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Advanced Pathology

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) related to pathophysiology, covering topics such as asthma, cancer, shock, and diabetes. Each question is followed by four answer options, with a focus on medical terminology and concepts. It serves as an educational resource for pharmacy exams and students studying pathophysiology.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
21 views

Advanced Pathology

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) related to pathophysiology, covering topics such as asthma, cancer, shock, and diabetes. Each question is followed by four answer options, with a focus on medical terminology and concepts. It serves as an educational resource for pharmacy exams and students studying pathophysiology.

Uploaded by

stjoanofarc87
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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pharmacyPharmacy Exams

Pathophysiology MCQs with answers

by Remix educationDecember 17, 2020114810

Pathophysiology MCQs with answers key

01. Dolor means……….

a) Redness

b) Swelling

c) Tumor

d) Pain

02. Rubur means……….

a) Redness

b) Swelling

c) Tumor

d) Pain

03. Asthma is defined as chronic inflammation disease of………………..

a)Heart

b)Airway

c)Arteries

d)None of the above


04. Which of the following is a symptom of asthma?

a)Fever

b)Body pain

c)Wheezing

d)Headache

05. Cancer cells do:

A. Not undergo apoptosis

B. Play a part in mitosis

C. Undergo mitosis

D. Play a part in steroid-hormone production

06. Hyperplasia generally means:

A. An organ will increase in size due to excessive formation of extracellular fluids

B. Increased cell production in a normal tissue

C. Shrinkage in cell size

D. Blebbing at the periphery

07. Necrosis is:

A. Reversible

B. Lack of oxygen to the tissue

C. Not reversible

D. Blebbing at the periphery


08. Monocytes are:

A. Phagocytic cells

B. Red blood cells

C. Carriers of oxygen

D. Produced in the kidneys

09. The redness and heat of an inflamed area is due to a local hyperaemia caused by:

A. Vasodilatation

B. Vasoconstriction

C. Phagocytic aggregation

D. Production of antibodies

10. The epidermis of the skin is the:

A. Middle layer

B. Outer layer

C. Inner layer

D. Middle and inner layers

11. Which of the following cancers is not routinely screened in the UK?

A. Breast cancer

B. Cervical cancer

C. Prostatic cancer

D. Bowel cancer
12. In stage 2 the cancer cells:

A. Have spread to other parts of the body

B. May or may not have spread to the lymph nodes

C. Are not spreading and are in situ

D. Have spread to lymph nodes above the collarbone

13. Tumour cells are not recognized as foreign by the immune system because they

do not have:

A. A specific antigen called tumour-associated antigen

B. Promoter signals on their cells

C. Signalling receptors

D. Cytokines within the cell

14. Cardiogenic shock is associated with:

A. Failure of the lungs to exchange gas

B. Failure of the pump action of the heart

C. Failure of the pump action of the heart and failure of the liver

D. Failure of the kidneys

15. Bronchoconstriction refers to:

A. A slow narrowing of the larynx

B. A slow widening of the trachea

C. Widening of the airways


D. Narrowing of the airways

16. Histamine is:

A. A hormone

B. A protein

C. A carbohydrate

D. A type of analgesia

17. Hypovolaemic shock is sometimes referred to as:

A. Cardiogenic shock

B. Neurogenic shock

C. Haemorrhagic shock

D. Septic shock

18. Haematemesis refers to:

A. The coughing up of blood

B. The passing of blood in the stool

C. The passing of blood in the vomit

D. The passing of blood in the urine

19. Failure of vital organs with inability to recover is:

A. Irreversible shock

B. Reversible shock

C. Compensatory shock

D. Thrombolytic shock
20. Tissue perfusion is associated with:

A. Excessive fluid in the tissue

B. The amount of blood lost from tissue

C. The amount of lymph that a tissue is receiving from the circulation

D. The amount of blood that a tissue is receiving from the circulation

21. The human immunodeficiency virus is a:

A. Provirus

B. Retrovirus

C. Bi-virus

D. Pseudo-virus

22. The human immunodeficiency virus replicates in:

A. The skin

B. The kidneys

C. The lymphoid tissue

D. The brain

23. Acute infection may be:

A. Symptomatic

B. Painful

C. Asymptomatic

D. Confined to the sbrain


24. Vertical transmission is related to:

A. Anal sex

B. Mother to baby

C. Intravenous drug use

D. Oral sex

25. Angina results from a blockage of the:

A. Popliteal arteries

B. Medial arteries

C. Coronary arteries

D. Aorta

26. The primary symptom of angina is:

A. Chest pain

B. Pain in the calf

C. Abdominal cavity

D. Headache

27. The most common type of angina is:

A. Stable angina

B. Unstable angina

C. Variant angina

D. Microvascular angina
28. If the myocardium is deprived of blood supply, damage would be primarily from:

A. Low oxygen supply

B. Low levels of platelets

C. Low levels of lactic acid

D. Low white blood cell count

29. Which of the following drugs for the treatment of asthma is a beta-2 agonist?

A. Hydrocortisone

B. Theophylline

C. Salbutamol

D. Ipratropium bromide

30. Asthmatic patients find it difficult to:

A. Breath out

B. Breath in

C. Cough

D. None of the above

31. Which of the following provides a greater surface area for gas exchange?

A. Trachea

B. Bronchus

C. Alabove

D. Terminal bronchus

32. Peptic ulcer mainly occurs in the:


A. Large intestine

B. Mouth

C. Stomach

D. Spleen

32. The serous membrane in the peritoneal cavity is called the:

A. Peritoneum

B. Myocardium

C. Gullet

D. Epithelium

33. The entry of bile and pancreatic juice into the duodenum is controlled by the:

A. Pyloric sphincter

B. The sphincter of Oddi

C. The portal vein

D. Common pancreatic duct

34. Which of these statements is not characteristic of the large intestine?

A. It does not contain villi

B. It is longer than the small intestine

C. It contains muscular bands called teniae coli

D. It has haustra
35. Mosquito responsible for malaria transmission

A. Aedes aegypti

B. Aedes albopictus

C. Anopheles

D. Haempeople

36. How many people are at risk of malaria in the world?

A. 1.2 million people

B. 1.2 billon people

C. 3.2 billon people

37. Malaria can be lethal

A. True

B. False

38. The infectious agent that causes malaria is known as which of the following?

A. Protozoan parasite

B. Bacterial parasite

C. Viral parasite

D. Fungal parasite

39. The malaria parasite is spread by which of the following?

A. Male mosquitoes
B. Female mosquitoes

C. Both male and female mosqLutzia

40. Which mosquito genus is associated with spreading the human malaria parasite?

A. Culex

B. Anopheles

C. Aedes

D. Lutzia

41. Which one of the following are NOT antimalarial compounds?

A. Quinine

B. Artemisinin

C. Chloroquine

D. Penicillin

42. Which of these statements is incorrect?

A. Malaria was once endemic in Europe

B. Only humans can suffer from malaria

C. Tonic water was used as a prophylactic against malaria

D. The sickle cell gene mutation offers some protection against malaria

43. Dopamine is a:

A. Neurotransmitter
B. Pain killer

C. Muscle relaxant

D. Hormone that stimulates the production of ADH

44. Which aspect of the brain is affected in PD (Parkinson’s disease)?

A. Cerebrum

B. Brain stem

C. Substantia nigra

D. Cerebellum

45. Dopamine acts as a messenger between two brain areas. They are:

A. The substantia nigra and the corpus striatum

B. The Lewy bodies

C. The substantia niagra and Lewy bodies

D. Corpus striatum and the Lewy bodies

46. Bradykinesis is a term used to describe:

A. Rapid pulse

B. Rapid respiration

C. Slowness of movement

D. Low pulse rate

47.Leukocytes are:

A. Red blood cells


B. Platelets

C. White blood cells

D. Toxins

48. Destruction of red blood cells is called:

A. Haemolysis

B. Phagocytosis

C. Leukaemia

D. HaematToxins

49. Haemopoiesis is the formation of:

A. Pus in the wounds

B. Blood cells

C. Cartilage

D. Sickle cell anaemia

50. 91% of plasma is composed of:

A. Water

B. Protein

C. Sodium

D. Platelets

51. Diabetes mellitus is a disease caused by:

A. Increase in the effectiveness of endogenous insulin

B. Deficiency or diminished effectiveness of endogenous insulin


C. Age

D. A reduction of glucose

52. People with type 1 diabetes:

A. Always need insulin treatment and are at risk of ketoacidosis

B. Never need insulin treatment but are at risk of ketoacidosis

C. Need insulin treatment and are at no risk of ketoacidosis

D. None of the above

53. Many patients with type 2 diabetes are:

A. Symptomatic

B. Asymptomatic

C. Likely to go blind

D. Are at of risk of complications

54. What is the digestive function of the liver?

A. To secrete bile

B. To release glucose

C. To synthesize plasma proteins

D. To store iron as ferritin

55. The liver gets a dual blood supply from the:

A. Hepatic portal vein and hepatic arteries

B. Umbilical artery and hepatic portal vein

C. Splenic artery and hepatic portal vein


D. Hepatic arteries and the coronary arteries

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56. Hepatitis is the inflammation of the:

A. Kidney

B. Spleen

C. Gall bladder

D. Liver

57. Which of the following suggests that a patient has had Hep A at some point in

the past?

A. Hep A IgG

B. Hep A IgM

C. Hep A IgE

D. Hep Liver

58. In heart failure, the backward effect of left ventricular failure leads to:

A. Pulmonary oedema

B. Ankle oedema

C. Systemic oedema

D. Renal failIgIgA

59. The left ventricle pumps blood to the systemic circulation via the:

A. Pulmonary artery

B. Pulmonary veins
C. Aorta

D. Coronary arteries

60. Substances found at higher than normal levels in the blood, urine, or body tissue of some people
with cancer are called:

A. Genomes

B. Sentinel indicators

C. DNA variants

D. Tumor Markers

(topic wise/ subjecte wise)GPATPathophysiologytopic wise MCQs

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