marks: 100

Welcome to the Trinity Entrance Test 2019!

This Test assesses a students competency to undertake a +2 Programme in Science. It

contains 100 multiple choice questions English (20), Mathematics (20), Science (50) and
General Knowledge (10).

Please FOLLOW the DIRECTIONS below:

1. Write your Name and Exam Entry Card number clearly in the space given in the

Answer Sheet.
2. During the Test, do not leave your seat unless it is necessary for which you would

have to take the permission.

3. Please maintain complete silence in the examination hall.
4. Do not use calculators.
5. Questions are self-explanatory. Further clarification will not be entertained.
6. Do not write anything on the Test Paper. Use scrap paper provided for rough work.
7. Read the questions carefully. Mark your choice on the answer sheet as shown below

in the example:-
Example: A student divided a number by 2/3 when he required to multiply it by 3/2.
Calculate the percentage of error in his result.

A) 100 B) 66 C) 0 D) 33

The answer is '0'; so, on your answer sheet use a cross mark for the correct answer as
shown below:

ABCD

8. In multiple choice questions, choose the best option marking it carefully. More than
one answer to a question or cancellation by over-writing or smudging of answer
choices shall entail loss of marks for that question.

9. At the end of the Test, do not leave your seat or the hall until your test papers
(Question Papers and Answer Sheet) are collected by the Invigilator.

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Trinity Entrance Test 2019 1

1. To ..yourself from ..wear warm clothes.

A. prohibit, heat B. protect, cod C. save, heat D. suffer, cold

2. He made a mess of the whole work. The meaning of idiom in bold type is:
A. confused B. exaggerated C. corrected D. accomplished

3. Nepal lies .north of India.

A. on B. in C. about D. to

4. Julia is anxious . exam results.

A. for B. about C. from D. with

5. he was absent for three weeks, he still completed his work.

A. Despite B. In spite of C. Though D. Nevertheless

6. You ..be punctual for classes.

A. should B. can C. might D. could

7. He is .man of high esteem.

A. an B. a C. some D. none

8. If I had known , I would never have asked you about it.

A. was doing B. how to do C. to do D. how it was done
9. He a call to his father.
A. told B. said C. paid D. asked

10. No sooner .
A. did he see me then he left B. he saw me he called
C. had he seen me than he spoke to me D. had he saw me than he called me

11. The boys face wore a .look.

A. sullener B. sully C. sullen D. sullenly

12. The economy of Nepal is lower than ..western countries.

A. which of B. those of C. that of D. this of

13. Temporary teeth need just ..permanent teeth.

A. as care as B. the most care than C. as much care as D. more care as

14. Something was suspicious, ..?

A. was it B. isnt it C. is it D. wasnt it

15. The word nearest in meaning to CLEMENCY is:

A. pardon B. imprisoned C. retained D. punished

Questions 16-20 are based on the given passage:

On the 16th of August, 1987 when I was told I had cancer of lungs, my relatives and friends were alarmed at
the apparent calm with which I receive d the news. I suppose they overlooked the fact that at my age (I
turned 72 on January 26) you develop a practical acceptance which helps face the impact of events even
such shocks. Besides, the tendency to set a good example as head of a large family somehow grows on you.
However, despite the outward bravado, deep inside, I was jolted by the news. This was because, as far back
as I can remember, my health has never given me cause for concern.
16. The I in the passage stands for

A. the nurse B. the patient C. the doctor D. an accident victim

17. The narrator in this passage suffers from

A. tuberculosis B. typhoid C. cancer of the lungs D. bone cancer

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Trinity Entrance Test 2019 2

18. In terms of age, the patient is

A. a young man B. a school-going kid C. a middle-aged man D. an old man

19. On hearing of the disease that has struck him, the narrator feels
A. relieved B. anxious C. indifferent D. shocked

20. Before the disease struck him, the narrators health had always been
A. good B. poor C. indifferent D. full of problems

21. If A and B are two non empty sets then (A B) (A B) equals to

A. (A B) (B A) B. (A B) B
C. (A B) (B A) D. A (A B)

22. For an A.P if 170tt 1525 then common difference of the progression is
A. 17 B. 17 C. 10 D. 34

23. A =
10
21

then An =

A.
10
n21

B.
10
n2

C.
01
21

D.
10
2n

24. The angle between the lines xcos + ysin = p and xcos + ysin = q is
A. | + | B.| | C. 2| + | D. 2| |

25. The inclination of the line 2yx3 to the x-axis is

A. 600 B. 1200 C. 1500 D. 300

26. The cordinate of vertices of a triangle are (0, 2), (2, 4) and (1, 6), then the area in sq. unit is
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

27. For what value of k, the polynomial kx3 + 3x2 12 and 2x3 5x + k when divided by x + 2 leaves the
same remainder?
A. 2/3 B. 13 C. 3/5 D. 5/9

28. If the number of diagonal of a polygon is equal to the number of its sides then the polygon is a
A. quadrilateral B. pentagon C. hexagon D. octagon

29. The position vector of A and B are k4ji2 and kj3i then magnitude of AB is
A. 30 B. 26 C. 42 D. 15

30. The value of x in the equation

5
15

x
x2

A. -1, 1 B. -2, 3 C. 3, -2 D. -5, 5

31. What is the single discount of two successive discounts 15% and 10%?

A. 25% B. 27.5% C. 23.5% D. 22%

32. If 20 men or 30 boys can do a piece of work in 36 days, in how many days will 10 men and 12 boys

do it?
A. 15 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40

33. Ram is 3 times as old as Hari, and Hari is four year older then Shyam. If Shyam is z years old what
is Ram age?
A. 3z + 4 B.

3
4z C. 3z 12 D. 3z + 12

34. If 0 < x < 1 which of the following sets are in the increasing order
A. 2x,x,x B. x,x,x 2 C. x,x,x2 D. x,x,x2

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Trinity Entrance Test 2019 3

35. If tanx = k tany then (k 1) sin(x+y) = ..

A. (k 1) sin(x y) B. (k + 1) sin(x y) C. (k + 1)2 sin(x y) D. (k 1)2 sin(x y)

36. If 2cosx cosy = 1 and tanx + tany = 2 then value of x and y is

A. 450, 450 B. 450, 600 C. 600, 900 D. 900, 1200

37. If f(x + 1) = x + 2 then f(x 1) is

A. 2 B. x 1 C. x D. x + 1

38. Ram bought some pen for Rs. 90. If he paid Rs. 1 less for each, he would have 3 more pens. How
many pens did he buy?
A. 18 B. 15 C. 9 D. 10

39. The probability that a boy will get a scholarship is 0.75 and that a girl will get is 0.72 what is the
probability that at least one of them will get scholarship is
A. 1 B. 0.96 C. 0.93 D. 1.47

40. What is the area of shaded region

A. 144 144 3 B. 144 36 3
C. 24 36 3 D. 144 72
41. The ball is thrown up. The direction of 'g' will be
A. Vertically downward B. Vertically upward
C. Horizontal D. None

42. A stone is dropped from the cliff. Its speed after falling 10 m from the top is
A. 9.8m/s B. 10 2 m/s C. 19.6m/s D. 98m/s

43. Pressure at a depth of 0km below the surface of sea water of density 1030kg/m3 is
A. 1.01x105pa B. 1.04x107 pa C. 1atm D. None

44. Which among the following is not a renewable source of energy?

A. Solar energy B. Biomass energy C. Hydro-power D. Geothermal energy

45. The body temperature of a patient is 40oC. This temperature is equivalent to

A. 98oF B. 100oF C. 102oF D. 104oF

46. What is the power of the spectacles which has the focal length 100cm?
A. +1.0D B. +3.0D C. +2.5D D. 10.0D

47. Which instrument is used for measuring electric potential?

A. Ammeter B. Galvanometer C. Voltmeter D. Potentiometer

48. A resistor having resistance 5 is connected across a battery of 5 V by means of a wire of negligible
resistance. Current passes through resistor is 0.4 A. The total power produced by battery is
A. 2 W B. 3 W C. 5 W D. 6 W

49. What is electromagnetic induction?

A. The process of charging a body
B. The process of rotating a coil of an electric motor.
C. Reducing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the coil
D. The process of generating magnetic field due to a current passing through a coil.

50. Addition of a vector with its reversed direction with another vector is called
A. Vector addition B. Vector subtraction C. Vector division D. Vector multiplication

D
12cm

600

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Trinity Entrance Test 2019 4

51. Numerical ratio of displacement to distance is

A. 1 B. 1 C. 1 D. 1
52. When the net force on a body is zero, which of the following may be false?
A. The body is at rest B. The body is in motion
C. Its acceleration is zero D. None of the above

53. If the velocity of the body increases by 10 times, the kinetic energy of the body increases by
A. 10 times B. 50 times C. 100 times D. 25 times

54. Ship sonar sends down a signal of 6000Hz through water where the speed of sound is 1500m/s. The
echo from the sea bed is received after 2 seconds. What is the depth of the sea bed?
A. 15m B. 150m C. 1050m D. 1500m

55. A person of mass 45 kg carries a load of 10N. If he climbs upstairs 10 m high, what is the work done
by the person?
A. 460 Joule B. 550 Joule C. 4600 Joule D. 5500 Joule

56. The electronic configuration of calcium is

A. 2, 8, 8, 1 B. 2, 8, 8, 2 C. 2, 8, 8, 3 D. 2, 8, 8

57. The metal x forms a salt with nitrate ion is X(NO3)3. The valency of metal is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

58. Formation of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is an example of

A. Addition reaction B. Decomposition reaction
C. Displacement reaction D. Acid-Base reaction

59. In the following reaction

4CHCl3 + 3O2 OHHC 52 4COCl2 + 2H2O + 2Cl2, C2H5OH act as a
A. Positive catalyst B. Negative catalyst
C. Auto catalyst D. Induced catalyst

60. The product formed when dilite hydrochloric acid is added to the lime stone is
A. CO2 + H2O + CaCl B. CO2 + H2O + CaCl2

C. CO2 + H2O + CaCl3 D. CO + H2O + CaCl2

61. Phenolphthalein is an example of acid-base indicator. Its colour in basic medium is

A. Blue B. Red C. Pink D. Colourless

62. Wet red litmus paper changed into blue when contact with
A. Hydrogen gas B. Oxygen gas C. Ammonia gas D. Carbondioxide gas

63. Which of the following statement is correct for an acid?

A. Acid liberate H+ ion in aqueous solution B. Acid has a sour taste
C. Acid produce salt and water with base D. All of them are correct

64. The important ore of iron is

A. Bauxite B. Haematite C. Chalcopyrite D. Argentite

65. Which of the following statement is not correct?

A. There is no effect of air and water on gold B. Gold is used to prepare gold solution
C. Gold is active metal D. Gold dissolve in aqua-regia
66. Which of the following pairs are the example of same homologous series?
A. C2H4 & C2H2 B. HCHO and CH3OCH3

C. CH3OCH3 and C2H5OH D. C2H5OH and C3H7OH

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Trinity Entrance Test 2019 5

67. Glycerol is an example of

A. Monohydric alcohol B. Dihydric alcohol
C. Trihydric alcohol D. Tetrahydric alcohol

68. Hard glass is the homologous mixture of

A. K2SiO3 & CaSiO3 B. Na2SiO3 & CaSiO3

C. Na2SiO3 & K2SiO3 D. K2SiO3 & PbSiO3

69. Raw material of soap is

A. Glycerol B. Acid and NaOH C. Fat and NaOH D. Sodium and NaOH

70. Diamond and Graphite are the

A. Isotopes of Carbon B. Allotropes of Carbon
C. Isobar of Carbon D. Isotones of Carbon

71. Asexual reproduction by budding is observed in

A. Amoeba and Plasmodium B. Plasmodium and Hydra
C. Hydra and Yeast D. Yeast and Amoeba

72. Reproductive whorls of a flower include

A. Calyx and corolla B. Corolla and androecium
C. Androecium and gynoecium D. Calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium

73. Mendels dihybrid genotypic ratio is

A. 1:2:4:2:1:2:1:2:1 B. 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1 C. 1:2:1:2:4:1:2:2:1 D. 1:2:2:4:2:2:1:2:1

74. The category "Division" comes in between

A. Kingdom and class B. Class and family
C. Kingdom and phylum D. Phylum and order

75. Comma-shaped bacteria are

A. Cocci B. Bacilli C. Spirilla D. Vibrio

76. Xylem in plants is

A. Meristematic tissue B. Simple permanent tissue
C. Complex permanent tissue D. Special permanent tissue

77. The first virus to be crystallized was

A. T2 phage B. TMV C. Retro virus D. Potato mosaic virus
78. Yeast, Mucor, Rhizopus belongs to
A. Algae B. Bryophytes C. Fungi D. Gymnosperms

79. Monocots differ from dicots in having

A. Fibrous root system B. Tap root system
C. Reticulate venation D. Broad leaf

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Trinity Entrance Test 2019 6

80. Which cell organelle is referred as "ATP factory of cell"?

A. Golgi Bodies B. Lysosomes C. Mitochondria D. Ribosome

81. Number of false ribs in human thoracic cage are

A. 1 pair B. 2 pairs C. 3 pairs D. 7 pairs

82. Which one is carbohydrate digesting enzyme?

A. Amylase B. Trypsin C. Pepsin D. Rennin

83. Organ of Corti is present in which of the following sense organs?

A. Ear B. Eye C. Tongue D. Nose

84. Archaeopteryx is the connecting link animal which connects

A. Annelida & Arthropoda B. Arthropoda & Mollusca
C. Reptilia & Aves D. Aves & Mammal

85. Which of the adult bees secretes wax from wax glands?
A. Queen bee B. Drone bee C. Worker bee D. All of them

86. Autonomic nervous system consists

A. Sympathetic & parasympathetic nerves B. Spinal cord
C. Cerebrum D. Medulla

87. Insulin hormone is secreted from

A. Pituitary gland B. Thyroid gland
C. Adrenal gland D. Pancreas

88. I am ameboid and nucleated cell of human blood. Who am I?

A. RBC B. WBC C. Platelet D. Plasma

89. Malaria is caused by

A. Plasmodium B. Anopheles C. Culex D. Aedes

90. Scientific name of Bengal Tiger is

A. Elephas maximus B. Panthera uncia
C. Panthera tigris D. Axis axis

91. Which of the following is the fullform of D.T.H?

A. Display to home B. Digital to home C. Disk to home D. Drive to home
92. SAARC information center is at
A. Nepal B. Bhutan C. India D. Pakistan

93. Which of the following is the border between Germany and Poland?
A. 17 Parallel B. Hindenberg line C. Mcmohan line D. 49 parallel

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Trinity Entrance Test 20 7

94. First Nepali cinema made in Nepal is

A. Satya Harischandra B. Aama
C. Kumari D. Maitighar

95. Who is the writer of the National Anthem of Nepal?

A. Pradip Kumar Rai B. Ambar Gurung
C. Chakrapani Chalise D. Ram Kumar Rai

96. The host country of Cricket World Cup 2019 is

A. United Kingdom B. England and Wales C. England and Scotland D. England and Ireland

97. Asoj 1 is celebrated as

A. Bigyan Diwas B. Dhan Diwas C. Sambidhan Diwas D. None

98. Kathmandu is related with

A. Pashupatinath B. Phewa Lake C. Basantapur D. Both A and C

99. "Every moment is a fresh beginning". This quotation is related with

A. T.S. Eliot B. Karen Laub C. George Eliot D. Alcoin

100. "Yuva Kabi" is

A. Laxmi Prasad Devkota B. Bhanubhakta Acharya
C. Motiram Bhatta D. Madhav Prasad Ghimire

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Trinity Entrance Test 20 9

Management & Humanities9

Set A
Time: 1.5 hrs

Full Marks: 100

Welcome to the Trinity Entrance Test 2019!
ABOUT THE TEST
This Test assesses a students competency to undertake a +2 Program in Management & Humanities. It
contains 100 multiple choice questions English (40), Mathematics (40) and General Knowledge (20).

DIRECTIONS:
1. Write your Name and Exam Entry Card number clearly in the space given in the Answer Sheet.
2. During the Test, do not leave your seat unless it is necessary for which you would have to take the

permission.
3. Please maintain complete silence in the examination hall.
4. Do not use calculators.
5. Questions are self-explanatory. Further clarification will not be entertained.
6. Do not write anything on the Test Paper. Use scrap paper provided for rough work.
7. Read the questions carefully. Mark your choice on the answer sheet as shown below in the

example:-
Example: A student divided a number by 2/3 when he was required to multiply it by 3/2.

Calculate the percentage of error in his result.

A) 100 B) 0 C) 66 D) 33
The answer is '0'; so, on your answer sheet use a cross mark for the correct answer as
shown below:
ABCD

8. In multiple choice questions, choose the best option marking it carefully. More than one answer to
a question or cancellation by over-writing or smudging of answer choices shall entail loss of marks
for that question.

9. At the end of the Test, do not leave your seat or the hall until your test papers (Question Papers
and Answer Sheet) are collected by the Invigilator.

572

BRIGHTER NEPAL BRIDGE COURSE PREPARATION

Trinity Entrance Test 2019 1

1. Serene is fond music.

A. of B. off C. in D. about

2. Honesty is always best policy.

A. a B. an C. the D. some

3. A person who readily believes others is:

A. Credible B. credulous C. sensible D. sensitive

4. He is the friend I trust most.

A. Who B. whom C. which D. him

5. The prices are going up by leaps and bounds. The meaning of idiom in bold type is:
A. Irregularly B. gradually C. rapidly D. systematically

6. Julia prefers tea ..coffee.

A. over B. too C. to D. than
7. If a ruby is heated, it .temporarily lose its color.
A. would B. will C. does D. has

8. You have done well, ..?

A. dont you B. has it you C. do you D. havent you

9. Past participle form of fly is:

A. flyed B. flew C. flown D. flaid

10. Would you mind .your car?

A. move B. moving C. to move D. me moving

11. .his hard work, he failed his exam.

A. Although B. Though C. Despite of D. In spite of

12. Look before you ..

A. leap B. talk C. sing D. dance

13. My brother-in-law is .university professor.

A. a B. an C. the D. some

14. The word which gives same meaning to CANDID is:

A. truthful B. deceptive C. cunning D. rude

15. If Anna .some money, she would go to the movies.

A. were have B. would have C. had had D. had

16. Dont shout at Alia. Shes very

A. sensible B. suave C. sensitive D. shrewd

573

BRIGHTER NEPAL BRIDGE COURSE PREPARATION

Trinity Entrance Test 2019 2

17. Nobody knows what happens tomorrow, .?

A. doesnt they B. dont they C. do they D. does they

18. He has been working in this office ..seven years.

A. From B. since C. for D. until

19. They were talking .themselves.

A. between B. among C. to D. along with

20. Speak loudly as he is slow .hearing.

A. at B. in C. about D. of

21. Two women had handbags stolen while they were watching the film.
A. its B. their C. her D. his

22. ..doctor must be in .next room.

A. a, the B. a, a C. the, the D. the, a

23. The active voice of the sentence It is to be done by me. is:
A. I will do it. B. I shall do it. C. I am to do it. D. I had to do it.

24. The dead body of a human being is called:

A. pure B. corpse C. carcass D. rayon

25. Theyd go with us, ..?

A. wont they B. hadnt they C. wouldnt they D. would they

26. He is one-eyed man.

A. an B. the C. a D. some

27. If she tells the truth, she be forgiven.

A. will B. shall C. would D. would

28. I am looking handsome today, ..?

A. am not I B. amnt I C. arent I D. isnt I

29. Youd better .there.

A. gone B. go C. to go D. going

30. People asked him if he us.

A. will help B. help C. would help D. is helping

31. He is both intelligent .artistic.

A. and also B. as well as C. and D. besides

32. Mr. Smith is a .

A. physics teacher B. a teacher of physics C. teacher of physic D. physics teacher

574

BRIGHTER NEPAL BRIDGE COURSE PREPARATION

Trinity Entrance Test 2019 3

33. She has a lot of confidence ...me.

A. for B. at C. about D. in

34. One who keeps oneself away from alcoholic drinks is called:
A. kleptomaniac B. drunkard C. sober D. teetotaler

35. Is your book .

A. same to mine B. the same to mine C. same as mine D. the same as mine

Questions 36 40 are based on the following passage:

Is it possible to induce mankind toile without war? War is an ancient institution, which has existed for at
least six thousand years. It was always wicked and usually foolish, but in the past the human race managed
to lie with it. Modern ingenuity has changed this. Either man will abolish war or war will abolish man. For
the present, it is nuclear weapons that cause the gravest danger, but bacteriological or chemical weapons
may, before long, offer an even greater threat. Even if we secure the abolition of nuclear weapons, our work
will not be done. It will never be done until we have secured the abolition of war. To secure this, we need
to persuade mankind to look upon international questions in a new way, not as contests of force, in which
the victory goes to the side which is most skillful in massacre, but by arbitration in accordance with agreed
principles of law. It is not easy to change age-log mental habits, but this is what must be attempted.

36. The main purpose of this passage is to:

A. discuss how war can be abolished
B. discuss if war is an institution
C. discuss how dangerous bacteriological or chemical weapon war can be
D. prove how difficult it is to fight in a war

37. War has existed

A. since the beginning of humankind B. for less than six thousand years
C. for more than six thousand years D. only for six thousand years

38. Bacteriological or chemical weapons

A. are less harmful than nuclear weapons
B. have caused great wars
C. can be more harmful than nuclear weapons
D. are to be destroyed

39. The only way to save human beings from great threat to their existence is to:
A. destroy nuclear weapons
B. put a ban on bacteriological and chemical weapons
C. abolish war
D. fight to the end

40. Our objective to doing away with war can be achieved if we are prepared to:
A. destroy all dangerous weapons
B. fight till all our enemies are killed
C. compete in the contests of force
D. change our age-old mental habits and to arbitrate in accordance with agreed principles

575

BRIGHTER NEPAL BRIDGE COURSE PREPARATION

Trinity Entrance Test 2019 4

41. If A and B are two disjoint sets then ( AB ) is

A. B A B. B A C. B D. A B

42. If U = {a, e, i, o, u}, A = {a, i, u}, B = {i, o, u} find n( A ) + n( B ) n ( A B )

A. 2 B. 0 C. 3 D. 1

43. If 20% of x is equal to

3
2 of 90, then value of x is

A. 30 B. 120 C. 600 D. 300

44. The marked price of an article is 25% above its selling price and the cost price is 30% less than its
marked price. Find discount percentage.
A. 15% B. 20% C. 25% D. 30%

45. After levying 13% VAT on selling price of an article, VAT amount becomes Rs. 195. Find the selling
price of the article.
A. Rs. 1500 B. Rs. 1550 C. Rs. 1350 D. Rs. 2000

46. The compound amount of Rs. 4000 for 3 years is Rs. 5500. Find the compound interest.
A. 2000 B. 1350 C. 1600 D. 1500

47. The present population of a town is 50,000. If the population increases by 10% every year, after how
many years the population of town will be 66550?
A. 3 years B. 2 years C. 3.5 years D. 1 year

48. At what rate a sum of money treble itself after 15 years?

A. 15% B. 21% C. 13 %
3
1 D. 12 %

2
1

49. The selling price of a watch is Rs. 595. If the watch was sold at 15% discount on the marked price,
find the marked price of the watch.
A. 800 B. 700 C. 600 D. 900

50. A plot of land is in the shape of an equilateral triangle whose area is 324 3 m2. If its compound is to
be fenced 3 round by iron wire. Find the length of the wire required for it.
A. 325 m B. 323 m C. 320 m D. 324 m

51. The curved surface area of a cylinder is

3
2 of its total surface area. If the total surface area is 231 cm2

then the radius of the base is

A. 3.5 cm B.
2

7 cm C. 4.5 cm D. 7 cm

52. A solid metallic sphere of radius 7 cm is cut into two equal halves. Find the total surface area of two
hemispheres so formed.
A. 1024 cm2 B. 950 cm2 C. 924 cm2 D. 900 cm2

576

BRIGHTER NEPAL BRIDGE COURSE PREPARATION

Trinity Entrance Test 2019 5

53. A man gets Rs. 40 for everyday he works, but is fined Rs. 10 for everyday he is absent. If he got Rs.
700 at the end of 30 days. How many days he was absent from the work?
A. 8 B. 6 C. 12 D. 10

54. The total surface area of right circular cone of slant height 13 cm is 90 cm2. Find its volume?
A. 100 cm2 B. 120 cm2 C. 150 cm2 D. 180 cm2

55. When z is divided by 8 the remainder is 5. What is the remainder when 4z is divided by 8?
A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

56. If 3x = 4y, the value of (x + y)2:(x y)2 is

A. 4 B. 9 C. 49 D. 7

57. If 2a ,5
a
1 find the value of 4a2 + .

a
1
2

A. 5 B. 25 C. 16 D. 29
58. If 1

1x
1x , then x = ?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
59. If a number of 2 digits is divided by sum of digits the quotient is 5. If 9 is added to number digits are

reversed then the number is

A. 54 B. 45 C. 36 D. 63

60. The age of Dilasha is

7
1 of the age of Rihana. If the difference of their ages be 30 years. Find the age of

Rihana.
A. 30 years B. 32 years C. 36 years D. 35 years

61. In the given figure ABCD is a parallelogram and CF BE. If BE = 12cm and CF = 8cm. Find the area of
parallelogram ABCD.
A. 96 cm2 B. 86 cm2

C. 90 cm2 D. 106 cm2

62. In the figure ABCD is a square where diagonal BD = 26 cm. Find the area of DFC.
A. 36 cm2 B. 36 2 cm2

C. 18 cm2 D. 24 cm2
B

AD
E

F
AB

577

BRIGHTER NEPAL BRIDGE COURSE PREPARATION

Trinity Entrance Test 2019 6

63. In the figure 'O' is the centre of circle. OPR = 280. Find PQR.
A. 620 B. 720

C. 280 D. 560

64. In the adjoining figure 'O' is the centre of circle. Find x.

A. 700 B. 1000

C. 1300 D. 1400

65. In the figure, AB = BC = 10 cm area of ABC = 25 3 cm2. Find ABC.

A. 300 B. 600

C. 450 D. 900

66. The upper part of staight tree is broken by the wind such that its top touches the ground and makes
an angle of 450 with the ground at a point 7m from the foot of the tree. Find the height of tree before
it was broken.
A. 16m B. 7(1+ 2 )m C. 7(1 2 )m D. 14m

67. In a continuous series if f = 30 + 2p, fx = 100p + 280 and X = 40. Calculate the value of p.
A. 46 B. 56 C. 36 D. 26

68. Which of the given relation is correctly written?

A. Mean = 3 Median 2 Mode B. Mode = 3 Median 2 Mean
C. Median = 2 Mean 3 Mode D. 2 Mode = 3 Median 2 Mean

69. If three coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at least one head?

A.
2
1 B.
8
5 C.

8
1 D.

8
7

70. The probability of solving a mathematical problem by A is

2
1 and B is .

4
3 If problem is given both of

them, what is the probability of solving the problem?

A.
8
7 B.

7
5 C.

4
3 D.

2
1

71. The intercept of the line y = x3 4 on y-axis is

A. 4 B. 4 C. 3 D. 3

72. If f(x) =
x71
3x4 the value of f(-1/7) is

A. 0 B. 1 C. D. -1

A
C

ACx
400 300 O

578

BRIGHTER NEPAL BRIDGE COURSE PREPARATION

Trinity Entrance Test 2019 7

73. If a:b = 3:5 and a:c = 5:7 what is the value of b:c?
A. 3:7 B. 21:35 C. 21:25 D. 25:21

74. If x + y = 6, y + z = 7 and z + x = 9 what is the average of x, y, z?

A.
3

11 B.
2
11 C.

3
22 D. 11

75. Find the fourth proportion to 6, 18 and 5.

A. 18 B. 6 C. 5 D. None

76. If x = 2y = 3z then x:y:z =

A. 1 : 2 : 3 B. 6 : 4 : 3 C. 6 : 3 : 2 D. 3 : 2 : 1

77. In a mixture of 45 ltr. The ratio of milk and water is 4:1. What quantity of water should to add so that
the mixture would be in the ratio of 3:2?
A. 10 ltr. B. 15 ltr. C. 20 ltr. D. 12 ltr.

78. If a b = 10, a2 b2 = 20, what is the value of b?

A. 6 B. 4 C. 4 D. 6

79. If a + ,2
a
1 find the value of .

a
1a

A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4
80. If sin = cos then value of will be

A.
3

B.
4

C.
6

D.
2

81. Where is the tallest bridge of Nepal?

A. Parbat B. Rukum Purba C. Kaski D. Bajhang

82. Which of the following is the first FM Radio of Nepal?

A. Kalika B. Sagarmatha C. Kantipur D. Bagmati

83. Swar Kinnari is

A. Taradevi B. Anju Panta C. Kunti Moktan D. Aruna Lama

84. Who is the director of movie "Caravan"?

A. Gyanendra Deuja B. Subash Ghai C. Éric Valli D. Eric John

85. East Timor is the country of

A. Africa B. Asia C. America D. Europe

86. How many students passed S.L.C. exam in 1992 B.S?

A. 19 B. 20 C. 18 D. 22

579

BRIGHTER NEPAL BRIDGE COURSE PREPARATION

Trinity Entrance Test 2019 8

87. UNEP is
A. United Nations Examination Programme
B. United Nations Elocution Programme
C. United Nations Extra-Curricular Programme
D. United Nations Environment Programme

88. Who is the current president of USA?

A. Bill Clinton B. Donald Trump C. Ronald Regon D. Barrack Obama

89. Who is the writer of "Dreams from My Father"?

A. Barrack Obama B. Narendra Modi C. Ricky Ponting D. Lionnel Messi

90. The currency of Bangladesh is

A. Kat B. Dollar C. Taka D. Birr

91. Who is the Governer of Nepal Rastra Bank?

A. Yuba Raj Khatiwada B. Tilak Rawal
C. Chiranjibi Nepal D. Satyandra Pyara Shrestha

92. CEO of Nabil Bank is

A. Anil Keshari Shah B. Parshuram Kunwar
C. Manoj Gyawali D. Anupama Khungeli

93. Republic Day of Nepal is

A. Jestha 14 B. Jestha 17 C. Asoj 3 D. Jestha 15

94. Asar 15 is celebrated as

A. Hilo Diwas B. Kodo Diwas C. Dhan Diwas D. Dahi-Chiura Diwas

95. Which of the following is the basic characteristic of Oligopoly?

A. a few sellers, one buyer B. a few sellers, many buyers
C. a few sellers, few buyers D. Many sellers, few buyers

96. How many countries participated in CWC-2019?

A. 8 B. 12 C. 14 D. 10

97. Who is the author of Novel "Ghanachakkar"?

A. Sanjeev Uprety B. Sanjeev Singh C. Avi Subedi D. Laxmi Prasad Devkota

98. Which national figure of Nepal is known as "Himal ki Chhori"?

A. Kunti Moktan B. Pasang Lhamu Sherpa C. Pasang Diki Sherpa D. Anuradha Koirala

99. When was industrial census started in Nepal?

A. 2022 BS B. 2023 BS C. 2020 BS D. 2021 BS

100. Where is the largest cancer hospital of Nepal located?

A. Kathmandu B. Chitwan C. Bhaktapur D. Dhading

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BRIGHTER NEPAL BRIDGE COURSE PREPARATION

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Sainik Awasiya Mahavidyalaya

Sallaghari, Bhaktapur

Syllabus for Grade XI Entrance Examination (Science)-2080

g]kfnL -k"0ff{ÍM !)_

!= j0f{ljGof; ÷lxHh]÷eflifs z'l4
@= kbju{ -gfd, ;j{gfd, ljz]if0f, lqmof_
#= zAbe08f/ -;dfgfy{s, ljk/Ltfy{s, >'lt;dleGgfy{s, cg]sfy{s_
$= pk;u{ / k|Tooåf/f zAblgdf{0f
%= Jofs/l0fs sf]l6 -jrg, lnË, k'?if, sjn, kIf, efj, jfRo, s/0fcs/0f_
^= k|ltlglw ;flxTosf/ / s[ltsf] gfd
&= k|ltlglw 5Gb 1fg -zfb"{nljs|Ll8t ÷dGbfsfGtf÷lzvl/0fL÷cg'i6'k\÷pkhflt_
*= ljwfut 1fg -syf, sljtf, lgaGw, v08sfJo, dxfsfJo, pkGof;_
(= k|ltlglw ;flxTosf/sf d'Vo k|j[lQ -:jR5Gbtfjfb, oyfy{jfb, kl/isf/jfb, k|ultjfb_
Mathematics (20 Marks)
1. Set and Algebra:

a. Set b. Function c. Polynomial d. Sequence and series e. HCF and LCM

f. Surds g. Indices h. Rational fractions i. Equations.

2. Arithmetic:
a. Percentage b. Time and Work c. Profit and loss, discount and VAT
d. Simple and compound interest e. Compound depreciation and population growth.

3. Mensuration:
a. Area of triangle and quadrilaterals
b. Area and volume of cylinder, cone, sphere, prism and pyramid

4. Geometry:
a. Properties or theorems on triangle, parallelogram and circle.

5. Statistics and probability

a. Measures of central tendency (mean, medien, mode, quartiles)
b. Probability

6. Trigonometry

English (15 marks)

1. Articles 2. Prepositions 3. Tense 4. Voice 5. Transformations
6. Question Tags 7. Concord 8. Conditional 9. Causative verbs 10. Relative Clauses
11. Conjunctions 12. Reported Speech 13. Literary figures and their works 14. Synonyms/ Antonyms

Science
Physics (15 Marks)
Units and Dimensions, Scalars and Vectors, Motion, Friction, Simple Machines, Sources of Energy, Work,
Energy,
Power, Circular Motion, Gravitation, Hydrostatics, Pressure, Heat and Temperature, Quantity of Heat,
Thermal
Expansion, Transfer of Heat, Waves, Sound, Reflection, Refraction, Spherical mirrors and Lenses, Prism,
Human Eye,
Microscope, Telescope, Magnets, Electrolysis, Transformer, Electromagnetic induction, Magnetic effects,
Electricity,
Astronomy, Zeology

Chemistry (15 marks)

1. General and Language of Chemistry.

Atoms, Ions, Molecules, Elements, Compounds, Radicals, Valency, Commercial names of compounds,
Types of
Chemical reactions, Methods of mixture

2. Periodic table
3. Structure of atom
4. Avogadro's number and mole concept
5. Chemical bond: Ionic , Covalent and Co-ordinate covalent bond
6. Electrolysis
7. Acid, base and salt
8. Metals and Metallurgy
9. Non metals and some important gases (H2, N2, O2, NH3, CO2)
10. Organic Chemistry
11. Chemistry in service of Mankind ( Plastic, Glass, Cements, Ceramics, Fertilizers, Fibres, Pesticides, Soap
and

detergents )
12. Environmental Pollution
13. Hardness of water

Biology (15 Marks)

Botany
1. Introduction to botany and its branches
2. Classification: (Fungi, Plantae, Monera)
3. Cell and Cell division
4. Genetics
5. Adaptation of plants
6. Life Cycle of mushroom and fern
7. Environmental Pollution
Zoology
1. Introduction to zoology and its branches
2. Classification: Protista and Animalia
3. Life cycle of Silkworm, Honey Bee and Mosquito with their economic importance
4. Organic Evolution
5. Human Body System

(Digestive, Respiratory, Circulatory, Excretory, Nervous, Glandular: Endocrine System and Skeletal)
6. Reproduction: Sexual and Asexual
7. Chromosomes and Sex-determination
8. Adaptation: Introduction and types

GK and IQ [10 marks]

GK
1. History and Geography 2. Civic sense and polity 3. Economy 4. Science and technology
5. Culture, language and literature 6. Sports 7. Current Affairs 8. Miscellaneous
IQ
1. Sequence and series 2. Coding and Decoding 3. Logical Expression
4. Jumble Words 5. Geometric figures 6. Miscellaneous

Sainik Awasiya Mahavidyalaya

Sallaghari, Bhaktapur

Syllabus for Grade XI Entrance Examination (Management & Humanities) - 2080

g]kfnL -k"0ff{ÍM @)_

!= j0f{ljGof;÷lxHh]÷eflifs z'l4
@= kbju{ -gfd, ;j{gfd, ljz]if0f, lqmof_
#= zAbe08f/ -kof{ojfrL÷ljk/Ltfy{s÷cg]sfy{s÷>'lt;dleGgfy{s_
$= zAblgdf{0f -pk;u{ / k|Tooåf/f_
%= zAb?kfog tyf jfSolgdf{0f -jrg÷lnË÷k'?if÷sfnkIf÷efj÷jfRo÷s/0fcs/0f÷jfSo

;+Zn]if0f / jfSo ljZn]if0f_

^= k|ltlglw ;flxTosf/sf k|l;4 plSt÷egfO
&= k|ltlglw ;flxTosf/sf gfd / s[lt -k|l;4_
*= ljwfut 1fg -syf, sljtf, lgaGw, v08sfJo, dxfsfJo, pkGof;_
(= k|ltlglw 5Gb 1fg -zfb"{nljs|Ll8t÷dGbfs|fGtf÷lzvl/0fL÷pkhflt÷cg'i6'k_
!)= k|ltlglw ;flxTosf/sf d'Vo k|j[lQ -:jR5Gbtfjfb, oyfy{jfb, kl/isf/jfb, k|ultjfb_

English (30 Marks)

1. Prepositions
2. Articles
3. Question Tags
4. Concord
5. Tense
6. Conditionals
7. Relative Clauses
8. Conjuctions
9. Causative Verbs
10. Reported Speech
11. Transformations
12. Voice
13. Synonyms / Antonyms
14. Idioms and Phrases
15. Literary figures and their works

Mathematics (30 Marks)

1. Set and Algebra

a. Set
b. HCF and LCM
c. Indices
d. Rational fractions
e. Equations

2. Arithmetic
a. Percentage
b. Time and Work
c. Profit and Loss, Discount and VAT
d. Simple and Compound Interest, Population Growth and Compound Depreciation

3. Mensuration
a. Area of triangle and quadrilaterals
b. Area and volume of Cylinder, Cone, Sphere, Prism and Pyramid

4. Geometry
Properties or theorems on triangle, Parallelogram and Circle

5. Statistics and Probability

a. Measures of Central tendency (Mean, Median, Mode and Quartiles)
b. Probability

6. Trigonometry

G.K. and I.Q. (20 Marks)

GK
1. History and Geography
2. Civic Sense and Polity
3. Economy
4. Science and Technology
5. Culture, Language and Literature
6. Sports
7. Current Affairs
8. Miscellaneous
IQ
1. Sequence and Series
2. Coding and Decoding
3. Logical Expression
4. Jumble Words
5. Geometric Figures
6. Miscellaneous

594

BRIGHTER NEPAL BRIDGE COURSE PREPARATION

597

CL Mock CAT 2
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