Test Series Date 04 Nov.

2023 (Saturday) Question Paper

Q1: Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Writing is often seen as a hallmark of civilized society.
Statement II: Sanskrit was the lingua franca of the country until Prakrit emerged.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q2: Consider the following pairs:

(Brahmanic Literature) (Main theme)
1. Srauta Sutras Big Public Sacrifices
2. Grihya Sutras Geometry
3. Sulva Sutras Domestic rituals

How many of the above pairs is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q3: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Indus Valley Civilization had no knowledge in hydraulic engineering.
Statement II: Indus people were first in the world to use flush toilet.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q4: Consider the following pairs:

1. Gold: Iran
2. Silver: Baluchistan
3. Copper: Central Asia

How many of the above pair is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q5: Consider the following statements regarding Harappan society and choose the correct option:
a) Condition of women was good in Harappan society.
b) Harappan society was matrilineal.
c) Only women of the Indus Valley were very fond of ornaments.
d) All of the above
Q6: Consider the following statements regarding the Zend Avesta:
1. This text is direct evidence that the early home of the Aryans was in the Indian subcontinent.
2. The Zend Avesta is an Iranian text of Zoroastrianism.
3. This text shows linguistic similarity with the Vedas.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q7: Consider the following statements regarding the economic development during the Later Vedic Period:
1. Monetization of economy was missing.
2. Niska and Satamana were used as medium of exchange.
3. Regular taxation machinery emerges.
4. Bali and Bhaga were the taxes in this period.

How many of the above pairs is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All of the above

Q8: Consider the following statements regarding Mahavira’s theory on Karma and Transmigration of Soul:
1. Mahavira believed in karma and the transmigration of soul.
2. The influx of Asrav leads to cycle of birth and death.
3. 'Samvara' could be achieved by following the five vows.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q9: The term ‘basadis’ refers to which of the following?

(a) Jain temples
(b) A type of sculptures
(c) Short literary stories
(d) Buddhist robe

Q10: Consider the following pairs regarding the great event of Buddha life associated with Symbols:
1. Birth: Lotus
2. Great renunciation: Bull
3. Nirvana: Bodhi tree
4. First Sermon: Dharmachakra or wheel

How many of the above pairs is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All of the above

Q11: Consider the following statements:

1. Buddhism believed in the existence of soul.
2. Buddha accepted 'karma' and 'transmigration'.
3. Buddhism does not accept authority of the Vedas

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q12: The culture associated with the pottery of Mahajanapada period was
a) Red Ware
b) Northern Black Polished Ware
c) Black and Red Ware
d) Painted Grey Ware

Q13: The capital of Magadha during the Pre-Mauryan period was/were:

1. Rajagriha
2. Pataliputra
3. Vaishali

How many of the above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q14: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Bindusara was a follower of the Ajivika sect.
Statement II: Ajivika fortuneteller, Pingalavatsa was at Bindusara’s court.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q15: Consider the following statements regarding the Mauryan Edicts:

1. The edicts were inscribed on rocks, pillars and caves.
2. The major rock edicts were placed along the borders of the empire.
3. The twelve major rock edicts covered the history of Kalinga War.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above
Q16: Consider the following statements regarding Ashoka Dhamma:
1. Ashoka Dhamma was inspired by the teachings of the Buddha.
2. Dhamma mahamattas were appointed who went from place-to-place teaching people about dhamma.
3. Ashoka inscribed the message of dhamma on rocks and pillars.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q17: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Kanishka supported Buddhism.
Statement II: During his reign, Third Buddhist Council was held.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q18: Consider the following statements regarding Buddhist monuments during the Satavahana period:
1. Chaityas were the place where monks lived.
2. Stupa was the place where relics of Buddha or Buddhist monks were placed.
3. Viharas was the place where monks worshiped.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q19: Consider the following statements:

1. Korkai was the main port of the Pandyas.
2. The Pandyas ruled from Vengi.
3. Korkai is referred to in the Periplus as Kolkoi.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q20: Consider the following statements regarding the Gandhara Art:

1. The images of Buddha resembled the Greek God Apollo.
2. The Buddha of Gandhara art is stout.
3. Realistic manner of human body is presented.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q21: Consider the following statements regarding Lomus Rishi caves:

Statement I: The cave is located at Barabar Hills, Gaya.
Statement II: Ashoka’s grandson Dashratha donated the cave for the Ajivika sect.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q22: Consider the following statements regarding the Milind Panho:

Statement I: It is a post-Mauryan literature.
Statement II: It gives information about how northwest region was controlled by the Indo-Greek.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q23: Consider the following statements regarding Samudragupta’s lyrist type coins:
1. In this type of coins, he is seen playing Vina or Lute.
2. On the reverse side of the coin, image of goddess Saraswati is seen.
3. This type of coins had traces of foreign influence.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q24: Consider the following statements about Fahien and choose the incorrect option:
a) He visited during the reign of Chandragupta II.
b) His main object in coming to India was to get the Buddhist Books of Discipline.
c) He had given a detailed account of Chandragupta II and his administration.
d) He came to India by the land route and went back by the sea route.

Q25: Consider the following statements regarding the social condition as described by Hiuen-Tsang:
1. According to him, Buddhism was popular in all parts of India.
2. According to him, untouchables were given better treatment.
3. He described the Indians as hot-tempered.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above
Q26: Consider the following statements with respect to the local self-government in the Chola Empire:
1. The affairs of the villages were managed by various committees assigned with different classes.
2. Elections were held for the membership of these committees in which only the propertied class voted.
3. There were clearly laid down qualifications and disqualification for the potential candidates.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q27: Consider the following pairs regarding the Dravida style of temple architecture:

Term Meaning
1. Mandapa : Pillared hall
2. Vimana : Storeys on top of central shrine
3. Gopuram : Lofty gates in the outer wall

How many of the above pairs is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q28: Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Tirumurai’:

Statement I: It is written in Tamil.
Statement II: It is related to the Alvar sect of bhakti movement.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q29: Consider the following statements regarding ‘Ziauddin Barani’:

Statement I: He wrote the book ‘Tarikh-i-Firozshahi’.
Statement II: His writing is an important source to understand various actions of Allauddin Khilji.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q30: In the context of medieval India, ‘Khuts’ and ‘Muqaddams’ refer to which of the following?
(a) Revenue officials
(b) Local landlords
(c) Low born officials
(d) None of the above

Q31: Which one of the followings is NOT the characteristics of ‘Iqta System’?
(a) Iqta was a revenue collection system.
(b) Siyasatnama was the source of information for Iqta system.
(c) Revenue from Iqta was directly deposited in Sultan’s account.
(d) Muqti was supported to maintain troops out of the revenue collected from Iqta.

Q32: Which among the following is associated with Krishnadeva Raya?

a) Nagalapur
b) Vittalaswamy
c) Hazara Ramaswamy
d) All of the above

Q33: Consider the following statements:

1. Artillery was used first time in the Indian subcontinent in the battle between the Bahamani kingdom and
Vijayanagara.
2. The struggle between the Bahamani kingdom and Vijayanagara Empire for the Tungabhadra doab had no
historical precedence.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q34: Consider the following statements with respect to Ramananda:

1. He was a Nirguna bhakti saint.
2. Ravidas and Kabir were among his disciples.
3. He was a bit of a social reformer.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q35: Consider the following pairs with reference to Sufi movement:

Terms Meaning
1. Khanqah Hospice
2. Murids Disciples
3. Wali Successor
4. Silsila Order

How many of the above pairs is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All of the above
Answer: d.

Q36: Consider the following statements regarding the Mughal Emperor Babur:
1. Gunpowder was introduced into India with the arrival of Babur.
2. Babur introduced in India the cannon and muskets.
3. Babur first used the canon and muskets in the battle of Bajaur.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q37: In the context of Sur Empire, the term ‘Shahna’ refers to which of the following?
(a) Custodian of a sarai
(b) Revenue official
(c) An officer concerned with law & order at the provincial level
(d) None of the above

Q38: Consider the following statements with respect to the Mansabdari system:
1. The Mansabdari system, which was perfected by Akbar, originated during the Delhi Sultanate period.
2. In this system, rank of an official could be denoted with a number.
3. Rankings in Mansabdari system were divided into two parts, Zat and Sawar rank.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q39: Consider the following pairs:

Monument Kingdom
1. Ibrahim Roza Ahmednagar
2. Gol Gumbaz Bijapur
3. Char Minar Bijapur

How many of the above pairs is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q40: Consider the following pairs:

Term Type of peasant
1. Muzarian Tenants
2. Kamin Landless peasants
3. Khudkasht Peasant propriety

How many of the above pairs is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above
Q41: Consider the following statements with respect to agriculture during the 17th century:
1. Crops, which had industrial purposes, were charged higher land revenue rate.
2. Two new crops, tobacco and maize, were introduced in the seventeenth century.
3. Bengal was a major centre for the cultivation of silk.
4. Fruits were imported from Samarqand and Bokhara in central Asia.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All of the above

Q42: ‘Madad-i-maash’ type of land grant were given to which of the following class of individuals during the
Mughal period?
(a) Scholars and theologians
(b) Retired soldiers
(c) Local Zamindars
(d) Princes

Q43: In the medieval administration, ‘Qanungo’ was associated with which of the following?
(a) Spying
(b) Royal workshop
(c) Land revenue administration
(d) Law & order

Q44: The term ‘taccavi’ refers to which of the following?

(a) Agricultural loans
(b) A type of coin
(c) A type of tax on sale of good
(d) A type of crop

Q45: Consider the following statements with respect to the Maratha administration:
1. Shivaji’s Ashtapradhan were led by the Peshwa.
2. Maratha sardars and chiefs were given land revenue grants called ‘saranjam’.
3. The office of Peshwa was a Maratha innovation.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q46: Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Chauth’ and ‘Sardeshmukhi’:
Statement I: These were new types of taxes imposed by the Aurangzeb in the Deccan.
Statement II: It was imposed by the Marathas on the areas outside their kingdom or ‘Swarajya’.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Q47: In the context of medieval society, the term ‘pahis’ refers to which of the following?
(a) Migrant peasants
(b) Wandering bards
(c) Artisans
(d) Village watchmen

Q48: Consider the following statement regarding Amara-Nayaka System:

1. The word “Amara” had both Sanskrit and Persian resemblance.
2. It was a major political innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire.
3. Many features of this system were derived from the Iqta system of the Delhi Sultanate.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q49: Which of the following individuals produced literary works/s that give us direct information about the
Vijayanagara Empire?
1. Ferishta
2. Nicolo Conti
3. Abdur Razzaq
4. Nuniz

How many of the above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All of the above

Q50: Consider the following statements regarding the economic condition during Alauddin Khilji period:
1. Land was measured first and then the revenue was fixed.
2. By this, he was able to record the amount of revenue collected.
3. Kharaj was the house tax collected during the Sultanate period.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q51: Consider the following statements regarding Nadir Shah:

Statement I: He invaded Delhi during the reign of Muhammad Shah.
Statement II: Nadir Shah was the ruler of Ghazni area in Afghanistan.

Which of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, and Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is correct

Q52: Consider the following statements with respect to the state of Hyderabad:
1. Nizam ul Mulk Asaf Jah, a former leading Mughal noble, founded Hyderabad.
2. The head of the state was called ‘Sultan’.
3. The Carnatic Subah of Mughal Empire was directly under the control of Hyderabad state.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q53: Consider the following statement regarding Murshid Quli khan:

1. He was the founder of the new state, Bengal.
2. He transferred his capital to Murshidabad.
3. He transferred large parts of jagir lands into khalisa lands.
4. He failed to granted taccavi to the poor cultivators.

How many of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All of the above

Q54: Consider the following statements regarding Saadat Khan:

1. He was the founder of independent state of Awadh.
2. He implemented the first major revenue settlement in Awadh in over a century in 1723.
3. He continued the Jagir system.
4. He was succeeded by Safdar Jang.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All of the above

Q55: Consider the following statements regarding Tipu’s achievement and choose the incorrect option:
a) He planted the Tree of Liberty at Mysore
b) He was also a pioneer in introducing sericulture.
c) He set up Jacobin Club in 1797 at Seringapatam.
d) He allowed himself to be called Citizen Tipu.

Q56: Consider the following pairs:

(Maratha Sardars) (Centre of Power)
1. Holkar: Indore
2. Gaekwad: Gwalior
3. Bhonsle: Nagpur
4. Sindhia: Baroda

How many of the above pairs is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None of the above

Q57: Consider the following statements regarding Ranjit Singh:

1. He organised alliance with Sikh Misls and repelled the invasion of Zaman Shah.
2. No Europeans were recruited in his army.
3. British signed Treaty of Friendship with him in 1809.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Q58: Consider the following statements and choose the incorrect option:
a) Cochin was the early Portuguese capital in India.
b) Portuguese ended the trade monopoly of Arabs.
c) Portuguese established their first factory at Cochin.
d) Portuguese captured Goa from the ruler of Bijapur.

Q59: Consider the following statements and choose the incorrect option:
a) Dutch introduced printing press in India.
b) Dutch used to export cotton cloths, silk, saltpetre and opium from Bengal.
c) They shattered the Portuguese commercial monopoly in India.
d) The Dutch minted a gold coin named Pagoda.

Q60: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Captain William Hawkins was the ambassador of King James I.
Statement II: He was successful in getting permission to set up factory at Surat from Jahangir.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct

Q61: Which among the following settlements became the headquarter of French East India Company?
a) Surat
b) Masulipattnam
c) Chandernagore
d) Pondicherry

Q62: Consider the following statements with respect to the Anglo-French rivalry in India during 18th century:
1. It was fought mainly in south India.
2. Their rivalry was often fueled by the concerns of European politics.
3. Naval power played an important role in this struggle.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above

Q63: Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘dastak’:

1. It was issued by the Mughal Badshah that fully exempted the trade of East India Company and its officers from
the custom duty.
2. It was misused by the corrupt officials of the company.
3. Misuse of dastak was a major cause of irritation between the Bengal Nawabs and the Company.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above

Q64: Consider the following statement regarding the Treaty of Alinagar:

1. The Treaty of Alinagar was signed between Robert Clive and Mir Qasim.
2. All British goods that passed through Bengal would be exempt from duties.
3. The act allowed nawab to collect revenue from Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above

Q65: Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the features of Subsidiary Alliance?
(a) An allying state had to accept a permanent stationing of a British contingent within his territory.
(b) An allying state had to accept a British resident in his court.
(c) An allying state accepted British control over its inter-state relations.
(d) Company was legally allowed to interfere in the internal affairs of the allying state.

Q66: Which of the following states were annexed by Lord Dalhousie on the pretext of misgovernance?
(a) Awadh
(b) Nagpur
(c) Jhansi
(d) All the above

Q67: Consider the following statements with respect to the Permanent Settlement System:
1. It was introduced by Warren Hastings by ending the system of Diarchy.
2. It was introduced in all the three Presidencies of East India Company.
3. Under the Permanent Settlement, a zamindar was recognised as the owner of entire land under his zamindari.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above
Answer: a.

Q68: Which of the following were/was among the reasons for the introduction of Ryotwari system:
1. Absence of a recognizable class of zamindars in the newly conquered areas.
2. Unwillingness to disturb the existing state of affairs.
3. Bitter lessons learnt from the Permanent settlement.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above

Q69: Consider the following statement regarding Mahalwari system:

1. The responsibility for the collection of land revenue lay on the village Headman.
2. This system had elements both from Zamindari as well as Ryotwari systems.
3. This system was found to be less exploitative.
4. It was introduced in the North West Frontier, Agra, Punjab, Gangetic Valley and Central Province
.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) All four

Q70: The Regulating Act of 1773 is called the first step of Government Control in India. Consider the following
statement:
1. The Directors of the company were elected for five years.
2. There were provisions in the act for stopping corruption.
3. India’s First Supreme Court was established at Fort William at Calcutta.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above

Q71: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Charter Act of 1813 empowered the British-Indian government to pursue its vision of a
transformed Indian society and culture.
Statement II: Industrial capitalism drove the British to convert India into a captive market for their products.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct

Q72: Which of the following acts introduced competitive examinations for all appointments to the Civil Services
of the British Indian government?
(a) Charter Act 1853
(b) Charter Act of 1833
(c) India Council Act of 1909
(d) Government of India Act, 1919

Q73: Consider the following pairs:

Institutions Founder
1. Calcutta Madrasah Warren Hastings
2. Banaras Sanskrit College Lord Cornwallis
3. Haileybury College Lord Wellesley

How many of the above pair/(s) are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None of the above

Q74: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Macaulay argued that providing education based on Sanskrit and Arabic in India helps for India’s
development.
Statement II: The Minute is based on an idea that English education is not just superior in ‘science’, but would also
inculcate superior morals.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct

Q75: Consider the following statements in the context of ‘Indigo Movement’:

1. Peasants refused to pay revenue in protest of forced indigo cultivation.
2. Servants of Indigo producers were socially boycotted.
3. The intellectual class of Bengal did not support this movement.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above

Q76: The Government of India Act 1858, known as the act for the Good Government of India: Consider the
following statement:
1. Abolition of Board of Control and Court of Directors.
2. Governor General of India was given the additional post of Viceroy.
3. Charles Wood was made first secretary of State.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above

Q77: Consider the following statement regarding the factors, which gave rise to Reform Movements and choose.
the correct option:
a) Presence of colonial government on Indian soil
b) Religious and Social Ills
c) Depressing Position of Women
d) All the above

Q78: Consider the following statements with respect to Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
1. He wrote ‘Gift to Monotheists’ in Persian language.
2. He started ‘Atmiya Sabha’ for social and religious reforms.
3. He argued that the important ancient texts of Hinduism preached monotheism.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above

Q79: Consider the following statements regarding Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
Statement I: He rejected the Vedanta philosophy.
Statement II: According to him, Vedanta philosophy was based on reason.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct

Q80: Consider the following statements with respect to the Young Bengal movement:
1. It was founded by Henry Vivian Derozio.
2. It was more liberal than the Brahmo Samaj movement.
3. They did not take up political and economic questions.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above

Q81: Consider the following statement regarding Henry Vivian Derozio:

1. Derozio established Academic Association and Society.
2. He published Journals like Hesperus, Calcutta Literary Gazette and East India
3. Henry Vivian Derozio is called first nationalist poet of modern India.
4. Akshay Kumar Datta, Rajendra Lal Mitra, Tarachandra Chakravarti and Pyarelal Mitra were other prominent
members of Young Bengal Movement.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All Four

Q82: Consider the following statements regarding Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar:

Statement I: He evolved a new technique to teach Sanskrit.
Statement II: He was an advocate of widow remarriage.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct

Q83: Consider the following statement regarding Keshav Chandra Sen and choose the incorrect option:
a) He promoted female education and inter caste marriages.
b) Keshav Chandra Sen gave a cosmopolitan outlook to the Samaj.
c) Devendra Nath Tagore persuaded the Government to enact the Brahmo Marriage Act.
d) Civil Marriage Act or Native Marriage Act legalised marriage according to Brahmo rites.

Q84: Who among the following established the ‘Tatvabodhini Sabha’?

(a) Debendranath Tagore
(b) Ravindranath Tagore
(c) Henry Vivian Derozio
(d) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Q85: Consider the following pairs:

Reforms organisation Region
1. Paramhansa Mandali Maharashtra
2. Widow Remarriage Association Maharashtra
3. Parsi Law Association Maharashtra

How many of the above pair/(s) are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None of the above

Q86: Consider the following pairs:

Revolt/Movement Place
1. Moplah revolt Kerala
2. Pabna Revolt Bihar
3. Eka Movement Bengal
4. Birsa Munda revolt Awadh

How many of the above pair/(s) are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None of the above

Q87: Which among the following were targeted by the civilian population during the revolt of 1857?
1. Law courts
2. Money lender
3. Thanas
4. New Zamindars
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All Four

Q88: After the 1857 rebellion, the British-Indian army was reorganized to make it less likely to mutiny again,
which of the following changes were made to the British-Indian army:
1. The proportion of Europeans in the force was increased.
2. Crucial branches of the armed forces were exclusively manned by the European hands.
3. To reduce the dominance of Awadh and Bengal soldiers in the army, the British began recruiting from previously
untapped areas through regular recruitment fairs (bharti melas).

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None of the above

Q89: Which of the following was/were among the causes for ruination of artisans and craftsmen during the
colonial period:
1. One-way free trade with Britain
2. Export of raw materials from India
3. Disappearance of Indian rulers and their courts
4. Arrival of new technologies and modern industries from Britain

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All Four

Q90: Which of the following events took place during the reign of Viceroy Lord Lytton?
1. Ilbert Bill Controversy
2. Passage of Vernacular Press Act
3. Delhi Durbar

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None of the above

Q91: The extremists method of ‘passive resistance’ did not include

1. Refusal to co-operate with the government
2. Sending petitions to the government
3. Boycott of government service, courts, schools and colleges
4. Refusal to pay rents to the zamindars

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All Four
Q92: Consider the following pairs:
(Freedom fighters) (Region)
1. Ajit Singh Punjab
2. Lala Lajpat Rai Bombay
3. Harisarvottam Rao Central Province

How many of the above pair/(s) are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None of the above

Q93: Which of the following were/was among the leaders of Ahrar Movement, a radical nationalist movement
among the Muslim youth?
1. Hakim Ajmal Khan
2. Aga Khan
3. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None of the above

Q94: Consider the following statements with respect to the Government of India Act, 1919:
1. It came in the wake of the scheme for constitutional reforms, popularly known as the Montague-Chelmsford
reforms.
2. It introduced the concept of diarchy in the provincial governments.
3. It introduced a bicameral legislature at the centre.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None of the above

Q95: Consider the following pairs:

(Satyagraha) (Opponent)
1. Ahmedabad Mill Strike Capitalist
2. Champaran Satyagraha Indigo Planters
3. Kheda Satyagraha Government

How many of the above pair/(s) are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None of the above

Q96: Consider the following statements with respect to the Hindustan Republican Association:
1. It advocated for an armed revolution.
2. It’s all members were prosecuted by the government in the Kakori Conspiracy Case.
3. This organisation later changes its name to ‘Hindustan Socialist Republican Association.’

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None of the above

Q97: Nehru Report, which was a proposed constitutional scheme for India, consisted of which of the following
principals?
1. Dominion Status
2. Unitary Structure
3. Adult Franchise
4. Separate Electorate

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All Four

Q98: Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘Quit India’ Movement:
1. It was started due to the failure of Cripps Mission in solving the constitutional deadlock.
2. There was much violence by the masses during the movement.
3. Quit India movement was surprisingly short lived yet it demonstrated the depth that nationalistic feeling had
reached in the country.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None of the above

Q99: Consider the following proposal of Rajagopalachari Formula and choose the incorrect option:
a) Muslim League to endorse Congress demand for independence.
b) Only the Muslim majority areas in the North-West India to decide by a plebiscite whether to form a separate
sovereign state.
c) League to cooperate with Congress in forming a provisional government at centre.
d) In case of acceptance of partition, agreement to be made jointly for safeguarding defence, commerce,
communications, etc.

Q100: Consider the following statements regarding Cabinet Mission Plan:

Statement I: It was only an attempt to decide the modalities of the transfer of power to the new government for
the question of complete independence was already settled.
Statement II: It sought to give concrete shape to the offer made by the Cripps Mission.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct