67c92bd3caf755385db0007a_##_Practice Test 03 || Test Papers (PCM)
67c92bd3caf755385db0007a_##_Practice Test 03 || Test Papers (PCM)
PRACTICE TEST - 03
DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 09/03/2025 M.MARKS : 300
Topics Covered
Physics: Kinetic Theory & Thermodynamics (Complete Chapter), Thermal Properties of Matter (Complete
Chapter), Oscillations (Complete Chapter), Waves (Complete Chapter)
Chemistry: Hydrocarbon (Complete Chapter), Structure of Atom (Complete Chapter), Coordination
Compounds (Complete Chapter)
Mathematics: Sequence and Series (Complete Chapter), Binomial theorem (Complete Chapter), Indefinite
Integration (Complete Chapter), Definite Integration (Complete Chapter)
General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II (Chemistry),
Section-III (Mathematics) and having 25 questions in each Section in which first 20 questions are Objective Type and
last 5 questions are integer type with answers ranging from ‘0’ to ‘999’ where answer needs to be rounded off to the
nearest integer and all 25 questions are compulsory.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR) .
[1]
Section-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 6. For a particle executing SHM, a graph is plotted
1. Two rods of the same length and areas of cross- between its kinetic energy and potential energy
section A1 and A2 have their ends at the same against its displacement d. Which one of the
temperature, K1 and K2 are the thermal following represents these correctly?
conductivities of the two rods. The rate of flow of (graphs are schematic and not drawn to scale)
heat is same in both rods if
A1 K1
(1)
A2 K 2 (1)
A1 K 2
(2)
A2 K1
(3) A1 A2 K1K 2
(4) A1K12 A2 K 22
(2)
[2]
10. Frequency of a particle executing SHM is 10 Hz. (1) 3 103 C1
The particle is suspended from a vertical spring. At
the highest point of its oscillation, the spring is (2) 10 3 C 1
unstretched. Maximum speed of the particle is (3) 2 10 3 C 1
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
(4) 10 4 C 1
(1) 2 m / s (2) m / s
1 1 17. The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper
(3) m/s (4) m / s
2 is 9 times than that of steel. In the composite
cylindrical bar shown in the figure, what will be
11. For an ideal gas, keeping the temperature constant, the temperature at the junction of copper and steel?
the pressure of gas is decreased by 20%. The
percentage change in volume is
(1) increases by 20%
(2) decreases by 20%
(3) increases by 25%
(4) decreases by 25% (1) 75°C (2) 67°C
(3) 25°C (4) 33°C
12. A vessel contains 32g of O2 at a temperature T.
The pressure of the gas is p. An identical vessel 18. A sphere made of iron is rotating about its
containing 4g of H 2 at a temperature 2T has a diameter as axis, = 1 × 10–5 °C–1. If the
pressure of temperature rises by 100°C, the percentage
(1) 8p (2) 4P increase in its moment of inertia is:
(1) 0.1%
p
(3) p (4) (2) 0.2%
8
(3) 0.5%
(4) 0.002%
13. Two moles of hydrogen are mixed with n moles
of helium. The root mean square speed of gas
19. A rectangular body has maximum wavelength m
molecules in the mixture is 2 times the speed of
at 2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at 3000K
sound in the mixture. Then n is.
will be
(1) 3 (2) 2
3 2
(3) 1.5 (4) 2.5 (1) m (2) m
2 3
14. Which two of the given transverse waves will give 16 81
(3) m (4) m
stationary waves when get superimposed? 81 16
A. z1 acos kx t
20. A particle of mass m is executing SHM about its
B. z2 acos kx t mean position. The total energy of the particle at
C. z3 acos ky t given instant is
(1) A and B (2) A and C 2 mA2 22 mA2
(1) (2)
(3) B and C (4) Any two T2 T2
42 mA2 82 mA2
15. Two tuning forks, A and B, produce notes of (3) (4)
frequencies 258 HZ and 262 Hz. An unknown note T2 T2
sounded with A produces certain beats. When the
same note is sounded with B, the beat frequency Integer Type Questions
gets doubled. The unknown frequency is 21. An ideal gas having initial pressure P, volume V
(1) 250 Hz (2) 252 Hz and temperature T is allowed to expand
(3) 254 Hz (4) 256 Hz adiabatically until its volume becomes 5.66V,
while its temperature falls to T / 2 . Degree of
16. The density of a substance decreases from freedom, the gas molecules do have ....... Given
10 103 kg m3 to 7×103 kg m–3 on heating it from that 5.66
0.4
2
0°C to 100°C. The coefficient of linear expansion
of the substance is:
[3]
22. An ideal gas is taken through a cyclic V A 2 103 m3 ,VD 5 103 m3 . In process AB,
thermodynamic process through four steps. The
600J of heat is added to the system and in process
amounts of heat involved in these steps are
BC, 200J of heat is added to the system. The
Q1 5960 J, Q2 5585J, Q3 2980J and
change in internal energy (in Joule) of the system
Q4 3645J, respectively. The corresponding in process AC would be
quantities of work involved are W1 2200J ,
W2 825J,W3 1100J and W4 respectively.
The efficiency (in percentage) of the cycle is
k 1.8 . Find the value of k.
Section-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions 3
(3) Co H 2O 3 en
26. Identify product [A],[B] and [C] in the following
reaction sequence. 2
(4) Zn en 2
CH3 C CH A B C
Pd/C 3 (i) O
H2 (ii) Zn, H 2O
29. The correct order of reactivity of alkene towards
(1) A : CH3CH2CH3 , an electrophile is mentioned in:
(1) CH 2 CH Cl CH 2 CH OCH3
B : CH3CHO, C : HCHO
(2) CH 2 CHCl CH 2 CCl 2
O
|| (3) CH 2 CH 2 CH3 CH CH 2
(2) A : CH 2 CH 2 , [B]: H3C C CH3 , (4) CH 2 CH OCH3 CH 2 CH CH 2 OH
[C]:HCHO
(3) A : CH3 CH CH2 , B : CH3CHO, 30. If the value of n l is more than 3 and less
C : CH3CH2OH than 6, then what will be the possible number of
(4) A : CH3 CH CH2 , B : CH3CHO, orbitals?
(1) 6 (2) 9
C : HCHO (3) 10 (4) 13
27. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 31. Which of the following complex ions violates the
2s orbital is: EAN rule?
1 h 4
(1) (2) 0 (1) Pt NH3 6 (2) Fe CO 5
2 2
h h 4 2
(3)
2
(4) 2
2
(3) Fe CN 6 (4) Mn H 2O 6
28. Which one of the following has an optical 32. In the molecule 3,3 -dimethylhexane, carbon
isomer?
number two is :
2
(1) Zn en NH3 2 (1) primary (2) secondary
3
(3) tertiary (4) quaternary
(2) Co en 3
[4]
33. The order of filling of electrons in the orbitals of (1) A is meso 2,3- butanediol formed by syn
an atom will be addition.
(1) 3d,4s,4p,4d,5s (2) A is meso 2,3- butanediol formed by anti
(2) 4s,3d,4p,5s,4d addition.
(3) 4s,4p,3d,4d,5s (3) A is a racemic mixture of d and l and 2,3-
butanodiol formed by anti addition.
(4) 3d,4p,4s,4d,5s
(4) A is a racemic mixture of d and l and 2,3-
butanodiol formed by syn addition.
34. The stability constant of the complexes formed
by a metal ion M 2 with NH3 ,CN ,H2O and 39. Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to
light of wavelength 45 nm (Plancks constant
en are of the order 1011 ,1027 ,108 and 1015
h 6.63 1034 Js; speed of light
respectively. Then 1
c 3 10 ms
8
(1) en is the strongest ligand
(2) CN is the strongest ligand (1) 6.67 1011 (2) 4.42 1015
(3) The strength of the ligands has no (3) 4.42 1018 (4) 6.67 1015
relationship with given values
3
(4) All ligands are equally strong 40. In the complex ions, Fe C2O4 3 and
3
35. The ozonolysis product of 1,2-dimethyl benzene Co en the coordination number of Fe
3
is/are; and Co may be 6 due to:
(1) Only CH3 C C CH3
|| || (1) Both oxalate ion C 2 O 42 and ethane- 1, 2 -
O O diamine are bidentate ligands
(2) CH3 C C H CH3 C C CH3 (2) Only ethane- 1, 2 -diamine is bidentate
|| || || ||
O O O O ligands
(3) Oxalate ion is monodentate ligand.
(3) H C C H CH3 C C CH3 (4) None of the above
|| || || ||
O O O O
41. The major product of the following reaction is:
(4) CH3 C C CH3 H C C H CH3 C C H
|| || || || || ||
O O O O O O
Cold
Alkaline KMnO4
38.
A,
(4)
[5]
42. Radius of Bohrs orbit of hydrogen atom is 45. For the total number of electron in Argon, where
(1) 0.24 Å (2) 0.48 Å the value of l m 0
(3) 0.53 Å (4) 1.06 Å (1) 12 (2) 10
(3) 8 (4) 6
43. The correct order of intensity of colors of the
compounds is: Integer Type Questions
2 2
(1) NiCl4 2 Ni H2O 6 Ni CN 4
46. The number of geometrical isomers possible in
triamminetrinitrocobalt (III) is X and in
2 2
(2) NiCl4 2 Ni CN 4 Ni H 2O 6 trioxalatochromate (III) is Y . Then the value of
X Y is ____.
2 2 2
(3) Ni H2O 6 NiCl4 Ni CN 4
47. Consider the following chemical reaction.
2 2 2
(4) Ni CN 4 NiCl4 Ni H 2O 6 HC
1) Red hot Fe tube, 873K
CH Product
2) CO,HCl,AlCl3
44. When the given compound is subjected The number of sp2 hybridized carbon atoms(s)
to chlorination and Bromination, what are the present in the product is
major product, A and B respectively.
48. Based on Heisenberg's uncertainty principle, the
uncertainty in the velocity of the electron to be
found within an atomic nucleus of
diameter 1015 m is _______ × 109 ms1 (nearest
integer)
[Given : mass of electron 9.11031 kg ,
Plank's constant h 6.626 1034 Js ] (Value
of 3.14 )
3
49. Fe CN should be an inner orbital
(1) & 6
complex. Ignoring the pairing energy, the value
of crystal field stabilization energy for this
complex is (-)_______ 0 . (Nearest integer)
(2) &
50. How many of the following compounds can be
prepared in good yield by Wurtz reaction?
a) Isobutane
(3) & b) Isopentane
c) Neopentane
d) 2,5–Dimethylhexane
e) Butane
(4) & f) Pentane
g) 2,3-Dimethylpentane
Section-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions
x2 x 1
x 1 (2) tan 1 C
51. The value of dx , is x
x 1 x3 x 2 x x2 x 1
(3) 2tan 1 C
x 1 x
(1) 2tan 1 C
x (4) None of these
[6]
52. In an arithmetic progression if sum of 20 terms is 59. Let f be a continuous function satisfying the
790 and sum of 10 terms is 145, then S15 – S5 is equation
(when Sn denotes sum of n terms)
0 f t dt 0t f x t dt e
x x x
(1) 400 (2) 395 1,
(3) 385 (4) 405 then the value of e15 f 15 is equal to
(1) 7 (2) 14
n 1
If I m, n 1 x
1 m 1
53. x dx , then (3) 21 (4) 28
0
I(9, 14) + I(10,13) is equal to
(1) I(7, 11) 60. The sum of 50 terms of the series
3 5 7
(2) I(9, 13) 2 2 is
(3) I(11, 15) 1 1 2
2 2
1 22 32
(4) I(8, 11) 100 150
(1) (2)
17 17
54. The value of 200 50
(3) (4)
log x 2 tan 1 log x 1 tan 1 log x 51 17
1 log x
2
dx is
11x 18
x 61. The value of dx is equal to
(1) c x11 6 12
x 2x 3
1 log x
2
5
x
(2) c 12
2x 3 6
tan 1 log x 6 x
(1) c
(3) x tan (log x) + c–1 5 x10
(4) log x (tan–1 (log x)) + c 5
(2)
3 x 12
2x 3 6
c
3
20 20
Ci 1 k
5 x10
If 20 , then k is equal to
C 20 C
55.
21 5
i 1 i 1
(1) 400
i
(2) 50
(3)
5
3 12
x 2x 3 6 c
(3) 200 (4) 100
5 x 2x 3
12
(4) c
3 x2
If x 2 f x 3 x 2 t 2 f t dt
2 2 x
56.
0
then f (2) = ?
9 9 62. If A is a square matrix and e A is defined as
(2)
1 f x g x
(1)
2 2 A2 A3
eA 1 A ,
7 7 2! 3! 2 g x f x
(3) (4)
2 2 x x
where A , 0 x 1 and I is a unit matrix.
x x
57. Let a, b, c, d R+, such that a + b + c + d = 11. If
the maximum value of a5b3c2d is 3750β, then the f x
value of β is:
Then g x
dx is
(1) 90 (2) 110
(3) 55 (4) 108 (1) e x 1 cosec1 e x C
58. If the 5th, 6th and 7th term of the binomial expansion (2) e2 x 1 sec1 e x C
of 1 x
2 n 4
are in A.P. Then greatest binomial
(3)
2
cosec 1 e x C
x
2 n 4 e e x
coefficient in the expansion of 1 x is
(1) 16
C8 (2) 14
C7 (4)
e e x
2
x
sec1 e x C
12 13
(3) C6 (4) C7
[7]
63. If ln a, ln b, ln c are in AP and ln a – ln 2b, (3) does not exist
ln 2b – ln 3c, ln 3c – ln a are in AP then a : b : c is (4) none of these
(1) 1 : 2 : 3
dx
(2) 7 : 7 : 4 1 7
29 1 x 4
(3) 9 : 6 : 4 69. The value of 0
is equal to
4 1 x 4 dx
1 6
(4) 4 : 4 : 9
0
(1) 7 (2) – 7
6
n 1 12
64. If 1 3 C2n 1 , then distance of
(3)
1
(4)
1
n 1 7 7
point 12, 3 from the line x 3 y 100 0 is, 2 x
0 3x x
(1)
109
2
(2) 55 70. The value of the integral
2 x dx , where
10
(3) 54 (4) 109 3x x
[*] denotes the greatest integer function, is
x
2 (1) 0 (2) –10
If dx A , then the value for
0 1 sinx
65.
(3) 10 (4)
28
3
2 x2 cos 2 x / 2
0 1 sinx 2 dx is equal to
Integer Type Questions
(1) A 2 2
71. If S1 , S 2 , S3 denote the sums of first twenty terms
(2) A 2 2 of three non constant sequence in A.P., whose first
(3) 2 A 2 terms are unity and common differences are in H.P.
(4) None of these 2S3S1 S1S2 S2 S3
Then is equal to______
S1 2S2 S3
66. If m is the AM of two distinct real numbers l and
n, l , n 1 ) and G1 , G2 and G3 are geometric
n
ar
If 1 x ar x , br 1
n r
72.
r 0 ar 1
mean between l and n , then G14 2G24 G34
equals n
101100 n
and br 100!
, then the value of
20
is
(1) 4lmn2 (2) 4l 2m2n2 r 1
[8]
11
1
3 1 4 tan 2 x C,
75. If sin x cos x
3 3 dx
8H x
then H is (where C is constant of integration)
4
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[9]