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SSC Public Examinations

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We are providing New Model Papers released by SCERT on 28-12-22.

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As per New Blue Print - Revision Examination Question Papers are available
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Syllabus Division for Revision Examinations is given below
TELANGANA
4 PARTS 10th Revision Examinations BRINDA PUBLICATIONS
Ph. No.: 94400 57086

TEST TELUGU HINDI ENGLISH MATHS SCIENCE SOCIAL

REVISION TEST - 1
Units : 1 & 2 Physical Sciences
Lessons : 1, 2, 7
Discourses Chapters
Lessons : 1, 2, 4 N.D - 1 1, 6, 12 Chapters Chapters
R.T - 1 N.D - 1 & 2
Major : Conversation or Interview &
1, 3 & Biology
    Biography or Essay 1, 2, 3, 12, 13, 14
8, 9
   Minor : Notice & Poster 1, 2, 3 Chapters
REVISION TEST - 2
Lessons : 3, 5, 11 Units : 3 & 4 Physical Sciences
N.D - 2 Discourses Chapters Chapters
Lessons : 3, 5, 6 2, 5, 11 Chapters
R.T - 2 Major : Story/Narrative or Description & 2, 4 &
N.D - 3 & 4   Biology 4, 5, 15, 16, 17
Letter or Report /News Report 10, 11
     Minor : Message & Invitation 4, 5 Chapters
REVISION TEST - 3
Lessons : 4, 6, 9 Units : 5 & 6 Physical Sciences
N.D - 3 Discourses
Lessons : 7, 8, 9 Chapters 3, 8, 10 Chapters Chapters
R.T - 3    Major : Drama/Play or Choreography(Script)
N.D - 5    & Speech 5, 6 & 12 Biology 6, 7, 8, 18, 19
 Minor : Diary & Profile 6, 9 Chapters
REVISION TEST - 4
Lessons : 8, 10, 12
Physical Sciences
Units : 7 & 8 Chapters
Lessons : 10, 11, 12
N.D - 4 4, 7, 9 Chapters Chapters
R.T - 4 N.D - 6    
Discourses 7& Biology 9, 10, 11, 20, 21
All Major and Minor Discources 13, 14
 7, 8, 10 Chapters

GRAND TEST - I

GRAND TEST - II
Class 10(T.S) Chapterwise Objective Tests
TEST TELUGU (FL) HINDI (SL) ENGLISH
Revision Test - 1 Lessons Revision Test - 1 Lessons Revision Test - 1 Theme
1 Objective Test - 1 1&2 Objective Test - 1 1&2 Objective Test - 1 1
Lesson Lesson Theme
2 Objective Test - 2
4
Objective Test - 2
7
Objective Test - 2
2
Revision Test - 2 Revision Test - 2
3 Lessons Lessons Revision Test - 2 Theme
Objective Test - 3 3&5 Objective Test - 3 3&5 Objective Test - 3 3

4 Objective Test - 4 Lesson Objective Test - 4 Lesson Objective Test - 4 Theme

6 11 4
Revision Test - 3 Revision Test - 3 Revision Test - 3
Lessons Lessons Theme
5 7&8 4&6 5
Objective Test - 5 Objective Test - 5 Objective Test - 5
Lesson Lesson Theme
6 Objective Test - 6
9
Objective Test - 6
9
Objective Test - 6
6
Revision Test - 4 Revision Test - 4 Revision Test - 4
Lessons Lessons Theme
7 10 & 11 8 & 10 Objective Test - 7 7
Objective Test - 7 Objective Test - 7
Lesson Lesson Theme
8 Objective Test - 8
12
Objective Test - 8
12
Objective Test - 8
8

TEST MATHEMATICS PHYSICS BIOLOGY SOCIAL

Real Numbers Reflection of Light Nutrition

1 Chapters 1, 2, 3
Polynomials Structure of Atom Respiration

Similar Triangles Chapters 12, 13, 14

2 Carbon, Its Compounds Transportation
Tangents & Secants

Chemical Eqns
3 Sets, Linear Eqns. Human Eye
Excretion Chapters 4, 5

Mensuration
4 Principles of Mettulergy Co-ordination Chapters 15, 16, 17
Trigonometry

Quadratic Eqns, Acids, Bases

5 Chemical Bonding
Reproduction Chapters 6, 7, 8
Applications of Trigno.

6 Progressions Electromagnetism Our Environment Chapters 18, 19

Co-ordinate Geometry Refraction of Light Coordination in

7 Lifeprocess
Chapters 9, 10
Probability Classification of Elem.

Heridity
8 Statistics Electri Current Chapters 11, 20, 21
Natural Resources

BRINDA PUBLICATIONS
Plot Nos.169 & 170, Chanakyapuri, Nagole, Hyderabad - 68. Ph.No. 94400 57086
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 SECOND LANGUAGE – HINDI (09H)
CLASS-X
GUIDELINES
TIME: 3 Hrs PART A & B TOTAL MARKS: 80

• ि तीय भाषा िहदं ी न प के कुल 80 अंक ह । कुल समय 3 घंटे ह ।

• PART - A 60 अक ं & के िलए और PART - B 20 अक
ं & के िलए ह । PART - A के िलए 2:30 घंटे और
PART - B के िलए 30 िमनट का समय िनधा./रत है ।
• PART - A म1 अथ.3ा4ता– िति6या , 8वरचना और सृजना=मक अिभ>यि? से संबंिधत न ह&गे ।
• PART – B म1 शCदभडं ार और भाषा कE बात से संबिं धत बहFिवकGपीय(MCQs) न ह&गे ।

*****
PART-A (60 Marks)
SECTION - I( अक
ं : 20 )
• इस म1 अथ.3ा4ता िति6या के अतं ग.त पिठत गYांश , अपिठत गYांश और पिठत पYांश ह&गे ।
• पिठत गYांश पाठ्य प8ु तक के उपवाचक पाठ& से िलया जाएगा । इसम1 (5) न ह&गे । =येक न के िलए
(1) अंक िनधा./रत है
। ( 5x1= 5)
• अपिठत गYांश पाठ्य प8ु तके तर साम3ी से िलया जाएगा । इसम1 (5) न ह&गे । =येक न के िलए (2) अंक
िनधा./रत ह । ( 5x 2 =10 )
• पिठत पYांश पाठ्य प8ु तक कE किवताओ ं म1 से िदया जाएगा । इसम1 (5) न ह&गे । हर एक न के िलए (1)
अकं िनधा./रत है
। ( 5x1= 5 )
SECTION – II (अक
ं : 40 )
• इसके अतं ग.त लघु और िनबंधा=मक न ह&गे । इसम1 कुल (4) न पछ
ू े जाएँग।े
• किव या लेखक प/रचय से संबंिधत न अव य रहेगा । हर एक न के िलए (4) अंक िनधा./रत ह ।
( 4x4=16)
• िनबंधा=मक न& म1 पY भाग से (2), गY भाग से (2) और िवधाओ ं से संबिं धत (2) न पछ
ू े जाएँगे ।
=येक भाग म1 आ ंत/रक िवकGप होगा । =येक भाग के (2) न& म1 से (1) न का उ=तर िलखना होगा ।
=येक न के िलए (8) अंक िनधा./रत ह ।
(3 x8=24)
 PART – B (20 अक
ं )
• इसके अतं ग.त कुल 20 बहFिवकGपीय न ह&गे ।
• शCद भंडार के 10 न ह&गे । (10x1=10 )
• >याकरण के 10 न ह&गे । (10x1=10 )

*****
 Blue Print
SECOND LANGUAGE HINDI
CLASS-X (09H)

Table Showing Type, Number of Questions with Weightage and Choice

(Tentative)

समय:3 घंटे अंक: 80

TIME
WEIGHTAGE ALLOCATED TOTAL
S TYPE OF NUMBER OF TOTAL
CHOICE FOR EACH FOR EACH TIME
NO QUESTION QUESTIONS MARKS
QUESTION QUESTION REQUIRED
(APPROX.)

ESSAY
03
(Included
1 (8 -10 Internal 3 x 8 = 24 24 20 mins 60 mins
skill-based
sentences)
question)

04
No
2 SHORT (3-4 4 x 4 = 16 16 10 mins 40 mins
Choice
sentences)

15 5x1=5 15 mins
VERY No
3 (1-2 5x1=5 20 15 mins 50 mins
SHORT Choice
sentences) 5 x 2 = 10 20 mins

No
4 OBJECTIVE 20 20 x 1 = 20 20 1½ mins 30 mins
Choice

Total Marks 80 Total Time 180 mins

 MODEL QUESTION PAPER - March, 2023
Class - X
HINDI (Second Language)–
Language)– 09H
Part A & B
(Time: 3 hours) (Maximum Marks - 80)
Instructions: -
1. Read the following question paper and understand every question thoroughly.
thoroughly.
2. Answer all the questions as directed.
3. Part 'A' questions have to be written in the separate Answer booklet.
4. Write the answers to the questions under Part 'B' on the question paper itself and
attach it to the answer booklet of part 'A'
PART – A

Time: 2 hour, 30 minutes (Marks: 60)

60)

SECTION-
SECTION-I

।. न के उ तर नदशानुसार ल खए।
अ. न न ल खत ग यांश पढ़कर !दये गये न के उ तर एक या दो पंि$तय म& ल खए।
(5x 1= 5)
डॉ. बी.आर. अंबे कर उ च श ा पूर कर भारत लौट आए। यहाँ वडोदरा महाराज के सै)नक
स+चव पद पर )नयु-त हुए। बाद म. मंुबई जाकर सीडेनहोम कॉलेज म. अथ1शा23 के 4ोफेसर
)नयु-त हुए। 6कंतु कुछ लोग9 क: संक:ण1 <वचारधारा से दख
ु ी होकर नौकर से ?यागप3 दे
@दया। इतना होने पर भी आपका आ?मबल कभी कम नह ं हुआ। आपका Bढ़ <वDवास था, '
मन के हारे हार है , मन के जीते जीत।' सन ् 1919 म. लंदन जाकर अपने अथक पFरGम
सेएम.एस.सी., डी.एस.सी.और बैFर2I क: उपा+ध 4ाJत क:। सन ् 1923 म. मंब
ु ई के उ च
Kयायालय म. आपने वकालत शुL कर द । अनेक क@ठनाइय9 के बावजूद आप आगे बढ़ते
गए। एक मुक़दमे म. आपने अपने ठोस तकO से एक )नदPष अ भयु-त को फाँसी क: सज़ा
से मु-त करा @दया। इसके बाद वकालत क: द)ु नया म. भी आपके चार चाँद लग गए।

4Dन:
1. डॉ. बी.आर. अंबे कर वडोदरा महाराज के यहाँ 6कस पद पर )नय-
ु त हुए?
2. कुछ लोग9 क: संक:ण1 <वचारधारा से दख
ु ी होकर डॉ. बी.आर.अंबेडकर ने -या
6कया?
3. डॉ. बी.आर.अंबे कर 6कस बात पर <वDवास करते ?
4. सन ् 1923 म. -या हुआ?
5. यह गVयांश 6कस पाठ से लया गया है ?
आ. न न ल खत ग यांश पढ़कर !दए गए न के उ तर एक या दो पंि$तय म& ल खए।
(5x2=10)
मनWु य का जीवन संघष1 से भरा है । य@द जीवन म. संघष1 और असफलता न हो, तो सफलता
के आनंद क: स ची अनुभू)त भी नह ं हो सकती है । पराजय होने पर भाYय को दोषी
ठहराना, पतन क: ओर ले जाता है । य@द स ची लगनऔर असफलता के कारण9 को ढूँढ कर
नए उ?साह तथा ईमानदार के साथ 4यास जार रख. , तो सफलता मलना )निDचत है । कहा
जाता है 6क-Bढ़ इ छाशि-तवाला मनुWय कभी असफल नह ं होता। )नरं तर संघष1 करनेवाला
_यि-त ह पूर तरह )नखरता है और अंत म. <वजय 4ाJत करने म. सफल होता है । दस
ू र
ओर मन से हार जानेवाला _यि-त आरं भ से ह गलत तक1 गढ़ने लग जाता है और आलसी
बनकर अपने भाYय और जीवन को कोसता रहता है ।

4Dन:
6. 6कसका जीवन संघष1 से भरा है ?
7. कौन असफल नह ं होता है ?
8. असफलता के कारण9 को ढूँढ कर -या करना चा@हए?
9. परािजत _यि-त 6कसे दोषी ठहराता है?
10. उपयु1-त अनु छे द का मुaय <वषय -या है ?

इ). न न ल खत प यांश पढ़कर न न न के उ तर एक या दो पंि$तय म& ल खए।

(5x1=5)
माँ मुझे आने दे , डर मत आने दे ।
फैलँ ूगी तेरे आँगन म. हFरयाल बनकर
लपटूँगी तेरे आँचल म. खुशबू बनकर
मेर 6कलक और ठुमकते कदम9 म.
घर का सKनाटा cबखर जाएगा
4Dन:
11. अनदे खी cब@टया क: इ छा -या है?
12. cब@टया कहाँ हFरयाल फैलाएगी?
13. वह आँचल म. -या बनकर लपटे गी?
14. घर का सKनाटा कैसे दरू होगा?
15. इस पVयांश क: कव)य3ी कौन है?
SECTION-II (अंक: 40)
 अ) न न ल खत न के उ तर 3-4 पंि$तय म& ल खए। (4x4=16)

16. क<व cबहार लाल का पFरचय अपने शhद9 म. लiखए।

17. वषा1 क: कमी या अ+धकता हम पर कैसा 4भाव डालती है ?
18. @हंद सीखने के -या लाभ हl?
19. लेखक ने गोदावर को माता -य9 कहा है ?

आ). न न ल खत न के उ तर 8-10 पंि$तय म& ल खए। (3x8=24)

20. क<व के Vवारा 6कए गए मज़दरू 9 के अ+धकार9 का वण1न अपने शhद9 म. क:िजए I
या
रै दास क: भि-त-भावना पर 4काश डा लए।

21.2वराmय क: नींव एकांक: क: <वशेषता अपने शhद9 म. लiखए।

या
‘ईदगाह’कहानी म. दाद और पोते का एक-दस
ू रे के 4)त 2नेह, आदर और +चंता का
वण1न अपने शhद9 म. क:िजए।
22.गमn के कारण आने वाल बीमाFरय9 और उनसे बचने के उपाय बताते हुए एक करप3
तैयार क:िजएI
या
अपनी पसंद के ?यौहार के संबंध म. म3 से वाता1लाप को संवाद Lप म. लiखएI

--------------------------------------------XXX-----------------------------------------
 Class-
Class-X (09H)
Part B
Time: 30 minutes Marks: 20
Instructions: -
1. Answer all the questions of part-
part-B on the question paper itself and attach it to
the answer book let 'Part A'.
2. Candidates must use CAPITAL LETTERS (A, B, C, OR D) while answering
the Multiple-
Multiple-Choice Questions.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I. िन िलिखत न के सही उ र के अ र दए
दए गए को क म िलिखए। (20x1=
20x1=20
x1=20)
20)

1. ू रा भाYयवाद के छल से।
और भोगता उसे दस ( )
(रे खां कत श द का अथ1 पहचािनए।)
(A) धोखा (B) स?य (C) अस?य (D) 4थम

2. आज आप इधर कैसे आये? ( )

(रे खां कत श द का िवलोम पहचािनए।)

(A) िजधर (B) अधर (C) उधर (D) 6कधर

3.आशा है 6क तम
ु सकुशल हो। ( )
(रे खां कत श द म उपसग पहचािनए।)
(A) कु (B) सकु (C) स (D) शल

4. शु वतनी वाला श द पहचािनए। ( )

(A) परयावरन (B) पया1वरण (C) पया1वण1 (D) परयावरण

5. तीन पैसे म. -या--या लोगे? ( )

(पुन श द पहचािनए)
(A) तीन (B) पैसे (C) -या--या (D) लोगे

6. बेमेल श द पहचािनए। ( )
(A) पानी (B) बादल (C) जल (D) वाFर
7. हमेशा पFरGमी बनने का यास करना चा@हए। ( )
(रे खां कत श द के सही पयाय पहचािनए)
(A) 4य?न, को शश (B) @हpमत, अqयास (C) )नमा1ण, संभव (D) <वकास, 4ग)त

8. हा मद क: माँ बीमार के कारण परलोक सधार गई। ( )

(वा य म यु मुहावरा ‘परलोक सधारना’ का भाव यह होगा-)

(A) म?ृ यु होना (B) कह ं खोना (C) समय देना (D) आsमण करना

9. ’मन को भानेवाला’। ( )
(इसके िलए एक श द पहचािनए।)
(A) मनचाहा (B) मनहर (C) मनोहर (D) मनभावन

10. 4भज
ु ी, तुम घन-बन हम मोरा। ( )
(रे खां कत श द का त सम पहचािनए।)
(A) वन (B) कण (C) जन (D) धन

11. ’मl @हंद पढ़ना चाहता हूँ।’ (अथ1 के आधार पर वा य का कार पहचािनए।) ( )

(A) 4Dनाथ1क (B) )नषेधाथ1क (C) इ छाथ1क (D) संकेताथ1क

12. लtमीबाई झांसी क: रानी थी। (काल पहचािनए।) ( )

(A) भिव य काल (B) संभािवत भिव यकाल (C) वतमानकाल (D) भूतकाल

13.. अuयापक9 का सpमान 6कया गया। (रे खां कत श द का वचन बदिलए।) ( )

(A) अuयापक (B) अuया<पकाओं (C) अuया<पकाएँ (D) अuयापक जन

14. माग1 म. ’@हमालय’’अड़ जाता है। (रे खां कत श द का िव ह क िजए।) ( )

(A) @हम जैसा आलय (B) @हम का आलय

(C) @हम और आलय (D) आलय और @हम

15. हम. ’सदै व’ अपने कत1_य9 का पालन करना चािहए। ( )

(रे खां कत श द का सही संिध िव छेद Lप पहचािनए।)
(A) सदा+एव (B) सद +एव (C) सादा + एव (D) सदै +व
16. शु वा य पहचािनए। ( )
(A) धन-दौलत से भौ)तक संपदा खर द सकते हl।
(B) धन-दौलत का भौ)तक संपदा खर द सकते हl।

(C) धन-दौलत से भौ)तक संपदा खर द सकता हl।

(D) धन-दौलत क: भौ)तक संपदा खर द सकते हl।

17. ईद के @दन लड़के सब से wयादा 4सKन थे। ( )

(रे खां कत श द का श द भेद पहचािनए।)
(A) 6sया (B) <वशेषण (C) संxा (D) सव1नाम

18. लपटूँगी तेरे आँचल .........खुशबू बनकर। ( )

(उिचत कारक +चyन से र थान क पू त क िजए।)
(A) का (B) को (C) ने (D) म.

19. ि23याँ ढोलक क: मदद से गाती हl। ( )

(इस वा य का सही न पहचािनए)
(A) ि23याँ 6कसक: मदद से गाती हl? (B) ि23याँ कब गाती हl?

(C) ि23याँ -य9 गाती ह? (D) ि23याँ कहाँ गाती हl?

20. अ यापक ने पाठ पढाया । (यह वा-य 6कस काल म. है ?) ( )

(A) वत1मानकाल (B)भिव यतकाल (C) भूतकाल (D) अपण

ू 1 भूतकाल

----------X
----------X---------
 General Instructions to the Examiners
(English – Classes IX and X)
Reading Comprehension

Q. No 1- 4:

• Select the text from Reading A of the English Reader

• Minimize the number of factual questions and include more inferential and
extrapolative questions.

Q. No. 5 – 8:

• Select the text from Reading B or C of the English Reader

• Minimize the number of factual questions and include more inferential and
extrapolative questions.

Q. No. 9 – 12:

• Use tables, pie charts, bar graphs, flow charts, tree diagrams etc. from independent
source as input for study skills.
• Questions are to be framed based on the input given.

Q. No. 17 – 21:

• Select a poem/ passage from a textbook independent source.

• Avoid the poems which are lengthy and difficult to comprehend

Grammar and Vocabulary:

Q. No. 13: Transformation of sentences

• Use text book independent source as the input.

• Give scope to various grammatical areas. (voice, reported speech, synthesis,
conditionals, relativisation, etc.)

Q. No. 22-26: Editing

• Input has to be given from the text book.

• The first sentence should be error free. It has to help the students to identify tense and
other aspects.
• There should be a variety of error areas (tense, word-order, determiners, prepositions,
word forms ,PNG features , relativisation, etc.)

Q. No. 27-31: Cloze Test

• Use text book independent source

• Focus should be on word forms ,tense, determiners, pronouns, phrasal verbs,
prepositions, linkers, etc.
Q. No. 32-36: Elements of Vocabulary

• Input is to be given from the text book.

• Focus should be on synonyms, antonyms, collocations, homophones, one-word
substitutes, spellings, replacing with suitable words etc

Creative Expression:
Q. No. 14. : Major Discourse
• The limit is 12- 15 sentences.
• Internal choice is to be given with a discourse each from Group A and Group B as
mentioned in the text book.

Q. No. 15 ; Minor Discourse ( Group A)

• The limit is 50 -60 words
• Input is to be given from the text book .

Q. No. 16 ; Minor Discourse ( Group B)

• The limit is 50 -60 words
• Use text book independent source

Note:

• Please see that questions are not repeated from the previous question papers or
extracted from the textbooks.
• Distracters in MCQs should not be ambiguous.
• Please ensure that the test items are distributive, covering all the units of the textbook.
• Grammar and Vocabulary test items may be taken from the following items that are
spiraled up in English syllabus from class VI to X.

1. Degrees of comparison / adjectives, 13. Noun phrases and verb phrases

prepositions 14. Question tags
2. Linkers 15. Gerunds
3. Word forms (noun, verb, adjective, 16. Collocations
adverb) 17. Figurers of speech
4. Direct and reported speech 18. Compound and complex sentences.
5. If- clause 19. Adverbial clauses
6. Active and passive voice 20. Synonyms and antonyms
7. Tenses 21. Synthesis of sentences
8. Modals 22. Relative clauses
9. Articles 23. Quantifier
10. Phrasal verbs
11. Idioms and phrases
12. Compound words
 English- Weightage Table
S.
Academic Objectiv Tota
No Source Essay SA VSA
Standard e l
.

4X3=1
Textbook- Reading-A
2

Reading 4X3=1
1 Textbook- Reading-B/C 37
Comprehension 2

4X2=
Study Skills (Independent)
8
Passage/Poem(Independe
5X1=5
nt)
Major Discourse
1X10=1
(Group-A and Group- B )
0
2 Creative Writing internal Choice 20
Minor Discourse
2X5=10
(Group-A and Group-B

Editing- Textbook 5X1=5

Grammar & Transformation of 1X8=

3 23
Vocabulary Sentences - independent 8

Cloze test- independent 5X1=5

Elements of vocabulary -
5X1=5
textbook
Total (3)20 (8)24 (8)16 (20)20 80
 Question wise Description
S. No. of
Q.No Academic Standard Source Type Weightage Total
No. questions
Part-A
Reading Textbook
1 (1-4) SA 4 3 12
Comprehension (Reading-A)
Reading Textbook
2 (5-8) SA 4 3 12
Comprehension (Reading-B/C)
(9- Reading - Textbook
3 VSA 4 2 8
12) Study skills independent
Grammar
&Vocabulary-
Transformation
4 13 Transformation VSA 1 8 8
of sentences
of sentences ( 4 out
of 6)
Group-
Creative Writing -
A(textbook)
5 14 Major discourse Essay 1 10 10
Group-B
Internal chooice
(Independent)
Creative Writing -
6 15 Minor Textbook Essay 1 5 5
discourse(Group-A)
Creative Writing -
7 16 Minor Independent Essay 1 5 5
discourse(Group-B)
Part-B
(17-
8 Passage/poem Independent objective/MCQ 5 1 5
21)
Grammar
(22-
9 &Vocabulary- Textbook objective 5 1 5
26)
Editing
Grammar
(27-
10 &Vocabulary- Independent objective/MCQ 5 1 5
31)
Cloze test
Grammar
(32- &Vocabulary-
11 Textbook objective 5 1 5
36) Elements of
vocabulary
Total 80
 13E/14E

SSC Model Paper-2022-2023

English

Time: 3hours Max. Marks .80

Instructions:

I. Read the question paper carefully.

II. Answer the questions under Part-A in the answer booklet.
III. Write the answers to the questions under Part-B on the question paper itself.
IV. Avoid overwriting.

PART-A
Marks 60

Q. No. (1-4) Read the following passage

One day, he invited me to his home for a meal. His wife was horrified at the idea of a
Muslim boy being invited to dine in her ritually pure kitchen. She refused to serve me in her
kitchen. Sivasubramania Iyer was not perturbed, nor did he get angry with his wife, but
instead, served me with his own hands and sat down beside me to eat his meal. His wife
watched us from behind the kitchen door. I wondered whether she had observed any
difference in the way I ate rice, drank water or cleaned the floor after the meal. When I was
leaving his house, Sivasubramania Iyer invited me to join him for dinner again the next
weekend. Observing my hesitation, he told not to get upset, saying, “Once you decide to
change the system, such problems have to be confronted.” When I visited his house the next
week, Sivasubramania Iyer’s wife took me inside her kitchen and served me food with her
own hands. (My Childhood)

Answer each of the following questions in three to four sentences 4x3=12

1. Why do you think Sivasubramania Iyer’s wife was horrified?

2. What change did Kalam observe the next weekend? How did he feel?

3. “Once you decide to change the system, such problems have to be confronted.” Explain.

4. If you were Kalam, would you visit your teacher’s house the next week? Justify.

Q. No. (5-8) Read the following passage

The day came. His classmates were leaving for Madras (now Chennai). They were
taking a train from Mysore to Madras. They have shared good years in school and college
together. He went to the station to say goodbye and good luck to them for their future life.
 At the station, his friends were already there. They were excited and talking loudly.
The noise was like the chirping of birds. They were all excited and ddiscussing
iscussing their new
hostels, new courses etc. He was not part of it. So, he stood there silently. One of them
noticed and said, 'You should have made it.'

He did not reply. He only wished all of them. They waved at him as the train slowly
left the platform. (I Will
ill Do It)

Answer each of the following questions in three to four sentences 4x3=12

5. .‘You
You should have made it.' Who is the speaker of these words? What does this
statement convey?

6. Why do you think Murthyy did not reply?

7. If you were Murthy,

hy, what would you do in that situation?

8. Pick Three TRUE statements according to the passage.

A. Murthy and his friends are leaving for further studies.

B. Murthy was not jealous of his friends.
C. Birds were Chirping at the railway station.
D. Murthy's friends felt that he should have made it to the IIT.
E. Murthy was on the platform when the train left.

Q. No. (9-12) The Pie-Chart

Chart given below provides information about the students
students’
reading interest in different genres of literature
literature. Study the Chart carefully and answer
the following questions. 4X2=8

9. What does the Pie-Chart

Chart show? How many genres are presented in the Chart?
Chart
10. Which is the least preferred genre? Suggest two measures to develop interest amongst the
students in that genre.
11. What is the percentage of Drama, Novels and Poems made altogether?
12.. Which genre do you prefer? Mention your favourite work in that genre.
Q. No. (13). Read the passage given below focusing on the parts that are underlined.
Answer any 4 of the questions as directed and write them in the answer booklet.
4X2=8
(i) Coffee is one of the most popular drinks in the world. (ii) It has caffeine.It
stimulates our mind. (iii) People in south India like coffee more than tea. (iv)A cup of coffee
brings relief. (v) Too much intake of coffee affects our health. (iv) Moderate intake of coffee
is good. It is beneficial for healthy people.

i. Rewrite the sentence using ‘ very few’

ii. Combine the two sentences with ‘ which’

iii. Rewrite the sentence using ‘prefer’

iv. Rewrite the sentence beginning with ‘ relief.’

v. Rewrite the sentence beginning with ‘taking “

vi. combine the two sentences using’ not only - but also.’

14. The concluding scene of the one-act play “The Dear Departed “ depicts Abel
Merryweather being disgusted with the behaviour of his daughters and deciding to leave the
house to get married.
Now, imagine Abel Merryweather’s daughters regret mistreating him after he left the
house. Write a possible conversation between them. 10M

Or

Recently , Delhi government had to declare holidays to schools due to the hazardous levels of
air pollution. Despite the preventive measures taken by government, air pollution remains a
major threat in many cities and towns.
Now write an essay on the topic ‘Air Pollution” expressing your concerns.
You may use the following ideas:
• Causes of air pollution
• Effects
• Measures to reduce the air pollution
• Roles and responsibilities of authorities and citizens

Q.No. 15. In the lesson ‘The Storeyed House’ , we have come to know about the death of
Bayaji in the fire accident.
Imagine you are the eye witness of the accident and write a diary entry. 5M

Q.No. 16. Silver Jubilee celebrations of your school are to be held on 25th of January, 2023.
Imagine you are the organizer and design an invitation . 5M
 Part-B
Instructions:
1. Answer the questions on the question paper itself and attach it to the answer booklet
of Part-A

2. Avoid overwriting

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.No. (17-21). Read the following poem

Who has seen the wind?

Neither I nor you:
But when the leaves hang trembling,
The wind is passing through.

Who has seen the wind?

Neither you nor I:
But when the trees bow down their heads,
The wind is passing by.

Now answer the questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer
and write A,B,C or D in the brackets given 5X1=5

17. Who has seen the wind?

Neither I nor you:--- it means

a. The poet has seen the wind

b. The poet and the reader have seen the wind
c. No one can see the wind
d. Anyone can see the wind

18. But when the leaves hang trembling, - the literary device used here is

a. simile
b. personification
c. metaphor
d. hyperbole

19. The tone of the poet is

a. pleasing
b. serious
c. assertive
d. authoritative
20. But when the trees bow down their heads-
The wind is passing by. – this tells about
a. The softness of the wind
b. The strength of the wind
c. The speed of the wind
d. The gentleness of the wind

21. The word ‘tremble’ in the poem means

a. movement
b. falling
c. sudden rise
d. making sound

Q.No. (22-26). In the following passage, five sentences are numbered and each of them
has an error. Correct them and rewrite them in the given space. 5X1=5

I gave him the can of wine.(22) He poured himself mug and handed me the can. He
drank all of it at one go. (23)He then arranged the belt who was attached to the trunk
carefully on his forehead. So, this was the picture: my father carrying my luggage on his back
and me following him with a tiny bag in my hand.(24) We were walking up a narrow road
hilly, and neither of us uttered a word as if we were strangers who spoke different languages.
(25) I did not know what was going in his mind. (26)From time to time it crossed my mind
that it was improper for me to let father carried the luggage. I wanted to tell him that I would
like to carry the trunk myself, but my guilt and shame did not allow me to do so.

22………………………………………………………………………
23………………………………………………………………………
24………………………………………………………………………
25……………………………………………………………………….
26……………………………………………………………………….

Q.No.(27-31).Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below.
Each blank is numbered and each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D). Choose
the correct answer and write A,B,C or D in the brackets given . 5X1=5

An Aeroplane is just like a metal bird. It has a huge body (27)----- large wings.
Flight journey is the fastest mode (28)----- travel. Some planes (29)----- even faster
than sound. There are two kinds of planes; passenger planes carry people (30)-----
cargo planes carry goods. Apart from this, there are fighter planes(31)------are used
by the army in war.

27. a. so b. and c. yet d. but

28. a. of b. for c. on d. at
29. a. travels b. travel c. travelling d. travelled
30. a. wherever b. where c. whereas d. wherein
31. a. who b. which c. what d. where
Q.No. (32-36). Read the following passage with focus on the underlined parts. Answer
them as directed in the space given. 5X1=5

I was (32) amazed. Here before my eyes, a white baby, for they were little more than
babies, was imposing his will upon a little black boy. And the little black boy submitted. I
puzzled within myself as I went down the road. Could it be that the little dark boy was the
(33) sun of a (34) servant in the home and therefore had to do the white boy's bidding? No.
They were obviously dressed alike, the little dark boy was of equal class with his playmate.
No. They were (35) playmate; the little dark boy was a neighbour's child. I was sure of that.
Then how was it that he obeyed so faithfully the white boy's (36) comments?

32. Write the meaning of the underlined word.

Ans--------------------------------------------------------------
33. Replace the underlined word with the correct one which is pronounced similarly.
Ans--------------------------------------------------------------
34. Write the word which is opposite in meaning of the underlined word.
Ans--------------------------------------------------------------
35. Replace the underlined word with its correct form.
Ans-------------------------------------------------------------
36. Replace the underlined word with the suitable word.
Ans--------------------------------------------------------------
 Guidelines for the preparation of
MATHEMATICS Question Papers for 9th and 10th Classes
In Mathematics 80 marks were allotted for Summative Assessment Question paper.
In Summative Assessment Question paper there will be Two parts, i.e. Part-A; and Part-B.
Part-A and Part-B contains different types of questions as shown below:
Marks for
Number of Alloted
Types of Questions each Total Marks
questions Time
question
Very Short Answer 6 02 12
Question
Part-A
Short Answer Question 6 03 18
Essay type Questions 6 05 30 Hours
(Internal Choice)
Sub-total 18 - 60
Part-B Multiple Choice Questions 20 01 20 30 Minutes
[MCQ]
Grand TOTAL 38 - 80 3 hours

The total marks allotted for Part-A is 60.

The allotted time for Part-A is Hours
The total marks allotted for Part-B is 20.
The allotted time for Part-B is THIRTY MINUTES
Question paper should be prepared based on the Academic Standards.
The Academic Standards weightage is shown in the following table
S. Percen TOTAL
Academic Standards. Marks VSAQ SAQ Essay MCQ
No. tage Marks
1 Problem Solving 40% 32 (32)
2 Reasoning and proof 20% 16 (16)
3 Communication 10% 08 (08)
4 Connection 15% 12 (12)
5 Visualization and
15% 12 (12)
representation
TOTAL 100% 80 6 (12) 6 (18) 6 (30) 20 (20) 38 (80)

MODEL BLUE PRINT

Sl. Academic Percen Marks VSAQ SAQ Essay MCQ TOTAL

No. Standards. tage (2) (3) (5) (1) Marks
1 Problem Solving 40% 32 2(4) 2(6) 2(10) 12(12) 32
2 Reasoning and proof 20% 16 1(2) 2(6) 1(5) 3(3) 16
3 Communication 10% 08 1(2) 1(3) - 3(3) 08
4 Connection 15% 12 1(2) 1(3) 1(5) 2(2) 12
5 Visualization and
15% 12 1(2) - 2(10) - 12
representation
TOTAL 100% 80 6 (12) 6 (18) 6 (30) 20 (20) 38 (80)
Important Note:
There is internal choice in Essay questions in the question paper.

The weightage for each academic standard is fixed.

Question paper should be prepared as per the marks allotted to each academic standard. There should be
NO deviation in this regard.
PART- A:
The Part-A question Paper contains THREE sections. The First section includes SIX very short answer type
questions, answer ALL of them. Each question carries 2 marks and the total marks allotted to this section
are 12. The Solutions for these problems should be in general to 3-4 Steps.
The Second section includes SIX short answer type questions, answer ALL of them. Each question carries
3 marks and the total marks allotted to this section are 18. The Solutions for these problems should be in
general to 5-6 Steps.
The Third section includes SIX Essay type questions, each question carries 5 marks and the total marks
allotted to this section are 30. The Solutions for these problems should be in general to 8-10 Steps. There
is an internal choice to the questions under this section. The questions given under internal choice must
be with the same academic standard and same difficulty level.

PART- B:

The Part-B Paper contains TWENTY Multiple Choice Questions, each question carries 1 mark and the
total marks allotted to this part are 20.
Marks will not be awarded for OVERWRITING, CORRECTED and ERASED answers.
In MCQ questions, options such as All of the above, none of the above and both A and B should not be
given.

General Instructions:

Care should be taken while preparing question paper in such a way that questions must be given from ALL
allotted Units/ Lessons, but there is NO need to give unit/lesson-wise weightage in the question paper.
All questions in the question paper should be thought provoking, open ended, analytical. Rote memory
questions should be avoided in the question paper. The questions should test the understanding level
of the student.
All questions should be without any ambiguity and they should be clear with objectivity.
Sub-questions should not be given in the question paper. If it is needed can be given only for ONE
QUESTION.
The length of the Solution must be kept in mind while preparing different types of problems.
While preparing question paper, avoid problems from the text book as it is, Can take those problems by
changing their nature of questioning.
The entire question paper should be prepared in such a way that 50% questions easy, 30% questions are
average and the remaining 20% questions are of higher order thinking.
 SSC March 2023
MATHEMATICS
Model Paper
Time: 3 hours Max.Marks: 80
Instructions:
1. Answer all the questions under Part-A on a separate answer book.
2. Write the answers to the questions under Part-B on the question paper itself and
attach it to the answer book of Part-A.
PART-A
Time: 2½ hours Marks: 60
SECTION – I (Marks: 6×2 = 12)

Note: (i) Answer ALL the following questions.

(ii) Each question carries 2 marks.

1. If A = { : ∈ , < 5} and B = { : ∈ ,2 < < 7} then draw Venn diagram for

A ∪ B.

2. Check whether the given pair of linear equations x + 2y - 4 = 0 and 2x + 4y – 12 = 0 is

intersecting lines or parallel lines.

3. Give one example each for an Arithmetic progression and a Geometric progression.

4. Find the probability of getting a ‘vowel’ if a letter is chosen randomly from English
alphabet.

5. Find the volume of a hemispherical bowl whose radius is 2.8

6. In ∆ABC, DEǁBC. If AD:DB = 2:3, AE = 3x + 1 and EC = 5x, then

find the value of ‘x’.

SECTION – II (Marks: 6×3 = 18)

Note: (i) Answer ALL the following questions.

(ii) Each question carries 3 marks.

7. If log (1+tanθ+secθ) + log (1+cotθ-cosecθ) = log k (0o< θ < 90o) then find the value
of k.

8. Write the formula for mode of a grouped data and explain each term of it.
9. Prove that 2 + 3√5 is an irrational number.

10. Prove that x2 + 2x + 1 divides x4 – 2x3 – 4x2 + 2x +3 exactly.

11. In a circle of radius 3.5cm, a chord subtends a right angle at the centre. Find the area of
the corresponding major segment (Take π = )

12. Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are (5, 2) (3, -5) and (-3, -4).

SECTION – III (Marks: 6×5 = 30)

Note: (i) Answer all the following questions.

(ii) In this section, every question has internal choice. Answer any one alternative.
(iii) Each question carries 5 marks.

13. (A) Find mean for the following data.

CI 60-70 70-80 80-90 90-100 100-110 110-120 120-130

f 2 5 12 31 36 10 4

(OR)

(B) The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of the tower is 30o
and the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the building is
60o. If the tower is 100m high, then find the height of the building.

! "
14. (A) Prove that = # "

(OR)

(B) Show that the quadrilateral obtained by joining the points (-2, 4) (-6, -2) (-2, -8)
and (2, -2) is a Rhombus.
& & &
15. (A) Solve $ +' = 2 and $ +' = )
where ≠ 1, , ≠ −1

(OR)

(B) Cards marked with numbers 2 to 101 are placed in a box. They are mixed
thoroughly and one card is selected randomly from the box. Find the probability
that the number on the selected card is
(i) an even number (ii) a number less than 14
(iii) a number which is a perfect square (iv) a prime number less than 20
16. (A) A metallic vessel is in the shape of a right circular cylinder mounted over a
hemisphere. The common diameter is 56cm and the height of the cylindrical part
is 21cm. Find the capacity of the vessel (Take π = )

(OR)

(B) A motor boat travels a distance of 18km upstream and travels back to reach the
starting point. For up and down trip, it takes 12 hours. If the speed of the stream
is 2kmph, then find the speed of the boat in still water. (Assume that the motor
boat maintains a constant speed)

17. (A) Draw the graph of the polynomial ./ 0 = − − 6 and then find its zeroes
from the graph.

(OR)

(B) Solve the equations graphically 3 + 4, = 10 and 4 − 3, = 5

18. (A) Construct a triangle PQR, in which PQ = 4cm, QR = 6 cm and ∠PQR = 60o.
5
Construct another triangle similar to ∆PQR, with its sides equal to times of the
&
corresponding sides of the triangle PQR

(OR)

(B) Draw a circle of radius 5cm. From a point 9cm away from its centre, construct a
pair of tangents to the circle.
 PART-B
Time: 30 minutes Marks : 20
Note: (i) Answer all the questions
(ii) Each question carries 1 mark
(iii) Answers are to be written in Question paper only
(iv) Marks will not be awarded in any case of over writing, rewriting or erased
answers.
Note: Write the capital letters (A, B, C, D) showing the correct answer for the following
questions in the brackets provided against them.
Marks 20 × 1 = 20
1. The value of k for which the system of equations 4x + y =3 and 8x + 2y = 5k has
infinite solutions is ( )
6 ) 6 )
(A) (B) (C) (D)
) )6 ) 6
2. Among the following, a statement that is NOT true is ( )
(A) sin : = √1 − cos : (B) sec : − tan : = 1
(C) cos :. cosec : = 1 (D) tan :. cot : = 1
3. The logarithmic form of 7 = 3x is ( )
(A) log3x = 7 (B) log 73 = x (C) log7x = 3 (D) log37 = x
&
4. The decimal form of is ( )
@

(A) 3.75 (B) 0.365 (C) 0.375 (D) 0.0375

5. If 72, 63, 54, …, is an Arithmetic progression, then the term that becomes zero in it
is ( )
(A) 11th (B) 10th (C) 9th (D) 8th
6. The equal set of A = {x : x is a letter of the word “FOLLOW”} is ( )
(A) {f, o, l, l, o, w} (B) {f, o, l, l, w) (C) {f, l, o, w} (D) {f, o, l, o, w}
7. If n(A-B) = 5, n(B-A) = 7 and n(A∩B) = 3 then n(A∪B) is ( )
(A) 9 (B) 12 (C) 10 (D) 15
8. Among the following, the value which is not possible for the probability of an event is
( )
5
(A) & (B) 0.5 (C)25% (D)
&
9. Among the following, a linear polynomial is ( )
(A) 3x2 + 2x - 4 (B) 2x + 3 (C) 5 (D) x3 - 3x2 + 7
10. If p(x) = x2 – 2x + 2 then the value of p(0) is ( )
(A) 4 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) -2
11. The value of Discriminent of x2 + x + 1 = 0 is ( )
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) -4 (D) -3
12. A quadratic equation whose roots are -2 and -3 is ( )
2 2 2 2
(A) x - 5x – 6 = 0 (B) x + 5x + 6 = 0 (C) x + 5x – 6 = 0 (D) x - 5x + 6 = 0
13. If the product of the first 5 terms of a Geometric progression is 243, then its third term
is ( )
(A) 9 (B) 27 (C) 3 (D) 1
5 & 5
14. LCM of numbers 2 × 3 × 7 and 2 × 3 × 11 is ( )
(A) 2& × 35 (B) 2 × 35
(C) 2 × 35 × 7 × 11 (D) 2& × 35 × 7 × 11
15. In an Arithmetic progression nth term is DE = D + /F − 10G. In this formula “d”
represents ( )
(A) Number of terms (B) nth term
(C) First term (D) Common difference
16. In ∆ABC, if ∠C = 30o, AB = 1 unit then AB : AC : BC is
(A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 3 : 2 : 1 ( )
(C) √3 : 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 2 : √3

17. If the radius of a cylinder is doubled and its height is halved, then the volume of the
new cylinder formed is ( )
(A) 4 times the volume of the first cylinder
(B) 3 times the volume of the first cylinder
(C) 2 times the volume of the first cylinder
(D) Volume remains the same
18. E and I I) = 0.07 then the
E are two complementary events in a random experiment. If P(E
value of P(E) is ( )
(A) 0.3 (B) 0.93 (C) 0.03 (D) 0.83
19. The mean of 9 observations is 45. In doing so, if an observation was wrongly taken as
42 for 24, then the correct mean of the data is ( )
(A) 34 (B) 43 (C) 37 (D) 45
20. Base radii and heights of a cylinder and a cone are equal. If the volume of cone is
9cubic.units, then the volume of the cylinder is ( )
(A) 27 cubic-units (B) 18 cubic-units (C) 9 cubic-units (D) 36 cubic-units
 10th Class
Guidelines for the preparation of PHYSICAL SCIENCE
Question Papers for 9th and 10th Classes
In Physical science 40 marks are allotted for Summative Assessment Question
paper.
In Summative Assessment Question paper there will be Two parts, i.e. Part-A;
and Part-B.
Part-A and Part-B contains different types of questions as shown below:
Allotted Marks
No. Of Allotted
Types of for each Total Marks
Questions Questions Time
Questions
Part-A
Very Short
Answer 03 02 06 ONE HOUR
Question
[VSAQ] FIFTEEN
Short Answer 03 03 09 MINUTES
Question [SAQ]
Essay type 03
Questions
(Internal 1 hr. 15
[Essay] 05 15
choice Min.
questions)
Part-B Multiple Choice 15 Minutes
Questions 10 01 10
[MCQ]

Important Note
Prepare question paper for 40 marks.
The total marks allotted for Part-A is 30.
The allotted time for Part-A is ONE HOUR FIFTEEN MINUTES
The total marks allotted for Part-B is 10.
The allotted time for Part-B is FIFTEEN MINUTES
Question paper should be prepared based on the Academic Standards.
The Academic Standards weightage is shown in the following table:

Percent

TOTAL
Marks

Marks
VSAQ

Essay

MCQ
AS Academic

SAQ
age
No. Standards.

AS-1 Conceptual
40% 16 16
Understanding
AS-2 Asking questions
and making 05% 02 02
hypothesis
AS-3 Experimentation and
17.5% 07 07
field investigation
AS-4 Information skills
7.5% 03 03
and Projects
AS-5 Communication
through drawing, 15% 06 06
model making
AS-6 Appreciation,
Concern to bio-
15% 06 06
diversity, Application
to daily life.
TOTAL 100% 40 M 3 Q 3Q 3Q 10 Q 40 M
(6 marks) (9 marks) (15 marks) (10 marks)

The weightage for each academic standard should not be changed.

Question paper should be prepared as per the marks allotted to each academic
standard. There shall be NO deviation in this regard.
For Example in the entire question paper for Academic Standard-I i.e.
Conceptual Understanding 16 marks are allotted for all types of questions.
While preparing questions there shall be NO deviation in the allotted marks.
PART- A:
The Part-A question Paper contains THREE sections. The First section contains 3
very short answer type questions, answer all the questions. Each question
carries 2 marks and the total mark allotted to this section is 6. Answer for these
questions should be limited to 3-4 sentences.
The Second section contains 3short answer type questions, answer all the
questions. Each question carries 3 marks and the total marks allotted to this
section are 9. Answer for these questions should be limited to 5-6 sentences.
The Third section contains Three Essay type questions, each question carries 5
marks and the total marks allotted to this section are 15 Marks. Answer for
these questions should be limited to 8-10 sentences. There is an internal choice
to the questions under this section. The questions given under internal choice
must be with the same academic standard.
PART- B:
The Part-B Paper contains TEN Multiple Choice Questions, each question carries
1 mark and the total marks allotted to this part are 10.
Marks will not be awarded for OVERWRITING, CORRECTED and ERASED
answers.
Under Part-B the MCQ must be given with different patterns such as, Identifying
the Correct Sentence, Incorrect Sentence, Incorrect Pair, Correct Pair, Odd-one,
Match the Following, Arranging in sequential order, Flow-Charts, Missing label
etc.,
In MCQ questions options such as “All of the above”, “None of the above” and
“Both A and B” should not be given.
General Instructions:
Care should be taken while preparing question paper in such a way that
questions must be given from ALL allotted Units / Lessons / Chapters, but there
is NO need to give unit/lesson-wise weightage in the question paper.
Questions gives in the question paper should be thought provoking, open
ended, analytical. Rote memory questions should be avoided in the question
paper. Questions should test the understanding level of the student.
All questions must not be ambiguity and they should be clear with objectivity.
Sub-questions should not be given in the question paper except information
skill (AS-IV ) Questions.
The length of the answer must be kept in mind while preparing different types
of questions.
While preparing question paper avoid “Improve your learning” questions from
the text book as it is, Can take those questions by changing their nature of
questioning.
The entire question paper should be prepared in such a way that 50% questions
easy, 30% questions are average and the remaining 20% questions are of higher
order thinking.
 Physical Science model paper X class-blue print - EM
Note: Prepare the weightage table before preparing the question paper.

Essay Total
Academic standard
Weight Mark VSAQ 2 SAQ 3
Type MCQ 1 Marks
age s Marks Marks Mark
5Marks
AS1-Conceptual
1(5M) 5(1M)
Understanding 40% 16 2(3M) (Q.No-7)
16
- (Q.No-5,6)
(Q.No-
Internal
choice
1to 5)

AS2-Asking questions
and making hypothesis 05% 02 1(2M) 02
(Q.No-2)
- - -

AS3-Experimentation 1(5M)
and field investigation 17.5% 07 (Q.No-9) 2(1M) 07
- -
Internal (Q.No-6,8)
choice
AS4-Information skills
and Projects 7.5% 03 1(3M) 03
- - -
(Q.No-4)

AS5-Communication
through drawing, model 1(5M)
15% 06 (Q.No-8) 1(1M) 06
making - - (Q.No-7)
Internal
choice

AS6-Appreciation,
Concern to bio-diversity, 2(2M) 2(1M) 06
15% 06 - - (Q.No-
Application to daily life. (Q.No-1,3)
9,10)

40 3Q 40
3Q 3Q 10Q
Total (15Marks
(6Marks) (9Marks) (10Marks)
)
 Lessons Wise Weightage Table
VSAQ 2 SAQ 3 Essay Type MCQ Total
Lessons
Marks Marks 5Marks 1 Mark Marks
1.Reflection of light at 1(2M)
curved surfaces (Q.No-1)
- - 1(1M) (Q.No-7) 3

2.Chemical Equations 1(5M) (Q.No-7)

- - Internal choice
1(1M) (Q.No-2) 6
3.Acids, Bases and Salts 1(1M (Q.No-5),
- - 1(5M) (Q.No-9) 1(1M) (Q.No-8), 8
Internal Choice
1(1M) (Q.No-9)
4. Refraction of Light at 1(1M) (Q.No-1),
Curved Surfaces - - 1(5M) (Q.No-8)
1(1M) (Q.No-10)
7
5. Human Eye and 1(2M)
Colourful world. (Q.No-5)
- - 1(1M) (Q.No-6) 3
6. Structure of Atom. 1(5M) (Q.No-8)
- - Internal choice
- 5
7. Classification of
Elements- The Periodic - 1(3M) - 1(1M) (Q.No-4) 4
(Q.No-4)
Table
8. Chemical Bonding. 1(3M)
- (Q.No-6)
- - 3
9. Electric Current. - - 1(5M) (Q.No-9) - 5
10. Electromagnetism. - - 1(5M) (Q.No-7) - 5
11. Principles of Metallurgy 1(2M)
(Q.No-2)
- - 1(1M) (Q.No-3) 3
12. Carbon and its 1(3M)
- - - 3
Compounds. (Q.No-5)
40 + (15
M–
Total Internal
choice)
 19E

SSC Model paper –March/April - 2023

General Science
Part – I - (Physical Science)
English Version
Class: X Part-A & B Max.Marks:40 Time: 1.30 hrs.
PART-A (30 Marks)
Instructions:
i. Read the question paper and understand every question thoroughly and write

answers in given 1.30 hrs. time.

ii. 3 very short answer questions are there in section-I. Each question carries 2

marks. Answer all the questions. Write answer to each question in 3 to 4

sentences.

iii. 3 short answer questions are there in section-II. Each question carries 3

marks. Answer all the questions. Write answer to each question in 5 to 6

sentences.

iv. 3 essay type answer questions are there in section-III. Each question carries 5

marks. Answer all the questions. Write answer to each question in 8 to 10

sentences. Internal choice is given in this section.
Section-I(3X2=6 Marks)
Instructions

i. 3 very short answer questions are there in section-I.

ii. Each question carries 2 marks. Answer all the questions.

iii. Write answer to each question in 3 to 4 sentences.

1. Write any two uses of each convex and concave mirrors. (AS6)
2. What happens if rusting of metals does not prevent? (AS2)
3. A Doctor suggested to use +2D power lens to correct a person’s eye defect.
Then find the focal length of the lens. (AS6)
 Section-II (3X3=9 Marks)
Instructions:
i. 3 short answer questions are there in section-II.
ii. Answer all the questions. Each question carries 3 marks.
iii. Write answer to each question in 5 to 6 sentences.

4. Answer the following question by using the above data (AS4)

2nd period elements Li Be B C N O F

Atomic number 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Atomic radius (in pm) 152 111 88 72 74 66 64
Electro negativity (in 1.0 1.47 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0
ev).

i. How does the capacity of loosing electrons changes in the 2ndperiod from
left to right.
ii. How does atomic size changes in the 2nd period?
iii. Mention the valance shell of the elements from Li to F.

5. Mention the differences between Alkanes and Alkenes. (AS1)

6. Explain the polar covalent bond with one suitable example. (AS1)

Section-III(3X5=15 Marks)
Instructions:
i. 3 Essay type questions are there in this section.
ii. Answer all the questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
iii. Internal Choice is given in this section.
iv. Write answer to each question in 8 to 10 sentences.

7. Explain the working process of induction stove and security system by using
Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. (AS1)
OR
Mention the products, write balanced chemical equation when 112 g. of propane
(C3H8) is combusted. Calculate the mass of the carbon-di-oxide evolved in the
reaction. (Atomic mass of carbon is 12U,Atomic mass of Oxygen is 16U
Atomic mass of Hydrogen is 1U )
8. An object is placed 25cm distance from a concave lens of 20 cm focal length.
Draw the ray diagram and mention the characteristics of the image formed.
(AS5)
OR
Draw the shape of the all orbitals which represents the quantum numbers
n=3, l= 2.

9. List out the material required to verify the Ohm’s law experiment. Mention the
precautions to be taken in the experiment and write the experimental procedure
(AS3)
OR
List out the materials required in the experiment of hydrogen gas is evolved
when metals react with acids/ bases. Mention the precautions to be taken and
experimental procedure.
 SSC Model paper –March/April - 2023
General Science
(Physical Science)
English Version
Class: X Part-A & B Max.Marks:40 Time: 1.30 hrs.
PART- B ( 10 Marks) ( 15 Minutes)
Instructions 10 x 1 = 10
i. Answer all the questions
ii. Each question carries 1 mark
iii. In this section there are 4 options (A/B/C/D) to each question. Choose the appropriate
answer and write the answer in the brackets given against the question .Part –B must be
attached to the answer booklet of part-A

1) Formula is used to find the magnification of the lens is ( )

−v v hi ho
i) m = ii) m = iii) m = iv) m =
u u ho hi
A) i, ii B) ii, iii
C) iii, iv D) i, iii
2) Match the following ( )
Part - A Part- B

i. Exothermic reaction ( ) a) H2O H2+ O2

Sunlight
ii. Endothermic reaction ( ) b) 2AgBr 2 Ag +Br2
iii. Photo chemical reaction ( ) c) C+O2 CO2
iv. Electrolysis reactions ( ) d) CaCO3 Cao + CO2

A) i-c,ii-b,iii-d,iv-a B) i-c,ii-a,iii-b,iv-d
C) i-c,ii-a,iii-d,iv-b D) i-c,ii-d,iii-b,iv-a
3) Metal used in ornaments ( )
A. Al B. Na C. Au D. K
4) P C3H8 + Q O2→ R CO2 + S H2Ois a balanced chemical equation, Then the values of
P,Q,R and S are respectively ( )
A) 2,5,3 and 8 B) 2,10,6 and 8
C) 2,5,6 and 8 D) 2,10,3 and 4
5) A solution changes red litmus paper into blue , then the PH value of the solution is ( )
A) 1 B) 7
C) 12 D) 5
6) In the experiment of finding refractive index of a prism if the incident angle is equal to
emerging angle then ( )
A) i1>i2 B) i1<i2
C) i1=r2 D) i1=i2

7) Position of the image will be formed for this situation is given

in the figure ( )

A) Beyond “C” B) At “F”

C) Between “P” and “C” D) Between “P” and “F”
8) In an activity removing water of crystallization, if water is removed after heating copper
sulphate crystals , then the its colour is ( )
A) Blue B) White
C) Red D) Green
9) One of the following one is used to get relief from indigestion ( )
A)NaCl B) MgCl2
C) Mg(OH)2 D) NaOH
10) A person is suffering from hypermetropia eye defect, then the doctor suggested him to use
A) Concave lens B) Convex lens ( )
C) Concavo convex lens D) Convexo concave lens.
 10th Class
Guidelines for the preparation of BIOLOGICAL SCIENCE
Question Papers for 9th and 10th Classes
In Biological Science 40 marks are allotted for Summative Assessment
Question paper.
In Summative Assessment Question paper there will be Two parts, i.e.
Part-A; and Part-B.
Part-A and Part-B contains different types of questions as shown below:
Allotted Marks
No. Of Allotted
Types of for each Total Marks
Questions Questions Time
Questions
Part-A
Very Short
Answer 03 02 06 ONE HOUR
Question
[VSAQ] FIFTEEN
Short Answer 03 03 09 MINUTES
Question [SAQ]
Essay type 03
Questions
(Internal 1 hr. 15
[Essay] 05 15
choice Min.
questions)
Part-B Multiple Choice 15 Minutes
Questions 10 01 10
[MCQ]

Important Note
Prepare question paper for 40 marks.
The total marks allotted for Part-A is 30.
The allotted time for Part-A is ONE HOUR FIFTEEN MINUTES
The total marks allotted for Part-B is 10.
The allotted time for Part-B is FIFTEEN MINUTES
Question paper should be prepared based on the Academic Standards.
The Academic Standards weightage is shown in the following table:

Percent

TOTAL
Marks

Marks
VSAQ

Essay

MCQ
AS Academic

SAQ
age
No. Standards.

AS-1 Conceptual
40% 16 16
Understanding
AS-2 Asking questions
and making 05% 02 02
hypothesis
AS-3 Experimentation and
17.5% 07 07
field investigation
AS-4 Information skills
7.5% 03 03
and Projects
AS-5 Communication
through drawing, 15% 06 06
model making
AS-6 Appreciation,
Concern to bio-
15% 06 06
diversity, Application
to daily life.
TOTAL 100% 40 M 3 Q 3Q 3Q 10 Q 40 M
(6 marks) (9 marks) (15 marks) (10 marks)

The weightage for each academic standard should not be changed.

Question paper should be prepared as per the marks allotted to each
academic standard. There shall be NO deviation in this regard.
For Example in the entire question paper for Academic Standard-I i.e.
Conceptual Understanding 16 marks are allotted for all types of questions.
While preparing questions there shall be NO deviation in the allotted
marks.
PART- A:
The Part-A question Paper contains THREE sections. The First section
contains 3 very short answer type questions, answer all the questions.
Each question carries 2 marks and the total mark allotted to this section
is 6. Answer for these questions should be limited to 3-4 sentences.
The Second section contains 3 short answer type questions, answer all
the questions. Each question carries 3 marks and the total marks allotted
to this section are 9. Answer for these questions should be limited to 5-6
sentences.
The Third section contains Three Essay type questions, each question
carries 5 marks and the total marks allotted to this section are 15 Marks.
Answer for these questions should be limited to 8-10 sentences. There is
an internal choice to the questions under this section. The questions
given under internal choice must be with the same academic standard.
PART- B:
The Part-B Paper contains TEN Multiple Choice Questions, each question
carries 1 mark and the total marks allotted to this part are 10.
Marks will not be awarded for OVERWRITING, CORRECTED and ERASED
answers.
Under Part-B the MCQ must be given with different patterns such as,
Identifying the Correct Sentence, Incorrect Sentence, Incorrect Pair,
Correct Pair, Odd-one, Match the Following, Arranging in sequential
order, Flow-Charts, Missing label etc.,
In MCQ questions options such as “All of the above”, “None of the above”
and “Both A and B” should not be given.
General Instructions:
Care should be taken while preparing question paper in such a way that
questions must be given from ALL allotted Units / Lessons / Chapters, but
there is NO need to give unit/lesson-wise weightage in the question
paper.
Questions gives in the question paper should be thought provoking, open
ended, analytical. Rote memory questions should be avoided in the
question paper. Questions should test the understanding level of the
student.
All questions must not be ambiguity and they should be clear with
objectivity.
Sub-questions should not be given in the question paper except
information skill (AS-IV) Questions.
The length of the answer must be kept in mind while preparing different
types of questions.
While preparing question paper avoid “Improve your learning” questions
from the text book as it is, Can take those questions by changing their
nature of questioning.
The entire question paper should be prepared in such a way that 50%
questions easy, 30% questions are average and the remaining 20%
questions are of higher order thinking.
 MODEL QUESTION PAPER BLUE PRINT [10th CLASS]

AS Academic Standards. Perce Mar VSAQ SAQ Essay MCQ TOTAL

No. ntage ks Marks
AS-1 Conceptual 40 16 - 1 (3) 1(5) 8 (1) 16
Understanding
AS-2 Asking questions and 05 02 1(2) - - - 02
making hypothesis
AS-3 Experimentation and 17.5 07 1 (2) - 1(5) - 07
field investigation
AS-4 Information skills and 7.5 03 - 1(3) - - 03
Projects
AS-5 Communication through 15 06 - - 1(5) 1 (1) 06
drawing, model making
AS-6 Appreciation, Concern 15 06 1 (2) 1(3) - 1(1) 06
to bio-diversity,
Application to daily life.
TOTAL 100 40 Q-3 Q-3 Q-3/3 Q-10/10 Q-19/19
(6 M) (9 M) (15 M) (10 M) (40/40 M)
 10TH CLASS Unit/Lesson-wise given questions in Model Paper

S. Total
No.
Unit / Lesson Name VSAQ SAQ Essay MCQ Marks
1 NUTRITION 01 - 01 01 08

2 RESPIRATION 01 - - 02 04

3 CIRCULATION 01 - 01 01 08

4 EXCRETION - - - 03 03

CONTROL &
5 - 01 - 01 04
COORDINATION

6 REPRODUCTION - - 02 02 12

COORDINATION IN LIFE
7 - - 01 - 05
PROCESS

8 HERDITY AND EVOLUTION - 01 - - 03

9 OUR ENVIRONMENT - - 01 - 05

10 NATURAL RESOURCES - 01 - - 03
 20 E (A)

MODEL QUESTION PAPER

General Science
Part – II - (Biological Science)
(English Version)
CLASS – X
Part A & Part B
Time: 1.30 Hours] [Max. Marks: 40
Instructions:
1. Read the question paper carefully and understand.
2. Answer the questions under Part A in the answer sheet provided.
3. Part – A contains three sections: section-I, II and III.
4. There is an internal choice to the questions under section- III.
5. Part B Answers should be written in the given brackets and attach to the part A answer sheet.
6. Write the answers following the instructions given in each section.

Part-A
Time: 1 Hour 15 min] Marks: 30
SECTION - I
Instructions: [ 3 x 2 = 06 ]

i. This section contains 3 very short answer questions.

ii. Answer ALL the questions.
iii. Write the answer in 3-4 sentences.
iv. Each question carries 2 marks.

1) What happens if transpiration doesn’t takes place in tall trees?

2) Write the materials required to observe internal structure of mammalian heart.
3) Write the general principles to be followed in daily life to avoid indigestion problem.
SECTION- II

[3 x 3 = 09]

Instructions:
i. This section contains 3 short answer questions.
ii. Answer ALL questions.
iii. Write the answer in 5-6 sentences.
iv. Each question carries 3 marks.

4) Write any three evidences to prove the Darwin’s Theory of Evolution.

5) Observe the following table and answer the questions given below:
 Endocrine Glands Hormones Effect of hormones
Adrenal Adrenaline Emotions
Pituitary Somatotrophin Growth
Ovary Estrogen Secondary Sexual Characters
Testes Testosterone Secondary Sexual Characters
i. Which hormone is exclusively present only in females?
ii. Which hormone is responsible for the development of secondary sexual characters in
males?
iii. Identify the endocrine glands present in both males and females?

6) Write any three measures to be followed to conserve natural resources in your daily life.

SECTION - III

[3 x 5 = 15]
Instructions:

i. This section contains 3 essay type of questions.

ii. Answer ALL the questions.
iii. There is an internal choice for each question.
iv. Write the answer in 8-10 sentences.
v. Each question carries 5 marks.

7) Explain the procedure and precautions of an experiment which proves the presence of
starch in leaves.
(OR)
Explain the procedure and observations of an experiment “Action of Saliva on flour.”

8) Write any five modes of asexual reproductions in living organisms.

(OR)
Explain the cardiac cycle.
9) Draw the pyramid of numbers in a pond ecosystem and explain
(OR)
Draw the labelled diagram of Datura flower and explain essential organs.
 20 E (B)

General Science
Part-II - Biological Science
(English Version)
CLASS – X
Part B
Time: 20 Minutes] [Max. Marks: 10
Instructions:
1. Write the answers to the questions under Part B on the question paper itself and attach
it to the answer book of Part A
2. Each question carries 1 mark
3. Marks will not be awarded in any case of overwriting, rewritten or erased answers.
4. Write the capital letter (A,B,C,D) showing the correct answer for the following questions
in the brackets provided against them.

1. Identify the pair of water soluble vitamins from the following. ( )

(A) Calciferol – Niacin

(B) Retinol – Thiamin

(C) Biotin – Ascorbic acid

(D) Pantothenic acid - Tocoferol

2. Identify the missing product in the following equation ( )

C6H12O6 + 6O2 ? + 6H2O+ Energy

(A) 6O2

(B) 6CO2

(C) Ethanol

(D) Lacticacid

3. Identify the blood vessel which carries deoxygenated blood ( )

(A) Systemic artery

(B) Coronary artery

(C) Pulmonary vein

(D) Pulmonary artery

4. Match the following : ( )

a) Nematoda ( ) i) Flame cells

b) Echinodermata ( ) ii) Renette cells

c) Platyhelmenthes ( ) iii) Metanephridia

d) Mollusca ( ) vi) Water vascular system

(A) a-ii ; b- iv ; c-iii ; d-i

(B) a-iii ; b- ii ; c-i ; d-iv

(C) a-ii ; b- iv ; c-i ; d-iii

(D) a-i ; b- iI ; c-iv ; d-iii

5. Identify the pair of hormones secreted by Pituitary gland ( )

(A) Follicle stimulating hormone; Estrogen

(B) Progesterone; Adrenaline

(C) Adrenaline; Gonadotropin

(D) Follicle stimulating hormone; Vasopressin

6. Identify the correct sentence from the following ( )

(A) Pollen grain is a diploid structure.

(B) Embryosac is a female gametophyte in flowering plants.

(C) In Angiosperms endosperm is formed before fertilization.

(D) Zygote develops into embryo sac

7. Nostrils Pharynx Larynx Bronchus Bronchioles Alveolus Blood

Identify and fill the words in sequence that should be in the above boxes ( )
(A) Trachea, nasal cavity.

(B) Nasal cavity, epiglottis.

(C) Nasal cavity, Trachea.

(D) Epiglottis, Alveoli.

8. Identify the function of kidney from the following. ( )

(A) Respiration

(B) Circulation

(C) Reproduction

(D) Excretion
9. Identify the secondary metabolites of the plants used in the preparation of varnishes in your
daily life. ( )
(A) Resins

(B) Tannins

(C) Latex

(D) Alkaloids

10. Identify the stage of Mitotic cell division shown in the following figure. ( )

(A) Prophase

(B) Metaphase

(C) Anaphase

(D) Telophase
 9th and 10th Classes
Guidelines for the preparation of SOCIAL STUDIES
Question Papers for 9th and 10th Classes
In Social Studies, 80 marks are allotted for Summative Assessment Question
paper.
In Summative Assessment Question paper, there will be two parts, i.e. Part-
A; and Part-B.
Part-A and Part-B contains different types of questions as shown below:

Marks Allotted Allotted

Type of No. of
for each Total Marks Time
Questions Questions
Questions

Part-A Very Short

Answer 06 02 12 TWO
Questions
HOURS
[VSAQ]
Short- Answer THIRTY
06 03 18
Questions [SAQ] MINUTES
Essay type
06
Questions
[Essay] (Internal 05 30 2 hr. 30
choice) Min.

Part-B Multiple Choice 30 Minutes

Questions 20 01 20
[MCQ]

Important Notes:
Prepare the question paper for 80 marks.
The total marks allotted for Part-A is 60.
The allotted time for Part-A is TWO HOURS THIRTY MINUTES
The total marks allotted for Part-B is 20.
The allotted time for Part-B is THIRTY MINUTES
Question paper should be prepared based on the Academic Standards.
The Academic Standards weightage is shown in the following table:
AS Academic

Percent

TOTAL
Marks

Marks
VSAQ

Essay

MCQ
SAQ
No. Standards

age
AS-1 Conceptual 45% 36 2(4) 2(6) 2(10) 1(16) 36
Understanding
AS-2 Reading the text 12.5% 10 --- 1(3) 1(5) 1(2) 10
(given),
understanding and
interpretation
AS-3 Information skills 12.5% 10 1(2) 1(3) 1(5) --- 10
(AS3) :
AS-4 Reflection on 11.25 09 1(2) ---- 1(5) 1(2) 09
contemporary %
issues and
questioning
AS-5 Mapping skills 12.5% 10 1(2) 1(3) 1(5) 10

AS-6 Appreciation and 6.25% 05 1(2) 1(3) ----- 05

Sensitivity
TOTAL 100% 80 M 6Q 6Q 6Q 20 Q 80 M
(12 (18 (30
(20

marks) marks) marks) marks)

The weightage for each academic standard must not be changed.
Question paper should be prepared as per the marks allotted to each
academic standard. There should not be any deviation in this regard.
For Example in the entire question paper for Academic Standard-I i.e.
Conceptual Understanding, 36 marks are allotted for all types of questions.
While preparing questions, there should not be any deviation in the allotted
marks.
PART- A:
The Part-A question Paper contains THREE sections. The First section
contains 6 very short answer type questions. Answer all the questions. Each
question carries 2 marks and the total mark allotted to this section is 12.
The answer for these questions should be limited to 3-4 sentences.
The Second section contains 6 short answer type questions. Answer all the
questions. Each question carries 3 marks and the total marks allotted to this
section are 18. The answer for these questions should be limited to 5-6
sentences.
The Third section contains Six Essay type questions. Each question carries 5
marks and the total marks allotted to this section are 30 Marks. The answer
for these questions should be limited to 8-10 sentences. There is an internal
choice to the questions under this section. The questions given under
internal choice must be with the same academic standard.
PART- B:
The Part-B Paper contains TWENTY Multiple Choice Questions. Each
question carries 1 mark and the total marks allotted to this part are 20.
Marks will not be awarded for OVERWRITING, CORRECTED and ERASED
answers.
Under Part-B the MCQs must be given with different Patterns such as,
Identifying the correct Sentence, incorrect Sentence, incorrect Pair, Correct
Pair, Odd-one, match the following, arranging in sequential order, flow-
charts, missing label etc.
In MCQ questions, options such as All the above, none of the above and both
A and B should not be given.
 General Instructions:
Care should be taken while preparing the question paper. Questions should
be given in such a way that they must be given from all allotted Units/
Lessons / Chapters, but there is no need to give unit/lesson-wise weightage
in the question paper.
All questions in the question paper should be thought provoking, open
ended, analytical. Rote memory questions should be avoided in the
question paper. The question should test the understanding level of the
students.
The questions should be clear with objectivity. There should not be any
ambiguity.
Sub-questions should not be given in the question paper except information
skill (AS-III) Questions.
The length of the answer must be kept in mind while preparing different
types of questions.
While preparing the question paper, avoid giving questions from ‘Improve
your learning’ from the text book as it is. Take those questions by changing
their nature of questioning.
The entire question paper should be prepared in such a way that 50% of
questions should be easy, 30% questions should be average and the
remaining 20% of questions should be of higher order thinking.
 Model Question Paper – 2022
2022
Social Studies
(English Medium)
Part - A and Part - B
Time: 3.00 hrs 10th Class Total Marks: 80

Instructions:

1. Read the questions carefully, understand them and answer.

2. Write the answers for the questions in Part A in the answer
sheet.
3. Attach the Map to Part -A answer sheet
4. Attach Part –B to Part A answer sheet.
5. Part-A consists of I, II and III Sections.
6. Write the answers clearly duly following the instructions given
for each section.

Part - A
Time: 2.30 hrs. Marks: 60
Section – I
6X2 = 12 marks

1. Answer all questions.

2. Answer each question in 3 – 4 sentences.
3. Each question carries 2 marks.

1. Identity the differences between Bhabar and Terai

2. Why did the League of Nations fail?
3. Write any two slogans to create awareness on the importance of voting?
4. Write suggestions for the improvement of Indian foreign policy?
5. Draw the outline map of Telangana.
6. Observe the given table below and answer the following questions.
Net Attendance
IMR per 1000 Literacy Rate Ratio for
State
(2016) (%)(2011) Secondary
Stage (2013-14
Haryana 33 77 61
Himachal 25 84 67
Pradesh
Bihar 38 64 43
a. As per the above table, which state is in a better position in terms of
IMR, Literacy rate, and Net attendance ratio?
b. Give one reason, why Bihar has a low literacy rate?
 Section – II
6X3= 18 marks
1. Answer all questions.
questions.
2. Answer each question in 5 – 6 sentences.
3. Each question carries 3 marks.

7. Read the paragraph and interpret

We often hear people talk of population growth in alarming tones. These
people are often literate and talk about others not benefitting because
there are many people who have to share very few resources
8. What were the problems faced by the people during the partition of
India?
9. Prepare a pamphlet on the ‘prohibition of liquor.’
10. What is the role of technology in Globalization?
11.Observe the given map and answer the questions a, b & c

a) Name the shaded area in the map?

b) Name the state shown with lines.
c) Write any one eastern border sharing country with India.
12.Observe the given table and analyse it
Total Cropped Area - in million hectares
Region 1955-56 2006-07 growth %
Andhra Region 4.2 5.3 20
Telangana Region 4.8 5 5

Section – III
6X5 = 30 Marks
A. Answer all questions
B. There is an internal choice for each question.
C. Answer each question in 8-10 sentences.
D. Each question carries 5 marks.

13.Classify the Himalayan river system and write about any one of the river
systems.
OR
What are the reasons for the rise of regional parties after 1967?
14.What are the differences between the organised sector and the
unorganised sector?
OR
How did the main features of the Gentlemen’s’ Agreement become ‘a
point of distrust ‘between two regions of Telangana and Andhra?

15.Read the given paragraph and interpret?

The coastal environment of Nigeria has been disturbed because of
reckless oil extraction by foreign oil companies. Oil spillage from oil
wells has a major impact on the ecosystem.
OR
The Taliban’s, which took over Afghanistan after the withdrawal of
Soviet troops, similarly established an extremist Islamic state. These
states tried to force all the people to strictly follow the rules laid down in
religious texts.

16.Now a days, in which economic sector, the job opportunities are

increasing? Give reasons?

(OR)
Mention the challenges of present day urbanisation and suggest
remedies.

17.Observe the given graph and analyse

(or)
 Observe the given table and analyse.

Table: 1 Distribution of Workers in India, 2017-2018 (%)

Sector Place of Residence Sex Total workers
Rural Urban Male Female
Agriculture 59.8 6.6 40.7 57.2 44.6
Sector
Industry 20.4 34.3 26.4 17.7 24.4
Sector
Services 19.8 59.1 32.8 25.2 31.0
Sector

18.Locate the following places in the map of India

1. Deccan plateau 2. Thar Desert 3. Malabar coast
4. One west flowing river 5. Dodabetta
(or)
Locate the following places in the world map.
1. Britain 2. Austria 3. India 4. Egypt
5. A country associated with Nazism.
 Part - B
Time: 30. Mins Marks:20
Instructions: 20X1 = 20 Marks
1. Answer all questions.
2. Choose the correct option from the given four Options and write the letter (A or B
or C or D) in CAPITAL LETTER in the brackets.
3. Each question carries 1 mark.
4. Write the answers in the question paper itself.
5. Marks are not given to corrected, dismissed or erased answers.

1. Puna Pact was signed by [ ]

A) Gandhi -Ambedkar B) Gandhi - Nehru
C) Nehru -Ambedkar D) Ambedkar -Vallabhai Patel

2. An idea which promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of

country or tribe. [ ]
A) Democracy B) Secularism
C) Pan Africanism D) Republic

3. ‘The ‘New Deal’ promise was a relief to the victims of [ ]

A) World wars B) Economic depression
C) Partition of India D) Flood affected people

4. An example of MNC [ ]
A) Indian Railways B) BSNL
C) TATA motors D) Indian postal service

Read the given text and answer the following 5 & 6 questions:
Underground water tables have fallen rapidly across the country. Even
in regions with bountiful rains and favourable natural systems of
recharge, the water tables have reached dangerously low levels. As the
water tables decline, farmers have to drill deeper tube wells than before.
The use of diesel/ electricity for irrigation rises accordingly.

5. Drilling deeper tube wells leads to the increase in: [ ]

A) The yield of the crop B) Cultivated area
C) The use of electricity D) Soil fertility
 6. Identify the TRUE statement.
A) The ground water level is good in regions with bountiful rains.
B) There is fall in the water tables where there is favourable natural
system of recharge.
C) There is no change in the underground water tables in India.
D) Farmers do not use ground water to cultivate crops.

7. The present Chief Election Commissioner of India is [ ]

A) Rajiv Kumar B) Susheel Chandra
C) Anup Chandra Pandey D) Y.V. Chandrachud

8. The present President of India is [ ]

A) Ramnath Kovind B) Narendra Modi
C) Draupadi Murmu D) Tamilisai Soundara Rajan

9. Which of the following is NOT an example of public facility [ ]

A) Safe drinking water B) Electricity
C) Education D) Air port

10. These are considered while estimating GDP [ ]

A) The value of all goods and services
B) The value of all final goods and services
C) The value of all goods only
D) The value of all services only

11. The reason for ban in growing sugarcane and banana in Hiware Bazar is
[ ]
A) The prices are very low
B) The production is very less
C) These crops consume more water
D) There is no demand for these crops.

12. Match the following and choose the correct option. [ ]

1) Mega Cities a) Population between 1 million and 10 million
2) Metropolitan b) Population above 10 million
3) Class 1 Towns c) Population between 5000 and 1 Lakh
4) Towns d) Population between 1 lakh and 1 million

A) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d B) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – a
C) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – b D) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – c

13. Most of the unskilled and semi skilled workers are migrating to these
countries [ ]
A) European countries B) USA
C) African countries D) Oil Exporting countries
14. Hill stations - Simla, Nainital, Mussorie are in... [ ]
(A) Greater Himalayas (B) Lesser Himalayas
(C) Shiwaliks (D) Nilgiris

15. The slogan 'do or die' is related to this. [ ]

(A) Non-Cooperation Movement. (B) Quit India Movement
(C) Khilafat Movement (D) Civil disobedience

16. One of the following is not related to Telangana [ ]

A) Gentleman agreement B) Mulki rules
C) Regional council D) Silent valley movement

17. Identify the correctly matched pair [ ]

A) Green peace movement – New york
B) Treaty of Versailles – Paris
C) Sardar Sarovar dam – Ganga River
D) Non Alignment Movement – London

18. Arrange the following in the chronological order [ ]

1. Direct Action Day
2. Quit India Movement
3. Individual Satyagraha
4. Cripps Mission

A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,3,4,2
C) 3,4,2,1 D) 2,3,1,4

19. Among the following, choose the correct statement [ ]

A) The President of U.S.A. is elected directly by the people
B) The President of India is elected directly by the people
C) Indian people have dual citizenship
D) Concurrent list cannot be amended by the states.

20. The reform that was not related to Jawaharlal Nehru [ ]

A) Land reforms B)Abolition of privy purse
C) Agricultural cooperatives D) Local self government