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Physics 2024 Unit 2 p1

This document is an examination booklet for the Caribbean Advanced Proficiency Examination (CAPE) in Physics, scheduled for May/June 2024. It contains instructions for candidates, a list of physical constants, and a series of test items covering various physics concepts. Candidates must print their name, follow the instructions carefully, and complete the test within 1 hour and 30 minutes.

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Angie Nunez
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
257 views

Physics 2024 Unit 2 p1

This document is an examination booklet for the Caribbean Advanced Proficiency Examination (CAPE) in Physics, scheduled for May/June 2024. It contains instructions for candidates, a list of physical constants, and a series of test items covering various physics concepts. Candidates must print their name, follow the instructions carefully, and complete the test within 1 hour and 30 minutes.

Uploaded by

Angie Nunez
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 15

CANDIDATE – PLEASE NOTE!

PRINT your name on the line below and return


this booklet with your answer sheet. Failure to
do so may result in disqualification. TEST CODE 02238010
FORM TP 2024320 MAY/JUNE 2024

CARIBBEAN EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

CARIBBEAN ADVANCED PROFICIENCY EXAMINATION

PHYSICS

UNIT 2 – Paper 01

1 hour 30 minutes

30 MAY 2024 (p.m.)

READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY.

1. This test consists of 45 items. You will have 1 hour and 30 minutes to answer them.

2. In addition to this test booklet, you should have an answer sheet.

3. Do not be concerned that the answer sheet provides spaces for more answers than there are items
in this test.

4. Each item in this test has four suggested answers lettered (A), (B), (C), (D). Read each item you
are about to answer and decide which choice is best.

5. On your answer sheet, find the number which corresponds to your item and shade the space having
the same letter as the answer you have chosen. Look at the sample item below.

Sample Item

Which of the following lists has one scalar quantity


and one vector quantity? Sample Answer
(A) Force, velocity
(B) Mass, temperature
(C) Momentum, pressure
(D) Potential energy, volt

The best answer to this item is “Momentum, pressure”, so (C) has been shaded.

6. If you want to change your answer, erase it completely before you fill in your new choice.

7. When you are told to begin, turn the page and work as quickly and as carefully as you can. If you
cannot answer an item, go on to the next one. You may return to that item later.

8. You may do any rough work in this booklet.

9. Figures are not necessarily drawn to scale.

10. You may use a silent, non-programmable calculator to answer items.

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

Copyright © 2023 Caribbean Examinations Council


All rights reserved.
02238010/MJ/CAPE 2024
-2-

LIST OF PHYSICAL CONSTANTS

Speed of light in free space c = 3.00 × 108 m s–1

Permeability of free space µ0 = 4π × 10–7 H m–1

Permittivity of free space ɛ0 = 8.85 × 10–12 F m–1

1
—— = 9.0 × 109 m F–1
4π ɛ0

Elementary charge e = 1.60 × 10–19 C

Planck’s constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J s

Unified atomic mass constant u = 1.66 × 10–27 kg (931 MeV)

Energy equivalence u = 931 MeV/c2

Rest mass of electron me = 9.11 × 10–31 kg

Rest mass of proton mp = 1.67 × 10–27 kg

Acceleration due to gravity g = 9.81 m s–2

1 Atmosphere atm = 1.00 × 105 N m–2

Avogadro’s constant NA = 6.02 × 1023 per mole

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02238010/MJ/CAPE 2024
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1. The ‘driving force’ for charges through an Item 4 refers to the following diagram of
electrical circuit is provided by the a circuit containing a battery with e.m.f
3.0 V and internal resistance 2.0 Ω.
(A) impedance
(B) inductance
(C) potential difference
(D) electrical resistance

Item 2 refers to the following circuit


diagram.

4. What will the voltmeter read when the


value on the resistance, R, is set at 8.0 Ω?
2. A thermistor is used in the circuit as shown (A) 1.2 V
above. It is found that there is a current of (B) 2.4 V
80 mA from the supply. What is the current (C) 3.0 V
through the thermistor? (D) 3.6 V

(A) 0.03 A
(B) 0.05 A Item 5 refers to the following circuit
(C) 0.08 A diagram.
(D) 0.13 A

3. Given that a wire of length L and area A


has resistance R, what is the resistance of a
wire of similar material which is twice the
length and half the diameter?
1
(A) R
4
(B) 2R
5. In the potential divider shown, the point
(C) 4R
X is to have a potential of + 6.0 V. The
resistance of R is
(D) 8R
(A) 450 kΩ
(B) 600 kΩ
(C) 700 kΩ
(D) 1200 kΩ

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02238010/MJ/CAPE 2024
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6. A beta particle passes a point 100 nm 8. Which of the following diagrams BEST
away from an alpha particle. What is describes the path of an electron travelling
the magnitude of the electrostatic force through an electric field?
between the particles at that point?

(A) 4.6 × 10‒14 N


(B) 4.6 × 10‒21 N
(C) 4.6 × 10‒39 N
(D) 5.7 × 10‒59 N

7. The work done per unit charge in bringing


a small positive charge from infinity to a
point is the definition of

(A) potential energy


(B) electric potential
(C) potential gradient
(D) electric field strength

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02238010/MJ/CAPE 2024
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9. One farad is equivalent to Item 11 refers to the following diagram.

(A) 1 J C–1
(B) 1 N C–1
(C) 1 C V–1
(D) 1 V C–1

Item 10 refers to the following diagram


showing three capacitors, C1, C2 and C3.

11. The magnetic flux density at Point A is

(A) 2.00 × 10–8 T


(B) 6.28 × 10–8 T
10. The equivalent capacitance, C, due to C1, (C) 6.28 × 10–7 T
C2 and C3 is (D) 2.00 × 10–6 T
C1C3 + C2C3
(A)
C1 + C2 + C3 Item 12 refers to the following diagram.

C1C2C3
(B)
C1 + C2 + C3

(C) 1 1 1
– + –+–
C1 C2 C3

1
(D)
C1 + C2 + C3

12. In which direction would the wire carrying


a current move in the magnetic field?

13. A conductor of mass 2.0 × 10–3 kg, carrying


a current of 2.0 A, is balanced by a magnetic
field at right angles to it. If the length of
the conductor is 8.0 cm, the magnetic field
strength is

(A) 1.23 × 10–5 T


(B) 1.23 × 10–4 T
(C) 1.23 × 10–1 T
(D) 1.23 × 100 T

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02238010/MJ/CAPE 2024
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14. A straight wire 1 m long is placed at an Item 16 refers to the following circuit
angle of 30° in a magnetic field of flux diagram.
density 0.2 T. It experiences a force of
0.5 N. What is the current in the wire?

(A) 0.5 A
(B) 1.0 A
(C) 2.5 A
(D) 5.0 A

Item 15 refers to the following diagram


showing a magnetic field.
16. The battery has negligible internal resist-
ance. Which pair of resistance values
would make the voltage between X and Y
equal to 1.5 V?

(A) R1 = 10 kΩ R2 = 20 kΩ
(B) R1 = 10 kΩ R2 = 50 kΩ
(C) R1 = 30 kΩ R2 = 10 kΩ
(D) R1 = 40 kΩ R2 = 10 kΩ

17. When the diode is in forward bias, the


current is carried by the holes and electrons

A uniform magnetic field of flux density, (A) moving together in the same
Z, passes normally through the area, Y. direction
Within this area lies a coil of 64 turns of (B) moving across the depletion layer
1 (C) moving away from each other
copper wire, each of area Y.
 (D) staying stationary

15. What is the magnetic flux linkage for this


coil?

(A) 1 ZY

(B) 1 ZY


(C) 4 ZY

(D) 8 ZY

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02238010/MJ/CAPE 2024
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Item 18 refers to the following circuit Item 20 refers to the following diagram.
diagram.

P Q

18. In the diagram above, the current, I, flowing


through the n-type semiconductor is mainly
due to
20. The gain of this amplifier is given by
(A) holes moving from P to Q Rf
(B) electrons moving from Q to P (A)
(C) electrons moving from P to Q Ri
(D) holes moving from P to Q and (B) Ri
electrons moving from Q to P
Rf
(C) Rf
1+
19. In the equation I = Io sin wt for an alternating Ri
current, the symbol Io represents the Ri
(D) 1+
(A) initial value of the current Rf
(B) value of the current at time, t
(C) maximum value of the current 21. An example of an INPUT transducer is a
(D) minimum value of the current
(A) relay
(B) diode
(C) buzzer
(D) thermistor

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02238010/MJ/CAPE 2024
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Item 22 refers to the following circuit Item 23 refers to the following diagram
diagram. which shows a summing amplifier.

23. What would be the output, V0, given that


22. Which of the following features relates to V1 = V3 = 1 V and V2 = 0?
the amplifier in the diagram above?
(A) –2 V
(A) Inverting amplifier with a gain of (B) –3 V
(C) –4 V
–Rf (D) –5 V
Ri
(B) Inverting amplifier with a gain of
Item 24 refers to the following op-amp

[ 1+
Rf
R
i
voltage comparator.

(C) Non-inverting amplifier with a


–Rf
gain of
Ri
(D) Non-inverting amplifier with a

gain of 1 +
[ Rf
Ri 24. The supply voltage to the op-amp is + 9 V.
If the open loop gain is 105 and V 2 = 0, what
is the maximum input voltage swing, V1, for
linear amplification?

(A) + 90 µV
(B) + 9 µV
(C) + 9V
(D) + 18 V

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02238010/MJ/CAPE 2024
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25. An operational amplifier circuit has a gain of 103 and a bandwidth of 103 Hz. What is the approximate
bandwidth when the gain is reduced to 10?

(A) 10 Ηz
(B) 103 Hz
(C) 105 Hz
(D) 107 Hz

Item 26 refers to the following circuit diagram.

26. Which of the following truth tables is correct for the circuit above?

(A) A B Q
1 1 0
1 0 1
0 1 1
0 0 0

(B) A B Q
1 1 1
1 0 0
0 1 0
0 0 0

(C) A B Q
1 1 1
1 0 1
0 1 1
0 0 0

(D) A B Q
1 1 1
1 0 0
0 1 0
0 0 1
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02238010/MJ/CAPE 2024
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Item 27 refers to the following timing diagram.

27. Which of the following logic gates is represented by the timing diagram above?

(A) OR
(B) AND
(C) NAND
(D) Ex-OR

Item 28 refers to the following truth table.

P Q OUT
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0

28. Which of the following logic gates would have the truth table shown above?

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02238010/MJ/CAPE 2024
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Item 29 refers to the following circuit diagram. (Consider A and B as inputs and Q as the output.)

29. The electrical circuit above can be regarded as a logic gate. Which type of logic gate is represented
above?

(A) AND
(B) NOR
(C) NOT
(D) NAND

30. Which of the following shows a half-adder circuit?

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02238010/MJ/CAPE 2024
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31. What is the de Broglie wavelength of an Olympic sprinter of mass 60 kg when running at a speed
of 10 m s–1?

(A) 2.2 × 10−37 m


(B) 1.1 × 10−36 m
(C) 1.1 × 10−35 m
(D) 6.6 × 10−35 m

Item 32 refers to the following diagram which shows some of the energy levels for electrons in
an isolated lithium atom. The energy levels are given in electron-volts.

32. The outer electron of a lithium atom is in the –8.68 eV level. How much energy is required to
ionize the atom?

(A) 2.0 × 10–19 J


(B) 5.8 × 10–9 J
(C) 1.4 × 10–18 J
(D) 8.7 × 10–19 J

33. Which of the following phenomena demonstrates the particle nature of electromagnetic radiation?

(A) Interference and polarization


(B) Emission spectra and reflection
(C) β-decay of nuclei and electron diffraction
(D) Photoelectric effect and absorption spectra

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02238010/MJ/CAPE 2024
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34. A metal surface has a work function of 38. How much energy would be released in a
3.8 eV. What is the threshold wavelength nuclear fission reaction if the mass defect
for this metal? is 0.00687 U?

(A) 3.27 × 10-7 m (A) 0.02 MeV


(B) 1.09 MeV
(B) 9.17 × 1014 m
(C) 6.39 MeV
(C) 1.09 × 1015 m (D) 7.04 MeV
(D) 6.08 × 1019 m

39. The following equation represents a nuclear


35. The kinetic energy of a photoelectron is reaction.
given as 7 eV. The velocity of the electron
is 235 1 144 89 1
U+ n Ba + Kr + k n
92 0 56 36 0
(A) 1.1 × 106 m s−1
(B) 1.6 × 106 m s−1
(C) 6.2 × 1011 m s−1 What is the value of the coefficient k?
(D) 2.5 × 1012 m s−1
(A) 1
(B) 2
36. Which of the following statement(s) is/are (C) 3
true about the wave-particle duality? (D) 4

I. The photoelectric effect is evidence


that electromagnetic radiation 40. Which of the following statements is true?
has a particulate nature.
II. Interference is evidence that (A) The binding energy per nucleus of
electromagnetic radiation has atoms is a constant as atomic
a wave nature but diffraction mass is varied.
indicates its particulate nature. (B) The binding energy per nucleon
III. Einstein’s theory of light as increases as the atomic mass of
a particle was supported by the atom increases.
Millikan’s oil drop experiment. (C) The mass of a nucleus is greater
than the total mass of its separate
(A) I only constituent nucleons.
(B) III only (D) The mass of a nucleus is less than
(C) I and III only the total mass of its separate
(D) II and III only constituent nucleons.

37. The Geiger-Marsden experiment provided


evidence that the

(A) electrons orbited the nucleus


(B) electrons were negatively charged
(C) nucleus contained protons and
neutrons
(D) nucleus contained most of the mass
of the atom
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02238010/MJ/CAPE 2024
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41. Bismuth–213 is used as an alpha particle source in radiotherapy to target cancer cells. What is
the MOST likely half-life of Bismuth–213?

(A) 45 seconds
(B) 45 minutes
(C) 45 days
(D) 45 weeks

42. A sample of a nuclide has a half-life of 8 days. The sample is tested after 24 days. What fraction
of the sample has decayed?

(A) 1

8
1

(B)
4
3

(C)
4
(D) 7

8

43. What is the half-life for a radioactive isotope containing 1020 atoms with a decay constant of
1.60 × 10–5 hour−1?

(A) 1.20 × 10‒19 hours


(B) 4.33 × 10‒16 hours
(C) 1.19 × 101 hours
(D) 4.33 × 104 hours

44. A sample of radioactive material initially contains 2.0 × 1018 atoms. The material decays by
α-emission and has a half-life of 3.0 × 1010 s. The initial activity of the sample is

(A) 4.6 × 107 Bq


(B) 1.5 × 108 Bq
(C) 2.0 × 109 Bq
(D) 2.3 × 1011 Bq

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02238010/MJ/CAPE 2024
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Item 45 refers to the following information.

A pure source, S, of a particular type of radiation is placed in front of a thick cardboard sheet in
a uniform magnetic field as shown in the diagram.

45. Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the path of the radioactive emission in the region?

END OF TEST

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS TEST.

02238010/MJ/CAPE 2024

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