URTS (Unacademy Revision Test Series)

Test - 9

Time: 3:00 Hours Test Date: 01-03-2025 Maximum Marks :720

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1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ballpoint
pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions (four
options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology. 45 questions in each
subject are divided into two as per details given below:
(1) Part A - Physics shall consist of 45 (Forty-five) Questions in each subject (Questions
Nos- 1 to 45). All questions are compulsory.
(2) Part B - Chemistry shall consist of 45 (Forty-five) Questions in each subject (Question
Nos- 46 to 90). All questions are compulsory.
(3) Part C - Botany shall consist of 45 (Forty-five) Questions in each subject (Questions
Nos- 91 to 135). All questions are compulsory.
(4) Part D - Zoology shall consist of 45 (Forty-five) Questions in each subject (Questions
Nos- 136 to 180). All questions are compulsory.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will deducted from the total scores. The maximum are 720.
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the Attendance Sheet.

1
 TEST SYLLABUS

Test - 9

Physics : Electrostatics & Capacitance, Current Electricity, Magnetic Effect of

Current, Magnetism & Matter, Electromagnetic Induction

Chemistry : Solution, Chemical Kinetics, Electrochemistry, Haloalkane & Haloarenes,

Alcohols, Phenol & Ether

Botany : Sexual reproduction in flowering plants, Principal of inheritance & variation

& Molecular basis of inheritance-1 (upto transcription)

Zoology : Human Reproduction, Reproductive Health & Origin & Evolution

2
 URTS-9
ANSWER KEY
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BOTANY ZOOLOGY
1 (3) 46 (1) 91 (4) 136 (4)
2 (1) 47 (3) 92 (1) 137 (3)
3 (3) 48 (2) 93 (2) 138 (2)
4 (1) 49 (2) 94 (3) 139 (3)
5 (3) 50 (1) 95 (3) 140 (4)
6 (2) 51 (3) 96 (3) 141 (2)
7 (1) 52 (4) 97 (3) 142 (2)
8 (2) 53 (4) 98 (3) 143 (1)
9 (3) 54 (4) 99 (3) 144 (2)
10 (2) 55 (4) 100 (3) 145 (1)
11 (4) 56 (2) 101 (2) 146 (1)
12 (3) 57 (4) 102 (1) 147 (3)
13 (4) 58 (2) 103 (4) 148 (3)
14 (2) 59 (3) 104 (2) 149 (2)
15 (2) 60 (4) 105 (3) 150 (1)
16 (1) 61 (1) 106 (1) 151 (2)
17 (1) 62 (4) 107 (4) 152 (2)
18 (4) 63 (4) 108 (4) 153 (4)
19 (2) 64 (3) 109 (1) 154 (1)
20 (1) 65 (3) 110 (1) 155 (3)
21 (2) 66 (3) 111 (3) 156 (2)
22 (1) 67 (1) 112 (3) 157 (3)
23 (1) 68 (3) 113 (1) 158 (3)
24 (2) 69 (1) 114 (1) 159 (4)
25 (2) 70 (2) 115 (1) 160 (1)
26 (3) 71 (1) 116 (4) 161 (2)
27 (3) 72 (2) 117 (4) 162 (3)
28 (3) 73 (1) 118 (4) 163 (1)
29 (1) 74 (2) 119 (3) 164 (2)
30 (3) 75 (3) 120 (4) 165 (4)
31 (3) 76 (3) 121 (1) 166 (4)
32 (4) 77 (2) 122 (3) 167 (1)
33 (4) 78 (2) 123 (3) 168 (4)
34 (3) 79 (2) 124 (1) 169 (2)
35 (1) 80 (1) 125 (3) 170 (2)
36 (1) 81 (3) 126 (1) 171 (3)
37 (2) 82 (1) 127 (4) 172 (3)
38 (1) 83 (3) 128 (4) 173 (4)
39 (2) 84 (2) 129 (1) 174 (2)
40 (3) 85 (2) 130 (4) 175 (3)
41 (3) 86 (3) 131 (2) 176 (4)
42 (2) 87 (1) 132 (4) 177 (2)
43 (3) 88 (1) 133 (2) 178 (4)
44 (2) 89 (4) 134 (4) 179 (3)
45 (2) 90 (3) 135 (1) 180 (4)

3
 PART-A: PHYSICS
1. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges +q are placed at each corner. The electric intensity at O will
be :

1 q 1 q 1 3q
(1)  (2)  (3) zero (4) 
40 r2 40 r 40 r 2

Ans. (3)
Sol. Due to symmetry the electric intensity at O is zero
2. A point positive charge is brought near an isolated conducting sphere. The electric field lines are
best represented by

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(1) Figure (i) (2) Figure (ii) (3) Figure (iii) (4) Figure (iv)
Ans. (1)
Sol. If a positive point charge is brought near an isolated conducting sphere, then there induced a
negative charge on left side of the sphere and an equal positive charge on the right side of the
sphere. Electric line of force emanating from the point positive charge end normally on the left side
of the sphere. And due to positive charge on the right side of the sphere, the electric lines of force
emanate normally from the right side. So the electric field is best given by figure (i)
3. Three charges of (+2q), (–q) and (–q) are placed at the corners A, B and C of an equilateral triangle
of side a as shown in the adjoining figure. Then the dipole moment of this combination is

(1) 2 3 qa (2) Zero (3) qa 3 (4) 2qa

Ans. (3)
Sol. The charge +2q can be broken in +q, +q. Now as shown in figure we have two equal dipole inclined
at an angle of 60°. Therefore resultant dipole moment will be.

pnet = p2 + p2 + 2ppcos60

4
 pnet = 3p = 3p = 3qa
4. An electric dipole is placed perpendicular to an infinite line of charge at some distance as shown in
figure. Identify the correct statement :

(1) The dipole is attracted towards the line charge

(2) The dipole is repelled away from the line charge
(3) The dipole does not experience a force
(4) The dipole experiences a force as well as a torque
Ans. (1)
Sol. Negative charge or dipole is near to positively charged line charge. Hence attraction is more.
5. Choose the correct statement about the Gauss Law.

(1) The quantity  E  dS is affected by the charges lying outside the gaussian surface.
(2) The quantity  E  dS depends on the charge distribution inside the gaussian surface.
(3) The quantity  E  dS is independent of the charge distribution inside the gaussian surface.
(4) The quantity  E  dS depends on the shape of the gaussian surface.
Ans. (3)

Sol. According to Gauss law, the integral  E  dS is independent of

The shape of the gaussian surface
The charges lying outside it
The charge distribution inside it.
6. Two short magnets of equal dipole moments M are fastened perpendicularly at their centre (figure).
The magnitude of the magnetic field at a distance d from the centre on the bisector of the right
angle is:

0 M 0 M 2 0 2 2M 0 2M
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 d3 4 d3 4 d3 4 d3
5
Ans. (2)
Sol. Resultant magnetic moment of the two magnets is:

Mnet = M2 + M2 = 2M

Imagine a short magnets lying along OP with magnetic moment equal to M 2 . Thus point P lies on
the axial line of the magnet.
 Magnitude of magnetic field at P is given by

0 2M
B=
4 d3

7. A hemisphere of (radius R) is placed in an electric field E as shown in the figure. Total outgoing flux
is

(1) R2E (2) 2R2E (3) 4R2E (4) (R2E)/2

Ans. (1)
Sol. Flux leaving the hemisphere is same as the flux entering the circular face  = E.R2
8. Two metal spheres of radii R1 and R2 are charged to the same potential. The ratio of charges on the
spheres is

(1) R 1 : R2 (2) R1 : R2 (3) R12 : R22 (4) R13 : R23

Ans. (2)
Sol. Spheres have same potential
Q1 Q Q R
i.e k =k 2  1 = 1
R1 R2 Q2 R2

9. Initially the spheres A and B are at potential VA and VB respectively. Now sphere B is earthed by
closing the switch. The potential of A will now become :

(1) 0 (2) VA (3) VA – VB (4) VB

Ans. (3)
Sol. The potential difference between two concentric shells does not depend on the outer shell charge
so it will remain the same.
6
10. There exists a uniform electric field in the space as shown. Four points A, B, C and D are marked
which are equidistant from the origin. If VA, VB, VC and VD are their potentials respectively, then

(1) VB > VA > VC > VD (2) VA > VB > VD > VC (3) VA > VB = VD > VC (4) VB > VC > VA > VD
Ans. (2)
Sol. Four lines perpendicular to lines of electric field and passing through A, B, C and D are drawn. These
are equipotential lines. As potential decreases in the direction of electric field, therefore V A > VB >
VD > VC.
11. A parallel plate capacitor has plate area A and separation d. It is charged to a potential difference
V0. The charging battery is disconnected and the plates are pulled apart to three times the initial
separation. The work required to separate the plates is
30 AV02 30 AV02 0 AV02 0 AV02
(1) (2) (3) (4)
d 2d 3d d
Ans. (4)
Sol. Work done W = Uf – Ui
1 1 (C) 1
Ui = CV2 and Uf = .(3V0 )2 = 3  CV02
2 0 2 3 2

0 AV02
So W =
d
12. As shown in the figure, a very thin sheet of aluminium is placed in between the plates of the
condenser. Then the capacity

(1) will increase (2) will decrease

(3) remains unchanged (4) may increase or decrease
Ans. (3)
Sol. Since aluminium is a metal, therefore field inside this will be zero. Hence it would not affect the
q q
field in between the two plates, so capacity = = remains unchanged.
v Ed
13. Three plates of common surface area A are connected as shown. The effective capacitance will be

0A 30A 3 0A 20A

(1) (2) (3) (4)
d d 2 d d
Ans. (4)

7
Sol. The given circuit is equivalent to parallel combination of two identical capacitors, each having
0A 20 A
capacitance C = Hence Ceq = 2C =
d d
14. A parallel plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with three different
dielectric materials having dielectric constants K1, K2 and K3 as shown. If a single dielectric material
is to be used to have the same capacitance C in this capacitor, then its dielectric constant Keq is
given by:

 K1K3 K2K3 
(1) Keq = 1 + 1 + 1 (2) Keq =  + 
K1 K2 2K3 K1 + K3 K2 + K3 

K1K2
(3) Keq = + 2K3 (4) Keq = K1 + K2 + 2K3
K1 + K2
Ans. (2)
Sol.

A
K 1 0
C1 = 2 = K 1 0 A
d d
2
A A
K2 0 K 
C2 = 2 = K2 0 A and C = 3 0 2 = K3 0 A
3
d d d d
2 2

0A  K1K3 KK 
Ceq =  + 2 3 
d K1 + K3 K2 + K3 

8
  KK KK 
Keq =  1 3 + 2 3 
K1 + K3 K2 + K3 
15. A closed surface S encloses a magnetic dipole of magnetic moment 2m. The magnetic flux emerging
from the surface is:

(1) 0m (2) zero (3) 20m (4) 2m

0

Ans. (2)
Sol. According to Gauss’s law in magnetism, net magnetic flux through any closed surface is always zero.
i.e  B. dS = 0
s

16. Magnetic field (B) is uniform in a region. A square surface of area S held in the field region with the
field directed normal to the surface. Now the surface is titled by 60° about its diagonal. The magnetic
flux through the surface is:

BS 3BS
(1) (2) (3) BS (4) BS
2 2 2
Ans. (1)

Sol. Initially B is parallel to S . When the surface is tilled by 60°, the S tilts by 60°. Now, the flux is  =
BS
BScos60° = .
2
17. Two concentric conducting spheres of radii R and 2R are carrying charges Q and –2Q respectively.
If the charge on inner sphere is doubled, the potential difference between the two spheres will:

(1) become two times (2) become four times

(3) be halved (4) remain same
Ans. (1)
qin  1 1 
Sol. Potential difference =  − 
40  R 2R 

Potential difference  qin

18. As shown in figure, a magnet is moved with a fast speed towards a coil at rest. Due to this induced
electromotive force, induced current and induced charge in the coil are E, I and Q respectively. If
the speed of magnet is doubled, the incorrect statement is:

9
 (1) E increases (2) I increases (3) Q remains the same (4) Q increases
Ans. (4)
Sol. With the increases in the time rate of change of flux, both induced emf and current increases. But
the induced charge does not depend upon time. So, it would remain the same.
19. Two inductors L1 and L2 are connected in parallel and a time varying current flows as shown:
The ratio of currents i1/i2 at any time t is:

L21 L22
(1) L1/L2 (2) L2/L1 (3) (4)
(L1 + L2 )2 (L1 + L2 )2
Ans. (2)
Sol. The inductors are in parallel. Therefore, potential difference across them is same,
Hence, V1 = V2

 di   di 
 = L2  
1 2
Or L 1 
dt
  dt
 
Or L1(di1) = L2(di2)
Integrating, we get
L1i1 = L2i2
i1 L
Or = 2
i2 L1

20. Find the equivalent resistance across AB:

(1) 1  (2) 2  (3) 3  (4) 4 

Ans. (1)
Sol. The figure can be redrawn as:

10
 22
RAB =
2+2
RAB = 1 
21. The value of current I in the given circuit is:

(1) 3 A (2) 13 A (3) 23 A (4) –3 A

Ans. (2)
Sol. Applying Kirchoff’s current law
+15 – 5 + 3 – I = 0 Or I = 13 A

22. Two sources of emf 6V and internal resistance 3  and 2  are connected to an external resistance
R as shown. If potential difference across battery A is zero, then value of R is:

(1) 1  (2) 2  (3) 3  (4) 4 

Ans. (1)

12
Sol. I =  V = E − Ir = 0
5+R

 12 
6−   3 = 0  R = 1
5+R

23. Two bulbs X and Y having same voltage rating and of power 40 watt and 60 watt respectively are
connected in series across a potential difference of 300 volt, then:

11
 (1) X will glow brighter
(2) resistance of Y is greater than X
(3) heat produced in Y will be greater than X
(4) voltage drop in X will be lesser than Y
Ans. (1)

1
Sol. Resistance  .Thus 40 W bulb has a high resistance. Because of which there will be more
Power
potential drop across 40 W bulb. Thus 40 W bulb will glow brighter.
24. The resistance of platinum wire at 0°C is 2 and 6.8  at 80°C. The temperature coefficient of
resistance of the wire is:
(1) 3 × 10–3 °C–1 (2) 3 × 10–2 °C–1 (3) 3 × 10–1 °C–1 (4) 3 × 10–4 °C–1
Ans. (2)
Sol. R = R0 [ 1 +  ( – 0)]
6.8 = 2 [1 +  × 80]
 = 3 × 10–2 °C–1
25. A uniform wire of diameter d carries a current of 100 mA when the mean drift velocity of electrons
d
in the wire is v. For a wire of diameter of the same material to carry a current of 200 mA, the
2
mean drift velocity of electrons in the wire is:
(1) 4v (2) 8 v (3) v (4) 2v
Ans. (2)
Sol. Current i = nAvde (vd = mean drift velocity)

 D2 
= n   vde
 4 
4i
Vd =
D2ne

V1 i1  D22 100  10−3  d2

= 2 =
V2 D1  i2 200  10−3  4  d2

V2 = 8 v
26. The RC series circuit is connected to a battery of emf E. The time required by the capacitor to
acquire maximum charge, depends on:
(1) R only (2) C only
(3) both R and C (4) applied potential difference
Ans. (3)
Sol. both R and C
12
27. The magnetic field B cannot change the kinetic energy of the charge because:

(1) B is perpendicular to v
(2) magnetic force is perpendicular to B

(3) magnetic force is perpendicular to v

(4) magnetic force is not conservative
Ans. (3)

Sol. magnetic force is perpendicular to v

28. Three charge particles, a proton, a deuteron and an alpha particle are accelerated through the same
potential difference into a region of uniform magnetic field, then the ratio r p : rd : r is:

(1) 1 : 2 : 2 (2) 1 : 2 :2 (3) 1 : 2: 2 (4) 1 : 1 : 1

Ans. (3)
Sol. If the particles are accelerated through the the same potential difference V, then

1 2mV 1 2 4
K = qV or r =  rp : rd : r :: : :
B q e e 2e

Or rp : rd : r :: 1 : 2: 2

29. Two equal electric currents are flowing perpendicular to each other as shown in figure. AB and CD
are perpendicular to each other and symmetrically placed with respect to the currents. Where do
we expect the resultant magnetic field to be zero?

(1) On AB only (2) On CD only (3) On OB and OC only (4) On OC and OA only
Ans. (1)
Sol. The resultant magnetic field is zero where the magnetic field produced by both the wire are opposite
to each other.

30. Current I1 and I2 flow in the wires as shown in figure. The field is zero at distance x to the right of O.
Then,

13
  I1   I2   I1 − I2   I1 + I2 
(1) x =   a (2) x =   a (3) x =   a (4) x =   a
 I2   I1   I1 + I2   I1 − I2 
Ans. (3)

0I1 0I2
Sol. =
4(a + x) 4(a − x)

a−x I
= 2
a+x I1

I1a – I1x = I2a + I2x

I −I 
x =  1 2  a
 I1 + I2 
31. Current flows through uniform, square frames as shown in the figure. In which case is the magnetic
field at the centre of the frame not zero?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Ans. (c)
Sol. Conceptual
32. In the figure, shown, the magnetic induction at the centre of the arc due to the current in portion
AB will be:

0i 0i 0i

(1) (2) (3) (4) Zero
r 2r 4r
Ans. (4)
Sol. The magnetic induction at O due to the current in portion AB will be zero because O lies on AB when
extended
33. The resistances of the three parts of a circular loop are as shown in the figure. The magnetic field
at the centre O is:

14
 0I 0I 2 0I
(1) (2) (3) (4) zero
6a 3a 3 a
Ans. (4)
Sol. No current will flow through section BC as the potential of points B and C are same hence magnetic
field at centre O will be equal and opposite due to section AB and AC hence cancel out
34. A 90 cm long solenoid has six layers of windings of 450 turns each. If the diameter of solenoid is
2.2 cm and current carried is 6 A, then the magnitude of magnetic field inside the solenoid, near its
centre is:
(1) 50 G (2) 60 G (3) 72 G (4) 80 G
Ans. (3)
Sol. For six layer of windings the total number of turns = 6 × 450 = 2700
Now number of turns per unit length

N 2700
n= = = 3000
l 90  10−2
Then the field inside the solenoid near the centre
B = 0 nI = 4 × 10–7 × 3000 × 6 = 72  × 10–4 T = 72G [because 1 T = 104 G]
35. A long, straight, thick conductor carrying a current has two sections A and C of unequal cross-
section joined by a conical section B, 1, 2 and 3 are points on a line parallel to the axis of the
conductor. The magnetic fields at 1, 2 and 3 have magnitudes B 1, B2 and B3:

(1) B1 = B2 = B3
(2) B1 = B2  B3
(3) B1 < B2 < B3
(4) B2 cannot be found unless the dimensions of the section B are known
Ans. (1)
Sol. To find the magnetic field outside a thick conductor, the current may be assumed to flow along the
axis. As points 1, 2, 3 are equidistant from the axis. B1 = B2 = B3
36. A bar magnet of length 3 cm has points A and B along its axis at distances of 24 cm and 48 cm on
the opposite sides. Ratio of magnetic fields at these points will be:

15
 (1) 8 (2) 1 / 2 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Ans. (1)
Sol. Both points A and B are lying on the axis of the magnet and on axial position
3 3
1 B d   48  8
B  A =  B  =   =
d3
BB  dA   24  1

37. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface respectively is 1 and 2 the electric
charge inside the surface will be
(1) (1 + 2)0 (2) (2 – 1)0 (3) (1 + 2)/0 (4) (2 – 1)/0
Ans. (2)

Sol. net = 1  Qenc  Qenc = (2 − 1 )0

0

38. The resultant capacitance of given circuit is

C
(1) 3 C (2) 2 C (3) C (4)
3
Ans. (1)

Sol.

39. The given figure represents a material which is:

16
 (1) paramagnetic (2) diamagnetic (3) ferromagnetic (4) none of these
Ans. (2)
Sol. Theory based
40. Two condensers C1 and C2 in a circuit are joined as shown in figure. The potential of point A is V 1 and
that of B is V2. The potential of point D will be:

1 C2 V1 + C1V2 C1V1 + C2 V2 C2 V1 − C1V2

(1) (V + V2 ) (2) (3) (4)
2 1 C 1 + C2 C 1 + C2 C 1 + C2

Ans. (3)
Sol. Charge on C1 = Charge on C2
 C1(V1 – VD) = C2(VD – V2)
C1V1 + C2 V2
 C1(V1 – VD) = C2(VD – V2)  VD =
C 1 + C2

41. An infinite sequence of resistances is shown in the figure. The resultant resistance between A and
B will be, when R1 = 1 ohm and R2 = 2 ohm:

(1) infinity (2) 1  (3) 2  (4) 1.5 

Ans. (3)
Sol. Let the resultant resistance be R. If we add one more branch, then the resultant resistance would
be same because this is an infinite sequence.

2R
R= +1
2+R
2R + R2 = 2R + R + 2
R2 – R – 2 = 0
(R–2) (R+1) = 0
R = 2 As R = –1 is not possible
42. The magnetic flux linked with a coil at any instant ‘t’ is given by  = 5t3 – 100 t + 300, the e.m.f
induced in the coil at t = 2 seconds is:
(1) –40 V (2) 40 V (3) 140 V (4) 300 V
Ans. (2)

17
 d d
Sol. e = − = − (5t3 − 100t + 300) = −(15t 2 − 100)
dt dt
At t = 2 sec; e = 40 V
43. Thirteen resistance each of resistance R ohm are connected in the circuit as shown in the figure
below. The effective resistance between A and B is:

4R 2R
(1) 2R  (2)  (3)  (4) R 
3 3
Ans. (3)
Sol.

2R
Hence Req =
3

44. In the LR circuit as shown in figure, the switch is closed at t = 0. Then,

(1) the current decreases with time

(2) the current increases with time
(3) the voltage drop across the inductor increases
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
Sol. In the beginning , voltage drop across the inductor is maximum and it is equal to E. With time, it
starts decreasing and the same across the resistor starts increasing at the same rate so that V R +
VL = E.

VR
As VR increases with time, the current also increases with time i =
R

18
45. The figure shows four wire loops, with edge lengths of either L or 2L. All four loops will move through
a region of uniform magnetic field B (direction out of the page) at the same constant velocity. Rank
the four loops according to the maximum magnitude of the e.m.f induced as they move through the
field, greatest first:

(1) (ec = ed) < (ea = eb) (2) (ec = ed) > (ea = eb) (3) ec > ed > eb > ea (4) ec < ed < eb < ea
Ans. (2)
Sol. EMF induces across the length of the wire which cuts the magnetic field. (Length of c = d, Length
of a = b). So (eC = ed) > (ea = eb)

PART-B : CHEMISTRY
46. For the reaction R → P, the concentration of a reactant changes from 0.03 M to 0.02 M in 25 minutes.
Calculate the average rate of reactions using units of time in minutes:
(1) 4.0 × 10–4 M min–1 (2) 5.0 × 10–4 M min–1 (3) 4.0 × 10–5 M min–1 (4) 40 × 10–4 M min–1
Ans. (1)

−C −(0.02 − 0.03)

Sol. ravg = = = 4  10−4 M min−1
t 25

47. In the following question, statement I is followed by statement II. It has the following four choices
out of which only one is correct.
Statement I :- The rate of the reaction is the rate of change of concentration of a reactant or a
product w.r.t time.
Statement II : - Rate of reaction remains constant during the complete reaction.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
Ans. (3)
Sol. Rate of reaction generally decrease with time
48. The following data is for the reaction between A and B is first order w.r.t A and zero order w.r.t B.

Exp [A] mol/L [B] mol/L Initial rate mol L–1 min–1

I 0.1 0.1 2 × 10–2

II X 0.2 4 × 10–2

III 0.4 0.4 Y

Then what are the values of X and Y, respectively?

(1) 0.2, 0.4 (2) 0.2, 0.08 (3) 0.8, 0.2 (4) 0.4, 0.2
Ans. (2)

19
Sol. r = K[A]1 [B]0
 X = 0.2 , Y = 8 × 10–2 = 0.08
49. The half life period for a zero order reaction is equal to:

2k [A]0 0.693
(1) (2) (3) (4) 0.693
[A]0 2k k k[A]0

Ans. (2)
Sol. for a zero order reaction

[A]0
t1/2 =
2K

50. According to Arrhenius equation, rate constant k is equal to Ae−E a /RT . Which of the following options
1
represents the graph of ln k versus ?
T

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Ans. (1)
−Ea

Sol. K = A.e RT

Ea
 lnk = ln A −
RT

51. A hypothetical reaction A2 + B2 → 2AB follows the mechanism as given below:

A2 A + A (fast)

A + B2 → AB + B (slow)
A + B → AB (fast)
The order of the overall reaction is:

1
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 1 (4) 0
2
Ans. (3)
Sol. r = K[A] [B2] …………(i)

A2 A+A

20
  Kf [A2] = Kb [A]2
 [A] = K [A2]1/2 …………(ii)
Put the value of [A] in equation (i)
 r = K. K[A2]1/2 [B2]
 r = K0 [A2]1/2 [B2]

1 3 1
Overall order = +1= = 1
2 2 2
52. The rate law for a reaction between the substances A and B is given by rate = k [A] n [B]m. on doubling
the concentration of A and on decreasing the concentration of B by half, the ratio of the new rate
to the earlier rate of the reaction will be as:

1
(1) m+n
(2) (m+n) (3) (n–m) (4) 2(n–m)
2
Ans. (4)
Sol. r = K[A]n [B]m
When [A] is doubled and [B] is half
m
B 
r = K [2A]n  
2

1
r = K.2n. .[A]n [B]m
2m

r'
 = 2(n−m)
r
53. If rate constant is numerically the same for three reactions of first, second and third order
respectively, then which of the following is correct? (r1, r2 and r3 are the rate of 1st, 2nd and 3rd order
reaction respectively)
(1) If [A] = 1 then r1 = r2 = r3 (2) If [A] < 1 then r1 > r2 > r3
(3) If [A] > 1 then r3 > r2 > r1 (4) All of the above
Ans. (4)
Sol. r1 = K[A]1
r2 = K [A]2
r3 = K[A]3
If [A] = 1  r1 = r2 = r3 = K
If [A] < 1  r3 < r2 < r1
If [A] > 1  r3 > r2 > r1
54. For a first order reaction A → Products, initial concentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes 0.001 M
after 5 minutes. Rate constant for the reaction in min–1 is:
(1) 0.4606 (2) 0.2303 (3) 1.3818 (4) 0.9212
Ans. (4)

21
 2.303 [A]
Sol. K = log 0
t [A]t

2.303 [0.1]
K = log
5 [0.001]

 K = 0.9212
55. For an ideal solution, the correct option is:
(1) mixG = 0 at constant T & P (2) mixS = 0 at constant T & P
(3) mixV  0 at constant T & P (4) mixH = 0 at constant T & P
Ans. (4)
Sol. mixH = 0 at constant T & P
56. Hardness of a water sample is 100 ppm CaCO3. Thus, molarity of CaCO3 is:
(1) 2 × 10–3 M (2) 1 × 10–3 M (3) 2 × 10–2 M (4) 2 × 10–4 M
Ans. (2)
Sol. Hardness of water sample = 100 ppm
 106 mL water has 100 g CaCO3 = 1 mol

 Molarity = moles = 1 3 = 1  10−3 M

vol (L) 10

57. The vapour pressure of a water at 298 K is 30 mmHg. If the mole fraction of water is 0.9 at same
temperature, the vapour pressure of solution (in mmHg, containing non-volatile solute) will be:
(1) 30 (2) 24 (3) 21 (4) 27
Ans. (4)
Sol. PA = P°A XA
=30 × 0.9
= 27 mm Hg
58. The units of Kb (ebullioscopic constant) can never be: ( m = molality)
(1) K m–1 (2) K mol L–1 (3) K kg mol–1 (4) °C m–1
Ans. (2)
Sol. Tb = Kb × m

Tb unit of temperature

 Kb = =
m Units of molality

Kelvin Or C
=
m or mol.kg −1

59. The van’t Hoff factor of CaBr2 at 0.01 M concentration is 1.95. The percentage of dissociation of
solute at this concentration is:
(1) 44.95% (2) 50.5% (3) 47.5% (4) 49%
Ans. (3)
Sol. i = 1 + (n–1) 

22
  1.95 = 1 + (3–1) 

0.95
= = 0.475
2
% = 47.5 %
60. Given below are two statements: One labelled as Assertion A and the other labelled as Reason R:
Assertion (A): Relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solvent.
Reason (R): Relative lowering of vapour pressure is a colligative property.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true
Ans. (4)
Sol. R.L.V.P is equal to mole fraction of solute not solvent and it is a colligative property.
61. The mixture that form maximum boiling azeotrope is:
(1) Water + nitric acid (2) Ethanol + water
(3) Acetone + carbon disulphide (4) Heptane + Octane
Ans. (1)
Sol. Solution showing negative deviation form Raoult’s law will form maximum boiling azeotrope
62. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. The depression in freezing
point for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is (rounded
off upto two decimal places):
(1) 0.60 K (2) 0.20 K (3) 0.80 K (4) 0.40 K
Ans. (4)
Sol. Tf = Kf × m
= 5.12 × 0.078
= 0.40 K
63. The Henry’s law constant (KH) values of three gases (A, B, C) in water are 145, 2 × 10 –5 and 35 kbar,
respectively. The solubility of these gases in water follows the order:
(1) A > C > B (2) A > B > C (3) B > A > C (4) B > C > A
Ans. (4)

Sol. Solubility  1
KH

KH  Solubility 
B>C>A

23
64.

Referring to the above plot, consider the following statements:

The Nernst equation for the Mg electrode is:

0.0591 1
(i) E 2+ = E 2+ − log 10
Mg /Mg Mg /Mg n [Mg 2+ ]

0.0591
(ii) EMg2+ /Mg = EMg2+ /Mg + log 10 [Mg 2+ ]
n
Choose the most appropriate response:
(1) Only (i) is correct (ii) Only (ii) is correct
(3) Both (i) and (ii) are correct (4) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
Ans. (3)
Sol. Reaction of electrode is

0.0591 [Mg(s)]
E = E − log 10
Mg2 + /Mg Mg2 + /Mg n [Mg 2+ ]

0.0591
EMg2+ /Mg = EMg2+ /Mg + log 10 [Mg 2+ ]
n

0.0591
EMg2+ /Mg = EMg2+ /Mg + log 10 [Mg 2+ ]
n
Both are correct
65. The maximum work done that can be obtained from Daniell cell with standard cell potential = 1.10
V is (Given : F = 96500 C/mol):
(1) –134.3 kJ/mol (2) –567.56 kJ/mol (3) –212.3 kJ/mol (4) –451.8 kJ/mol
Ans. (3)
Sol. The maximum work done that can be obtained from cell reaction is equal to the free energy for the
cell reaction.

c
G° = –nFE°cell = –2 × 96500 × 1.10 V (1 CV = 1J)
mol

= –212300 J/mol
= –212.3 KJ/mol
66. The specific conductance of a 0.1 N KCl solution at 23°C is 0.012 ohm –1 cm–1. The resistance of cell
containing the solution at the same temperature was found to be 55 ohm. The cell constant will be:
(1) 0.142 cm–1 (2) 0.918 cm–1 (3) 0.66 cm–1 (4) 1.12 cm–1
Ans. (3)

Sol.  = 0.012 –1 cm–1 N = 0.1 R = 55 

Cell constant =  × R = 0.012 × 55 = 0.66 cm–1

24
67. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 . The specific conductance of the solution is
1.4 S m–1. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is 280 . The molar conductivity
of 0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in S m2 mol–1 is:
(1) 5 × 10–4 (2) 5 × 10–3 (3) 5 × 103 (4) 5 × 102
Ans. (1)
Sol. For 0.2 M soln For 0.5 M soln
R = 50  R = 280 

G* 70 1
 = 1.4 Sm–1  = = = Sm−1
R 280 4

  10−3 1 10−3
G* =  × R m = = 
M 4 0.5

= 1.4 × 50 m = 5 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1

= 70 m–1
68. Match the column:

Column-I Column-II

A Conductance i. Ohm cm–1

B Cell constant ii. cm–1

C Molar conductivity iii. Ohm–1 cm+2 mol–1

D Specific Conductance iv. Ohm–1

v. Ohm–1 cm–1

(1) A – (iii), B (iv), C – (i), D – (ii) (2) A – (ii), B (iii), C – (i), D – (iv)
(3) A – (iv), B (ii), C – (iii), D – (v) (4) A – (iv), B (ii), C – (v), D – (iii)
Ans. (3)
Sol. A – (iv), B (ii), C – (iii), D – (v)
69. The electrode potentials for:
Cu2+(aq) + e– → Cu+(aq) and
Cu+(aq) + e– → Cu(s)

are +0.15 V and +0.50 V respectively. The value of ECu2+ /Cu will be:

(1) 0.325 V (2) 0.650 V (3) 0.150 V (4) 0.500 V

Ans. (1)
Sol. G° = –nFE°cell
Cu2+ + e– → Cu+ G° = –1 × F × 0.15
Cu+ + e– → Cu G° = –1 × F × 0.50
Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu G° = –2 × F × X
 – 0.15 F – 0.50 F = – 2FX
 –0.65 = –2X

25
 0.65
x = = 0.325 V
2
70. Standard electrode potential of three metals X, Y and Z are –1.2 V, + 0.5 V and –3.0V respectively.
The reducing power of these metals will be:
(1) Y > X > Z (2) Z > X > Y (3) X > Y > Z (4) Y > Z > X
Ans. (2)
Sol. Higher the reduction potential, lesser the reducing power Z > X > Y
71. If the E°cell for a given reaction has a negative value, which of the following gives correct relationships
for the values of G° and Keq?
(1) G° > 0; Keq < 1 (2) G° > 0; Keq > 1 (3) G° < 0; Keq > 1 (4) G° < 0; Keq < 1
Ans. (1)

Sol. G° = −nFEcell

( − ) ve

 G° = (+) ve
G = G° + RT lnkeq (At eqlm G = 0)

G
= −RTlnkeq
( +)ve
1

72. In the electrochemical cell

Zn | ZnSO4 (0.01M) || CuSO4 (1.0M) | Cu,
The emf of this Daniell cell is E1. When the concentration of ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0 M, and that of
CuSO4 changed to 0.01 M, the emf changes to E2. From the followings which one is the relationship
between E1 and E2?

 RT 
 Given : = 0.059 
 F 

(1) E1 < E2 (2) E1 > E2 (3) E2 = 0  E1 (4) E1 = E2

Ans. (2)
2+
Sol. Ecell = E°cell – 0.059 log [Zn2+ ]
n [Cu ]

0.059  0.01 
E1 = E° – log   = E + 0.059
2  1 

0.059  1 
E2 = E° – log   = E − 0.059
2  0.01 

E 1 > E2
73. From the given structural isomers of C5H11Br, which one is primary alkyl halide?
A. 1-Bromo-3-methyl butane B. 1-Bromo-2, 2-dimethylpropane
C. 1-chloro-4-ethylcyclohexane D. 2-Bromo-2-methyl butane
Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given below:
(1) A and B only (2) B and C only (3) A, B and C only (4) B, C and D only
Ans. (1)
26
Sol. A and B only
74. The compounds in which the halogen atom is directly bonded to the sp 2 hybridised carbon atom of
an aromatic ring are:
(1) Vinyl halides (2) Aryl halides (3) Allylic halides (4) Benzylic halides
Ans. (2)

Sol. → Aryl halides

75. product A is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

Ans. (3)

Sol.

hv
76. CH2=CH—CH3+NBS ⎯⎯⎯ → A. A will be:
(1)

(2)

(3) CH2 = CH —CH2Br

(4) All of these
Ans. (3)
hv
Sol. CH2=CH—CH3+NBS ⎯⎯⎯ → CH2 = CH —CH2Br
(Allylic substitution)
77. How many of the following reagents can convert propan-1-ol to n-propyl chloride?
A. PCl5 B. SOCl2 C. SO2Cl2 D. Cl2
Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given below:
(1) A, B and C only (2) A and B only (3) A and C only (4) All

27
Ans. (2)
Sol. Only PCl5 and SOCl2 can convert Propan-1-ol to n-Propyl chloride.
78. Which of the following reactions involve formation of free radical as intermediate?
hv
A. CH4 + Cl2 ⎯⎯⎯ →
H2O2
B. CH2 = CH — CH3 + HBr ⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
R2O2
C. CH2 = CH2 + HCl ⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
773K
D. CH3CH = CH2 + Cl2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and C only (2) A, B and D only (3) A and D only (4) All
Ans. (2)
Sol. Chlorination of methane, addition of HBr/ Peroxide to unsymmetrical alkenes and allylic chlorination
involves free radical as inter mediate.
79. C2H5Cl + AgF → C2H5F + AgCl
The above reaction is called _____________
(1) Hunsdiecker reaction (2) Swarts reaction
(3) Fittig reaction (4) Wurtz reaction
Ans. (2)
Sol. The above reaction is called Swarts reaction
80. Chlorobenzene is prepared commercially by:
(1) Raschig process (2) Wurtz-Fittig reaction
(3) Friedel-Crafts reaction (4) Grignard reaction
Ans. (1)
Sol. Chlorobenzene is prepared commercially by Raschig process
81. Arrange the following halides in the decreasing order of SN1 reactivity:
(i) CH3CH2CH2Cl (ii) CH2=CHCH(Cl)CH3 (iii)CH3CH2CH(Cl)CH3
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) i > ii > iii (2) ii > i > iii (3) ii > iii > i (4) iii > ii > i
Ans. (3)
Sol. In SN1 reaction reactivity depends upon the stability of carbocation formed as intermediate
ii > iii > i
82. Vinyl benzene on hydration forms:
(1) 1-Phenylethanol (2) 2-Phenylethanol (3) Phenylethanal (4) Acetophenone
Ans. (1)

Sol.

83. In the reaction:

28
 P +I2 A B
CH3CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯→ CH3CH2I ⎯⎯⎯→ CH3CH2NO2 ⎯⎯⎯→ C ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Dil. NaOH
→ Blood red colour

The compounds A, B and C respectively are:

(1) HNO2, AgNO3, CH3CH2NH2 (2) AgNO2, HNO3, CH3C(NO2)NOH
(3) AgNO2, HNO2, CH3C(NO2)NOH (4) AgNO3, HNO2, CH3CH(NO2)NO
Ans. (3)

AgNO HNO
CH3 — C —NO2
2 →
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 2
⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Sol. CH3CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯→ CH3CH2IP +I2
CH3CH2NO2 ||
(A) (B)
N— OH

CH3 — C —NO2
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ ||
Dil. NaOH

NO–Na +

(Blood red colour)

84. Analyse the following reactions:

Choose the correct statements.

A. (A) is formed by SN reaction
B. (A) is (CH3)2C=CH—CH3
C. (B) gives turbidity immediately at room temperature in Lucas test.
D. (C) gives positive iodoform test
Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given below:
(1) B, C and D are correct (2) B and D are correct
(3) A and C are correct (4) A, B, C and D are correct
Ans. (2)
Sol. (A) (CH3)2C=CH—CH3
(B)

(C)

85. The acid with highest pKa is:

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Ans. (2)
29
Sol. E.W.G increases and E.D.G decrease the acidic strength

Ka  pKa 

Major product is:

86.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Ans. (3)

Sol.

87. Litmus test is given by:

(1) C6H5OH (2) R—OH (3) CH  CH (4) All
Ans. (1)
Sol. Litmus test is given by C6H5OH

88.

Compound B is:
(1) Salicylic acid (2) Sodium Salicylate (3) Salicyldehyde (4) Benzoic acid
Ans. (1)

Sol.

89. Match the column:

Column-I Column-II

A Wood spirit i. (CH3)2CH—OH

B Grain alcohol ii.

C Rubbing alcohol iii. CH3CH2OH

D Carbolic acid iv. CH3OH

(1) A – (i), B (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv) (2) A – (ii), B (iii), C – (iv), D – (i)

30
 (3) A – (iii), B (iv), C – (ii), D – (i) (4) A – (iv), B (iii), C – (i), D – (ii)
Ans. (4)
Sol. A – (iv), B (iii), C – (i), D – (ii)
90. Match the column:

Column-I Column-II

A CH3CH2OH → CH3COOH i. PCC

B ii. MnO2
(Active)/Charcoal

C iii. KMnO4/H+

D iv. Zn dust

(1) A – (i), B (iii), C – (iv), D – (i) (2) A – (iv), B (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)
(3) A – (iii), B (i), C – (iv), D – (ii) (4) A – (i), B (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)
Ans. (3)
Sol. A – (iii), B (i), C – (iv), D – (ii)

PART-C : BOTANY
91. A typical anther is bilobed and tetrasporangiate. It shows all these characteristics except:
(1) Dithecous condition in each lobe
(2) Four wall layers
(3) Microsporangia develop and become pollen sac
(4) Transverse groove runs length wise separating the theca
Ans. (4)
Sol. Longitudinal groove runs length wise separating the theca.
92. Pollen exine is hard and made up of:
(1) Sporopollenin (2) Pectin and cellulose
(3) Cellulose and suberin (4) Lignocellulose
Ans. (1)
Sol. Pollen exine is hard and made up of Sporopollenin
93. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(1) Each cell of the sporogenous tissue is a potential pollen
(2) Dissociated pollen grains from tetrad are referred to as microspores
(3) Sporopollenin is considered non-biodegradable
(4) A typical anther is dithecous and tetrasporangiate
Ans. (2)
Sol. Microspores dissociates from each other and developes into pollen grains
31
94. Given below are two statements: One labelled as Assertion A and the other labelled as Reason R:
Assertion (A): Apomixis is important in hybrid seed industry.
Reason (R): In apomictic seeds, there is segregation of characters in hybrid progeny.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) If both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) If A is true, but R is false.
(4) If both A and R are false
Ans. (3)
Sol. In apomictic seeds, there is no segregation of characters in hybrid progeny.
95. The male gametophyte of a typical angiosperm
A. Is surrounded by a single layered wall
B. Is well protected by sporopollenin
C. Is mostly three-celled at the time of dispersal
D. Can be stored in liquid nitrogen for future use
(1) Only A is incorrect (2) Only A B and D are correct
(3) Only B and D are correct (4) Only A, B and C are correct
Ans. (3)
Sol. The male gametophyte of a typical angiosperm is surrounded by a double layered wall i.e., intine
and exine. And they are mostly two celled at the time of dispersal.
96. In Hibiscus, pistil is:
(1) Multicarpellary apocarpous (2) Monocarpellary unilocular
(3) Multicarpellary syncarpous (4) Monocarpellary multilocular
Ans. (3)
Sol. Pistil of Hibiscus is Multicarpellary syncarpous. While in Papaver and Michelia it is Multicarpellary
syncarpous and Multicarpellary apocarpous respectively.
97. An ovary may have a single ovule as in __A__ or many ovules as in __B__. Select the correct option
to fill the blanks __A__ and __B__.

A B

(1) Mango Wheat

(2) Wheat Paddy

(3) Wheat Orchids

(4) Orchids Watermelon

Ans. (3)
Sol. A- Wheat, B – Orchids. Single ovule is found in Wheat, Paddy, Mango. Whereas many ovules are
present in Papaya, Watermelon and Orchids.
98. Given below is the diagrammatic representation of embryo sac. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C,
and D and select the correct option:

32
 (1) A - Antipodals; B - Central cell; C - Synergids; D - Obturator
(2) A - Antipodals; B - Polar nuclei; C - Synergids; D - Filiform apparatus
(3) A - Antipodals; B - Central cell; C - Synergids; D - Filiform apparatus
(4) A - Synergids; B - Polar nuclei; C - Antipodals; D – Obturator
Ans. (3)
Sol. A - Antipodals; B - Central cell; C - Synergids; D - Filiform apparatus
99. In geitonogamy,
(1) The transfer of pollen grains from anther of one flower to the stigma of same flower occur
(2) Transfer of pollen grains from anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower of different
plant occur
(3) Transfer of pollen grains from anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower of the same
plant occur
(4) Pollination occur in flower which never opens
Ans. (3)
Sol. Geitonogamy is transfer of pollen grains from anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower
of the same plant.
100. Which organism was used by Meselson and Stahl in their experiment:
(1) TMV (2) Hydra (3) E.coli (4) Bacteriophage
Ans. (3)
Sol. E.coli
101. Consider the following statements and state them true (T) or false (F).
A. Cleistogamy ensure self-pollination.
B. Flowers of Yucca are pollinated by Pronuba moth.
C. Entomophilous flowers have large feathery stigma.
D. Geitonogamy is genetically cross-pollination but functionally self-pollination.

A B C D
(1) F T T F
(2) T T F F

33
 (3) T F F T
(4) F T T T
Ans. (2)
Sol. Wind pollinated flowers have large feathery stigma.
Geitonogamy is genetically self-pollination but functionally cross-pollination.
102. How many of the following features is/are associated with wind pollinated plants?
A. Large and feathery stigma
B. Flowers packed into inflorescence
C. Non-sticky pollen grains
D. Well-exposed stamens
E. Mucilaginous covering around stigma and pollen
F. Nectar rich flower
(1) Four (2) Two (3) Five (4) Three
Ans. (1)
Sol. Only features present in option A, B, C and D are associated with wind pollinated plants.
103. Diameter of pollen grains in flowering plants is:
(1) 50-75 m (2) 10-50 m (3) 75-100 m (4) 25-50 m
Ans. (4)
Sol. Diameter of pollen grains in flowering plants is 25-50 m
104. Continued self-pollination:
(1) May increase genetic diversity
(2) Results in inbreeding depression
(3) Mainly observed in unisexual flowers
(4) Never observed in monoecious plants
Ans. (2)
Sol. Continued self-pollination results in inbreeding depression.
105. Which of the following steps would not be needed for artificial hybridization of crop improvement
programme involving dioecious plants?
(1) Bagging of female flower
(2) Dusting of pollen on stigma
(3) Removal of anther
(4) Re-bagging of flower after pollen dusting
Ans. (3)
Sol. Removal of anther that is emasculation is not needed in dioecious plant, because they have separate
male and female flowers.
106. Choose the correct combination of true (T) and false (F) for the following statements.
A. Exine of the pollen grain is made up of sporopollenin
B. Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
C. Pollen grains of rice and wheat remain viable for several months

34
 D. No enzyme that degrades sporopollenin is known so far.

A B C D

(1) T T F T

(2) T T F F

(3) F F T T

(4) F T F T

Ans. (1)
Sol. Pollen grains of rice and wheat lose viability within 30 minutes of their release.
107. Two traits of a gene in a species are T and t. Individual A of that species produces gametes with T
and t in equal proportion and individual B of that species produces gametes with trait T only.
The correct mathematical representation of the cross between A and B is:
(1) (1/2 T + 1/2 t ) × (1/2 T) = 1/4 Tt + 1/4 Tt (2) (1/4 T + 1/2 T ) × (1/4 T) = 1/16 TT + 1/8 TT
(3) (1/3 T + 1/2 t ) × (1/2 T) = 1/6 TT + 1/4 Tt (4) (1/2 T + 1/2 t ) × T = 1/2 TT + 1/2 Tt
Ans. (4)
Individual A Individual B
 
Tt T
Sol. 
1 1
Gametes T + t  T
2 2

1 1
TT + Tt
2 2
108. In the following question, statement I is followed by statement II. It has the following four choices
out of which only one is correct.
Statement I :- The synergids have special cellular thickening at the chalazal tip called filiform
apparatus.
Statement II : - Filiform apparatus of synergids secrete certain chemotropically active substances
due to which pollen tube grows towards the embryo sac.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
Ans. (4)
Sol. The synergids have special cellular thickening at the micropylar tip called filiform apparatus.

109. RNA as a genetic material is present in all except:

(1) Bacteriophage lambda (2) TMV

(3) QB Bacteriophage (4) HIV

Ans. (1)

Sol. Bacteriophage lambda has dsDNA as genetic material.

35
110. Match the column:

Column-I Column-II

A Monoecious I Papaya

B Dioecious II Castor

C Coleoptile III Radicle

D Coleorhiza IV Plumule

(1) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III (2) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II

(3) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II (4) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III

Ans. (1)

Sol. A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III

111. Theoretically, the modified allele could be responsible for the production of:

(1) Normal/ more efficient enzyme

(2) A functional enzyme

(3) No enzyme at all

(4) Anyone of the above three things could be possible

Ans. (3)

Sol. Theoretically, the modified allele could be responsible for the production of – (1) Normal/ less
efficient enzyme or (2) a non-functional enzyme or (3) no enzyme at all

112. If a cross is made between AA and aa, the nature of F1 progeny will be:

(1) Genotypically aa, phenotypically A (2) Genotypically Aa, phenotypically a

(3) Genotypically Aa, phenotypically A (4) Genotypically AA, phenotypically a

Ans. (3)

Sol. Genotypically Aa, phenotypically A.

AA × aa → A×a → Aa → Aa is Genotypically Aa, phenotypically A.

113. In a homozygous plant, self pollination

(1) Yields progeny which are not variable (2) Yields progeny which are highly variable

(3) Is never possible (4) Is generally overcome by various adaptations

Ans. (1)

Sol. In a homozygous plant, self pollination yields progeny which are not variable.

114. Given below are two statements: One labelled as Assertion A and the other labelled as Reason R:
Assertion (A): In the majority of angiosperms, there is monosporic type of embryo sac development.
Reason (R): The embryo sac develops from a single functional megaspore.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) If both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

36
 (3) If A is true, but R is false.

(4) If both A and R are false

Ans. (1)

Sol. If both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

115. Read the following statements w.r.t Mendel’s experiments and select the correct option.
Statement A : The plants crossed by him did not produce progeny of intermediate inheritance
Statement B : For each pair of alternative character one of the alternative forms was not expressed
in the F1 hybrids, although it reappeared in some F2 individual.
Statement C : Blending inheritance was observed in F1 hybrids.
(1) Only A & B are correct (2) Only B is correct
(3) Only B & C are correct (4) All A, B & C are correct
Ans. (1)
Sol. Blending inheritance is not observed in F1 hybrids
116. A man with blood group A marries a women with blood group B. What are the possible blood groups
of their offsprings:
(1) A and B (2) A, B and AB (3) AB, O (4) A, B, AB and O
Ans. (4)
Sol. A, B, AB and O
A blood group B blood group
 
has two genotypes has two genotypes
 
IAIA or IAIO IBIB or IBIO

Cross between them results in A, B, AB and O blood group

117. A man whose mother was colour blind marries a normal women who has colour blind father, then
the percentage of their daughter that would be colour blind is:
(1) 25% (2) 75% (3) 0% (4) 50%
Ans. (4)
Sol.

Mother − X X Father X Y
 
Man − X Y  Woman − X X

Offsprings − X X, X X, XY, XY

No. of diseased daughter
Percentage of daughter being colour blind =
Total daughter
1
=  100% = 50%
2

37
118. In the following question, statement I is followed by statement II. It has the following four choices
out of which only one is correct.
Statement I :- Colour blindness occurs in about 0.4 percent of male and only about 8 percent of
females.
Statement II : - The genes that lead to red-green colour blindness are on X-Chromosome.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
Ans. (4)
Sol. Colour blindness occurs in about 8 percent of male and only about 0.4 percent of females.
119. What is the probability of getting seeds in F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross for given
genotypes rrYy, RrYy, Rryy?
(1) 2 : 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 4 (3) 2 : 4 : 2 (4) 4 : 4 : 2
Ans. (3)
Sol. 2 : 4 : 2

1 1 1 1 1 1
Rryy =   16 = 2 ; rrYy =   16 = 2 ; RrYy =   16 = 4
2 4 4 2 2 2
120. Mark the pedigree which shows the inheritance of disorder like haemophilia:

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Ans. (4)
Sol. Figure in option (4) shows the inheritance of disorder like haemophilia

121. Given below are two statements: One labelled as Assertion A and the other labelled as Reason R:
Assertion (A): Crossing over between the genes is directly proportional to distance
Reason (R): Greater distance between the genes reduces the possibility of linkage
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) If both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) If A is true, but R is false.
(4) If both A and R are false
Ans. (1)
Sol. If both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
122. Go through the following pairs.
A. Co-dominance : Sickle cell haemoglobin
B. Incomplete dominance : Flower colour in sweet pea
C. Multiple allelism : ABO blood group
D. Pleiotropy : Phenylketonuria
Select the incorrectly matched pair (s)

38
 (1) A and C (2) A, C and D (3) Only B (4) B and D
Ans. (3)
Sol. Only B is incorrect. Incomplete dominance : Flower colour in Snapdragon
123. Match the column:

Column-I Column-II
A Mental I Down’s
retardation syndrome
B Gynaecomastia II Klinefelter’s
syndrome
C Rudimentary III Phenylketonuria
ovaries
D Congenital heart IV Turner’s
diseases syndrome
(1) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV (2) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(3) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D –I (4) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
Ans. (3)
Sol. A – III, B – II, C – IV, D –I
124. The given figure shows the DNA double helix model proposed by “Watson and Crick”. Select the
options that represent correct measurements of A, B, and C marked in the figure.

A B C
(1) 3.4 nm 0.34 nm 2 nm
(2) 34 nm 3.4 nm 20 nm
(3) 3.4 Å 0.34 Å 2Å
(4) 3.4 Å 0.34 Å 20 Å
Ans. (1)
Sol. Option (1) is correct.
125. In the following question, statement I is followed by statement II. It has the following four choices
out of which only one is correct.
Statement I :- A cistron is a segment of DNA which act as functional unit of inheritance.

39
 Statement II :- A cistron can be either monocistronic or polycistronic as in prokaryotes and
eukaryotes respectively
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
Ans. (3)
Sol. A cistron can be either monocistronic or polycistronic as in eukaryotes and prokaryotes respectively
126. A Transcription unit of DNA is define primarily by the following regions in the DNA, except:
(1) Operator (2) Promotor (3) Structural gene (4) Terminator
Ans. (1)
Sol. A Transcription unit of DNA is define primarily by the following regions in the DNA, except Operator
127. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss of a
chromosomes(s), called:
(1) Down syndrome (2) Polyploidy (3) Myotonic dystrophy (4) Aneuploidy
Ans. (4)
Sol. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss of a
chromosomes(s), called Aneuploidy
128. The experimental proof that DNA replicates semi-conservatively was provided by:
(1) Wilkins and Franklin (2) Hershey and Chase
(3) Watson and Crick (4) Meselson and Stahl
Ans. (4)
Sol. The experimental proof that DNA replicates semi-conservatively was provided by Meselson and Stahl
129. Which organism was utilized by Taylor to prove semi-conservative replication at chromosome level?
(1) Vicia faba (2) E. coli (3) Mice (4) Drosophila
Ans. (1)
Sol. Taylor proved semi-conservative replication at chromosome level in Vicia faba
130. Unwinding of DNA creates tension which is released by enzyme:
(1) Pyrophosphate (2) Primase (3) Helicase (4) Topoisomerase
Ans. (4)
Sol. Unwinding of DNA creates tension which is released by enzyme Topoisomerase
131. On the one strand of DNA, its discontinuous synthesis is seen because :
(1) It is more efficient process

(2) DNA polymerase catalyzes polymerization only in one direction i.e 5 → 3.

(3) It is a energy – independent process

(4) DNA molecule is very long to be synthesized in a continuous fashion.
Ans. (2)

Sol. DNA polymerase catalyzes polymerization only in one direction i.e 5 → 3

40
132. Select the incorrect statement(s) from the following:

A. The DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyzes polymerization in 5 → 3 direction.

B. The replication is discontinuous on the coding strand with polarity 3 → 5.

C. DNA replication is energetically a very expensive process.

(1) A and C (2) Only C (3) B and C (4) Only B
Ans. (4)

Sol. The replication is discontinuous on the lagging strand with polarity 5 → 3.

133. Read the following statement w.r.t post transcriptional modifications in eukaryotes and select the
right option.

A. Methyl guanosine biphosphate is added to the 5 end of primary transcript

B. In tailing, adenylate residues are added at 3 end of hnRNA in a template-independent manner.

C. Splicing is the process where introns are removed, and exons are joined in a defined order.
(1) Only C is correct (2) B and C are correct
(3) A, B and C are correct (4) A and B are correct
Ans. (2)

Sol. Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5 end of primary transcript

134. Given below are two statements: One labelled as Assertion A and the other labelled as Reason R:
Assertion (A): The template strand (having polarity 5 → 3) is responsible for directing the synthesis
of RNA
Reason (R): Template strand is also known as non-coding strand.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) If both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) If A is true, but R is false.
(4) If A is false and R is true
Ans. (4)
Sol. The template strand (having polarity 3 → 5) is responsible for directing the synthesis of RNA
135. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is:
(1) Functionally cross pollination (2) Functionally self pollination
(3) Genetically cross pollination (4) Ecologically self pollination
Ans. (1)
Sol. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is
functionally cross pollination

PART-D : ZOOLOGY
136. The process of spermatogenesis and oogenesis is started respectively at
(1) Puberty and puberty (2) Puberty and menopause
(3) Embryonic stage and menarche (4) Puberty and embryonic stage
Ans. (4)

41
Sol. The process of spermatogenesis and oogenesis is started respectively at Puberty and embryonic
stage
137. How many of the following techniques are related with invitro fertilization?
ZIFT, GIFT, IUET, AI, ICSI
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Ans. (3)
Sol. ZIFT, IUET & ICSI are related with invitro fertilization

138. What is true for “Lactational amenorrhea”?

I. It means absence of menstruation.
II. Ovulation does not occur during the lactational period.
III. Chances of conception are almost nil upto six months following parturition.
IV. Chances of failure of this method are also very low.
V. It is a natural method of contraception.
(1) I, II, III only (2) I, II, III, V only (3) II, III, IV, V only (4) All of these
Ans. (2)
Sol. Chances of failure of this method are also very high.
139. Which of the following is incorrect for “Saheli”?
(1) New oral contraceptive for the females developed at CDRI Lucknow.
(2) It is once a week pill
(3) It contains a steroidal preparation
(4) Very low side effects and high contraceptive value
Ans. (3)
Sol. It contains a non-steroidal preparation
140. In 1953, SL Miller created primitive earth conditions in the laboratory and gave experimental
evidence for chemical evolution. The primitive earth conditions include:
(1) Low temperature, volcanic storms atmosphere rich in oxygen
(2) Low temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere
(3) High temperature, volcanic storms, non-reducing atmosphere containing CH4, NH3 and H2
(4) High temperature, volcanic storm, reducing atmosphere containing CH 4, NH3 etc.
Ans. (4)
Sol. In 1953, SL Miller created primitive earth conditions in the laboratory and gave experimental evidence
for chemical evolution. The primitive earth conditions created include high temperature, volcanic
storm, reducing atmosphere containing CH4, NH3 etc
141. Which one of the following option gives the correct categorization of the fertilisation technique :

ZIFT IUT ICSI

(1) 8-blastomeres stage 8-blastomeres stage 32-blastomeres stage

(2) 8-blastomeres stage 32-blastomeres stage Sperm directly injected into ovum

(3) 32-blastomeres stage 8-blastomeres stage Sperm directly injected into ovum

(4) 32-blastomeres stage 32-blastomeres stage 8-blastomeres stage

Ans. (2)
42
Sol. Conceptual
142. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect one:
(1) Surgical methods block the path of gametes
(2) Surgical methods are best for those females who want to create gap between two children.
(3) Daily pills are taken daily for 21 consecutive days at a gap of 7 day afterwards.
(4) Pill inhibit ovulation from ovary and also make uterus unsuitable for implantation.
Ans. (2)
Sol. IUDs are best for those females who want to create gap between two children
143. Statement-I : The ancestors of present life forms were present at different periods in the history
of earth.
Statement-II : The geological history of earth closely correlates with the biological history of earth.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true.
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true, but statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false, but statement II is true.
Ans. (1)
Sol. Both statement I and statement II are true
144. How many cells are diploid in nature among the following?
Secondary spermatocyte, Ovum, Primary oocyte, Spermatid, Secondary oocyte, Oogonia, Sperm
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
Ans. (2)
Sol. Primary oocyte & Oogonia, are diploid cells

145. Which of the following is an correct statement?

(1) A legally permissible use of amniocentesis is detection of genetic abnormalities in the foetus.
(2) IUDs can be generally inserted into uterus by the user herself.
(3) MTP is generally safe upto first six months of pregnancy
(4) Coitus interruptus is contraceptive methods in which couples abstain from coitus during fertile
period.
Ans. (1)
Sol. IUDs can be generally inserted into uterus by the medical practioner.
MTP is generally safe upto first three months of pregnancy
Periodic abstinence is contraceptive methods in which couples abstain from coitus during fertile
period
146. The blastocyst comprises of inner cell mass and trophoblast. The inner cell mass differentiate into
__I__ while the trophoblast forms __II__.
(1) I-Embryo; II-Extra embryonic membranes
(2) I-Placenta; II- Extra embryonic membranes
(3) I-Chorionic villi; II-Embryo
(4) I-Mesoderm; II-Ectoderm
Ans. (1)
Sol. I-Embryo; II- Extra embryonic membranes

43
147. If the frequency of vestigial wings (recessive) in a population of Drosophila (n = 1500) is 4%, how
many flies would be heterozygous with regard to wing type?
(1) 60 (2) 240 (3) 480 (4) 960
Ans. (3)
Sol. Given : q2 = 4 %
If p2 + q2 + 2pq = 1 then q2 = 0.04
p + q = 1 and by above q = 0.2, p = 0.8
Heterogygous individual = 2pq = 2 × 0.2 × 0.8 = 0.32
32% of 1500 = 480
148. I. Cranial capacity 650-800 cc.
II. Lived about 1.5 MYA
III. Fossils discovered in Java in 1891
IV. Probably did not eat meat
V. First human like being the hominid
Choose the correct option which is related with Homo habilis :
(1) I and III only (2) I, II and III only (3) I, IV and V only (4) III and IV only
Ans. (3)
Sol. I, IV and V only
149. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II

A. Adaptive radiation I. Selection of resistant varieties due to excessive

use of herbicides and pesticides

B. Convergent evolution II. Bones of forelimbs in man and whale

C. Divergent evolution III. Wings of Butterfly and Bird

D. Evolution by anthropogenic action IV. Darwin’s Finches

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Ans. (2)
Sol. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
150. The figure given below shows the structure of sperm. Identify the correct feature corresponding to
the marked structure A, B, C, D, E and F.

44
 (1) A-Plasma membrane, B-Tail, C-Acrosome, D-Neck, E-Middle piece, F-Mitochondria.
(3) A-Middle piece, B-Plasma membrane, C-Neck, D-Mitochondria, E-Tail, F-Acrosome.
(3) A-Mitochondria, B-Tail, C-Neck, D-plasma membrane, E-Acrosome, F-Middle piece.
(4) A-Acrosome, B-Middle piece, C-Mitochondria, D-Tail, E-Plasma membrane, F-Neck
Ans. (1)
Sol. A-Plasma membrane, B-Tail, C-Acrosome, D-Neck, E-Middle piece, F-Mitochondria
151. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called Spermiation.
Statement II : Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of spermatid from spermatogonia.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
Ans. (2)
Sol. Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatids
152. Seminal plasma of humans has
(1) Glucose, calcium and certain enzymes (2) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
(3) Fructose, calcium and no enzymes (4) Fructose, enzymes but no calcium
Ans. (2)
Sol. Seminal plasma of humans has Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
153. Select the correct matching in the following :
I. Natural methods A. Coitus interrupts
II. IUDs B. LNG 20
III. Barrier methods C. Diaphragms
IV. Surgical methods D. Saheli
V. Oral Contraceptives E. Vasectomy
(1) I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-E, V-A (2) I-A, II-D, III-C, IV-E, V-B
(3) I-E, II-D, III-C, IV-A, V-B (4) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-E, V-D
Ans. (4)
Sol. I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-E, V-D

45
154. Statement I : The process of childbirth is called parturition which is induced by a complex
neuroendocrine mechanism involving cortisol, estrogens and oxytocin.

Statement II : The reasons for infertility could be many such as physical, congenital, diseases, drugs,
immunological or even psychological.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct (2) Statement I correct and II incorrect

(3) Statement I incorrect and II correct (4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
Ans. (1)
Sol. Both statements I and II are correct

155. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding cervical caps :

I. Covers the cervix during coitus II. Barrier method

III. Disposable IV. Prevent ovulation

(1) I, III only (2) I, II only (3) III, IV only (4) IV only

Ans. (3)
Sol. Cervical caps are reusable and does not prevent ovulation.

156. From the given list, select the number of hormones which are secreted by placenta :

FSH, LH, hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone, cortisol, prolactin, thyroxine.

(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six

Ans. (2)
Sol. hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone are secreted by placenta.

157. Statement I : Formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution.

Statement II : First form of life could have originated from pre-existing non-living organic molecules.

(1) Only statement I is correct. (2) Only statement II is correct.

(3) Both statements are correct. (4) Both statements are incorrect

Ans. (3)
Sol. Both statements are correct

158. Which of the following is a correct difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis?
(1) Spermatogenesis begins at puberty, while oogenesis begins immediately after birth.

(2) Oogenesis is completed in the ovary, while spermatogenesis is completed in fallopian tube.

(3) Cytoplasmic division is unequal in oogenesis and equal in spermatogenesis.

(4) Primary oocyte forms four ova, while primary spermatocyte forms single sperm.

Ans. (3)

Sol. Spermatogenesis begins at puberty, while oogenesis begins at embryonic stage

Oogenesis is completed in the fallopian tube, while spermatogenesis is completed in testes.

Cytoplasmic division is unequal in oogenesis and equal in spermatogenesis.

Primary oocyte forms one ova, while primary spermatocyte forms four sperm

159. Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option :
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 Column-I Column-II

A. Placenta I. Androgens

B. Zona pellucida II. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)

C. Bulbourethral glands III. Layer of the ovum

D. Leydig cells IV. Lubrication of the penis

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Ans. (4)
Sol. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
160. Statement-I : Comparative anatomy and morphology shows similarities and differences among
organisms of today and those that existed years ago.
Statement-II : Different aged rock sediments contain fossils of different life-forms who probably
died during formation of the particular sediment.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true.
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true, but statement II is false.

(4) Statement I is false, but statement II is true.

Ans. (1)
Sol. Both statement I and statement II are true
161. Darwin spoke of the struggle for existence and survival of the fittest in nature, he was convinced
that _____ is a potent force in organic evolution. Fill in the blanks
(1) Intraspecific competition (2) Interspecific competition
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these
Ans. (2)
Sol. Interspecific competition
162. Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

A. Parturition I. Attachment of zygote to endometrium

B. Gestation II. Release of egg from Graafian follicle

C. Ovulation III. Delivery of baby from uterus

D. Implantation IV. Duration between pregnancy and birth

E. Fertilization V. Formation of zygote by fusion of egg and sperm

(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-V, E-III (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-V, E-II
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I, E-V (4) A-III, B-V, C-II, D-I, E-IV
Ans. (3)
Sol. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I, E-V

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163. Assertion (A) : Evolution is not a direct process in the sense of determinism.
Reason (R) : It is a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and chance mutation in
the organisms.
(1) If both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).
(3) If (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) If both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans. (1)
Sol. If both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
164. Which of the following is incorrect statement with respect to menstrual cycle?
(1) The uterine changes are induced by hormones secreted by ovary
(2) The follicular phase is followed by proliferative phase
(3) The hormone essential for maintenance of the endometrium is progesterone
(4) The duration of luteal phase is fixed i.e. of 14 days which is also called secretory phase
Ans. (2)
Sol. Follicular phase is also known as proliferative phase.
165. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), reproductive health means well-being in ______
aspects of reproduction. Fill in the blanks:
(1) Physical (2) Emotional
(3) Behavioural and social (4) All of these
Ans. (4)
Sol. All of these
166. Read the following statement and identify the correct ones:
A. Genetic drift refers to the change in gene frequency by chance effects
B. In a population, new alleles arise due to mutations
C. All the genes and their alleles found in an interbreeding population are called gene pool
D. According to the modern concept of evolution, the basic unit of evolution is population.
(1) A and B (2) B and C (3) A and D (4) A, B, C and D
Ans. (4)
Sol. All of these are correct
167. Layers of ovum from outside to inside is
(1) Corona radiata, zona pellucida and plasma membrane
(2) Zona pellucida, corona radiata and plasma membrane
(3) Plasma membrane, zona pellucida and corona radiata
(4) Corona radiata, plasma membrane and zona pellucida
Ans. (1)
Sol. Corona radiata, zona pellucida and plasma membrane

168. Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogens can be used as a contraceptive in the form of

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 (1) Pills only (2) Implants only
(3) Injections only (4) Pills, injections and implant
Ans. (4)
Sol. Pills, injections and implant
169. Statement I : Some of the spermatogonia called primary spermatocytes periodically undergo meiosis.
Statement II : A primary spermatocyte completes the second meiotic division and form secondary
spermatocytes, which have only 23 chromosomes.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(2) Statement I is true, but statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false, but statement II is true.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true.
Ans. (2)
Sol. A primary spermatocyte completes the first meiotic division and form secondary spermatocytes,
which have only 23 chromosomes.
170. If nature selects individuals acquiring peripheral character value at both the extremes of distribution
curve, the type of natural selection is called:
(1) Directional (2) Disruptive (3) Stabilizing (4) None of these
Ans. (2)
Sol. If nature selects individuals acquiring peripheral character value at both the extremes of distribution
curve, the type of natural selection is called Disruptive
171. Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs:
(1) After completion of fertilization
(2) Before entry of sperm
(3) After entry of sperm before completion of fertilization
(4) Without any relation of sperm entry
Ans. (3)
Sol. Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs after entry of sperm before completion of
fertilization.
172. Pick up the odd one in each series and select correct option :
A. Diaphragms, Cervical caps, Vaults, Tubectomy
B. Lippes loop, LNG-20, Implants, Multiload-375
C. Gonorrhea, Jaundice, Hepatitis-B, Syphilis
D. MTP, ZIFT, GIFT, ICSI
E. Saheli, Mala-D, Implants, Lactational amenorrhea
(1) A-Tubectomy, B-Implants, C-Jaundice, D-ICSI, E-Saheli
(2) A-Cervical caps, B-LNG-20, C-Syphilis, D-MTP, E-Mala-D
(3) A-Tubectomy, B-Implants, C-Jaundice, D-MTP, E-Lactational amenorrhea
(4) A-Vaults, B-Lippes loop, C-Hepatitis-B, D-ZIFT, E- Lactational amenorrhea
Ans. (3)
Sol. A-Tubectomy, B-Implants, C-Jaundice, D-MTP, E-Lactational amenorrhea
173. During pregnancy all events of menstrual cycle are stopped and there is no menstruation because

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 (1) High level of estrogen provide positive feedback to increase FSH
(2) low level of estrogen gives positive feedback to promote FSH secretions
(3) low level of progesterone gives negative feedback to increase FSH
(4) High level of progesterone from corpus luteum given negative feedback to suppress FSH
secretion
Ans. (4)
Sol. High level of progesterone from corpus luteum given negative feedback to suppress FSH secretion
174. Spontaneous generation theory was dismissed once and for all by experiments performed by:
(1) Charles Darwin (2) Louis Pasteur (3) Edward Jenner (4) Alfred Wallace
Ans. (2)
Sol. Spontaneous generation theory was dismissed once and for all by experiments performed by Louis
Pasteur
175. Evolutionary convergence is the development of:
(1) Common set of characters in closely related groups
(2) Dissimilar characters in closely related groups
(3) Common set of characters in groups of different ancestry
(4) Dissimilar characters in groups of different ancestry
Ans. (3)
Sol. Evolutionary convergence is the development of Common set of characters in groups of different
ancestry
176. All of the following sets are examples for divergent evolution, except:
(1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
(2) Thorn of bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita
(3) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
(4) Eye of octopus and man
Ans. (4)
Sol. Eye of octopus and man are examples of analogous organs.
177. Occurrence of endemic species in South America and Australia is due to:
(1) Extinction of these species from other regions
(2) Continental separation
(3) Absence of terrestrial route to these places
(4) Retrograssive evolution
Ans. (2)
Sol. Occurrence of endemic species in South America and Australia is due to Continental separation
(also called as Continental drift)
178. Alfred Wallace, a naturalist who also worked on the principles of natural selection like Darwin, was
working in:
(1) Australia (2) Himalayas (3) Galapagos (4) Malay Archipelago
Ans. (4)
Sol. Alfred Wallace, a naturalist who also worked on the principles of natural selection like Darwin, was
working in Malay Archipelago
179. Identify the wrong statement:

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 (1) Lamarck's theory of evolution is called theory of inheritance of acquired characters
(2) Darwin was influenced by the essays of Malthus
(3) According to Darwinism, evolution is jerky and discontinuous process
(4) August Weismann gave the theory of "Continuity of Germplasm"
Ans. (3)
Sol. According to Hugo devries, evolution is jerky and discontinuous process
180. The study of fossils is useful evidence of evolution as it suggest:
(1) Life originated spontaneously from non-living matter
(2) Life came on earth as spores or panspermia from other planets
(3) New forms of life arose from pre-existing life forms
(4) Life forms varies over time and certain life forms are restricted to certain geological time spans.
Ans. (4)
Sol. The study of fossils is useful evidence of evolution as it suggest life forms varies over time and
certain life forms are restricted to certain geological time spans.

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