M-009M KGMU - Dec 2022

MBBS 2 PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION, 2022

MICROBIOLOGY
Time Allowed: Three Hours Paper
Maximum Marks- 100
Note: Attempt all questions in serial order.
All parts of a Answer Section-A and Section-B in
where
question should be answered together. Ilustrate separate answer books.
required. Figures in parenthesis indicate marks your answer with suitable
diagram
allotted to a question.

Section-A
Q1. 45-year-old male patient was on renal dialysis
renal for last 4 years. Recently he received a
transplant from his cousin brother. All functions (20)
remain normal for two weeks
after the transplantation, but after that
creatinine levels rose and tenderness appeared at ihe operative site, serum
the renal biopsy revealed increased lymphocytic -13
the renal cortical
region. nintrates in
a)Whattype of graft has the case received? Describe
different types of grafts
b) Mention the pre
transplantation investigations to know the suitability of
transplant 2

c) Discuss graft vs host reaction

Q2. Write briefly on:
a) Gram tve bacterial cell wall (4x5)
b) Bacterial growth curve
e) Autoclaving 13 22P2o

d) Conjugation
1 44
Q3. Multiple Choice Questions: 4
10x1)
1. Forywhich parasite modified ZN stain is used
Isospora
b) Microsporidia
c) Plasmodium
d) Toxoplasma
Chronic granulomatous disease is due to deficiency of
a) Tyrosine kinase
NADPH oxidase
c) Adenosine deaminase
d) Myeloperoxidase
3. Endotoxin acts by
a) Classical pathway
bAlternate pathway
c) Lectin pathway
d) All of the above
4. With reference to antibiotic resistance all of the following statements are
true except
a) The most common mechanism is production ofneutralizing enzymes by
bacteria
blasmid medialed resistance is exclusively transferred vertically
c) Complete elimination of target is the mechanism by which enterococci
develop resistance to vancomycin
d) Alteration of target leads to development of resistance in pneumococci
5. Radiartion can be used to sterilize all except
ABone graft
b) Suture
c) Bronchoscope
d) Artificial tissue graft
 KGMU -
Dec

contains all except

medium
6. Triple iron sugar
a) Lactose
b) Sucrose
c) Glucose
9Y Maltose
concentration of agar is
7. In nutrient agar
a)%
2%
c) 3%
d) 4%
Cold sterilizationis
a) Sterilization by negative temperature
b) Sterilization by ionizing radiation
c)Sterilization by liquid CO2
d Sterilization by non ionizing radiation
9. Plasmasterilization uses
a)Ethylene oxide
Hydrogen peroxide
c) Formaldehyde
d) Ozone
10. Thermophile bacteria grow at
a) 20°C
b) 20-40°C
c)/20-60°C
60-80°PC

Section-B
Q1. A traveller from United kingdom to Delhi, presented with history of passage of (20)
7-8 loose stool since past 2 days. A stool sample was sent to microbiology
department which on direct examination did not reveal any parasitic ova,
trophozoites or cysts. Stool on bacteriological culture revealed large lactose
fermenting colonies on Mac Conkey agar.
a) What is the likely clinical diagnosis?
b) What is the microbiological differential diagnosis?
and describe the
c) Classify etiopathogenesis of the disease?
Q2. Write short notes on:
(4x5)
aLaboratory diagnosis of typhoid fever -
(bClostridium tetani
MRSAA
(d) Pneumococcal vaccines
Q3. Multiple Choice Questions:
(10x1)
1. Gram positive bacilli causing meningitis
a) Pneumococci
b) Klebsiella
Listeria
d) Meningococci
2. Capsule of Bacillus anthracis is formed of
a) Polysaccharide
b) Lipopolysaccharide N
Polypeptide
d) Long chain fatty acids
3.
Corynebacterium diphtheria is also called as
a) Koch's bacillus
b) Roux bacillus
Klebs-loeffler bacillus
d) Yersin bacillus
MU Des
Salmonella Typhi is the causative agent of typhoid fever. KGMU Dec 202
The infecctive
dose of S. Typhi is
a) One bacillus
b) 1-10 bacilli
1 0 - 1 0 ° bacilli
d) 10-10" bacilli
rickettsial infections except:
5. Tick is the vector for following
a) R. rickettsii

b) Rakari
R . africae
R . conorii
6. Bejel is caused by
a) Treponema pertenue
bTreponema endemicum L O u s

c) Treponema pallidum
d) Treponema carateum
is caused by Te
7. Ecthyma gangrenosum
Pseudomonas
b) Bordetella
c)Brucella
d) H. influenzae y
8. Pontiac fever is caused by
Legionella
b) Listeria
c)Leptospira
d) Rickettsia
negative cocci except:
9. The following a r e gram
APneumococci
b) Meningococci
c) Gonococci
d) Veillonella
reveals all of the following
10. Biochemical analysis of pyogenic meningitis
except:
elevated
a) CSF pressure- highly
count- highly elevated, neutrophilic
b) Total leukocyte
YGlucose highly elevated
increased
d) Total protein-markedly

*****
 M-010M

MBBS 2 PROFESSIONAL. EXAMINATION, 2022

MICROBIOLOGY
Paper II
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks- 100

Note: Attempt all questions in serial order. Answer Section-A and Section-B in separate answer books.
All parts of a question should be answered together. Illustrate your answer with suitable diagram
where required. Figures in parenthesis indicate marks allotted to a question.

Section-A

(20)
1 Q1 In Medicine OPD, you come across a patient who is suffering from cough and
hemoptysis for about 4 weeks. He is losing weight and appetite. He is running low
grade pyrexia. His mother is suffering from pulmonary tuberculosis. Discuss the
laboratory approach to this case
Write briefly on: 12 (4x5)
Q2.
a) Covid-19 vaccines in India
b) Diagnostic tests for HBV infection
c) Monkey pox
d) Latest WHO classification of dengue
03. Multiple Choice Questions: (10x1)
1. A 36-year-old nurse suffered a needle stick with blood from an HIV
positive patient. Six months later, the nurse's serum was positive in one
Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA) test, gave equivocal results in a repeat EJA
oyvrdho test, and was negative by Western blot. The nurse
a)
b)
Is probably infected with HIV
Is in the window between acute infection with HIV and seroconversion
c)Is probably not infected with HIV
1 Vi d) May be infected with a drug-resistant strain of HIV
2. How many single stranded RNA segments are present in genomes of
Influenza A virus?
bcl a) 7
+ 3

b) 8
p c) 9
d) 10

1nlQ1A 3. Mutation in rpo B gene is taken as marker of:

a) Virulent mycobacteria
b) Anonymous mycobacteria
c)A virulent mycobacteria
d) Multi drug resistant mycobacteria
4. A male baby is born at 38 weeks gestation with a petechial rash, low birth
weight, hepatosplenomegaly
and bilateral eataracts. This is thought to be
due to an infection acquired while the baby was still in utero. Which of
the following condition is most likely to cause this clinical presentation? -a
a) Cytomegalovirus
b) Herpes Simplex Virus
c) Rubella virus
d) Toxoplasma gondii
5. Which of the following viruses can cause a self- limiting acute febrile
illness with rash in immune-competent child ren but has been associated
with transient aplastic crises in persons with sickle cell disease?
a) Measles
b) Human Parvovirus B19
l o + 7 +z - 5
c) Rubella
d) Herpes simplex
28
 KGMU- Dec 2022
.A mune-compromised person with history of acute onset seizures had
an hat revealed a
temporal lobe lesion. Brain biopsy results showed
munucleated giant cellswith intranuclear inclusions. The most
probable cause of the lesion is;
a)
b)
Hepatitis C virus
Coxsackie vinus
c)Herpes simplex virus
d) Dengue virus
whehof the following viruses are usually NOT associated
gastroenteritis?
a) Enterovirus
with

b) Astrovirus
c) Rotavirus
d) Norovirus
8. A T0
years old male
of child presented to the emergency with sudden onset
episodes of
generalized tonic elonic seizures and
unconsei0usness.
patienthad
On
obtaining a detailed history vomiting followed by
it was known that the
all over high-grade fever for
the last seven
the
body for the last five days, rasn maculopapular
child had not days and headache for one day. The
is the most
received any childhood vaccination.
probable diagnosis? Of the following; which
a) Tubercular Meningitis
b) Measles Encephalitis
c)Bacterial Meningitis
d) Primary meningoencephalitis
Concentration of
sulphuric acid for decolorization of M.
a) 5% tuberculosis is:
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
10. Which is the
commonest cause of tuberculosis in HIV
in India positive individuals
a) M. tuberculosis
b) M. kansasii
c) M. avium-intracellulare group
3Br64
d) M. bovis

Section-B
Q1. A laboratory confirmed case of severe Covid-19
known diabetic 60 is admitted in 1CU for 10
a
years old male and is given heavy doses of days. He is (20)
Covid-19. He is on ventilator. What steroid for managing
are the most common
complicate this case? Write clinical fungal infections which can
for any one of these symptoms, lab diagnosis and
prevention strategy
infections.
Q2. Write short notes on:
(a) Cerebral malaria (4x5)
(b) Cryptosporidiosis
(c) Life cycle of T solium
(d) Lab diagnosis of filariasis
Q3. Multiple Choice Questions:
1. Diagnosis of Primary amoebie (10x1)
following methods EXCEPT: encephalitis ean be made by all of the
a) Wet mount
b) Giemsa preparation of CSF
staining of CSF deposit
c) Gram's staining of CSF deposit
d) Culture on agar plate with E. coli 231
 KGMU Dec 2022

in case of blood transfusion

form of malaria parasite
2. What is the infeetive
mediated malaria:-
a) Trophozoite
b) Merozoite
c) Sporozoite
d) Schizoint
infeet brain EXCEPT:
3. All of the following parasites
a) Taenia solium
b) Trypanosoma cruzi
c) Toxoplasma gondii
d) Leishmania braziliensis
4. All of the following are Non bile stained eggs PXCEPT;
a) Ancylostoma duodenale
b) Hymenolepis nana
c) Entrobius vermicularis
d) Trichuris trichura
5. All of the following are clinical manifestations of Ascaris lumbricoides
infection EXCEPT
a) Asymptomatic carriage
b) Fever, headache, photophobia, nuchal rigidity, and eosinophilia
c) Nonproductive cough and pleurisy with eosinophilia
d) Right upper quadrant pain and fever
6. Which of the following is a thermally dimorphic fungus?
a) Cryptococcus neoformans
b) Aspergillus fumigatus
c) Sporothrix schenckii
d) Cladophialophora bantiana
7. Which of the following is a polyene antifungal?
a) 5-flurocytosine
b) Griseofulvin
c) Amphotericin B
d) Ketoconazole
8. Pityriasis versicolor is caused by which of the following fungus?
a) Exophiala werneckii
b) Malassezia furfur
c) Piedra hortae
d) Trichosporon beigelli
9. Hallmark description of the yeast form of Paracoccidioides brasiliensis is
a) Broad base
b) Pilot wheel
c) Cigar shape
d) Sausage form
10. A 32-year-old man, who is HIV positive presents to the emergeney clinic
with headache and fever for past 3 days. According to family members
he has been confused and irritable for the last 2 weeks prior to the onset
of these symptoms. His CSF reveals numerous WBCs, predominantly
lymphoeytes and budding yeasts with wide capsule in India ink
preparation. Suggest the clinical diagnosis of the patient.
a) Candida meningitis
b) Cryptococcal meningilis
c) Blastomycosis
d) Disseminated histoplasmosis
 M-011M

MBBS 2 PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION, 2022

PHARMACOLOGY

Paper
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks- 100
Note: Attempt all serial order Answer Section-A and Section-B in
questions in
separate ans wer hooks. All parts
of a
question should he answered
ogether. hustrate your answer with suitable diagram where required
Figures in paremhesis indicate marks allotted to a questiom.

Section-A
Q1. Write a note on New Drug and Clinical Trial Rule. Describe different phases of (20)
clinical trials?
Q2. Write briefly on: (4x5)
(a) BA/BE studies (Bioavailability & Bioequivalence)
(b) Pharmacotherapy of BPH (Benign prostatic hyperplasia)
(c) Zero order Kinetics
(d) Beta blockers used in Glaucoma
Q3. Ten Multiple Choice Questions: (10x1)
1. The choline ester resistant to both true and pseudo cholinesterase
a. Bethanechol
b. Butyrylcholine
C. Methacholine
d. Benzoyl choline dcbba
2. Pilocarpine is used for
a. Glaucoma
b. Paralytic ileus
c. Urinary retention
d. Infection
3. Pyridostigmine differs from Neostigmine
a. It produces less muscarinic side effects
b. It is more potent orally
c. It is longer acting
d. It does not have any direct action
on NM
receptor
4. Which committee in India has the responsibility of looking after the
drug and inquiry about its manufacture procedure?
a. Drug Enquiring commitlee
b. Drug Enquiry committee
C. Enquiring the Drug Manulacturing eommittee
d. Drug Enquiry of the produced Drug committee
5. Ifa drug is colored or coated to coneeal the damage in it, under
which category of drugs shall it come?
a. Misbranded drugs
b. Spurious drugs
c. Adulterated drugs
d. Impure Drugs
 KGMO ec 2922
6. What does Pharmacokinetic includc?
a.
Pharmacological effects of drugs
b. Unwanted effects of
drugs
c. Chemical structure of a medicinal
d. Distribution of agent
7. drugs in the organism
Pickout the
appropriate alimentary route f administration when
passage of drugs through liver is
a. Oral minimized
b. Transdermal
c. Rectal
d. Intraduodenal
8.
Biotransformation of the drug is to render them:
a. Less ionized
b. More
. More lipid soluble
pharmacologically active
d. Less
9. What
lipid soluble
can phenomenon occur in the case of
using a combination
drugs? of
a.

b.
Tolerance
C.
Tachyphylaxis
Accumulation
d. Synergism
10. Tachyphylaxis is:
a. A drug interaction between two similar
b. Very rapidly developing tolerance types of drugs
C. A decrease in
responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to
develop
d. None of the above

CiT

Phmaneut

Amoho

l o p p n n

Section-B
Ccu
What is the first line of
drugs used in tuberculosis? Explain with their s e n
mechanism of action and side effects. Write a note on (20)
MDR and XDR TB.
Q2 Write short notes on:
(4x5)
(aPharmacotherapy
Tb)
of Migraine3
Mifepristone and Misoprostol
CH1 receptor antagonists
h Surface anesthesia
Q3. Ten Multiple Choice Questions:
1. Regarding antipsychotics as a group (10x1)
a. Metabolites are important to the action of these
b. Haloperidol has a drugs
or chlorpromazine
higher systemic availability than thioridazine
Elimination half lives of these drugs
C.

d.
This group of drugs range between 3 6 hours -

action
generally short clinical duration of
has
2. The skeletal muscle
relaxant with the longest duration of
a. Suxamethonium action is
b. Mivacurium
c. Pancuronium
d. Rocuronium
 KGM c 222

3. Codeine
a. Is more potent than fentanyl
diarrhoea
b. Frequently causes
caused by morphine
Is used to treat nausca
C.

d. Depresses the cough rellex

effects for given drugs is wrong
4. Which of the following side
a. Phenytoin -

gum hypertrophy
b. Ethosuximide -
hirsuitism

c. Phenobarbital -

enzyme induction
d. Carbamazepinehotics
anaesthetics
5. Regarding inhaled to their alveolar
a. They reduce MAP in direct proportion
concentration

Nitrous oxide has a relatively low MAC

b.
c. Halogenated agents have a lower brain:blood partition
coefficient
decrease in tidal volume and an increase
d. Nitrous oxide causes a

in respiratory rate
likely to be
6. A patient complains of post op
muscle pain. This is most

due to
a. Suxamethonium
b. Propofol
C. Isoflurane
d.
Atracurium
ester
7. Which of the following local
anaesthetic agents is an

a. Bupivacaine
b. Ropivacaine
c. Prilocaine
d. Procaine
8. Nitrous oxide
carrier gas for halothane
a. Can be used with 02 as a

b. Has poor analgesic properties

vapour which
Forms a is explosive
c.
heart to the action of catecholamines
d. Sensitises the
are true EXCEPT
9. Regarding GABA: all the following
a. Receptor blockers have anticonvulsant activity
concentrations in the basal ganglia
b. Is found in high low in
c. Concentrations in the basal ganglia are abnormally
Huntington's chorea

d. Metabolism is inhibited by sodium valproate

relaxants
10. Regarding nondepolarising muscle
trunk
a. Jaw and eye muscles are paralysed before the limb and
muscles
skeletal muscle
b. Rocuronium is the most potent nondepolarising
relaxant
C. Atracurium is a steroid derivative
thus
blocks cardiac muscarinic receptors,
d. d. Vecuronium
moderate increase in heart rate
inducing
 M-012M
MBBS
2 PROFESSIONAL. EXAMINATION, 2022
PHARMACOLOGY
Paper II
Time Allow ed: Three Hours
Maximum Marks- 100
Note: Ale nmpt al questons in serial order. Answer Section-A amd Section-B in
separate
o question should be answered together. lustrale your answer with suitahle
a answer bookS. A17
purts
Figures diagram where requirea 7
in
parenthesis indicate marks allotled to a
question.

Section-A
Q1. Classily drugs used in Congestive Heart Failure (CHF). Describe in brief the 12
(20)
role of ACE inhibitors in CHF
along with their uses and side effccts.
Q2. Write briefly on:
(415)
a) Loop diuretics
b) Broad spectrum Penicillins
c) 5-HT3 receptor antagonists
d) Drugs used for Rheumatoid arthritis
93. Multiple Choice Questions: (10x)
1. Therapeutic monitoring of plasma level of drug is done when using
all of the following drugs EXCEPT:
aGentamicin
b. Phenytoin
c. Warfarin
d. Cyclosporine
2. Which of the following is a venodilator?
aNitroprusside.
b. Hydralazingá
c. Nifedipine
d. Minoxidil}>@
(3 A diabetic patient with bilateral renal artery stenosis requires a
drug for the treatment of high blood pressure. Which of the
following drugs will be most appropriate for the patient?
a. Amlodipine
b. Metoprolol
c. Hydrochlorthiazide
d. Enalapril
4. Which of the following is NOT Antipseudomonal?
a. Ceftazidime
b. Carbenicillin
Cephalexin
d. Piperacillin
5. Which of the 1olowing antitubereular drug in NOT bepatotoxie?
a. Ethionamide

b. Jsoniazid
Streptomycin

d. Rifampicin
 KGMU - Dee 2022
6. Which of the following anti-cancer drugs is cell eyele specific?
a. Melphalan
Vinblastine
C. Cyclophosphamide
d. Ifosfamide
7. All of the following drugs can be used for
intestinal ameobiasis
EXCEPT:
a. Chloroquine
b. Diloxanide furoate
Quinidochlor
d. Tinidazole
8. Which of the following monoclonal antibodies is a humanized
antibody?
a. Infliximab
b. Basiliximab
c. Rituximab
d. Palivizumab
9. Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine
primarily by:
a.
Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption
b. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2C1-cotransport in the ascending limb of
Joop of Henle
Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to
exchange with interstitial K+
d. Potentiating the action of aldosterone
10.The following is NOT a valid indication for parenteral iron
therapy:
a. Inadequate
response to oral iron due to patient noncompliance
b. Anaemia during pregnancy
C. Severe anaemia associated with chronic bleeding
d. Anaemia in a patient of active rheumatoid arthritis

Section-B
Q1. Classify Chelating agents. Describe in brief about the mechanism of action, (20)
indications and toxicity of Dimercaprol.
Q2. Write short notes on:
(4x5)
a) Cyanocobalamin
b) Alcohols as antiseptics
c) Drugs used for Scabies
d) Revised National Tuberculosis Control Program (RNTCP) of India
Q3. Multiple Choice Questions:
(10x1)
1. Vitamin, which acts as a
hormone is:
a. A
b. C

d. E
2. Correctly matched pair of heavy metals & their chelating agents is:
a. Mercury-Calcium disodium detate
b. Iron-BAL
c. Arsenic-Desferrioxamine
Copper-d-penicillamine
3
Pre-conceptional intake ofwhich of KGM D

decrease in incidence the follow ing results in

of Ngural tube
Vitamin E defects
b Vitamin D
Folic acid
d. Vitamin A Depe *Gm
4. Which of the
follow ing constituent is NOT a part of ORS? Peßen'hrom
Bicarbonate-2g
b. KCI-1.55g
c. NaCl-3.5g
d. Glucose-20g
5. The following is NOT a feature
a. Hypertension
of hyper-vitaminosis D:
b. Spontaneous fractures
c. Renal stones
d. Weakness
6. The metabolic reaction requiring vitamin B12
but not folate is
Conversion of malonic acid to succinic acid
b. Conversion of homocysteine to methionine
c. Conversion of serine to glycine
d. Thymidylate synthesis
7. Antiseptic agents differ from disinfectants because:
Antiseptic agents are nontoxic to living tissue
b. Antiseptic agents are effective at room temperature
c. Disinfectants require a short exposure time
d. Disinfectants remain active in the presence of biologic materials
8. The destruction of all forms of microorganisms is deseribed by
which term?
a. Antisepsis
b. Sanitation
eSterilization
d. Disinfection
9. Which of the following is exogenous antioxidant?
a. Catalase
b. Ferritin
p-carotene
d. Ceruloplasmin
(10. The following factor(s) is/are required for the absorption of
dietary vitamin B12:
a. Gastric acid
b.Gastric intrinsic factor
c. Transcobalamine
Both A and 'B

******

HpLrde
Per dtbui
 MBBS 2PROFESSION M-007M

"SIONAL EXAMINATION, 2022

'ATIOLOGY
Time Allowed: Three
Hours Paper
Note: Altempt all Maximum Marks- 100
of question
a questions in serial order.
should be Answer
Figures in answered together,
e r Section-A and Section-B in sepurate answer books. Al parts
Section-"your answer with suituhle diagram where required
parenthesis indicate marks lustrale
er ustrate
you
allotted questonto a

Section-A
Deline Pulmonary
Q2. pathogenesis Thromboembolism and write in detail about the
and
consequences of Pulmonary
Write briefly on: etiolog (20)
Define Granuloma and Thromboembolism.
Mechanism of discuss it's different types and (4x5)
Role of HumanT-cell depletion in HIV etiopathogenesis.
Role of p53 Papilloma Virus(HPV) infection
in
neoplasia
Q3. gene in Neoplasia
Multiple Choice Questions:
1. A small
exophytic cauliflower like lesion on the cheek with
(10x1)
appearance of bulbous prongs going microscopic
likely a: deep down into the dermis is
most
a) Papilloma
b) Fibroma
c) Neurofibroma
d) Verrucous carcinoma
The process by which
bone is: dystrophic caleification undergoes
conversion to
a) Heterotopic ossification
b) Heterophagy
c) Metastatic calcification
d) None of the above
3. The most mon test to Ietermine HIV infection is for:
a) Viral antigen
b) T-lymphocyte function
c) B-lymphocyte function
d) Viral Antibodies
4. Bone ption, cutaneous skin
cotton wool radio- opacities are pigmentation, precocious
a) McCune-A lbright syndrome characteristic of: puberty and
«

b) Letterer-siwe disease
c) Paget disease
d) Krabbes disease
5. Regarding white cell extravasalionin acute
following pairs is incorrect
rolling
inflammation which of the
a) P selectin: neutrophil
b) ICAM: neutrophil rolling
C ) E selectin: neutrophil
rollin
rolling
d) CD34: neutrophil
 KGM De 202)

its Which is NOT CORRECT:

6. Regarding Cholesterol and estc
a) Are metabolised in a looscly
reguldled system within body cells
in
b) Seen as xanthomas within monoeytes tendons
c) Accunmulate in macrophages gall bladderknown as cholesterosis
d) Are deposited in the tunica niean
Ol the aorta in atherosclerosis
7. Monoclonal spike on protein electrophoresis is seen in:
a) Multiple myeloma
b) Metastatic lung carcinoma
c) Lymphoma
d) Leukemia
8. Annexin V is associated with?
a) Necrosis
b) Atherosclerosis
c) Apoptosis
d) Acule Inflammation
9. Foamy macrophages can be highlighted by:
a) Methyl violet stain
b) Oil red O stain
c) Periodic acid Schiff (PAS) stain
d) Luxol fast blue-cresyl violet
10. of
Which the following reagent(s) is(are) used
a) Uranyl acetate
in electron mieroscopy:

b) Osmium tetraoxide
c)Glutaraldehyde
d) All of the above

Section-B
A vegetarian female of 30 years has complaints of fatigue, lethargy, shortness of
(20)
breath, and pigmented skin at toes. On examination her tongue is beefy. Her
blood investigations are as follows:
complete
Hemoglobin - 6.5 gm%, Hematocrit 30 cc%, MCV - 125 f1, MCH -30 pg. Platelet
count- 1 lakh/cc, TLC - 12500 cells/cc, DLC - N76% L22% M2%, Arneth Count-
Shift to right
Based on the above history & examination and clinical &
answer the following questions:
investigational details.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
b) Enumerate the causes of the above condition.
What other relevant investigations are required to confirm the diagnosis.
dDiscuss the peripheral smear and bone marrow
findings.
Q2. Write short notes on:
(4x5)
Laboratory diagnosis of Multiple Myeloma
pifferentiate between Leukemoid Reaction and Chronic Myeloid leukemia
Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
d Blood Transfusion Reactions
Q3. Multiple Choice Questions:
(10x1)
1. Erythropoiesis:
Takes place in liver and
a)
spleen in the normal children
b) Is stimulated by hy
c) Is increased in
poxia Coley
k

hypothy
d) Is decreased in AML roidism
2. Increased
eosinophils are found in
a) Tuberculosis
b) Syphilis
c) Acute lymphadenitis
d) Hodgkin's disease
 RegaraPdProduced
hi
ing horprimomnarie Int thropoietin.
allare
correetE\(EPT

Detecled in urine b i the Iver

IdIncreases
ncreaSed letransloeatio
A Chromosomal vels in byhig
elcirophores/s

g ha l t i t u d e

red
cell prec
eCursors in marrow

(ML
is:
a) 2:8 ion
seen
in

b) 8:14
c) 9:22
d) 15:17
5. in
Gingival bypertrophy is commonly
seen

a) Acute most
most

b) Acute
myeloid leukemia
ymphoid leukermi
c) Acute
pro-myelocytic leu
d Chronic myeloid leukem feature re of
of
6. Achlorbydria is acharacteristie
a) Pernicious anemia
b) Thalassemia
anemia
c) Sickle cell
d Thrombocytopenic purpura een in
is
PML/RARA gene
translocation se
7.
Chronic Myeloid Leukemia
a) leukemia
ymphoblastic
Acute
b) mphoblastic Ieukema
Chronic Ly eukemia
C) clocutic I
Acute Promy
d seen in:
cells a r e
Smudge
8.
a) CLL
b) CMI
is
generallh

c) ALL ferrilin

s e r u m

d AMI diseases,

chronic
anemia of
In
9 a) Normal

h Tow
characteristic
nf
c)lhgh
toes
tH
d Ahsent the
al
pigmentation
Megalohlastieanerm
SAin
10
Thalassem13
S l ecellnema
 KGMU - Dec 2022

MBBS 2d pROFESSIONAL
M.008M ONAL EXAMINATION, 2022

Time PATHO
AIlowed: Three Hours Paper
Note:
Attempt
of a all questions in
Maximum Marks- 100

Figuresquestion
in should be serial order.
Answer
answered loooer and Section-B in separate a n s w e r books. All parts

parenthesis indicate marke together. Sectioo

"Cred Secion-A
ustrate your
answer wilh suitable diagram where required
marks e

Ilustratiol
allotted to a q

Q1. S Section-A
years male child
breathless. complaining presenting
serological exhaustions
of (20)
and restlessness presentinghospitalized.
with sudden expoSure with dust severe
wiu
P56%, L24%, investigation
E
are ccness then
following: Hb me
llowing:
as
Hematological and
8500/Cumm, DLC
a) What 18%, M 2%, and
Hb 14 mg %, TLC- -

will be
marked ed.serum IgE-
b) What is the your Diagnosis?
c) How many Pathogenesis of Disease?
types of hypersensitive
d) What are the reactions?
Q2. Write briefly on: complications of Disease?
a) Disseminated
Intravascular (4x5)
b) Amyloidosis Coagulopathy -DIC
c) Caseous Necrosis
d) Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
Q3. Multiple Choice Questions:
1. CD 95 has major role in (10x1)
a) Apoptosis.
b) Cell necrosis.
c) Interferon activation.
d) Proteolysis.
2. Dystrophic calcification

a)Is associated with hypercalcaemia

D related disease
b) Is seen in vitamin
Occurs in atheromatous
diseases
of the milk alkali syndrome
d) May be a part
associated with
B27 is
3.
a)
HLA Ankylosing spondylitis.
b) Rheumatic arthritis.

c) Chronic hepatitis.
d) Diabetes insipidus
in :
Ulcer is
seen

4. Curling's
a) Intracranial lesions

b) Septicaemia
c) Severe TraumA

d Extensive burn as
known

tumour
is also
Pregnancy

5.
a) Epulis
b) Oral cancer

c) Ameloblastoma

d M u c o c e l e
 KuM

seen
in
6. Features of DIC a r e
a) AML MO
b) AML MI
c) AML M2
dr AML M3 in
seen
typically
7. Dry gangrene is
a) Tuberculosis
b) Bowel Infarction

)Diabetic leg ulcers

d) Cerebral infarction
sensitive reaction are found in which of
Hyper
8. Immune complex mediated
the following:
a) type
b) type 2
type 3
d) type 4
9. be best demonstrated by one of the following stains
Amyloid can

a) H&E
b) MGG
<) CONGO RED
d) von Geison Stain
10. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by
a) lg A
b) IgG
c) IgM
HIgE.

Section-B

Q1. 70 Years male presenting with excessive intake of water (polydipsia), excessive intake
of food (polyphagia), Micturition ( Polyuria ) and weakness for last 15 yrs. And He is (4x5)
alsohaving tingling and numbness in upper extremities.
Biochemical finding are as following- Hb 9 mg %, Blood
-

1.6 mg %, LFT within normal limit Blood urea -40 mg%, S creatinine
Sugar F-278 Mg%., Hblac- 7.0
,

a) What will be your diagnosis?

b) What is the Pathogenesis of disease?
c) Types of disease
d) What are the complication of disease?
Q2. Write short notes on:
a) Brochogenic carcinoma (4x5)
b) Nephrotic syndrome
c) Blast crisis
d) CVC spleen
Q3. Multiple Choice Questions:
1. Most common
type of heart (10x1)
a) Myxoma
neoplasm is
b) Rhabdomyosarcoma
c) Fibroma
d) Leiomyosarcoma
2.
Metaphyseal bone tumour is:
a) Fibrosarcoma
b) Lymphangiosarcoma
c) Angiosarcoma
d Osteogenic sarcoma
 bone

3.
Which is long

a) commonly
Osteoclastomaarise Epiphysisof

b Ewing tumor tumor tro o m

4. ER
Osteogenic sarcoma
d Osteoblastoma t h o g n o m i cm a r k e ro f :

PR ,HER2 neu
aBreast receptor
Carcinoma is
b) Osteogenic Sarcoma pathof
c) Non
Hodgkin's Lymphoma
" a c u t e

for
d) Chronic m a r r o w ,

minimum Myeloid
5. The Leukemia
Bone

in
number of present

leukemia" diagnosis is blasts

sts
P
a) 10%
br20%
c) 30%
d) 35%
6. For Liver Function d in
test, blood is
a) EDTA vial collect
b) Citrate vial
c) Plain vial
d) Heparinised vial
7. Alpha fetoprotein is a
marker of
a) Hepatocellular Carcinoma
b) Chondroma
c) Lipoma
d) Fibroma
8. Gamna
Gandy body or siderotic nodule found in
a) Splenic lesion
b) B.Lung Lesion
c) Renal lesion
d) Heart lesion
9. Which is the causative agent of cervical cancer ?
a) Hepatitis B virus ( HBV)
b) Human papilloma virus (HPV)
c) HTL virus ( HTLV)
d) EBV
10. Blast crisis is the sign of
a) Resolving /.hase of Leukacmia
b) Exagerated phase of Leukacmia
c) Neither exaggerated or
resolving hase
d) None ofthe above

******