Narayana Sample Paper 1
Narayana Sample Paper 1
Narayana Jaipur HO: B-28, Gopalpura Bypass Road, 10-B Scheme, Near Ridhi Sidhi Circle, Jaipur, Rajasthan 302018
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PART – I : PHYSICS
1. If the number of divisions on the circular scale is 1. o`Ùkh; iSekus ij cus Hkkxksa dh la[;k 100 gS o`Ùkh; iSekus
100 and number of full rotations given to screw is dks 8 ckj iwjk ?kwekus ij blds }kjk pyh xbZ nwjh 4
8 and distance moved by the screw is 4 mm, then mm gS] rc LØwxSt dk vYirekad gksxk\
least count of the screw gauge?
(1) 0.003 mm (2) 0.005 mm
(1) 0.003 mm (2) 0.005 mm
(3) 0.005 cm (4) 0.003 cm
(3) 0.005 cm (4) 0.003 cm V
V 2. ,d jkf'k x fdlds cjkcj gS o L , dgka o eqDr
2. A quantity x is equal to o L , where o is t
t LFkku dh ikjxE;rk gS] L yackbZ gS] V foHkokarj gS vkSj
permittivity of free space, L is length, V is t le; varjky gSA x dh foek,a fdlds vk;ke ds
potential difference and t is time interval. The leku gSa&
dimensions of x is same as that of (1) izfrjks/k (2) vkos'k
(1) Resistance (2) Charge
(3) oksYVst (4) /kkjk
(3) Voltage (4) Current
3. = 0
;gka vkSj 0 nwjh gS rc α dk foeh; lw=
3. = 0
here and 0 is length the dimension l − 2
l − 2
gksxk&
of α must be
(1) [M0L0T0] (2) [M0LT0]
(1) [M0L0T0] (2) [M0LT0]
(3) [M0L0T] (4) [M0L2T0]
(3) [M0L0T] (4) [M0L2T0]
4. fy¶V eas ,d vkneh dk otu vf/kd gksrk gS tc
4. A man in a lift appears to weigh more when
(1) fy¶V Roj.k ds lkFk Åij tkuk 'kq: djrh gS
(1) the lift begins to go up with an acceleration
(2) the lift is going up steadily with constant (2) fy¶V yxkrkj fl;r osx ls Åij tk jgh gS
velocity (3) vkjksgh ds nkSjku fy¶V /kheh gks jgh gS
(3) the lift is slowing down while ascending (4) fy¶V Lora= :i ls fxj jgh gS
(4) the lift is falling freely 5. ,d oLrq ysrk gS 45° [kqjnjs >qds gq, ry ij uhps
5. An object takes n times as much time to slide f[kldkus n xquk le; ysrk gS ftruk fd iwjh rjg
down a 45° rough inclined plane as it takes to slide ls fpdus 45° >qds gq, ry ij leku nwjh dks uhps
down the same distance on a perfectly smooth 45° f[kldkus eas yxrk gS tc nksuksa fiaM Lora= :i ls
inclined plane when both the bodies are freely eqDr gksrs gSaA oLrq vkSj [kqjnjs vkur ry ds chp
released. The coefficient of kinetic friction xfrt ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad D;k gS&
between the object and the rough inclined plane is 1
1 (1) 1 −
(1) 1 − 2 n2
n 1
1 (2) 1 −
(2) 1 − n
n
1
1 (3) 1 −
(3) 1− 2 n2
n
1
1 (4) 1 −
(4) 1 − n
n
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6. If | A | = 2 and | B | = 6, the match the relation in 6. ;fn | A | = 2 rFkk | B | = 6, rc LraHk I ds laca/k dks LraHk
column I with the angle between A & B in column II ds A & B ds e/; dks.k ls feyku djs& a
II. LraHk -I LraHk -II
Column-I Column-II
(A) | A B |= 0 (P) = 30°
(A) | A B |= 0 (P) = 30°
(B) | A B |= 12 (Q) = 45°
(B) | A B |= 12 (Q) = 45°
(C) | A B |= 6 (R) = 90°
(C) | A B |= 6 (R) = 90°
(D) | A B |= 6 2 (S) = 0°
(D) | A B |= 6 2 (S) = 0°
(1) (A) → Q ; (B) → R : (C) → S : (D) → P
(1) (A) → Q ; (B) → R : (C) → S : (D) → P (2) (A) → R ; (B) → S : (C) → P : (D) → Q
(2) (A) → R ; (B) → S : (C) → P : (D) → Q (3) (A) → S ; (B) → R : (C) → P : (D) → Q
(3) (A) → S ; (B) → R : (C) → P : (D) → Q (4) (A) → P ; (B) → R : (C) → Q : (D) → S
(4) (A) → P ; (B) → R : (C) → Q : (D) → S 7. fdlh fi.M ij lh/kh js[kk ds vuqfn'k dk;Z djus okys
7. The work done by a force (F) acting on a body cy (F) }kjk fd;k x;k dk;Z xzkQ eas n'kkZ, vuqlkj
along a straight line varies with distance (S) as nwjh (S) ds vuqlkj cnyrk jgrk gSA 15 m dh nwjh r;
shown in the graph. The total work done in djus eas fd;k x;k dqy dk;Z D;k gS&
covering a distance of 15 m is
(1) 137.5 J
(1) 137.5 J
(2) 150 J
(2) 150 J
(3) 75 J
(3) 75 J
(4) 122.5 J
(4) 122.5 J
8. iznf'kZr fp= eas VDdj lEeq[k gS&
8. In the given figure, the collision is head-on :
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9. A wire of mass m and length l is bent in the form 9. m nzO;eku rFkk l yEckbZ ds ,d rkj dks eksM+dj ,d
of a circular ring. The moment of inertia of the ring oy; cuk;k tkrk gSA oy; ds v{k ds ifjr% bldk
about its own axis is : tM+Ro & vk?kw.kZ gS %
ml2 ml2
(1) ml2 (2) (1) ml2 (2)
42 42
ml2 ml2 ml2 ml2
(3) 2
(4) 2 (3) (4)
2 8 22 82
10. A body of mass 'm' is projected into vertical plane 10. nzO;eku 'm' ds ,d fiaM dks Å/okZ/kj ry eas {kSfrt ls
with a speed 'u' at an angle '' to horizontal. The '' dks.k ij 'u' dh pky ds lkFk Å/okZ/kj ry eas iz{ksfir
magnitude of torque of the weight of particle about fd;k tkrk gSA tc d.k vf/kdre ÅapkbZ ij gksrk gS
the point of projection when the particle is at
rks iz{ksi.k ds fcanq ds ifV~V eas d.k ds otu ds vk?kw.kZ
maximum height will be
dk ifjek.k D;k gksxk&
1
(1) mu 2 sin 2 1
2 (1) mu 2 sin 2
2
(2) mu 2 sin 2
(2) mu 2 sin 2
1
(3) mu 2 cos 2 1
2 (3) mu 2 cos 2
2
(4) mu 2 cos 2
(4) mu 2 cos 2
11. A simple pendulum is oscillating without
damping. When the displacement of the bob is less 11. ,d ljy yksyd fcuk eanu (damping) ds nksyu dj
than maximum, its acceleration vector a is jgk gSA tc xksyd dk foLFkkiu vf/kdre ls de gSA
correctly shown in- rc blds Roj.k lfn'k a dk lgh izn'kZu gksxk&
12. If mass and radius of a planet are doubled escape 12. ;fn fdlh xzg ds nzO;eku vkSj f=T;k dks nksxquk dj
velocity of a body projected from surface of planet fn;k tk, rks xzg dh lrg ls iz{ksfir oLrq dk iyk;u
(1) is doubled osx gksxk&
(2) remains same (1) nksxquk gks tkrk gS
(3) is halved (2) leku jgrk gS
(4) is tripled (3) vk/kk gks tkrk gS
(4) rhu xquk gS
Narayana Jaipur HO: B-28, Gopalpura Bypass Road, 10-B Scheme, Near Ridhi Sidhi Circle, Jaipur, Rajasthan 302018
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13. For the arrangement shown in the figure the 13. fp= eas n'kkZbZ xbZ O;oLFkk ds fy, rkj eas ruko bl
tension in the string is given by – izdkj fn;k x;k gS&
2m m 2m m
30º 30º
mg mg
(1) (2) mg (1) (2) mg
2 2
3 3
(3) mg (4) 2mg (3) mg (4) 2mg
2 2
14. Match the following : 14. fuEufyf[kr dks lqesfyr dhft,&
List-I List-II lwph-I lwph-II
a) Pascal's Law e) Velocity of efflux a) ikLdy dk fu;e e) cfgokZg dk osx
b) Archimedes Principle f) Hydraulic lift b) vkfdZfeMht fl)kar f) gkbMªksfyd fy¶V
c) Torecelli's theorem g) Buoyancy c) Vksjslsyh dk izes; g) mRIykou
d) Magnus effect h) Spinning ball
d) eSXul izHkko h) fLifuax ckWy
(1) a-g; b-h; c-f; d-e
(1) a-g; b-h; c-f; d-e
(2) a-f; b-g; c-e; d-h
(2) a-f; b-g; c-e; d-h
(3) a-e; b-g; c-f; d-h
(3) a-e; b-g; c-f; d-h
(4) a-g; b-e; c-h; d-f
(4) a-g; b-e; c-h; d-f
15. Steel rails are laid at a temperature of 50°F. The
gap that must be left between each standard 10 m 15. LVhy jsy dh iVfj;ka 50°F ds rkieku ij j[kh tkrh
rail section and the next if the rails should just gSA varj tks izR;sd ekud 10 m jsy [kaM vkSj vxys
touch when temperature raises to 122°F ( = 12 ds chp NksM+k tkuk pkfg,A ;fn rkieku 122°F ( =
×10–6 /°C) is 12 ×10–6 /°C) gS&
(1) 0.48 cm (2) 0.24 cm (1) 0.48 cm (2) 0.24 cm
(3) 0.96 cm (4) 0.12 cm (3) 0.96 cm (4) 0.12 cm
16. The amount of steam at 100 that should be passed 16. 100 ij Hkki dh ek=k ftls 10 ij 600 g ikuh eas ikfjr
into 600 g of water at 10 to make the final fd;k tkuk pkfg, rkfd vafre rkieku 40 gks lds]
temperature as 40 will be D;k gksxk&
(1) 40 g (2) 30 g (1) 40 g (2) 30 g
(3) 20 g (4) 45 g (3) 20 g (4) 45 g
17. When the temperature of a black body increases, 17. tc ,d Ñf".kdk dk rkieku c<+rk gS] rks vf/kdre
the wavelength corresponding to maximum m"eh; fofdj.k ds vuq:i rjaxnS/;Z 0.36 µm ls 0.12
thermal radiation changes from 0.36 µm to 0.12 µm rd cny tkrk gSA lacfa /kr rkieku ij fi.M dh
µm. The ratio of emissive powers of the body at mRltZd 'kfDr;ksa dk vuqikr D;k gS&
the respective temperatures is
(1) 81: 1 (2) 1: 81
(1) 81: 1 (2) 1: 81
(3) 16: 1 (4) 1: 16
(3) 16: 1 (4) 1: 16
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18. Statement-A: When water boils under constant 18. dFku-A: tc ikuh fu;r nkc eas mcyrk gS] rks ikuh
pressure, the specific heat of water becomes dh fof'k"V xehZ vuar gks tkrh gSA
infinity. dFku-B: Hkki eas ikuh dh fLFkfr dk ifjorZu ,d
Statement-B: Change of state of water into steam lerkih; izfØ;k gSA
is an isothermal process. (1) A vkSj B nksuksa lR; gSa
(1) Both A and B are true
(2) A vkSj B nksuksa vlR; gSa
(2) Both A and B are false
(3) A lR; gS ysfdu B vlR; gSa
(3) A is true but B is false
(4) A vlR; gS ysfdu B lR; gS
(4) A is false but B is true
19. The P-V graph for a thermodynamical process of 19. ,d vkn'kZ xSl ds Å"ekxfrdh; izØe ds fy, P-V
an ideal gas is shown in the figure. The work done xzkQ fp= eas n'kkZ;k x;k gSA A ls B rd dh izfØ;k eas
by the gas in the process A to B is xSl }kjk fd;k x;k dk;Z D;k gS&
Narayana Jaipur HO: B-28, Gopalpura Bypass Road, 10-B Scheme, Near Ridhi Sidhi Circle, Jaipur, Rajasthan 302018
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23. If µo and o are magnetic permeability and electric 23. ;fn µo vkSj o paqcdh; ikjxE;rk vkSj eqDr LFkku dh
permittivity of free space and µ and are the fo|qr ikjxE;rk vkSj µ vkSj ;fn fdlh ek/;e ds
corresponding values of a medium, the refractive laxr eku gSa] rks ek/;e dk viorZukad D;k gksxk&
index of the medium would be
o o
o o (1) (2)
(1) (2) o o
o o
o o
o o (3) (4)
(3) (4) o o
o o
24. ,d iryk vfHklkjh ysal 1.5 viorZukad ds dkap ls
24. A thin converging lens is made of glass of cuk gSA ;g viorZukad ds rjy eas Mwcus ij 0.5 m
refractive index 1.5. It acts like a diverging lens of Qksdl nwjh ds vilkjh ysal dh rjg dk;Z djrk gS
focal length 0.5 m, when immersed in a liquid of
15
15 gok eas vfHklkjh ysl
a dh Qksdl nwjh D;k gS&
refractive index . The focal length of the 8
8
(1) 0.20 m (2) 0.15 m
converging lens in air is
(3) 0.40 m (4) 0.25 m
(1) 0.20 m (2) 0.15 m
(3) 0.40 m (4) 0.25 m
25. Equivalent resistance between the point A and B 25. fcanq A vkSj B ds chp lerqY; izfrjks/k (in )
(in )
1 1
(1) (2)
1 1 5 4
(1) (2)
5 4 1 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
1 1 3 3
(3) 2 (4) 3
3 3
26. If R1 and R2 are respectively the filament 26. 200 W o 100 W ds cYc dk izfrjks/k Øe'k% R1 rFkk R2
resistance of a 200 W bulb and 100 W bulb gS rFkk nksuksa ,d leku foHko ds fy;s cus gSa] rks&
designed to operate on the same voltage, then- (1) R2 dk nqxuk R2 gS
(1) R1 is two times R2 (2) R1 dk nqxuk R1 gS
(2) R2 is two times R1 (3) R1 dk pkj xquk R1 gS
(3) R2 is four times R1 (4) R1 dk pkj xquk R2 gS
(4) R1 is four times R2
27. The electric field intensity at a point is
27. ,d fcanq ij fo|qr {ks= dh rhozrk gS (20iˆ + 30 ˆj ) N / C
(20iˆ + 30 ˆj ) N / C . Considering potential at origin
. ewy fcanq ij foHko dks 'kwU; ekurs gq,] fcanq P(2m,
to be zero, the potential at a point P(2m, 2m) is 2m) ij foHko D;k gS&
(1) –100 V
(1) –100 V
(2) –50 V
(2) –50 V
(3) –40 V
(3) –40 V
(4) –60 V
(4) –60 V
Narayana Jaipur HO: B-28, Gopalpura Bypass Road, 10-B Scheme, Near Ridhi Sidhi Circle, Jaipur, Rajasthan 302018
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28. Assertion : Terminal potential difference of cell is 28. dFku : lsy ds f'kjksa ds e/; foHkokarj ges'kk vius emf
always greater than its emf. ls vf/kd gksrk gSA
Reason : EMF depends on current. dkj.k : EMF /kkjk ij fuHkZj djrk gSA
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the (1) ;fn dFku vkSj dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSa vkSj dkj.k]
Reason is a correct explanation of the dFku dh lgh O;k[;k gSA
Assertion
(2) ;fn dFku vkSj dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSa vkSj dkj.k]
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
dFku dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False (3) ;fn dFku lR; gS] ysfdu dkj.k vlR; gSA
(4) Both Assertion \& Reason are False (4) ;fn dFku vlR; gS] ysfdu dkj.k lR; gSA
29. The equivalent capacitance between points A and 29. A o B ds e/; rqY; /kkfjrk gksxh&
B in the circuit will be- A
A
4 µF
4 µF 4 µF 4 µF
4 µF 4 µF 4 µF
4 µF
B 4 µF
B 4 µF 10
(1) µF
10 3
(1) µF
3 (2) 4 µF
(2) 4 µF (3) 6 µF
(3) 6 µF (4) 8 µF
(4) 8 µF 30. Kkr vkSj vKkr izfrjks/kksa dks vkil eas cnydj ehVj
30. In an experiment with meter bridge by fczt ds lkFk ,d iz;ksx ea]s tks =qfV lekIr gks tkrh
interchanging the known and unknown gS og gS&
resistances, the error which is eliminated is (1) var lq/kkj =qfV
(1) end correction error (2) ;kn`fPNd =qfV
(2) random error (3) yacu =qfV
(3) parallax error (4) mijksDr lHkh
(4) All the above
31. uhps nh xbZ vkÑfr eas fcanq P ij paqcdh; {ks= D;k gksxk\
31. What will be the magnetic field at point P in the
I
figure below ?
I R
R P
P I
0i 2 0i 2
I (1) + 1 (2) + 1
0i 2 0i 2 4R 2R
(1) + 1 (2) + 1 0 2 2 0 2
4R 2R (3) + 1 (4) + 1
0 2 2 0 2 2R R
(3) + 1 (4) + 1
2R R
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32. Two charged particle M and N are projected with 32. nks vkosf'kr d.k M vkSj N dks ,dleku paqcdh; {ks= eas
same velocity in a uniform magnetic field. Then M leku osx ls iz{ksfir fd;k tkrk gS] rks Øe'k% M vkSj
and N respectively N gS&
× × × × × × × × × × × ×
M N M
× × × × × × N
× × × × × ×
× × × × × × × × × × × ×
× × × × × × × × × × × ×
(1) an electron and a proton (1) ,d bysDVªkWu vkSj ,d izksVkWu
(2) a deuteron and a proton (2) ,d M;wVjs kWu vkSj ,d izksVkWu
(3) a deuteron and an electron
(3) ,d M;wVjs kWu vkSj ,d bysDVªkWu
(4) a proton and - particle
(4) ,d izksVkWu vkSj - d.k
33. The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic
material at a temperature of –73°C is 0.0075, then 33. –73°C ds rki ij vuqpqEcdh; inkFkZ dh paqcdh;
its value at the temperature –173°C will be laons u'khyrk 0.0075 gS] rks–173°C rki ij bldk eku
(1) 0.0075 D;k gksxk&
(2) 0.0045 (1) 0.0075
(3) 0.0030 (2) 0.0045
(4) 0.015 (3) 0.0030
(4) 0.015
34. In an ideal transformer, the number of turns in the 34. ,d vkn'kZ Vªkl a QkeZj eas] izkFkfed dqaMyh eas Qsjksa dh
primary coil is 140 and that in the secondary coil la[;k 140 vkSj f}rh;d daqMyh eas Qsjks dh la[;k 280
is 280. If the current in the primary coil is 4A, then gSA ;fn izkFkfed daqMyh eas /kkjk 4A gS]s rks f}rh;d
the current in the secondary coil is daqMyh eas /kkjk D;k gS&
(1) 1 A (2) 2 A (1) 1 A (2) 2 A
(3) 3 A (4) 4 A (3) 3 A (4) 4 A
35. In a nuclear reactor, moderator is used 35. ,d ijek.kq fj,DVj eas] ekWMjsVj dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk
(1) to absorb neutrons gS&
(2) to slow down fast-moving neutrons (1) U;wVªkWu dks vo'kksf"kr djus ds fy,
(3) to cool the reactor (2) rsth ls pyus okys U;wVªkWu dks /khek djus ds fy,
(4) all the above (3) fj,DVj dks BaMk djuk
(4) mijksDr lHkh
36. An inductor and a resistor are connected to an ac 36. ,d izsjd vkSj izfrjks/kd ds ifjiFk 200 V, 50 Hz ds
source of 200 V, 50 Hz. If current in the circuit is
ac lzkrs ls tqM+s gSaA ;fn ifjiFk eas fo|qr /kkjk 2 A gS
2 A and average power consumed is 100 W, power
factor in the circuit is
vkSj vkSlr [kir dh xbZ 'kfDr 100 W gs] rks ifjiFk
eas 'kfDr xq.kkad D;k gS&
1 1
(1) (2) 1 1
8 4 (1) (2)
8 4
1 3
(3) (4) 1 3
2 2 (3) (4)
2 2
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37. The energy that will be radiated by a 100 kW 37. 100 kW Vªkl a ehVj }kjk ,d ?kaVs eas fofdjf.kr gksus
transmitter in one hour is _____ okyh ÅtkZ D;k gS& _____
(1) 36 × 104 J (1) 36 × 104 J
(2) 36 × 105 J (2) 36 × 105 J
(3) 36 × 106 J (3) 36 × 106 J
(4) 36 × 107 J (4) 36 × 107 J
38. Two discs of moment of inertia I1 and I2 and 38. tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ I1 vkSj I2 vkSj dks.kh; xfr 1 vkSj 2 ds
angular speed 1 and 2 are rotating in the same nks fMLd vius nzO;eku dsanz ls xqtjus okys lajs[kh;
direction along collinear axes passing through v{kksa ds lkFk ,d gh fn'kk eas ?kwe jgs gSa vkSj muds
their c.m. and perpendicular to their plane. If the ry ds yacor~ gSaA ;fn nksuksa mHk;fu"B v{k ds ifjr%
two are made to rotate combinedly along the same
Li'kZ djrs gq, ,d gh dks.kh; osx ds lkFk ?kweus ij
axis, the final rotational KE of system when they
rotate together with same angular velocity is
iz.kkyh dk vafre ?kw.khZ KE D;k gksxk&
I +I I11 + I 2 2
(1)
(1) 1 1 2 2
2 ( I1 + I 2 ) 2 ( I1 + I 2 )
( I1 + I 2 )( 1 + 2 ) (2)
( I1 + I 2 )( 1 + 2 )
(2) 2
2
( I11 + I 22 )
2
( I11 + I 22 )
2
(3)
(3)
2 ( I1 + I 2 ) 2 ( I1 + I 2 )
I11 − I 2 2 I11 − I 2 2
(4)
(4)
2 ( I1 + I 2 ) 2 ( I1 + I 2 )
39. When photon of energy 3.8 eV falls on metallic 39. tc 3.8 eV ÅtkZ dk QksVkWu 2.8 eV dk;ZQyu okyh
surface of work function 2.8 eV, then the kinetic /kkfRod lrg ij vkifrr gksrk gS] rc mRlftZr
energy of emitted electrons are bysDVªkWu dh xfrt ÅtkZ gS&
(1) 1 eV (2) 6.6 eV (1) 1 eV (2) 6.6 eV
(3) 2.8 eV (4) 0 to 1 eV (3) 2.8 eV (4) 0 to 1 eV
40. A reverse biased diode is 40. i'pfnf'kd ck;flr Mk;ksM gS&
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
41. The binding energy of an electron in 4th orbit of 41. gkbMªkstu ijek.kq dh prqFkZ d{kk eas bysDVªkWu dh ca/ku
hydrogen atom is ÅtkZ gS&
(1) 2.4 eV (1) 2.4 eV
(2) 0.85 eV (2) 0.85 eV
(3) 13.6 eV (3) 13.6 eV
(4) 0.5 eV (4) 0.5 eV
Space for rough work
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42. A syringe of diameter 1 cm having a nozzle of 42. 1 cm O;kl ikyh ,d flfjat ftlds lwbZ dk O;kl 1
diameter 1 mm is placed horizontally at a height of mm gS] tehu ls 5 m dh ÅapkbZ ij {kSfrt :i ls j[kh
5 m from ground. An incompressible non viscous xbZ gSA ,d vlEihM~; rFkk vleku nzo flfjat eas Hkjk
liquid is filled in the syringe and the liquid is tkrk gS vkSj rjy 0.5 ms–1 dh xfr ds lkFk ,d pyrh
compressed by a moving piston with a speed of 0.5 fiLVu }kj ladqfp gksrk gSA nzo tsV }kjk /kjkry rd
ms–1. The horizontal distance travelled by the igaqpus eas r; dh xbZ {kSfrt nwjh (g = 10 ms–2) gS&
liquid jet in reaching the ground is (g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 12.5 m (2) 25 m
(1) 12.5 m (2) 25 m
(3) 50 m (4) 75 m
(3) 50 m (4) 75 m
43. ( = 2 ) Xykl ls cus ,d fizTe dk U;wure fopyu
43. For a glass ( = 2 ) the angle of minimum
deviation is equal to the angle of the (refracting)
dks.k fizTe dks.k ds cjkcj gS rc bldk fizTe dks.k
angle of the prism. The angle of the prism is - gS&
(1) 80o (2) 45o (1) 80o (2) 45o
(3) 60o (4) 90o (3) 60o (4) 90o
44. For the refraction of light through a prism, which 44. fizTe ls izdk'k ds viorZu ds nkSjku dkSulk dFku
statement is not correct : lR; ugha gS
(1) For every angle of deviation there are two (1) izR;sd fopyu dks.k ds fy, nks vkiru dks.k ik;s
angles of incidence tkrs gSaA
(2) The light travelling inside an equilateral prism (2) tc leckgq fizTe dks U;wure fopyu dh fLFkfr
is necessarily parallel to the base when prism esa j[ksa rks fizTe esa viofrZr fdj.k vo'; gh fizTe
is set for minimum deviation. ds vk/kkj ds lekukUrj lapfjr gksrh gSA
(3) There are two angles of incidence for (3) vf/kdre fopyu ds fy, nks vkiru dks.k ik;s
maximum deviation tkrs gSaA
(4) Angle of minimum deviation will increase if (4) fizTe dk U;wure fopyu dks.k fizTe ds inkFkZ ds
refractive index of prism is increased keeping viorZukad dks c<+kus ij c<+rk gS] ;fn fizTe ds
the outside medium unchanged and if p > s
ckgj ds ek/;e dk viorZukad vifjofrZr gks rFkk
(P - Prism, s- surrounding) p > s gks (P - Prism,s-surrounding)
45. A plano convex lens is made of glass of refractive
index 1.5. The radius of curvature of its convex 45. ,d leryksÙky ySal 1.5 viorZukad okys dk¡p dk cuk
surface is R. Its focal length is - gS] blds mÙky lrg dh oØrk f=kT;k R gS bldh
Qksdl nwjh gksxh &
(1) R/2 (2) R
(1) R/2 (2) R
(3) 2R (4) 1.5 R
(3) 2R (4) 1.5 R
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PART – II : CHEMISTRY
46. Which among the following principal quantum 46. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl eq[; DokaVe la[;k esa rhu
numbers has/have three degenerate p-orbitals? p-d{kd gSa@gSa\
(1) 1 only (2) 2 only (1) dsoy 1 (2) dsoy 2
(3) 3 only (4) Both 2 & 3 (3) dsoy 3 (4) 2 vkSj 3 nksuksa
47. Consider the following statements: 47. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
i. Sulfur has a higher ionization energy than i. lYQj] Q‚LQksjl dh rqyuk esa vf/kd vk;uu
phosphorus.
ÅtkZ j[krk gS
ii. Sulfur has a lower ionization energy than
ii. lYQj] Q‚LQksjl dh rqyuk esa de vk;uu
phosphorus.
ÅtkZ j[krk gS
iii. Sulfur has a lower electron affinity than
chlorine. iii. lYQj] Dyksjhu dh rqyuk esa de bysDVª‚u ca/kqrk
Which of the statements given above is/are
j[krk gS
correct? mi;qZä dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(1) i (2) ii (1) i (2) ii
(3) i & iii (4) ii & iii (3) i & iii (4) ii & iii
48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 48. lwph-I dks lwph-II ds lkFk lqesfyr djsa vkSj lwfp;ksa ds
answer using the code given below the lists: uhps fn, x, dwV dk mi;ksx djds lgh mÙkj dk p;u
List-I (Compound) List-II (No. of Ions) djs%a
A. NaCl I. Zero List-I (;kSfxd) List-II (vk;uksa dh la[;k)
B. C6H12O6 II. Three A. NaCl I. “kwU;
C. K3PO4 III. Two B. C6H12O6 II. rhu
D. H2SO4 IV. Four C. K3PO4 III. nks
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III D. H2SO4 IV. pkj
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
49. Which one of the following is the correct IUPAC 49. fuEufyf[kr esa ls Li AlH 4 dkSu&lk IUPAC dk lgh
name of Li AlH 4 ? uke gS\ \
(1) Lithium aluminium hydride (1) Lithium aluminium hydride
(2) Lithium aluminium tetrahydride (2) Lithium aluminium tetrahydride
(3) Lithium tetrahydriodoaluminate(III) (3) Lithium tetrahydriodoaluminate(III)
(4) Lithium tetrahydroaluminate(III) (4) Lithium tetrahydroaluminate(III)
50. Which of the following acids is a vitamin? 50. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk vEy foVkfeu gS\
(1) Aspartic acid (2) Ascorbic acid (1) ,likjfVd vEy (2) ,Ld‚fcZd vEy
(3) Adipic acid (4) Saccharic acid (3) ,fMfid vEy (4) lSdfjd vEy
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51. In the gas phase, the correct order of hydride 51. xSl voLFkk esa] fn, x, dkcksZdsVk;u ds fy, gkbMªkbM
affinity for the given carbocations is ca/kqrk dk lgh Øe gS
(1) A > C > B (2) B > C > A (1) A > C > B (2) B > C > A
(3) C > B > A (4) C > A > B (3) C > B > A (4) C > A > B
52. The major product formed in the given reaction is 52. nh xbZ vfHkfØ;k esa cuus okyk çeq[k mRikn D;k gS\
⎯⎯→
Br2
⎯⎯→
Br2
hv 60 C hv 60 C
Br Br
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
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55. The correct order of first ionization enthalpies is 55. izFke vk;uu ,UFkSYih dk lgh Øe D;k gS\
(1) B C N Be (2) N C Be B (1) B C N Be (2) N C Be B
(2) B N C Be (4) N B C Be (2) B N C Be (4) N B C Be
SF4 , ClO4 ,FClO3 and IF4 , the
− +
56. Among
chp esa SF4 , ClO4 ,FClO3 vkSj IF4 , ^^fod`r
− +
56.
number of species having "distorted tetrahedral"
prq’Qydh;^^ vkdkj okyh çtkfr;ksa dh la[;k D;k gS\
shape is
(1) 2 (2) 1 (1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4
57. The electronic configuration of an element A is 57. ,d rRo A dk bysDVª‚fud foU;kl [Xe]4f 1 5d1 6s2 gS
[Xe]4f 1 5d1 6s2 and that of an element B is
vkSj ,d rRo B dk bysDVª‚fud foU;kl [Xe]4f 3 6s2
[Xe]4f 6s . The elements A and B are
3 2
gS] rks rRo A vkSj B Øe”k% gSa\
respectively (1) laØe.k rRo vkSj ySaFksukbM
(1) Transition element and lanthanide,
(2) ySaFksukbM vkSj ,fDVukbM
(2) lanthanide and actinide
(3) transition element and actinide (3) laØe.k rRo vkSj ,fDVukbM
(4) both lanthanides (4) nksuksa ySaFksukbM~l
58. Which of the following salt on hydrolysis gives an 58. fuEu esa ls fdl yo.k dk ty vi?kVu {kkjh; foy;u
alkaline solution? fufeZr djrk gS?
(1) Na2CO3 (2) CH3COOK (1) Na2CO3 (2) CH3COOK
(3) NaCN (4) All of these
(3) NaCN (4) mijksDr lHkh
59. Which one among the following compounds does
not form primary standard solution? 59. fuEufyf[kr ;kSfxdksa esa ls dkSu lk çkFkfed ekud
(1) Na 2CO3 foy;u ugha cukrk gS\
(2) NaOH (1) Na 2CO3
(3) ZnO (2) NaOH
(4) Potassium hydrogen phthalate (3) ZnO
60. Consider the following variables: (4) iksVfs 'k;e gkbMªkt
s u FkSysV
I. Dielectric constant
60. fuEufyf[kr pjksa ij fopkj dhft,&
II. Surface tension
I. ijkoS|qrkad
III. Energy
IV. Enthalpy II. i`"B ruko
Which one of the following regarding III. ÅtkZ
classification of variables is correct? IV. ,UFkSYih
(1) I and III are intensive variables, II & IV are
extensive variables.
pjksa ds oxhZdj.k ds laca/k esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk
,d lgh gS\
(2) I and II are intensive variables, III & IV are
extensive variables. (1) I vkSj III xgu pj gSa] II vkSj IV O;kid pj gSaA
(3) I and IV are intensive variables, II & III are (2) I vkSj II xgu pj gSa] III vkSj IV O;kid pj gSaA
extensive variables. (3) I vkSj IV xgu pj gSa] II vkSj III O;kid pj gSaA
(4) II and III are intensive variables, I & IV are
extensive variables. (4) II vkSj III xgu pj gSa] I vkSj IV O;kid pj gSaA
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61. In a free expansion process, 61. ,d Lora= izlkj izØe es& a
(1) The work done is zero and the heat transfer is (1) fd;k x;k dk;Z 'kwU; gS vkSj Å"ek LFkkukUrj.k 'kwU;
zero gS
(2) the work done is zero but the heat flows into (2) fd;k x;k dk;Z 'kwU; gS ysfdu fudk; esa Å"ek
the system çokfgr gksrh gS
(3) work is done by the system but the heat transfer (3) fudk; }kjk dk;Z fd;k tkrk gS ysfdu m’ek
is zero gLrkarj.k 'kwU; gS
(4) work is done on the system and the heat flows (4) fudk; ij dk;Z fd;k tkrk gS vkSj fudk; ls m’ek
out of the system ckgj fudyrh gS
62. Consider the following hypothetical reactions: 62. fuEufyf[kr dkYifud vfHkfØ;kvksa ij fopkj djsa%
X(g) + Y(g) → XY(g); H1 = a KJ mol−1 X(g) + Y(g) → XY(g); H1 = a KJ mol−1
X(g) + Z(g) → XZ(g); H2 = b kJ mol −1 X(g) + Z(g) → XZ(g); H2 = b kJ mol −1
H for the reaction vfHkfØ;k Y(g) + XZ(g) → XY(g) + Z(g) ds fy,
Y(g) + XZ(g) → XY(g) + Z(g) will be H gks tk,xk
(1) (a + b)kJmol−1 (1) (a + b)kJmol−1
(2) akJ mol−1 (2) akJ mol−1
(3) bkJ mol−1 (3) bkJ mol−1
(4) (a − b)kJ mol−1 (4) (a − b)kJ mol−1
63. The vapour pressure of pure water decreases from 63. 150 xzke ty esa] 'kq) ty dk ok"i nkc ,d foys;
24 torr to 23 torr on adding x amount of a solute dh x ek=k feykus ij 24 V‚j ls ?kVdj 23 V‚j gks
(molar mass 480 g mol−1 ) in 150 g of water. The tkrk gS ¼eksyj æO;eku 480 g mol−1 ½ rks x dk eku D;k
value of x is gS\
(1) 114 g (2) 128 g (1) 114 g (2) 128 g
(3) 174 g (4) 1124 g (3) 174 g (4) 1124 g
64. The following graph shows the variation of molar 64. fuEufyf[kr xzkQ dh lkUnzrk ds lkFk eksyj pkydrk
conductance with the concentration of a / an dh fHkUurk dks n'kkZrk gS
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65. The correct order of increasing acid strength of the (4) ,Fku‚y
given carboxylic acids is 65. fn, x, dkcksZfDlfyd vEyksa dh vEy lkeF;Z dks c<+kus
(1) 4-acetylbenzoic acid < 4-cyano-benzoic acid < dk lgh Øe D;k gS\
4-hydroxybenzoic acid < benzene-
1,4dicarboxylic acid (1) 4-acetylbenzoic acid < 4-cyano-benzoic acid <
4-hydroxybenzoic acid < benzene-
(2) 4-hydroxybenzoic acid < 4-acetly-benzoic acid 1,4dicarboxylic acid
<4-cyanobenzoic acid < benzene-
1,4dicarboxylic acid (2) 4-hydroxybenzoic acid < 4-acetly-benzoic acid
<4-cyanobenzoic acid < benzene-
(3) 4-hydroxybenzoic acid < benzene-
1,4dicarboxylic acid
1,4dicarboxylic acid <4-acetyl-benzoic acid
<4 cyanobenzoic acid (3) 4-hydroxybenzoic acid < benzene-
(4) 4-cyanobenzoic acid <4-acetyl-benzoic acid < 1,4dicarboxylic acid <4-acetyl-benzoic acid <4
benzene-1,4-dicarboxylic acid < 4- cyanobenzoic acid
hydroxybenzoic acid (4) 4-cyanobenzoic acid <4-acetyl-benzoic acid <
66. Which one of the following has an achiral benzene-1,4-dicarboxylic acid < 4-
stereoisomer? hydroxybenzoic acid
(1) 2,3-Dibromo-2,3-dimethylbutane 66. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlesa vfdjsy f=foeleko;oh gksrk
(2) 2-Bromo-4-methylpentan-3-ol gS\
(3) 2,3-Dibromopentane (1) 2,3-Dibromo-2,3-dimethylbutane
(4) 1,2-Dibromocyclobutane (2) 2-Bromo-4-methylpentan-3-ol
67. Statement-I: Chlorobenzene and benzyl chloride (3) 2,3-Dibromopentane
are homologues (4) 1,2-Dibromocyclobutane
Statement-II: Homologues have same general 67. Statement-I: Chlorobenzene vkSj benzyl chloride
formula ltkrh; gS
(1) Statement-I and Statement-II are true
Statement-II: ltkr dk lkekU; lw= leku gksrk gS
(2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj II lgh gSA
(3) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II are false (2) dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gSA
68. Statement-I: Alkenes decolourise KMnO4 (3) dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA
solution. (4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj II xyr gSA
Statement-II: Alkenes undergo addition 68. Statement-I: Alkenes, KMnO4 foy;u dks jaxghu
reactions, which are mainly nucleophilic addition
djrh gSA
reactions.
(1) Statement-I and Statement-II are correct Statement-II: Alkenes eq[;r% ukfHkdLusgh ;ksxkRed
vfHkfØ;k nsrh gSA
(2) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj II lgh gSA
incorrect (2) nksuksa dFku I vkSj II xyr gSA
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is (3) dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gSA
correct
(4) dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA
69. Positive Fehling test is not given by
69. /kukRed Qsgfyax ijh{k.k fuEu }kjk ugha fn;k tkrk gS
(1) H − CHO (2) CH3CHO
(1) H − CHO (2) CH3CHO
(3) C6 H5CHO (4) Glucose
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70. If the standard electrode potentials of Fe3+ / Fe (3) C6 H5CHO (4) Xywdkst
and Fe 2 + / Fe are -0.04 V and -0.44 V respectively 70. ;fn Fe3+ / Fe vkSj Fe2+ / Fe dk ekud bysDVªksM foHko
then that of Fe3+ / Fe2+ is Øe'k% -0.04 V vkSj -0.44 V gSa] rks Fe3+ / Fe2+ dk eku
(1) 0.76 V (2) -0.76 V gS\
(3) 0.40 V (4) -0.40 V (1) 0.76 V (2) -0.76 V
71. Which of the following reagents is NOT suitable (3) 0.40 V (4) -0.40 V
for the above transformation? 71. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk vfHkdeZd mijksä ifjorZu
ds fy, mi;qä ugha gS\
b. Ni(CN)4
2−
II. sp3d2
a. Ni(CO)4 I. sp3
Ni(CN)4
2−
b. II. sp3d2
Co(CN)6
3−
c. III. d2sp3
Co(CN)6
3−
c. III. d2sp3
CoF6
3−
d. IV. dsp2
CoF6
3−
(1) a-IV, b-I, c-III, d-II d. IV. dsp2
(2) a-I, b-IV, c-III, d-II (1) a-IV, b-I, c-III, d-II
(3) a-I, b-IV, c-II, d-III (2) a-I, b-IV, c-III, d-II
(4) a-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III (3) a-I, b-IV, c-II, d-III
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74. The equilibrium which remains unaffected by (4) a-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III
pressure change is 74. nkc ifjorZu ls dkSulk lkE; vizHkkfor jgrk gS
(1) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) (1) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)
(2) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) (2) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)
(3) 2O3(g) 3O2(g) (3) 2O3(g) 3O2(g)
(4) 2NO2(g) N 2 O4(g) (4) 2NO2(g) N 2 O4(g)
75. The unit for rate constant of zero order reaction is 75. 'kwU; dksfV vfHkfØ;k dh nj fLFkjkad dh bdkbZ D;k gS\
(1) sec–1
(1) sec–1
(2) Mol.lit–1sec–1 (2) Mol.lit–1sec–1
(3) lit.mol–1sec–1 (3) lit.mol–1sec–1
(4) Mol. lit–1 (4) Mol. lit–1
76. When equal volumes of the following solutions are
76. tc fuEufyf[kr foy;uksa ds leku vk;ru fefJr gksrs
mixed, the precipitation of AgCl
gSa] rks AgCl dk vo{ksi.k ( Ksp = 1.8 10−10 ) fdlds
(Ksp = 1.8 10 −10
)
will occur with:
lkFk gksxk%
( )
(1) 10−4 M Ag + and10−4 M Cl− ( ) ( ) ( )
(1) 10−4 M Ag + vkSj 10−4 M Cl−
(2) 10 −5
M ( Ag ) and10 M ( Cl )
+ −5 −
(2) 10−5 M ( Ag ) vkSj 10 M ( Cl )
+ −5 −
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79. The sodium extract of an organic compound on 79. ,d dkcZfud ;kSfxd ds lksM+k fu’d’kZ dks ,lhfVd vEy
acidification with acetic acid and addition of lead }kjk vEyhd`r dj ySM ,lhVsV feykus ij dkyk vo{ksi
acetate solution gives a black precipitate. The feyrk gS] rks dkcZfud ;kSfxd esa “kkfey gS&
organic compound contains
(1) ukbVªkt
s u (2) gykstu
(1) Nitrogen (2) Halogen
(3) lYQj (4) Q‚LQksjl
(3) Sulphur (4) Phosphorus
80. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl d{kd esa dks.kh; uksM~l dh
80. Which of the following orbital has the maximum
number of radial nodes? vf/kdre la[;k gS\
(1) 4 s (2) 4 p (1) 4 s (2) 4 p
(3) 4 d (4) 4 f (3) 4 d (4) 4 f
81. What is the sum of the number of atoms which are 81. ikbjksxSyksy ds v.kq esa ekStwn ijek.kqvksa dh la[;k dk
present in a molecule of pyrogallol? ;ksx D;k gS\
(1) 16 (2) 15 (1) 16 (2) 15
(3) 10 (4) 14 (3) 10 (4) 14
82. Which species has maximum number of ( d − p ) 82. fdlh Lih”kht esa ( d − p ) ca/k vf/kdre gS \
bonds?
− 3−
(1) I3− (2) PO34−
(1) I (2) PO
(3) SO24− (4) ClO+2
3 4
2− +
(3) SO (4) ClO
4 2
83. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk r`rh;d ,fyy vYdksgy gS\
83. Which of the following is tertiary allyl alcohol?
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
84. Which complex is likely to show optical activity?
84. fdl ladqy esa izdkf”kd lfØ;rk iznf”kZr djus dh
laHkkouk gS\
(1) Trans Ma 4 b2
n
(1) Trans Ma 4 b2
n
(2) Ma 5 b
n
(2) Ma 5 b
n
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86. In a reversible reaction if the net reaction is taking 86. ,d mRØe.kh; vfHkfØ;k esa] ;fn dqy vfHkfØ;k vxz
place in forward direction then which of the fn'kk esa gks jgh gS] rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k lR; gS\
following is true?
1
1 (1) QC KC (2) Q C =
(1) QC KC (2) Q C = KC
KC
(3) QC = KC (4) QC KC
(3) QC = KC (4) QC KC
87. CH3COOH , ds 0.01 M tyh; foy;u dk pH
87. pH of 0.01 M aqueous solution of CH3COOH is (pKa = 4.74) gS
(pKa = 4.74)
(1) 3.37 (2) 5.05
(1) 3.37 (2) 5.05 (3) 6.7 (4) 6.99
(3) 6.7 (4) 6.99
+3
88. ;fn As +3 vkSj Zn 2+ ds vEyh; foy;u esa H2S xSl
88. Why only As gets precipitated as As2 S3 and not
izokfgr dh tkrh gS] rks As +3 , As2 S3 ds :i esa
Zn 2+ as ZnS when H2S is passed through an acidic vo{ksfir gks tkrk gS tcfd Zn+2, ZnS ds :i esa
solution containing As +3 and Zn +2 ? vo{ksfir ugha gksrk gS] D;ksafd\
(1) Solubility of As2 S3 is less than that of ZnS (1) As2 S3 dh foys;rk ZnS ls de gS
(2) Enough As +3 are present in acidic medium (2) vEyh; ek/;e esa i;kZIr As +3 ekStwn gksrs gSa
(3) Zinc salt does not ionize in acidic medium (3) vEyh; ek/;e esa tLrk yo.k vk;fur ugha gksrk gS
(4) Solubility product changes in presence of an (4) vEy dh mifLFkfr esa foys;rk xq.kuQy ifjofrZr
acid gksrk gSA
89. Which of the following is not known 89. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu vfLrRo esa ugha gS\
(1) VF5 (2) MnO2 F3 (1) VF5 (2) MnO2 F3
(4) FeO4
−2
(3) TiI4 (3) TiI4 (4) FeO4
−2
90. In the coupling reaction involving benzene 90. ;qXeu vfHkfØ;k esa] csathu Mkbtksfu;e DyksjkbM ukjaxh
diazonium chloride to form orange dye, and
jatd vkSj ihyk jatd cukrk gS] rks mi;ksx esa fy;k
yellow dye the media used is
x;k ek/;e gksxk&
(1) Acidic, basic (2) Basic, acidic
(1) vEyh;] {kkjh; (2) {kkjh;] vEyh;
(3) Acidic, acidic (4) Basic, basic
(3) vEyh;] vEyh; (4) {kkjh;] {kkjh;
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PART – III : BOTANY
91. Which of the following is incorrectly matched pair 91. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk xsgaw dh oxhZdj.k Jsf.k;ksa dh
of taxonomic categories of wheat? xyr lqesfyr tksMh+ gS\
(1) Family – Poaceae (1) dqy – iks,lh
(2) Genus – Triticum (2) çtkfr – fVªfVde
(3) oxZ – eksuksdkfVfyMuh
(3) Class – Moncytoledonae
(4) vkns'k – LkSfiaMYs l
(4) Order – sapindales
92. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa% ,d dks dFku (A) vkSj nwljs
92. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as dks dkj.k (R) ds :i esa yscy fd;k x;k gSA
Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
dFku (A): çdk'k la'ys"kd :i ls] C4 ikS/ks C3 ikS/kksa
Assertion (A): Photosynthetically, C4 plants are dh rqyuk esa de dq'ky gksrs gSaA
less efficient than C3 plants.
dkj.k (R): C4 ekxZ ds lapkyu ds fy, eslksfQy vkSj
Reason (R): The operation of C4 pathway requires caMy 'khFk dksf'kdkvksa dh Hkkxhnkjh dh vko';drk gksrh
involvement of mesophyll and bundle sheath cells. gSA
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true (1) (A) vlR; gS ysfdu (R) lR; gSA
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (2) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lR; gSa vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh
explanation of (A). O;k[;k gSA
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the (3) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lR; gSa vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh
correct explanation of (A). O;k[;k ugha gSA
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) (A) lR; gS ysfdu (R) vlR; gS
93. Identify the correct feature of diatoms. 93. Mk;Ve dh lgh fo'ks"krk dh igpku dhft,A
(1) Cell wall is made up of cellulose, floating on (1) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk lsywykst ls cuh gksrh gS] tks ikuh
water. ij rSjrh gSA
(2) Cell wall is made up of chitin. (2) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk dkbfVu ls cuh gksrh gSA
(3) Cell wall is made up of silica, floating on water (3) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk flfydk ls cuh gksrh gS] tks ikuh
ij rSjrh gS
(4) Cell wall is made up of chitin, floating on
(4) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk dkbfVu ls cuh gksrh gS] tks ikuh
water.
ij rSjrh gSA
94. Which of the following statements is correct?
94. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku lgh gS\
(1) In eukaryotes, the rRNA like 18s, 5.8s and 28s (1) ;wdsfj;ksV~l es]a rRNA tSls 18s, 5.8s vkSj 28s dks
are synthesized out of the nucleus.
dsUnzd ls ckgj la'ysf"kr fd;k tkrk gSA
(2) In eukaryotes, 5s rRNA synthesized in (2) ;wdsfj;ksV~l esa] 5s rRNA dksf'kdknzO; esa la'ysf"kr
cytoplasm. gksrk gSA
(3) In prokaryotes, rRNA and its protein are (3) çksdSfj;ksV~l es]a rRNA vkSj blds çksVhu dks
synthesized by plasmid. IykfLeM }kjk la'ysf"kr fd;k tkrk gSA
(4) In eukaryotes, the rRNA like 18s, 5.8s and 28s (4) ;wdsfj;ksV~l es]a rRNA tSls 18s, 5.8s vkSj 28s dks
are synthesized in nucleolus. dsfUnzdk esa la'ysf"kr fd;k tkrk gSA
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95. Which of the following statements is incorrect with 95. ^ekuo thukse^ ds laca/k esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk
respect to ‘Human Genome’? dFku xyr gS\
(1) Human genome consist of 3 × 109 bp and about (1) ekuo thukse esa 3 × 109 bp vkSj yxHkx 30]000
30,000 genes
thu gksrs gS
(2) The average gene size is 3000 bp and
dystrophin is the largest known human gene. (2) vkSlr thu dk vkdkj 3000 bp gS vkSj fMLVªksfQu
lcls cM+k Kkr ekuo thu gSA
(3) Chromosome 1 contains (2968) number of
genes and Y-chromosome has 231 number of (3) Øksekslkse 1 esa ¼2968½ thu gksrs gSa vkSj
genes. Y&Øksekslkse esa 231 thu gksrs gSaA
(4) Repetitive sequences are not present. (4) nksgjk, tkus okys vuqØe ekStwn ugha gSaA
96. Given below are two statements. 96. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSaA
Statement I: All test cross are backcross.
dFku I: lHkh VsLV ؂l cSd؂l gSaA
Statement II: In back cross, an individual is
crossed with recessive parents. dFku II: cSd Ø‚l es]a ,d O;fä dk vizHkkoh tud ls
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Økl djk;k tkrk gSaA
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSaA
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (2) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSaA
incorrect. (3) dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gSA
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA
correct.
97. Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive 97. fldy lsy ,uhfe;k ,d v‚Vkslksey vizHkkoh vkuqoaf'kd
genetic disorder, what are the chances that the child fodkj gS] D;k laHkkouk gS fd cPps dks chekjh gksxh ;fn
would have the disease if any one of the parent is a ekrk&firk esa ls dksbZ ,d nks"kiw.kZ fldy lsy ,uhfe;k
carrier of the faulty sickle cell anaemia gene? thu dk okgd gS\
(1) 100% (2) 50% (1) 100% (2) 50%
(3) 25% (4) 0% (3) 25% (4) 0%
98. At which stage of the cell cycle are histone proteins 98. dksf'kdk pØ ds fdl pj.k esa ;wdsfj;ksfVd dksf'kdk esa
synthesised in an eukaryotic cell? fgLVksu çksVhu la'ysf"kr gksrs gSa\
(1) During telophase
(1) VsyksQst ds nkSjku
(2) During G2-stage of prophase.
(2) çksQst ds G2&pj.k ds nkSjkuA
(3) During S-phase
(4) During entire prophase (3) ,l&izkoLFkk ds nkSjku
99. If you remove fimbriae from the bacterial cell, (4) iwjs çksQst ds nkSjku
which of the following would you expect to 99. ;fn vki thok.kq dksf'kdk ls fQEczh dks gVkrs gSa] rks
happen?
vki fuEufyf[kr esa ls D;k gksus dh mEehn djsaxs\
(1) The bacteria could no longer swim
(1) cSDVhfj;k vc rSj ugha ldrs Fks
(2) Bacteria would not adhere to the host tissue
(2) cSDVhfj;k estcku Ård ij fpid ugh ik,xk
(3) Transportation of molecule across the
membrane would stop (3) f>Yyh ds ikj v.kq dk ifjogu can gks tk,xk
(4) The shape of bacteria would change (4) cSDVhfj;k dk vkdkj cny tk,xk
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100. Consider the following characteristics: 100. fuEufyf[kr fo'ks"krkvksa ij fopkj djsa%
I. Twisted aestivation I. fV~oLVsM ,fLVos'ku
II. Polypetalous cruciform II. i‚yhisVyl ØwflQ‚eZ
III. Actinomorphic III. ,fDVukse‚fQZd
IV. Polyandrous tetradynamous dithecous anther IV. i‚yh,aMªkls VsVªkMk;ukel MkbFksdl ijkxdks"k
V. Axile placentation V. v{kh; chtk.MU;kl
Which of the following characters belongs to
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ls dqy ØwflQsjh ls lacfa /kr gS\
family cruciferae?
(1) I rFkk V
(1) I and V
(2) II, III and IV (2) II, III rFkk IV
(3) I, III and IV (3) I, III rFkk IV
(4) I, II and III (4) I, II rFkk III
101. A flower having polypetalous, cruciform corolla, 101. i‚yhisVyl] ØwflQ‚eZ dksjksyk] okYosV ,fLVos'ku]
valvate aestivation, basifixed polyandrous stamens csflfQDLM i‚yh,UMªl iqadslj vkSj csgrj vaMk'k; okyk
and superior ovary is found in Qwy fdlesa ik;k tkrk gS\
(1) Mustard (2) Cotton (1) ljlksa (2) dikl
(3) Sesbania (4) China rose (3) lsLcfu;k (4) phu dk mn;
102. The portion of embryonal axis between plumule 102. vkywcq[kkjk vkSj chti= ds chp H:.k v{k dk Hkkx D;k
and cotyledons is gS\
(1) Hypocotyl (2) Epicotyl (1) gkbiksdksfVy (2) ,fidksfVy
(3) Coleorhiza (4) Coleptile
(3) dksyksfjtk (4) dksysIVkby
103. Match the following:
103. fuEufyf[kr dks lqesfyr djsa%
List–I List–II
lwph-I lwph-II
A. C4 plants I. Accessory photosynthetic
A. C4 ikni I. xkS.k çdk'k la'ys"kd
B. Chlorophyll b II. Kranz anatomy
B. DyksjksfQy b II. Øst
a 'kjhj jpuk foKku
C. PS-II III. PGA
D. C3 plants IV. Photolysis of H2O C. PS-II III. PGA
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV D. C3 ikni IV. H2O dk QksVksfyfll
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
104. Genetic material in viroid is (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(1) Single stranded DNA with protein coat 104. okbjksbM esa vkuqoaf'kd lkexzh gS
(2) Single stranded RNA without protein coat (1) çksVhu dksV ds lkFk ,djTTkqdh; Mh,u,
(3) Double stranded circular DNA with histone (2) çksVhu dksV ds fcuk ,djTTkqdh; vkj,u,
proteins (3) fgLVksu çksVhu ds lkFk f}jTTkqdh; Mh,u,
(4) Double stranded DNA enclosed in nuclear (4) ijek.kq f>Yyh esa layXu f}jTTkqdh; Mh,u,A
membrane.
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105. Which of the following cell organelles is present in 105. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dksf'kdk vax esfjLVeSfVd
the highest number in meristmatic cells? dksf'kdkvksa esa lcls vf/kd la[;k esa ekStwn gksrk gS\
(1) Centriole (1) lsV a ªhvksy
(2) Mitochondria (2) ekbVksd‚fUMª;k
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum (3) ,aMksIykfTed jsfVdqye
(4) Phloem Parenchyma (4) ¶yks,e iSjsUdkbek
106. Identify the incorrect set of statements.
106. dFkuksa ds xyr lewg dh igpku dhft,A
I. In a dicot root, the vascular bundles are
I. ,d f}chti=h tM+ esa] laoguh caMy laikf'kZ~od
collateral and endarch.
vkSj ,aMkpZ gksrs gSaA
II. The inner most layer of cortex in a dicot root is
pericycle. II. ,d f}chti=h tM+ esa çkarLFkk dh lcls Hkhrjh ijr
III. In a dicot root, the phloem masses are separated
isjhlkbdy gSA
from the xylem by parenchymatous cells that III. ,d f}chti=h tM+ es]a ¶yks,e æO;eku dks tkbye
are known as the conjunctive tissue. ls iSjUs dkbesVl dksf'kdkvksa }kjk vyx fd;k tkrk
IV. All tissues on the inner side of the endodermis gS ftUgsa la;kstd Ård ds :i esa tkuk tkrk gSA
such as phloem, xylem and pith constitute the IV. ,aMksMfeZl ds van:uh fgLls tSls ¶yks,e] tkbye
pericycle. vkSj fiFk ds lHkh Ård isjkbdy dk xBu djrs
V. Epiblema protrude in the form of unicellular gSaA
root hairs. V. ,fiCysek ,ddksf'kdh; tM+ cky ds :i esa QSyrk
Choose the correct answer from the options given gSA
below:
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,%
(1) II, III and V
(1) II, III rFkk V
(2) I, II and IV
(2) I, II rFkk IV
(3) III and IV
(3) III rFkk IV
(4) I and IV
(4) I rFkk IV
107. Who observed that the behaviours of chromosome 107. fdlus ns[kk fd v/kZlw=hfoHkktu ij xq.klw= dk O;ogkj
at meiosis can serve as the cellular basis of both vyxko vkSj Lora= oxhZdj.k nksuksa ds lsyqyj vk/kkj ds
segregation and independent assortment? :i esa dke dj ldrk gS\
(1) Sutton and Boveri (1) lVu vkSj cksosjh
(2) Banden and Boveri (2) cSaMsu vkSj cksojs h
(3) F Flemming (3) ,Q ¶ysfeax
(4) Boveri and Braun (4) cksosjh vkSj czkSu
108. Øsc pØ esa 5 dkcZu okyk ;kSfxd gS &
108. In Kreb’s cycle 5C compound is (1) vkDlSyks lfDlfud ,flM
(1) Oxalo succinic acid (2) flfVªd ,flM
(2) Citric acid
(3) fdVksXyqVkfjd ,flM
(3) ketoglutaric acid
(4) ¶;qesfjd ,flM
(4) Fumaric acid
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109. Which of the following is not observed in 109. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk VsyksQst esa ugha ns[kk tkrk
telophase? gS\
(1) Chromosome material condense to form (1) xq.klw= lkexzh d‚EiSDV ekbVksfVd xq.klw= cukus
compact mitotic chromosomes ds fy, la?kfur gksrh gS
(2) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform (2) dsfUnzdk] xksYxh d‚EIysDl vkSj bZvkj iqu% curs gS
(3) Nuclear envelope assembles around the
(3) dsUnzd vkoj.k xq.klw= lewgksa ds pkjksa vksj bdëk
chromosome clusters
gksrk gS
(4) Chromosomes clusters at opposite spindle
poles and their identify is lost as discrete (4) xq.klw= foijhr /kzqoksa ij ,df=r gksrs gSa vkSj mudh
elements igpku vlrr rRoksa ds :i esa [kks tkrh gS
110. Given below are two statements: 110. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa%
Statement I: The ATP molecules synthesized in the dFku I: v‚DlhMsfVo QkLQkfjyhdj.k dh çfØ;k esa
process of oxidative phosphorylation are utilized in la'ysf"kr ATP v.kqvksa dk mi;ksx CO2 fLFkjhdj.k ds
dark reaction for CO2 assimilation. fy, vizdkf'kd vfHkfØ;k esa fd;k tkrk gSA
Statement II: In oxidative phosphorylation, dFku II: v‚DlhMsfVo QkLQkfjyhdj.k esa] vipf;r
reduced NADH2 and FADH2 are oxidized to form NADH2 vkSj FADH2 dks NAD+ vkSj FAD+ cukus ds
NAD+ and FAD+. fy, v‚Dlhdj.k fd;k tkrk gSA
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSaA
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSa
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect. (3) dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gSA
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (4) dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gS
correct 111. ,fDVukseksfQZd iq"i gksrs gSa
111. The flowers are actinomorphic in I. ehBh eVj II. V~;wfyi
I. Sweet pea II. Tulip III. I;kt IV. vkyw
III. Onion IV. Potato V. VªkbQksfy;e
V. Trifolium uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,A
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) II, III rFkk IV (2) I, II rFkk III
below.
(3) I rFkk II (4) I, III rFkk V
(1) II, III and IV (2) I, II and III
(3) I and II (4) I, III and V 112. fuEufyf[kr dks lqesfyr djsa%
112. Match the following: lwph-I lwph-II
List-I List-II ¼çtuu vax½ ¼fo'ks"krk½
(Reproductive organ) (Characteristic) A. çksVksfuek I. o/khZ tuu
A. Protonema I. Vegetative propagation B. ,aFksfjfM;e II. uj tuukax
B. Antheridium II. Male sex organ C. L=h/kkuh III. eknk tuukax
C. Archegonium III. Female sex organ D. chtk.kqi.kZ IV. chtk.kq/kkuh j[krs gS
D. Sporophyll IV. Bears sporangia (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Space for rough work
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113. Which of the following pair of plants prevent both 113. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ikS/kk v‚VksxSeh vkSj
autogamy and geitonogamy? tkbVksuksxSeh nksuksa dks jksdrk gS\
(1) Papaya and date palm (1) iihrk vkSj [ktwj
(2) Castor and maize (2) vjaMh vkSj eDdk
(3) Papaya and maize (3) iihrk vkSj eDdk
(4) Date palm and castor (4) [ktwj vkSj vjaMh
114. Consider the following statements regarding DNA
114. DNA fQaxjfçafVax ds laca/k esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij
fingerprinting.
fopkj djsAa
I. VNTRs are also known as minisatellites.
I. VNTRs dks feuh lSVy s kbV ds :i esa Hkh tkuk
II. The technique identifies a person on the basis tkrk gSA
of person’s DNA specificity.
II. ;g rduhd O;fä dh DNA fof'k"Vrk ds vk/kkj
III. VNTRs are used as genetic markers.
ij fdlh O;fä dh igpku djrh gSA
IV. VNTRs are dissimilar in monozygotic twins.
III. VNTRs dk mi;ksx vkuqoaf'kd ekdZj ds :i esa
V. It was developed by Alec Jeffreys.
fd;k tkrk gSA
The incorrect statement(s) is/are:
IV. VNTRs eksukstk;xksfVd tqM+ok¡ esa fHkUu gksrs gSaA
(1) I and III (2) II and V
V. bls Alec Jeffreys }kjk fodflr fd;k x;k FkkA
(3) III only (4) IV only
xyr dFku gSa%
115. Given below are two statements:
(1) I rFkk III (2) II rFkk V
Statement I: The individual suffering from
Klinfelter syndrome has masculine development (3) dsoy III (4) dsoy IV
and gynaecomastia. 115. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa%
Statement II: In Down's syndrome chromosome dFku I: fDyuQsYVj flaMªkse ls ihfM+r O;fä esa enkZuk
no. becomes 45. fodkl vkSj xkbusdksekfLV;k gksrk gSA
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct dFku II: Mkmu flaMªkse esa xq.klw=ksa dh la[;k 45 gks
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect tkrh gSaA
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSaA
incorrect
(2) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSa
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct (3) dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gS
(4) dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gS
116. The occurrence of haemophilia is more likely in 116. gheksfQfy;k dh ?kVuk efgykvksa dh rqyuk esa ekuo
human males compared to females because iq#"kksa esa vf/kd gksus dh laHkkouk gS D;ksfa d
(1) Females are heterogametic (1) eknk,a fo"ke gksrh gSa
(2) Females can only be carriers (2) efgyk,a dsoy okgd gks ldrh gSa
(3) The haemophilic allele is present only on X- (3) gheksfQfyd ,yhy dsoy X&Øksekslkse ij ekStwn
chromosome gksrk gS
(4) The haemophilic allele is present only on Y- (4) gheksfQfyd ,yhy dsoy Y&xq.klw= ij ekStwn gSA
chromosome.
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117. Which of the following statements correctly 117. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku jkbckslkse dks lgh
characterize ribosomes? <ax ls fpfàr djrk gS\
(1) They are the only site of RNA replication (1) os RNA çfr—fr dh ,dek= LFkku gSa
(2) They are composed of two equal subunits (2) os nks leku mibdkbZ;ksa ls cus gksrs gSa
(3) They contain fewer identical components in (3) muesa çksdSfj;ksV~l vkSj ;wdsfj;ksV~l esa de leku
prokaryotes and eukaryotes ?kVd gksrs gSa
(4) They are the site of protein synthesis.
(4) os çksVhu la'ys"k.k dh lkbV gSaA
118. During light dependent reactions, light energy is
converted to chemical potential energy through the 118. çdk'k fuHkZj çfrfØ;kvksa ds nkSjku] DyksjksIykLV esa
process of chemiosmosis in the chloroplasts. Which dsfe;ksLeksfll dh çfØ;k ds ek/;e ls çdk'k ÅtkZ dks
of the following statements about this process is jklk;fud laHkkfor ÅtkZ esa ifjofrZr fd;k tkrk gSA
false? bl çfØ;k ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku
I. The electron carriers of phosphorylation are vlR; gS\
located in the thylakoid. I. Q‚LQksjkbys'ku ds bysDVª‚u okgd Fkk;ykdksbM esa
II. During phosphorylation, the chloroplast stroma fLFkr gSaA
becomes more acidic than the interior of II. Q‚LQksjkbys'ku ds nkSjku] DyksjksIykLV LVªksek
thylakoid membrane. Fkk;ykdksbM f>Yyh ds baVhfj;j dh rqyuk esa
III. Protons diffuse through the proton channels vf/kd vEyh; gks tkrk gSA
which are component of ATP synthetase III. çksV‚u] çksVkWu pkSuyksa ds ek/;e ls QSyrs gSa tks
molecules. ATP flaFksVts v.kq ds dEiksusUV gksrs gSaA
IV. ATP is formed from ADP + Pi on the stroma
IV. ATP DyksjksIykLV esa Fkk;ykdksbM ds LVªksek i{k ij
side of the thylakoid in the chloroplast.
ADP + Pi ls curk gSA
V. During phosphorylation, water ionizes to form
H+ + 2OH–, yielding an e– to PS-II. V. Q‚LQksjkbys'ku ds nkSjku] ty H+ + 2OH– cukus
ds fy, vk;fur gksrk gS] ftlls e– PS-II dks çkIr
(1) I, II and IV
gksrk gSA
(2) II only
(1) I, II rFkk IV
(3) III and IV
(2) dsoy II
(4) Only IV
(3) III rFkk IV
119. If chromosome number of diploid cell is 60 at the
G1, how many chromosomes will be present during (4) dsoy IV
G2-phase? 119. ;fn G1 ij f}xqf.kr dksf'kdk dh xq.klw= la[;k 60 gS]
(1) 20 (2) 40 rks G2&pj.k ds nkSjku fdrus xq.klw= ekStwn gksaxs\
(3) 60 (4) 10 (1) 20 (2) 40
120. The carrying capacity of an area is 500 and the (3) 60 (4) 10
population density is 400. If the intrinsic rate of 120. ,d {ks= dh ogu {kerk 500 gS vkSj tula[;k ?kuRo
natural increase is 0.01, then what will be the value 400 gSA ;fn çk—frd o`f) dh vkarfjd nj 0.01 gS]
dN
of for this population? dN
dt rks mldk vkcknh ds fy, eku D;k gksxk\
dt
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.8
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.8
(3) 80 (4) 40
(3) 80 (4) 40
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121. A dominant, independent, photosynthetic, thalloid 121. ,d çHkkoh] Lora=] çdk'k la'ys"kd] FkSy‚;M ;k lh/kk
or erect phase is represented by a haploid pj.k ,d vxqf.kr xSesVksQkbV~l }kjk n'kkZ;k tkrk gS
gametophytes and it alternates with the short lived vkSj ;g vYidkfyd cgqdksf'kdh; LiksjksQkbV ds lkFk
multicellular sporophyte totally or partially oSdfYid :i ls ;k vkaf'kd :i ls bl ij jgus vkSj
dependent on the gametophytes for this anchorage iks"k.k ds fy, xSesVksQkbV~l ij fuHkZj djrk gSA bl
and nutrition. This type of pattern is present in çdkj dk iSVuZ ekStwn gS
(1) Mosses and liverworts
(1) ekWl vkSj fyojo‚VZ~l
(2) Ferns and horsetails
(2) QuZ vkSj g‚lZVy s
(3) Cycas and Pinus
(3) lkbdl vkSj ikbul
(4) Ulothrix and Spirogyra
(4) ;qyksfFkzDl vkSj Likbjksxkbjk
122. Given below are two statements.
122. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSaA
Statement I: In brinjal, stamens are attached to the
petals and are called as epipetalous. dFku I: cSaxu esa] iqadl
s j nyksa ls tqM+s gksrs gSa vkSj mUgsa
Statement II: In China rosa, diadelphous types of ,fiisVyl dgk tkrk gSA
stamens are present. dFku II: xqM+gy es]a MkvMsyQl çdkj ds iqadslj ekStwn
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct gSaA
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSaA
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (2) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSaA
incorrect. (3) dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gSA
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (4) dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA
correct.
123. fuEufyf[kr dks lqesfyr djsa%
123. Match the following:
List I List II lwph I lwph II
A. Brassicaceae 1. A. czSfllslh 1.
B. Fabaceae 2. B. QScl
s h 2.
C. Malvaceae 3. C. ekyoslh 3.
D. Gramineae 4. D. xzSfeuh 4.
(1) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 (1) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(2) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 (2) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(3) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 (3) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(4) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (4) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
124. How many meiotic divisions will be necessary to 124. 280 ijkxd.kksa ds mRiknu ds fy, fdrus
produce 280 pollen grains? v/kZlw=hfoHkktu vko';d gksaxs\
(1) 100 (1) 100
(2) 70 (2) 70
(3) 99 (3) 99
(4) 140 (4) 140
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125. Consider the following statements: 125. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
I. In an aquatic ecosystem, DFC is the major I. ,d tyh; ikfjfLFkfrdh ra= es]a DFC ÅtkZ çokg
conduit for energy flow. ds fy, çeq[k ekxZ gSA
II. In ecosystem, the trophic level represents a II. ikfjfLFkfrdh ra= es]a iks"kh Lrj ,d dk;kZRed Lrj
functional level, not a species as such. dk çfrfuf/kRo djrk gS] u fd ,d çtkfr ds :i
III. Species cannot occupy more than one trophic esAa
level in the same ecosystem at the same time.
III. çtkfr;ka ,d gh le; esa ,d gh ikfjfLFkfrdh ra=
IV. In most ecosystem, the pyramids of number, esa ,d ls vf/kd iks"kh Lrj ij dCtk ugha dj
energy and biomass are upright.
ldrh gSaA
V. The pyramid of biomass in sea is also upright.
IV. vf/kdka'k ikfjfLFkfrdh ra= es]a la[;k] ÅtkZ vkSj
Choose the correct option tSoHkkj ds fijkfeM lh/ks gksrs gSaA
(1) I, III and IV (2) I, IV and V
V. leqæ esa tSoHkkj dk fijkfeM Hkh lh/kk gksrk gSA
(3) II, III and IV (4) II and IV
lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,
126. Select the correct sequence of electron transfer
from the options given below: (1) I, III rFkk IV (2) I, IV rFkk V
(1) P680 → P700 → Cytochrome → PQ (3) II, III rFkk IV (4) II rFkk IV
(2) P680 → PQ → Q → Cytochrome 126. uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls bysDVª‚u LFkkukarj.k dk
(3) P680 → PQ → Cytochrome → PC lgh Øe pqfu,%
(4) P680 → PQ → Cytochrome → PS-II (1) P680 → P700 → lkbVksØkse → PQ
127. Which of the following option gives the correct (2) P680 → PQ → Q → lkbVksØkse
sequences of events during mitosis? (3) P680 → PQ → lkbVksØkse → PC
(1) Condensation → Nuclear membrane (4) P680 → PQ → lkbVksØkse → PS-II
disassembly → Crossing over → Segregation
127. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk fodYi ekbVksfll ds nkSjku
→ Telophase.
?kVukvksa dk lgh vuqØe nsrk gS\
(2) Condensation → Nuclear membrane
disassembly → Arrangement at equator → (1) la?kuu → ijek.kq f>Yyh fMLlsfI;j → vyxko
Centromere division → Segregation → → i`FkDdj.k → fVyksQst
Telophase. (2) la?kuu → ijek.kq f>Yyh fMLlsfI;j → Hkwe/; js[kk
(3) Condensation → Crossing over → Nuclear ij vkuk → lsUVªksfe;j → foHkktu → vyxko →
membrane disassembly → Segregation → fVyksQst
Telophase. (3) la?kuu → Økflax vksoj → ijek.kq f>Yyh
(4) Condensation → Arrangement at equator → fMLlsfI;j → vyxko → fVyksQst
Centromere division → Segregation → (4) la?kuu → Hkwe/; js[kk ij vkuk → ijek.kq f>Yyh
Telophase. fMLlsfI;j → vyxko → fVyksQst
128. Identify the incorrect statement.
128. xyr dFku dh igpku dhft,A
(1) Henking discovered an X-body, while Y-body
was discovered by Stevens. (1) gsafdax us ,d X&c‚Mh dh [kkst dh] tcfd Y&c‚Mh
(2) Gynaecomastia is associated with Turner’s
dh [kkst LVhosal us dhA
syndrome. (2) xk;uksdksesfLV;k VuZj flaMªkse ds lkFk tqM+k gqvk gSA
(3) Accumulation of phenyl pyruvic acid in the (3) efLr"d esa fQykbZy ik;:fod ,flM ds lap; ls
brain results in mental retardation. ekufld eanrk gksrh gSA
(4) Only 8% of males and 0.4% of females suffer (4) dsoy 8% iq#"k vkSj 0.4% efgyk,a o.kkZU/krk ls
from color blindness. ihfM+r gSaA
Space for rough work
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129. Given below are two statements: 129. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa%
Statement I: Complex-IV refers to cytochrome- dFku I: d‚EIysDl&IV lkbVksØkse&bc1 d‚EIysDl dks
bc1 complex. lanfHkZr djrk gSA
Statement II: Ubiquinone also receives reducing dFku II: ;qchDohuksu dks FADH2 ds ek/;e ls vip;u
equivalents via FADH2. led{k çkIr gksrs gSaA
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSaA
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(2) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSaA
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gS
incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (4) dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gS
correct 130. fuEufyf[kr esa ls thoksa dk dkSu lk tksMk+ vfr&'kks"k.k
130. Which of the following pairs of organisms extinct ds dkj.k foyqIr gks x;k gS\
due to over-exploitation? (1) ySaVkuk vkSj bZdksfuZ;k
(1) Lantana and Eichhornia (2) LVsyj dh leqæh xk; vkSj ;k=h dcwrj
(2) Steller’s sea cow and Passenger pigeon (3) caxky Vkbxj vkSj fppfyM eNyh
(3) Bengal tiger and Cichlid fish (4) Hkkjrh; dsV fQ'k vkSj LVsyj leqæh xk;A
(4) Indian cat fish and Stellar sea cow.
131. fp= esa L=hdslj ds çdkj dks igpkfu,%
131. Identify the type of pistil in the diagram:
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133. Given below are two statements : 133. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa%
Statement-I: Prokaryotic mRNAs are usually dFku&I: çksdSfj;ksfVd mRNA vkerkSj ij
monocistronic. eksuksflLVªksfud gksrs gSaA
Statement-II: Eukaryotic mRNAs are usually dFku&II: ;wdsfj;ksfVd mRNA vkerkSj ij
polycistronic. i‚yhflLVªksfud gksrs gSaA
In the light of the above statements, choose the mijksä dFkuksa ds vkyksd esa uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa
correct answer from the options given below:
ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,%
(1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
(1) dFku&I lR; gS ysfdu dFku&II vlR; gSA
(2) Statement-II is true but Statement-I is false
(2) dFku&II lR; gS ysfdu dFku&I vlR; gSA
(3) Both statements are true
(3) nksuksa dFku lR; gSa
(4) Both statements are false
(4) nksuksa dFku vlR; gSa
134. Consider the following statements.
I. Only PS-I is functional in cyclic 134. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,A
phosphorylation. I. pØh; QkLQkfjyhdj.k esa dsoy PS-I dk;kZRed gSA
II. Cyclic phosphorylation results into synthesis of II. pØh; QkLQkfjyhdj.k ds ifj.kkeLo:i ATP vkSj
ATP and NADPH2. NADPH2 dk la'ys"k.k gksrk gSA
III. Z scheme of light reaction take place in III. Z çdk'k vfHkfØ;k dh Ldhe dsoy PS-I dh
presence of PS-I only mifLFkfr esa gksrh gS
IV. Stroma lamellae lack PS-II as well as NADP IV. LVªksek ySesyk esa PS-II ds lkFk&lkFk NADP
reductase. fjMDVst dh Hkh deh gSA
V. Cyclic phosphorylation also occurs when only
V. pØh; QkLQkfjyhdj.k rc Hkh gksrk gS tc mÙkstuk
light of wavelengths beyond 680nm are
available for excitation. ds fy, 680nm ls vf/kd rjax nS/kZ~; dk dsoy
çdk'k miyC/k gksrk gSA
Choose the correct set of statements from the
options given below: uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls dFkuksa dk lgh lewg pqfu,%
(1) I, III and IV (2) II, IV and V (1) I, III rFkk IV (2) II, IV rFkk V
(3) I, II and III (4) I, IV and V (3) I, II rFkk III (4) I, IV rFkk V
135. Which one of the following symbols and its 135. ekuo oa'kkoyh fo'ys"k.k esa ç;qä fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu
representation, used in human pedigree analysis is lk çrhd vkSj bldk çfrfuf/kRo xyr gS\
incorrect?
(1) = laHkksx
(1) = mating
(2) = fj'rsnkjksa ds chp laHkksx
(2) = mating between relatives
(3) = vçHkkfor iq#"k
(3) = unaffected male
(4) 5 = ikap çHkkfor larku
(4) 5 = five affected offsprings
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PART – IV : ZOOLOGY
136. Consider the given statements and select the 136. fn, x, dFkuksa ij fopkj djsa vkSj lgh fodYi pqusa%
correct option: dFku A: çR;sd gheksXyksfcu v.kq vf/kdre 4 v‚Dlhtu
Statement A: Each haemoglobin molecule can v.kqvksa dks ogu dj ldrk gSA
carry a maximum of 4 molecules of oxygen. dFku B: LoLFk euq’; ds 100 ml jDr esa lkekU;r%
Statement B: 100 ml of blood in a healthy 12-16 gram Hb gksrh gSA
individual normally contains 12-16 gram Hb. (1) nksuksa dFku lgh gSa
(1) Both statements are correct (2) nksuksa dFku xyr gSa
(2) Both statements are incorrect (3) dsoy dFku A lgh gS
(3) Only statement A is correct (4) dsoy dFku B lgh gS
(4) Only statement B is correct.
137. feyku djsa%
137. Match the following:
LraHk&I LraHk&II
Column - I Column - II
A. ,LVj c‚UM I. çksVhu
A. Ester Bond I. Protein
B. isIVkbM c‚UM II. ukbVªkt
s u {kkjd ;qXe
B. Peptide Bond II. Nitrogen Base Pair
C. N&XykbdksflfMd III. VªkbfXyljkbM
C. N-glycosidic Bond III. Triglyceride
c‚UM
D. Hydrogen Bonds IV. Nucleoside
D. gkbMªkstu c‚UM IV. U;wfDy;kslkbM
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
138. Simple squamous epithelium found in - 138. ljy 'kYdkdkj midyk Ård ik;k tkrk gS &
(1) Endothelium (1) ,UMksFkhfy;e esa
(2) Air sac (2) ok;q dks'k esa
(3) Mesothelium (3) ehlksFkhfy;e esa
(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh esa
139. Match the following: 139. feyku djsa%
List - I List - II lwph&I lwph&II
A. Gonorrhoea I. Viral Disease A. xksuksfj;k I. ok;jy jksx
B. Genital warts II. Nematoda disease B. tuukax eLls II. uhesVksM jksx
C. Trichomoniasis III. Bacterial Disease C. Vªkbdkseksfu;kfll III. thok.kq jksx
D. Filariasis IV. Protozoan Disease D. Qkbysfj,fll IV. çksVkstksvk jksx
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
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140. In humans, how many of the cells given below in 140. euq";ksa esa fuEufyf[kr dksf'kdkvksa esa ls fdruksa ds
the box will have granules in their cytoplasm & dksf'kdknzO; esa df.kdk,sa gksrh gS vkSj ikyh; dsUnzd
also a lobed nucleus? U;wfDy;l gksrk gS\
Basophils, Lymphocytes, Monocyte, cslksfQyl] fyEQkslkbVl] eksukslkbV] U;wVªksfQyl]
Neutrophils, Eosinophils bvksfluksfQyl
(1) 5 (2) 4 (1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3
141. How many of the following animals exhibit direct 141. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdrus tUrq çR;{k fodkl çnf'kZr
development? djrs gSa\
Catla, Pristis, Rana, Calotes, Neophron, dsVyk] fizfLVl] jkuk] dSyksVsl] uhvksQzksu] csyksuksXyksll]
Balanoglossus, Platypus, Delphinus IysVhil] MsYQhul
(1) 4 (2) 6 (1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 5 (4) 7 (3) 5 (4) 7
142. Identify the common feature found in the animals 142. uhps fn, x, tUrqvksa esa ikbZ tkus okyh lkekU; fo'ks"krk
given below: dh igpku djs%a
a. Terrestrial arthropods a. LFkyh; vkFkzksiksZM~l
b. Psittacula
b. flêkdqyk
c. gsfeMSfDVyl
c. Hemidactylus
(1) veksuksVsfyt~e (2) ;wfj;ksVsfyt~e
(1) Ammonotelism (2) Ureotelism
(3) ;wfjdksVsfyt~e (4) Tokyk dks'kk;s
(3) Uricotelism (4) Flame cells
143. fuEufyf[kr okD;ksa dks /;kuiwoZd i<+sa vkSj xyr dFku
143. Read the following sentences carefully and select dk p;u djsAa
the incorrect statement.
(1) ty esa ?kqyu'khy gkeksZu f}rh;d lans'kokgd mRiUu
(1) Water soluble hormones produce secondary djrs gSa vkSj dksf'kdk esa tSo jklk;fud vfHkfØ;kvksa
messengers and accelerate biochemical
dks rst djrs gSaA
reactions in the cell.
(2) olk esa ?kqyu'khy gkeksZu ds fjlsIVlZ dksf'kdk ds
(2) Receptors for fat soluble hormones are
Hkhrj fLFkr gksrs gSaA
intracellular in location.
(3) Fkk;jksfDlu gkeksZu fof'k"V var%dksf'kdh; fjlsIVj ds
(3) Thyroxine hormone with specific intracellular
lkFk thu vfHkO;fä dk fu;eu djrk gSA
receptor regulates the gene expression.
(4) FSH gsrq cGMP ,d f}rh;d lans'kokgd gS tks
(4) cGMP is secondary messenger for FSH that
dsoy var%dksf'kdh; ;k U;wfDy;j fjlsIVj ds lkFk
interacts with intracellular or nuclear receptors
only.
baVjSDV djrk gSA
144. ,d v{krarq dks foJke voLFkk esa ekuk tkrk gS tc%
144. An axon is said to be in resting condition when the
I. v{krarq f>Yyh dh K+ vk;uksa ds çfr ikjxE;rk]
I. Axonal membrane is more permeable to K+
Na+ vk;uksa dh rqyuk esa vf/kd gksrh gSA
than Na+
II. v{krarq IykTek esa K+ dh mPp lkaærk gksrh gS] tks
II. Axoplasm contains high concentration of K+
than in ECF
cká dksf'kdh; æo (ECF) dh rqyuk esa vf/kd gksrh
gSA
III. Outer surface of axonal membrane possess a
III. v{krarq f>Yyh dh ckgjh lrg ij /kukRed vkos'k
positive charge.
gksrk gSA
(1) I & III only (2) II & III only
(1) dsoy I vkSj III (2) dsoy II vkSj III
(3) All of these (4) I & II only
(3) mijksä lHkh (4) dsoy I vkSj II
Space for rough work
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145. The wall of internal organs like stomach and 145. isV vkSj vkar tSls vkarfjd vaxksa dh nhokj esa ik, tkus
intestine contain muscle fibres which are okys is'kh rarq gksrs gSa%
(1) Striated, multinucleated, fusiform and (1) jsf[kr] cgqdsUnzdh] rdZ:ih vkSj 'kkf[kr
branched
(2) jsf[kr] ,ddsUnzdh] csyukdkj vkSj v'kkf[kr
(2) Striated, uninucleated, cylindrical and
unbranched (3) vjsf[kr] ,ddsUnzdh] csyukdkj vkSj 'kkf[kr
(3) Unstriated, uninucleated, cylindrical and (4) vjsf[kr] ,ddsUnzdh] rdqZ:ih vkSj v'kkf[kr
branched 146. feyku djsa%
(4) Unstriated, uninucleated, fusiform and
unbranched Column - I Column - II
146. Match the following:
A. ANF i. fiÙk jl dk lzko
Column - I Column - II
i. Secretion of bile B. CCK ii. RBC dk fuekZ.k
A. ANF
juice
C. xSfLVªu iii. BP dks de djuk
ii. Formation of
B. CCK
RBC
D. bjkfFkz;ksiksbfVu iv. isfIlukstu dk lzko
C. Gastrin iii. Decrease BP
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
iv. Secretion of
D. Erythropoeitin (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
pepsinogen
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(4) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
147. ;d`r lw=.k jksx ¼fyoj fljksfll½ eq[;r% fdlds
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii yxkrkj lsou ls gksrk gS\
(4) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(1) rackdw (2) vQhe
147. Cirrhosis of liver mainly caused by chronic intake
(3) dksQhu (4) 'kjkc
of
(1) Tobacco (2) Opium 148. çk—frd oj.k ftlesa vf/kd tho forj.k oØ ds nksuksa
Nksjksa ij ifj/kh; y{k.k eku dks n'kkZrs gS] og gS%
(3) Caffeine (4) Alcohol
(1) fLFkjdkjh p;u
148. Natural selection where more individuals acquire
peripheral character value at both ends of (2) fn'kkRed p;u
distribution curve is (3) fonkjd p;u
(1) Stabilizing (4) dsæ a kfHkeq[k p;u
(2) Directional 149. os rRo tks ekuo 'kjhj esa vf/kd ek=k esa ik, tkrs gSa%
(3) Disruptive (1) C, H, O, N
(4) Centripetal (2) Na, Si, Ca, Mg
149. Elements that are found more abundant in human (3) Fe, Na, Ca, N
body are:
(4) Si, Fe, Mg, O
(1) C, H, O, N (2) Na, Si, Ca, Mg
(3) Fe, Na, Ca, N (4) Si, Fe, Mg, O
Space for rough work
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150. A man was unable to walk normally after 150. ,d O;fä 'kjkc ihus ds ckn lkekU; :i ls pyus esa
consuming alcohol. Which of the following part of vleFkZ gks x;kA efLr"d ds fdl Hkkx ij lcls vf/kd
brain is most likely affected by alcohol? çHkko iM+k gksxk\
(1) Cerebellum (2) Pons (1) vuqefLr"d (2) iksal
(3) Mid Brain (4) Medulla (3) e/; efLr"d (4) esMqyk
151. Study the given statement: 151. fn, x, dFku dk v/;;u djs%a
During 'A' phase of the menstrual cycle, if jt pØ@vkrZo pØ dh 'A' izkoLFkk ds nkSjku vxj
pregnancy does not happen, the 'B' withers xHkZ/kkj.k ugha gksrk gS rks 28 fnolh; pØ ds yxHkx 22
(disintegrates) & dies, usually around day 22 in a osa fnu 'B' vigkflr gksdj u"V gks tkrk gSA 'C' ds Lrj
28 day cycle. The drop in ' C ' levels causes the esa fxjkoV ds dkj.k xHkkZ'k;h vkLrj >M+ tkrk gS ftls
lining of the uterus to fall away. This is known as
'D' dgrs gSaA A, B, C, D dh igpku djsa &
'D'. Identify A, B, C, D
(1) A&ekfld /keZ] B&xzSfQ;u dwi] C&,LVªkstu]
(1) A-Menstrual, B-Graafian follicle, C-Estrogen,
D&esud s Z
D-Menarche
(2) A&Y;wfV;y] B&d‚iZl Y;wfV;e] C&çkstsLVsjksu]
(2) A-Luteal, B-Corpus luteum, C-Progesterone,
D-Menstruation D&ekfld /keZ
(3) A-Ovulatory, B-Endometrium, C-FSH, D- (3) A&vksO;wysVjh] B&,aMksesfVª;e] C&FSH]
Menopause D&esuksi‚t
(4) A-Follicular, B-secondary oocyte, C-LH, D- (4) A&Q‚fyD;wyj] B&f}rh;d vaMk.kq] C&LH,]
Menstruation D&ekfld /keZ
152. Assertion (A): After death, muscles in human 152. dFku (A): e`R;q ds ckn ekuo 'kjhj dh ekalisf'k;k¡ vdM+
body become stiff. tkrh gSaA
Reason (R): ATP synthesis increases after dkj.k (R): lk¡l :dus gksus ds ckn ATP la'ys"k.k c<+
breathing stops and hence the cross bridges easily tkrk gS] ftlls ؂l fczt ,fDVu ls vklkuh ls vyx
detach from actin. gks ikrs gSaA
(1) A is not correct, R is correct (1) A xyr gS] ysfdu R lgh gSA
(2) Both A & R are true, R is the correct (2) A vkSj R nksuksa lgh gSa] vkSj R, A dh lgh O;k[;k
explanation of A. djrk gSA
(3) Both A & R are true, R is not the correct (3) A vkSj R nksuksa lgh gSa] ysfdu R, A dh lgh
explanation of A. O;k[;k ugha djrk gSA
(4) A is correct, R is not correct. (4) A lgh gS] ysfdu R xyr gSA
153. Read the following statements carefully and select 153. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks /;kuiwoZd i<+sa vkSj lgh fodYi
the correct option. pquas%
Statement-I: The number of facial bones and dFku-I: psgjs dh gfì;ksa dh la[;k vkSj VklZYl ¼V[kus
number of tarsals is same. dh gfì;k¡½ dh la[;k leku gksrh gSA
Statement-II: Hinge joint is formed between atlas dFku-II: ,Vyl vkSj ,fDll ds chp dCtk laf/k ik;h
and axis. tkrh gSA
(1) Both statements are correct (1) nksuksa dFku lgh gSaA
(2) Statement I is correct only (2) dsoy dFku I lgh gSA
(3) Statement II is correct only (3) dsoy dFku II lgh gSA
(4) Both statements are incorrect. (4) nksuksa dFku xyr gSaA
Space for rough work
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154. Assertion (A): Transgenic plants expressing 154. dFku (A): Vªkl a tsfud ikS/ks] tks fof'k"V var{ksZih RNA
specific interfering RNA are protected from O;ä djrs gSa] uhesVksM ijthoksa ls lqjf{kr gksrs gSaA
nematode parasites.
dkj.k (R): uhekVksM fo'ks"k thuksa dks bl çdkj iks"kh
Reason (R): Nematodes specific genes are ikni esa Mkyk tkrk gS fd ;g dksf'kdkvksa esa dsRNA
introduced into the host plant such that it produces cukrk gS] tks RNAi 'kq: djrk gS vkSj usekVksM ds
sense and anti-sense RNA in the host cells form
dsRNA that triggers RNAi, silencing the
fof'k"V y{; mRNA dks lkbysal djrk gSA
nematode's specific target mRNA. (1) A vkSj R nksuksa lgh gSa] vkSj R] A dh lgh O;k[;k
(1) Both A & R are true, R is the correct djrk gSA
explanation of A. (2) A vkSj R nksuksa lgh gSa] ysfdu R] A dh lgh
(2) Both A & R are true, R is not the correct O;k[;k ugha djrk gSA
explanation of A. (3) A xyr gS] ysfdu R lgh gSA
(3) A is not correct, R is correct. (4) A lgh gS] ysfdu R xyr gSA
(4) A is correct, R is not correct. 155. feyku djsa%
155. Match the following:
lwph-I lwph-II
List-I List-II
I. Qkflvksyk a. dkWEc IysV
I. Fasciola a. Comb plate
II. VhuksIykuk b. ;d`r ¶ywd
II. Ctenoplana b. Liver fluke
III. ,alhyksLVksek c. gqd oeZ
III. Ancylostoma c. Hook worm
IV. ,LVsfj;kl d. flrkjk eNyh
IV. Asterias d. Star fish
(1) I-b, II-a, III-c, IV-d
(1) I-b, II-a, III-c, IV-d
(2) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
(2) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
(3) I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b
(3) I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b
(4) I-a, II-b, III-d, IV-c
(4) I-a, II-b, III-d, IV-c
156. fuEufyf[kr ck;ksdV a ªky
s ,tsaV~l dks muds dhV@mís';
156. Match the following:
ls feyk,a%
Column A Column B dkWye A dkWye B
(Biocontrol (Pest/Purpose) (ck;ksdaVªksy (dhV@mís';)
agents) ,tsaV~l)
I. Ladybird a. Controls aphids a. ,fQM~l dks fu;af=r djrk
I. ysMhcMZ
gS
II. Bacillus b. controls butterfly II. cSflyl b. frryh dSVjfiyj dks
thuringiensis caterpillars Fkwfjaft,fUll fu;af=r djrk gS
c. controls plant c. ikS/k jksxtudksa dks fu;af=r
III. Trichoderma III. VªkbdksMekZ
pathogen djrk gS
IV. cSdqyksok;jl d. tkfr fof'k"V dhV fu;a=.k
d. species specific
IV. Baculoviruses
insecticidal applications
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(1) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d (1) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
(2) I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c (2) I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c
(3) I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b (3) I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b
(4) I-c, II-b, III-d, IV-a (4) I-c, II-b, III-d, IV-a
157. Read the following statements carefully and select 157. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks /;kuiwoZd i<+sa vkSj lgh fodYi
the correct option. pquas%
Statement-I: Continuous culture system helps to dFku I: lrr lao/kZu ç.kkyh okafNr iqu;kZsxt çksVhu
obtain higher yields of desired recombinant ds mPp mRiknu esa lgk;d gksrh gSA
protein. dFku II: lrr lao/kZu ç.kkyh dYpj dh xbZ dksf'kdkvksa
Statement-II: Continuous culture system dks muds dkf;d :i ls lcls lfØ; y‚x@?kkrkadh;
maintains the cultured cells in their voLFkk esa cuk, j[krh gSA
physiologically most active log/exponential phase.
(1) nksuksa dFku lgh gSaA
In the light of above statements, choose the
appropriate answer from the following options: (2) dFku I xyr gS] ysfdu II lgh gSA
(1) Both statements are correct (3) dFku I lgh gS] ysfdu II xyr gSA
(2) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct (4) nksuksa dFku xyr gSaA
(3) Statement I is correct, II is false 158. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks /;kuiwoZd i<+sa vkSj lgh fodYi
(4) Both statements are false. pquas%
158. Read the following statements carefully and select dFku I: dksdhu U;wjksVªkalehVj Mksikekbu ds ifjogu esa
the correct option. ck/kk mRiUu djrk gSA
Statement-I: Cocaine interferes with the transport dFku II: dSalj dksf'kdk,¡ laidZ laneu uked xq.k
of neurotransmitter dopamine. n'kkZrh gSaA
Statement-II: Cancer cells show a property called (1) nksuksa dFku lgh gSaA
contact inhibition. (2) dFku I lgh gS] ysfdu II xyr gSA
(1) Both statements are correct
(3) dFku I xyr gS] ysfdu II lgh gSA
(2) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
(4) nksuksa dFku xyr gSaA
(3) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
(4) Both statements are false.
159. dFku (A): thu çoklu ;k thu çokg gkMhZ&ohucxZ
159. Assertion (A): Gene migration or gene flow
maintain genetic equilibrium in a Hardy Weinberg
tula[;k esa vkuqoaf'kd larqyu cuk, j[krk gSA
population. dkj.k (R): gkMhZ&ohucxZ lkE;koLFkk mn~fodklh;
Reason (R): Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium dkjdksa }kjk izHkkfor gksrh gSaA
affacted by evolutionary forces. (1) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa] vkSj (R)] (A) dh lgh
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true, (R) is the correct O;k[;k djrk gSA
explanation of (A). (2) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa] ysfdu (R)] (A) dh
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true, (R) is not the correct lgh O;k[;k ugha djrk gSA
explanation of (A). (3) (A) xyr gS] ysfdu (R) lgh gSA
(3) A is not correct, R is correct (4) (A) lgh gS] ysfdu (R) xyr gSA
(4) A is correct, R is not correct.
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160. Match List-I with List-II. 160. feyku djsa%
List - I (ECG List-II lwph-I lwph-II
Component) (Electrical activity) (ECG ?kVd) (fo|qr xfrfof/k)
i. Ventricles-
A. P wave A. P rjax i. fuy; & iqu% /kzqo.k
Repolarisation
B. QRS B. QRS
ii. Atria-Depolarization ii. vkfyan & fo/kqzo.k
complex d‚EIysDl
C. T wave iii. Atria-repolarization C. T rjax iii. vkfyan & iqu% fo/kqzo.k
iv. Atria-resting iv. vkfyan & foJke ,oa fuy;
D. TP segment
Ventricles-resting D. TP [kaM
& foJke
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-I, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-I, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-I, C-iv, D-ii
(4) A-iii, B-I, C-iv, D-ii
161. If one ovary of 30 years old lady is removed
surgically, then what happens in the body of 161. ;fn 30 o"khZ; efgyk dh ,d vaMk'k; 'kY; fpfdRlk
affected lady. }kjk gVk nh tk,] rks mlds 'kjhj ij D;k çHkko iM+sxk\
(1) Menstrual cycle is stopped (1) vkrZo pØ #d tk,xkA
(2) Menstrual cycle is normal but ovulation never (2) vkrZo pØ lkekU; jgsxk] ysfdu vaMksRlxZ dHkh ugha
occur gksxkA
(3) Duration of menstrual cycle is always (3) vkrZo pØ dh vof/k lnSo ds fy, yach gks tk,xhA
prolonged (4) vkrZo pØ ij dksbZ çHkko ugha iM+sxkA
(4) No effect on menstrual cycle.
162. ekbdksjkbty dod] tSls Xyksel tkfr ds dod] ikS/kksa
162. How do mycorrhizal fungi, such as those in the dks dSls ykHk igqapkrs gSa\
genus Glomus, benefit plants?
(1) ok;qeaMyh; ukbVªkstu dk fLFkjhdj.k djdsA
(1) By fixing atmospheric nitrogen
(2) feêh ls QkLQksjl vo'kksf"kr djds vkSj bls ikS/kksa
(2) By absorbing phosphorous from the soil and
by passing it to the plant
dks miyC/k djkdjA
(3) By producing chemical fertilizers (3) jklk;fud moZjdksa dk mRiknu djdsA
(4) By directly providing oxygen to plant roots. (4) ikS/kksa dh tM+ksa dks lh/ks v‚Dlhtu çnku djdsA
163. Bam HI is 163. Bam HI D;k gS\
(1) Recognition sequence in ampicillin resistance (1) pBR 322 IykfLeM ds ,fEiflfyu çfrjks/k thu esa
gene of pBR 322. ,d igpku vuqØeA
(2) Restriction enzyme whose recognition sites is (2) ,d çfrca/k ,atkbe] ftldh igpku lkbV pBR
present in tetracycline resistant gene in pBR 322 esa VsVªklkbfDyu çfrjks/k thu esa ekStwn gSA
322. (3) ,d IykfLeM osDVjA
(3) Plasmid vector
(4) ,d ,DlksU;wfDy,l ,atkbeA
(4) Exonuclease enzyme.
Space for rough work
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164. Each antibody molecule has - 164. izR;sd ,UVhckWMh v.kq esa gksrk gS &
(1) Normally Four peptide chains (1) lkekU;r% pkj isIVkbM Ja[kyk;s
(2) Normally Represented by H2L2 (2) lkekU;r% H2L2 }kjk fu:fir
(3) Two antigen binding sites in a H2L2 (3) H2L2 esa nks ,UVhtu ca/ku LFky
(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh
165. For female cockroach, how many statements are 165. eknk d‚djksp ds ckjs esa fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
correct?
I. lkroha LVuZe uko ds vkdkj dh gksrh gSA
I. The 7th sternum is boat shaped.
II. The 7th sternum together with 8th & 9th sternum II. lkroha LVuZe] vkBoha vkSj ukSoha LVuZe ds lkFk
forms a brood or genital pouch. feydj tuu dks'k cukrh gSA
III. The anterior part of the genital pouch contains III. tuu dks'k ds vxz Hkkx esa eknk tuu }kj]
female gonopore, spermathecal pore and LiekZFkhdy }kj vkSj dksysVjy xzafFk;ka gksrh gSaA
collateral glands. IV. ,uy LVkby ik;h tkrh gSA
IV. Anal style present. (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) 3 (4) 4 166. xfB;k fdl çdkj dk fodkj gS\
166. Gout is a type of disorder which leads to (1) tksM+ksa esa ;wfjd ,flM fØLVy ds lap; ds dkj.k
(1) Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of lwtuA
uric acid crystals.
(2) vfLFk æO;eku dh deh ds dkj.k gfì;ksa dk detksj
(2) Weakening of bones due to decreased bone gksukA
mass
(3) mikfLFk ¼dkfVZyst½ ds {k; ds dkj.k tksM+kas esa lwtuA
(3) inflammation of joints due to cartilage
degeneration (4) 'kjhj esa de dSfY'k;e Lrj ds dkj.k gfì;ksa dk
(4) Weakening of bones due to low Ca2+ level.
detksj gksukA
167. Choose the correct set from below: 167. lgh lsV pqu%sa
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169. At present about ______ recombinant therapeutics 169. orZeku esa nqfu;k Hkj esa ekuo mi;ksx ds fy, fdrus
have been approved for human use all over the iqu;kZsxt mipkj Loh—r gSa] vkSj buesa ls fdrus Hkkjr
world & ____ of these are presently been marketed esa cktkj esa miyC/k gSa\
in India.
(1) 30,5
(1) 30,5
(2) 30,12
(2) 30,12
(3) 57,7
(3) 57,7
(4) 45,8
(4) 45,8
170. uhps fn, x, thoksa dks muds fodkl dky ls feyk,a%
170. Match the following organisms with the time
period in which they arose: tho le; vof/k
Organisms Time period (A) vd'ks#dh (I) 200 MYA
(A) Invertebrates (I) 200 MYA (B) tcM+s jfgr eNyh (II) 500 MYA
(B) Jawless fishes (II) 500 MYA (C) leqæh 'kSoky (III) 350 MYA
(C) Sea weeds (III) 350 MYA (D) bfDofFk;ksl‚j (IV) 320 MYA
(D) Ichthyosaurs (IV) 320 MYA (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II 171. igyh Vªkaltsfud xk; Þjksthß us D;k mRiUu fd;k\
171. The first transgenic cow, Rosie produced (1) ekuo dSfY'k;e ls le`) nw/k (2.4 g/L)
(1) Human calcium enriched milk (2.4 g/L) (2) ekuo çksVhu ls le`) nw/k (2.4 g/L)
(2) Human protein enriched milk (2.4 g/L) (3) ekuo çksVhu ls le`) nw/k (4.2 g/L)
(3) Human protein enriched milk (4.2 g/L) (4) ekuo dSfY'k;e ls le`) nw/k (2.8 g/L)
(4) Human calcium enriched milk (2.8 g/L) 172. >qaM esa jgus okys dhV dk ifjlapj.k ra= fdl çdkj dk
172. Circulatory system in gregarious pest is gksrk gS\
(1) Open type (1) [kqyk ifjlapj.k ra=
(2) Closed type (2) can ifjlapj.k ra=
(3) Absent (3) vuqifLFkr
(4) With 3-Chambered heart
(4) 3&d{kh; ân;
173. The duration of atrial systole in a healthy person is
173. LoLFk euq’; esa vfyUnh; ladqpu dh vof/k gS&
(1) 0.4 sec
(1) 0.4 sec
(2) 0.1 sec
(2) 0.1 sec
(3) 0.5 sec
(3) 0.5 sec
(4) 0.3 sec
(4) 0.3 sec
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174. A neonate with blood group 'A' positive suffered 174. ,d uotkr f'k'kq ftldk jä lewg 'A' i‚ftfVo gS]
from erythroblastosis foetalis. Choose the option bfjFkzksCykLVksfll QsVkfyl ls ihfM+r gqvkA ekrk&firk
that represents the possible blood group of his/her ds laHkkfor jä lewg dk p;u djsAa
parents.
ekrk firk
Mother Father +
(1) A O–
(1) A+ O–
(2) O– A+
(2) O– A+
(3) A+ A+
(3) A+ A+
(4) O– A–
(4) O– A–
175. xksukMksVªksfiu gkeksZu fdlds }kjk lzkfor fd, tkrs gSa\
175. Gonadotropins are secreted by
(1) Fkk;el
(1) Thymus
(2) ,MhuksgkbiksfQfll
(2) Adenohypophysis
(3) o`"k.k vkSj vaMk'k;
(3) Testes & Ovaries
(4) Adrenal medulla (4) vf/ko`Dd esM~;qyk
176. Consider the following flow chart and select 176. fuEufyf[kr çokg pkVZ ij fopkj djsa vkSj 'kqØk.kqtuu
correct statement w.r.t. hormonal regulation of ds gkeksZuy fu;a=.k ds lanHkZ esa lgh dFku dk p;u
spermatogenesis. djsAa
Hypothalamus Hypothalamus
P P
Adenohypophyses Adenohypophyses
Q R Q R
Acts on Leydig cells Acts on Sertoli cells Acts on Leydig cells Acts on Sertoli cells
(1) 'P' is a steroidal hormone that stimulates (1) 'P' ,d LVsj‚;My gkeksZu gS tks nks xksukMksVªksfiUl
release of two gonadotropins ds lzko dks mÙksftr djrk gSA
(2) 'R' is an amino-acid derivative that stimulates (2) 'R' ,d vehuks ,flM O;qRiUu gkeksZu gS tks ,aMªkstUs l
secretion of androgens ds lzko dks mÙksftr djrk gSA
(3) 'Q' is a steroidal hormone that stimulates the (3) 'Q' ,d LVsj‚;My gkeksZu gS tks dqN dkjdksa ds lzko
secretion of some factors which helps in the dks mÙksftr djrk gS tks vip;ukRed foHkktu dh
process of reductional division.
çfØ;k esa lgk;d gksrs gSaA
(4) 'Q' and 'R' are Glycoprotein hormone
(4) 'Q' vkSj 'R' nksuksa XykbdksizksVhu ls cus gkeksZu gSaA
Narayana Jaipur HO: B-28, Gopalpura Bypass Road, 10-B Scheme, Near Ridhi Sidhi Circle, Jaipur, Rajasthan 302018
(42)
177. Kidneys of frog are 177. es<
a d
+ ds o`Dd gksrs gS &
(1) Dark red, Bean like (1) xgjs yky, lse ds chp tSls
(2) Blue, Dumbell like (2) uhys, Mecsy tSls
(3) Dark red, Dumbell like (3) xgjs yky, Meosy tSls
(4) Green, bean like (4) gjs, lse ds chp tSls
178. STDs commonly observed in the age group of 178. STDs lkekU;r% fdl vk;q oxZ esa ns[kh tkrh gS &
(1) 5–10 Years
(1) 5–10 Years
(2) 10–15 Years
(2) 10–15 Years
(3) 25–30 Years
(3) 25–30 Years
(4) 15–24 Years
(4) 15–24 Years
179. Read the following statements carefully and select
179. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks /;kuiwoZd i<+sa vkSj lgh mÙkj
the correct option.
pquas%
Statement I: Angiotensin II activates the cortex of
adrenal gland to release aldosterone. dFku I: ,aft;ksVasflu&II vf/ko`Dd xzafFk dh dkVsZDl dks
lfØ; djrk gS rkfd og ,YMksLVsjksu lzkfor djsA
Statement II: ANF acts as a check on renin
angiotensin mechanism. dFku II: ,fVª;y usfVª;wjsfVd QSDVj jsfuu&,aft;ksVfsa lu
(1) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct fØ;kfof/k ij fu;a=d ds :i esa dk;Z djrk gSA
(2) Both statements are correct (1) dFku I xyr gS] ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA
(3) Statement I is correct, II is false (2) nksuksa dFku lgh gSaA
(4) Both statements are false. (3) dFku I lgh gS] ysfdu dFku II xyr gSA
180. Assertion (A): Enzymes are divided in to 6 (4) nksuksa dFku xyr gSaA
classes. 180. dFku (A): ,Utkbeksa dks N% oxksZ esa ckaVk x;k gSA
Reason (R): Digestive enzymes comes in class dkj.k (R): ikpd ,atkbe ykbxslsl oxZ esa vkrs gSA
ligases.
(1) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa] vkSj (R)] (A) dh lgh
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true, (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
O;k[;k djrk gSA
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true, (R) is not the correct (2) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa] ysfdu (R)] (A) dh
explanation of (A). lgh O;k[;k ugha djrk gSA
(3) A is not correct, R is correct (3) (A) xyr gS] ysfdu (R) lgh gSA
(4) A is correct, R is not correct. (4) (A) lgh gS] ysfdu (R) xyr gSA
Narayana Jaipur HO: B-28, Gopalpura Bypass Road, 10-B Scheme, Near Ridhi Sidhi Circle, Jaipur, Rajasthan 302018
(43)
JAIPUR
CENTER
100
Percentile
99.99
Percentile
As per result declared by HBCSE & Nehru Science Center, NCSM on 05-03-2025
Selected Selected
in INDIA’s in INDIA’s
Regular Regular
Top 20 Classroom Top 20 Classroom
BIOLOGY BIOLOGY
City Topper
JAIPUR 2nd
City Topper
2nd Highest JAIPUR
In INDIA
in IJSO-2024 Selected
in INDIA’s
Selected
in INDIA’s
Selected
in INDIA’s
Regular Regular Regular
International Junior Science Olympiad-2024, Top 20 Classroom Top 36 Classroom Top 20 Classroom
Held at Bucharest ROMANIA (2 to 12-Dec., 2024) BIOLOGY Jr SCIENCE ASTRONOMY Jr
BHAVYAA GUNWAL
Yearlong Classroom Student (CO-SPARK Batch)
AYUSH SINGHAL ARVIN GUPTA NIDHI YADAV | Class XI AYUSHMAN MAURYA | Class IX DIVYANSH BANSAL | Class IX
MPS Rishikul
Regular Classroom Regular Classroom Srilal Convent Jayshree Periwal G.S. Cambridge Court
Narayana Jaipur Center Toppers from the Very First Student Group
JEE (Adv) 2024 NEET 2024
3 AIRs in Top 100 & 21 in Top 1000 3 AIRs in Top 100 & 15 in Top 1000
AIR AIR AIR AIR AIR AIR
33 49 66 37 715
45 715
64 715
720 720 720
SPARSH GUPTA AVADH HINDOCHA MRIGANK GOEL TANISHAK YADAV SHASHANK SHARMA SAM SHREYAS JOSEPH
Further AIRs in Top 1000 : 116 (Prabuddha Sinha), 149 (Visharad Srivastava), 161(Mayukh Chowdhury), Further AIRs in Top 1000 : 181(Atishay Jain), 316 (Krish Jain), 340 (Somya Garg),
168 (Abubakar Siddique), 303 (Shrey Nayakpara), 318 (Srutarshi Tripathi), 339 (Yash Vashisht), 354 (Aradhana R), 350 (Dhruv Awasthy), 380 (Akshat Mishra), 562 (Ashvin Sharma), 606 (Purvika Singh),
360 (Kathan Shah), 375 (Pratham Srivastava), 384 (Tushar), 448 (Vivaan Goswami), 543 (Shaurya Pratap), 616 (Shreya Jain), 666 (Surya Charan D), 681(Tanmay Singhal), 786 (Amogh), 966 (Chhavi Jain)
569 (Akshat Khandelwal), 591 (Shourya Agarwal), 809 (Sagarika Sinha), 881 (Ishwin Kumar), 973 (Muthu S) (All Scored 700+)
(* All these are Narayana Jaipur Center’s InfinIITy SRG batch students (* All these are Narayana Jaipur Center’s Regular Classroom students of RT-720 Course
who attended online night classes by top faculties to boost rank in JEE (Adv) 2024) (Nov’23 to May’24) for NEET 2024)
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