SECTIONAL LEGAL |

100 QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

𝗖𝗹𝗮𝘁 𝗗𝗶𝘃𝗶𝘀𝗶𝗼𝗻 ❘ 𝗔𝗶𝗺 𝗡𝗹𝘂

𝗖𝗹𝗮𝘁 𝗗𝗶𝘃𝗶𝘀𝗶𝗼𝗻 ❘ 𝗔𝗶𝗺 𝗡𝗹𝘂

1. A person is found guilty of theft, but it is discovered that they committed the theft under
duress. Which of the following is most likely to affect their conviction?

(A) The person is legally responsible for their actions.

(B) The defense of duress may lead to a reduction in the severity of the punishment.
(C) The person will be acquitted due to the duress defense.
(D) Duress is never a valid defense to theft.

2. If an individual knowingly makes a false statement under oath in a court, they are committing:

(A) Perjury
(B) Fraud
(C) Defamation
(D) Breach of contract

3. An agreement that is entered into by a person who lacks the mental capacity to understand
its terms is:

(A) Voidable
(B) Void
(C) Enforceable
(D) Executed

4. A person signs a contract without understanding its contents but does so voluntarily. This is
an example of:

(A) Fraudulent misrepresentation

(B) Duress
(C) Mistake
(D) Consent under misrepresentation

5. Which of the following is NOT a valid ground for contesting a will in a court of law?

(A) The testator was under undue influence.

(B) The testator lacked testamentary capacity.
(C) The testator’s signature was forged.
(D) The will was executed with a notary present.

6. In a contract, a party who fails to fulfill an obligation is guilty of:

(A) Breach of contract

(B) Breach of warranty
(C) Tortious conduct
(D) Criminal liability

7. A person who commits a wrongful act intentionally, without a lawful justification, is liable for:

(A) Negligence
(B) Strict liability
(C) Malpractice
(D) Intentional tort

8. In a tort case, the doctrine of "Res Ipsa Loquitur" suggests that:

(A) The defendant is liable for any harm caused.

(B) The facts of the case speak for themselves and suggest negligence.
(C) A person cannot be held liable for harm unless they caused it directly.
(D) The plaintiff must prove that the harm was foreseeable.

9. A person purchases a car from another and later discovers that it was stolen. The original
owner can sue the:

(A) Buyer for theft

(B) Seller for breach of contract
(C) Buyer for restitution
(D) No one, as the car has already been sold

10. Which of the following is a defense to the charge of defamation?

(A) The statement was true.

(B) The statement was made to a small group of people.
(C) The statement was made in confidence.
(D) The statement was made in private.

11. A contract entered into by a minor is:

(A) Always enforceable

(B) Voidable at the discretion of the minor
(C) Void and unenforceable
(D) Enforceable only if the minor's guardian consents

12. If a person is accused of a crime but is not mentally fit to stand trial, they may be:

(A) Held fully responsible for the crime

(B) Acquitted without trial
(C) Put under psychiatric care
(D) Given a temporary sentence

13. If a contract lacks consideration, it is:

(A) Voidable
(B) Void
(C) Enforceable
(D) Executed

14. A person falsely accuses another of a crime with the intent to harm their reputation. This is
an example of:

(A) Slander
(B) Libel
(C) Malicious prosecution
(D) False imprisonment

15. A valid contract requires all of the following EXCEPT:

(A) Agreement
(B) Legal capacity
(C) Consideration
(D) A written document

16. Which of the following is an example of a civil wrong?

(A) Murder
(B) Assault
(C) Defamation
(D) Kidnapping
17. The principle of "Caveat Emptor" applies to:

(A) Criminal transactions

(B) Sale of goods
(C) Land transactions
(D) Employment contracts

18. A company commits an illegal act by misleading investors through false statements. The
investors may file a suit for:

(A) Tort of negligence

(B) Breach of contract
(C) Securities fraud
(D) Breach of fiduciary duty

19. An agreement made without mutual consent is:

(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Enforceable
(D) Executed

20. A contract made under coercion or threat of harm is:

(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Executed
(D) Enforceable

21. A person cannot be charged with a crime unless:

(A) The person is aware of the law.

(B) The act is illegal under the law.
(C) The act is punishable by death.
(D) The person has an alibi.

22. The term "Mens Rea" refers to:

(A) The physical act of committing a crime

(B) The mental state or intent to commit a crime
(C) The justification for a crime
(D) The defense to a criminal charge
23. A breach of contract may result in:

(A) A claim for damages

(B) A claim for imprisonment
(C) A termination of all future contracts
(D) An acquittal of criminal charges

24. A tort committed by an individual who unintentionally causes harm to another person is
known as:

(A) Negligence
(B) Intentional tort
(C) Strict liability
(D) Malpractice

25. Which of the following is NOT an essential element of negligence?

(A) Duty of care

(B) Breach of duty
(C) Intentional infliction of harm
(D) Proximate cause

26. Which of the following is the primary purpose of a contract?

(A) To create legal rights and obligations

(B) To provide a legal remedy for damages
(C) To establish a relationship between the parties
(D) To document business transactions

27. The legal principle of "Stare Decisis" refers to:

(A) The obligation to obey the law

(B) The requirement to respect previous judgments
(C) The ability to make new laws
(D) The right to a fair trial

28. Which of the following would be considered a breach of fiduciary duty?

(A) A lawyer using client funds for personal use

(B) A person selling a used car
(C) An employee arriving late to work
(D) A student copying from a classmate during an exam
29. Which of the following is true about "intentional infliction of emotional distress"?

(A) The plaintiff must prove that the defendant acted with intent to cause distress.
(B) Emotional distress claims are always compensable without proof of harm.
(C) Only verbal insults can result in emotional distress claims.
(D) The defendant is not liable if the emotional distress was caused unintentionally.

30. If a person fails to perform an obligation under a contract, they may be required to:

(A) Pay punitive damages

(B) Return any goods exchanged
(C) Rectify the breach by specific performance
(D) Only pay compensatory damages

31. In the case of "R v. Brown," the House of Lords ruled that:

(A) Consent was a valid defense in all instances of assault

(B) Consent cannot be a defense in certain cases of bodily harm
(C) The victim must prove they did not consent to the act
(D) The act of self-defense can be used as a defense in all assaults

32. An offer can be revoked by the offeror:

(A) At any time before it is accepted

(B) Only after the offeree has given consideration
(C) After a reasonable period, even if it has not been accepted
(D) Only if the offeree agrees to the revocation

33. In a criminal case, if a defendant successfully proves the defense of "self-defense," it

means:

(A) The defendant is absolved of all charges.

(B) The defendant's actions were legally justified due to a threat of harm.
(C) The defendant will receive a reduced sentence.
(D) The defendant may still be liable for damages.

34. A contract made under "undue influence" is:

(A) Voidable by the influenced party

(B) Void
(C) Enforceable if the influenced party agrees to it
(D) Automatically unenforceable

35. A person who intentionally damages another’s property is guilty of:

(A) Negligence
(B) Vandalism
(C) Trespass
(D) Strict liability

36. If a person is found guilty of a crime but is later pardoned by the President, the legal effect is
that:

(A) The conviction is erased from their record

(B) They can appeal the decision to a higher court
(C) Their sentence is commuted, but the conviction remains
(D) The case is dismissed, and no further action is taken

37. In a tort case, the plaintiff must prove that the defendant’s actions were the "proximate
cause" of their injury. This means:

(A) The defendant's actions were the most immediate cause of the injury
(B) The defendant is responsible for all injuries, no matter how distant
(C) The injury was foreseeable as a result of the defendant's actions
(D) The injury was caused directly by the defendant's intent

38. A person who is injured due to a dangerous product may file a lawsuit under the theory of:

(A) Negligence
(B) Breach of contract
(C) Strict liability
(D) Fraudulent misrepresentation

39. A contract where one party has the option to cancel or void the agreement is:

(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Executed
(D) Enforceable

40. A defense that argues that an act was committed due to an emergency or to avoid greater
harm is known as:

(A) Self-defense
(B) Duress
(C) Necessity
(D) Insanity
41. Which of the following is a characteristic of a "bailment" relationship?

(A) Transfer of ownership of goods

(B) Temporary possession of property by one party for the benefit of another
(C) A contract where both parties must pay money
(D) A relationship that only arises out of a sale of goods

42. A crime committed in the heat of passion, without premeditation, may be classified as:

(A) Murder
(B) Voluntary manslaughter
(C) Involuntary manslaughter
(D) Justifiable homicide

43. In a contract, if a party has performed their obligations, but the other party refuses to
perform, this is called:

(A) Anticipatory breach

(B) Condition precedent
(C) Breach of warranty
(D) Novation

44. Which of the following is true regarding "joint tortfeasors"?

(A) All parties are equally liable for the tort.

(B) Only one party is responsible for the harm caused.
(C) They may be held jointly and severally liable.
(D) They are not liable if they act independently.

45. In a situation where someone is wrongfully detained, they may file a lawsuit for:

(A) Assault
(B) Defamation
(C) False imprisonment
(D) Trespass to land

46. Which of the following would likely result in the rescission of a contract?

(A) One party misrepresents material facts.

(B) One party offers an illegal consideration.
(C) Both parties voluntarily agree to new terms.
(D) A minor signs the contract.

47. Which of the following is NOT an example of a defense in a negligence case?

(A) Contributory negligence
(B) Assumption of risk
(C) Comparative negligence
(D) Res ipsa loquitur

48. In a criminal case, the burden of proof rests with the:

(A) Defendant
(B) Plaintiff
(C) Prosecution
(D) Judge

49. If a person is legally found to have "acted in bad faith" in a contract dispute, this may lead to:

(A) Reduction in damages

(B) An award of punitive damages
(C) Termination of the contract
(D) The enforcement of the contract

50. A contract is formed when there is:

(A) A valid offer and acceptance

(B) A written document
(C) A party's signature
(D) A meeting of the minds, regardless of written agreement

51. A contract made by a person who is intoxicated to the point of being unable to understand
its terms is:

(A) Voidable by the intoxicated party

(B) Void
(C) Enforceable if both parties consent
(D) Automatically enforceable

52. Which of the following is the primary focus of "civil law"?

(A) Punishing criminal conduct

(B) Resolving disputes between individuals or entities
(C) Preventing illegal conduct
(D) Defending national security

53. The principle of "audi alteram partem" requires that:

(A) The court must decide the case based on public policy
(B) Both parties must be heard before judgment is passed
(C) Evidence must be presented in writing
(D) The accused must be given a fair sentence

54. A contract formed by fraudulent misrepresentation is:

(A) Void
(B) Voidable at the option of the defrauded party
(C) Enforceable by both parties
(D) Automatically void without any recourse

55. In tort law, the term "causation" refers to:

(A) The duty owed by the defendant to the plaintiff

(B) The plaintiff’s action that led to their own injury
(C) The defendant's actions that directly result in harm to the plaintiff
(D) The intention behind the defendant’s actions

56. Which of the following is a key element in the tort of negligence?

(A) Intentional harm to the plaintiff

(B) A breach of duty of care owed to the plaintiff
(C) A written contract between the parties
(D) A proven criminal intent by the defendant

57. If someone sells an item to another and falsely claims it is of higher value, this is:

(A) Breach of contract

(B) Fraudulent misrepresentation
(C) Negligence
(D) Coercion

58. If a person is caught selling counterfeit goods, they may be prosecuted under:

(A) Contract law

(B) Intellectual property law
(C) Tort law
(D) Family law

59. A contract is considered "executed" when:

(A) The terms have been agreed upon but not yet performed
(B) One party has fully performed and the other has not
(C) Both parties have fully performed their obligations
(D) One party agrees to perform in the future

60. The defense of "necessity" can be used when:

(A) A crime is committed in an emergency situation to prevent greater harm

(B) A person intentionally causes harm to another
(C) A defendant is unable to prove an alibi
(D) A defendant was unaware of the legal consequences of their actions

61. A person who has been wrongfully imprisoned may seek redress through:

(A) Tort law

(B) Criminal law
(C) Constitutional law
(D) Family law

62. A person who makes a promise without intending to perform it is guilty of:

(A) Breach of contract

(B) Fraudulent misrepresentation
(C) Duress
(D) Consideration failure

63. A lease agreement that automatically renews unless the tenant gives notice is known as a:

(A) Fixed-term lease

(B) Tenancy at will
(C) Periodic tenancy
(D) Tenancy for years

64. A contract that involves an illegal subject matter is:

(A) Voidable
(B) Void
(C) Enforceable if the parties are unaware of the illegality
(D) Enforceable under certain conditions

65. A person who negligently causes an accident is liable for:

(A) Criminal prosecution

(B) Civil damages for the victim’s injuries
(C) A breach of warranty
(D) A rescinded contract
66. Which of the following is an example of a "strict liability" tort?

(A) Car accident caused by reckless driving

(B) Damage caused by a defective product
(C) Injury caused by negligent medical practice
(D) Defamation

67. Which of the following can be grounds for annulment of a marriage?

(A) Infidelity
(B) Inability to conceive children
(C) Fraud or misrepresentation
(D) Long-term separation

68. In criminal law, the term "actus reus" refers to:

(A) The physical act of committing a crime

(B) The mental state of the defendant
(C) The defense used by the accused
(D) The penalties imposed for the crime

69. An injunction is a court order that:

(A) Requires a person to pay damages

(B) Prohibits a person from doing something
(C) Mandates a person to perform a contract
(D) Temporarily suspends a criminal sentence

70. A court may issue a "writ of habeas corpus" to:

(A) Prevent illegal detention

(B) Collect evidence for a trial
(C) Compel someone to testify in court
(D) Allow an appeal in a criminal case

71. If a person breaks into someone else’s property with the intent to steal, they may be
charged with:

(A) Burglary
(B) Larceny
(C) Trespass
(D) Vandalism
72. Which of the following is true regarding the tort of defamation?

(A) The statement must always be written to be considered defamation.

(B) Defamation can only occur through spoken words.
(C) A false statement that harms someone’s reputation may constitute defamation.
(D) The statement must be made in a private setting.

73. A person who makes an offer in a contract has the ability to:

(A) Immediately accept the offer at any time

(B) Withdraw the offer before it is accepted
(C) Reject the offer only after receiving an acceptance
(D) Be bound by the offer once made, regardless of circumstances

74. A contract in which one party has the option to cancel or void the agreement is:

(A) Voidable
(B) Void
(C) Executed
(D) Enforceable

75. A written agreement between two parties that does not meet all legal requirements may still
be:

(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Enforceable if both parties agree
(D) Executed

76. The doctrine of "actus reus" and "mens rea" are both required to:

(A) Prove negligence

(B) Prove a tort
(C) Prove a criminal act
(D) Enforce a contract

77. A person who unlawfully enters another person’s home and stays there without permission
is committing:

(A) Criminal trespass

(B) Burglary
(C) Malicious mischief
(D) Fraud
78. In a tort case, the "proximate cause" rule refers to:

(A) The foreseeability of the harm resulting from the defendant’s actions
(B) The direct cause of the injury or damage
(C) The intention behind the defendant’s conduct
(D) The victim's conduct contributing to the harm

79. A person who is caught falsifying their financial records to avoid paying taxes is committing:

(A) Fraud
(B) Perjury
(C) Bribery
(D) Tax evasion

80. If a person is under the influence of alcohol and commits a crime, their level of intoxication
may:

(A) Serve as a defense in all criminal cases

(B) Be considered as a factor in determining intent or culpability
(C) Automatically result in a reduced sentence
(D) Have no effect on the charges against them

81. In a criminal case, the "burden of proof" rests with the:

(A) Prosecution
(B) Defendant
(C) Judge
(D) Jury

82. Which of the following would be an example of a "contract of adhesion"?

(A) A contract between two equal parties

(B) A contract where one party has no real opportunity to negotiate terms
(C) A contract in which both parties must make equal contributions
(D) A contract that involves mutual promises

83. A contract may be rescinded if:

(A) One party fails to perform a minor term of the contract

(B) The contract involves a mistake or misrepresentation of material facts
(C) Both parties have agreed to new terms
(D) The contract is in writing

84. Which of the following is an example of "involuntary manslaughter"?

(A) A person kills another while intentionally committing a robbery.
(B) A person kills another while acting in self-defense.
(C) A person kills another accidentally while driving recklessly.
(D) A person kills another due to extreme provocation.

85. Which of the following best defines the term "consideration" in contract law?

(A) The emotional intent behind a contract.

(B) Something of value exchanged between parties to form a contract.
(C) The type of contract, such as a lease or sale.
(D) The written agreement between the parties.

86. In tort law, "contributory negligence" refers to:

(A) The plaintiff's own negligence contributing to their injury.

(B) The defendant's refusal to pay for damages.
(C) The defendant taking action that causes harm to the plaintiff.
(D) The plaintiff’s failure to follow the legal process in the case.

87. A contract is voidable if:

(A) The contract involves a mistake in value.

(B) One party lacked capacity to consent at the time of formation.
(C) The contract was made under duress or coercion.
(D) All of the above

88. In criminal law, "mens rea" refers to:

(A) The physical act of committing a crime.

(B) The mental state or intention of the defendant when committing the act.
(C) The legal defense used by the defendant.
(D) The degree of harm caused by the crime.

89. If a contract includes terms that are unfair or heavily favor one party over the other, it may
be considered:

(A) Voidable due to unconscionability

(B) Void due to illegal subject matter
(C) Voidable for lack of consideration
(D) Enforceable with some modifications

90. A defendant who claims that they were legally justified in using force to defend themselves
is raising the defense of:
(A) Necessity
(B) Duress
(C) Self-defense
(D) Insanity

91. The tort of "false imprisonment" occurs when:

(A) A person is physically restrained without legal authority or consent.

(B) A person is defamed by a false statement.
(C) A person’s property is damaged without consent.
(D) A person is coerced into signing a contract.

92. Which of the following is a valid defense in a defamation case?

(A) Truth
(B) Malice
(C) Negligence
(D) Intention

93. Which of the following best defines "liability"?

(A) A moral obligation to compensate for harm done.

(B) A party’s legal responsibility for their actions or inactions.
(C) The right to appeal a legal judgment.
(D) A person’s right to contest the evidence in court.

94. A contract made with a minor is:

(A) Void
(B) Voidable by the minor but binding on the other party
(C) Voidable by both parties
(D) Fully enforceable if the minor is legally emancipated

95. In order to prove negligence in tort law, the plaintiff must establish that:

(A) The defendant had a legal duty to act in a certain way.

(B) The defendant breached that duty.
(C) The breach caused harm to the plaintiff.
(D) All of the above

96. A person who refuses to comply with a court order to pay damages may be held in:

(A) Contempt of court

(B) Breach of contract
(C) Civil liability
(D) Criminal prosecution

97. In a contract dispute, "capacity" refers to:

(A) Whether the contract was signed in good faith.

(B) The ability of the parties to understand the terms and obligations of the agreement.
(C) The number of parties involved in the contract.
(D) The presence of consideration.

98. A person who is convicted of a crime may appeal the verdict based on:

(A) A legal error made during the trial.

(B) The defendant’s failure to present evidence.
(C) The defendant’s inability to hire an attorney.
(D) The defendant’s request for a new trial.

99. In tort law, "assumption of risk" refers to:

(A) A defense in which the plaintiff knowingly exposes themselves to danger.

(B) The defendant failing to exercise reasonable care.
(C) The defendant causing harm by acting recklessly.
(D) The plaintiff being partially responsible for the injury due to their own negligence.

100. In the context of contracts, "novation" means:

(A) A contract that replaces an old one with new terms.

(B) The cancellation of a contract by mutual agreement.
(C) A contract that is voidable by one party.
(D) The failure to meet the terms of a contract.