28-03-2025

5001CMD303021240068 MD

PHYSICS

1)

cos2 (20°) is equal to :-

(1) 1 + cos 40°

(2) 1 – cos 40°

(3)

(4)

2)

x = P2 will represent by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Equation for straight line graph shown in the fig. is :-

(1) y = x – 3
(2) y = –x + 3
(3) y = x + 3
(4) y = 2x + 3

4) = .............. :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 1
(4) –1

5) From the given graph, find average value of y from x = 0 to x = 20 :-

(1) 18
(2) 16
(3) 16.75
(4) 18.75

6) If & then find the vector having the same magnitude as and same
direction as is __________.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) is an unit vector what is the value of b

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.75
(3)
(4) 0.93

8) Which of the following is not a vector :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9)

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Correct statement, considering figure is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) Consider expression where P is power, x is position coordinates and t is time. What is
dimensional formula for the constant b.

0 0
(1) M-1L T
0
(2) M-1L T2
0
(3) M-1L1T
(4) M-1L1T2

12) The position of a particle at a time t is given

where v0 and a is constant and a > 0. The dimensions of v0 and a are

0
(1) [M L1T–1] and [T–1]
0 0
(2) [M L1T ] and [T–1]
 0
(3) [M L1T–1] and [L1T–2]
0
(4) [M L1T–1] and [T1]

13) Match List I with List II.

List I List II
A. Torque I. Nms–1
B. Stress II. J kg–1
C. Latent Heat III. Nm
D. Power IV. Nm–2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

14) Match List I with List II :

List-II
List-I (Physical
(Dimensional
Quantity)
Formula)

Pressure
A I
gradient

B Energy density II

C Electric Field III

D Latent heat IV

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

15) One centimeter on the main scale of vernier calliper is divided into ten equal parts. If 10
divisions of vernier scale coincide with 8 small divisions of the main scale, the least count of the
callipers is :-

(1) 0.01 cm
(2) 0.02 cm
(3) 0.05 cm
(4) 0.07 cm

16)
Read the normal screw gauge
* Main scale has only mm marks
* In a complete rotation, the screw advanced by 1mm.
* Circular scale has 100 divisions

(1) 11.60 mm
(2) 11.65 mm
(3) 10.65 mm
(4) 10.60 mm

17) If voltage across a bulb rated 220V–100W drops by 2.5% of its rated value, the percentage of the
rated value by which the power would decrease is

(1) 20%
(2) 2.5%
(3) 5%
(4) 10%

18) Assertion : To cross the river in minimum time, swimmer should swim in perpendicular
direction to the water current.
Reason : In this case river flow do not helps to cross the river.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

19) If a car covers of the total distance with speed v1 and distance with speed v2 then
average speed is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A particle has initial velocity and has acceleration . Its speed after 10s is :-

(1) 10 units
(2) 7 units
(3) units
(4) 8.5 units

21) An athlete completes one round of a circular track of radius R in 20 seconds. What will be his
displacement at the end of 2 minutes 20 seconds?

(1) Zero
(2) 2R
(3)
(4)

22) A truck travelling due to North at 20 m/s turns East and travels at the same speed. The change
in its velocity is :

(1) m/s North – East

(2) m/s South – East
(3) m/s North –East
(4) m/s North –West

23) The initial velocity of a particle is u (at t = 0) and the acceleration is given by f = at. Which of the
following relations is valid ?

(1) v = u + at2

(2)

(3) v = u + at
(4) v = u

24) Displacement of a particle as a function of time 't' is given by s = α + βt + γt2 + δt4 where α, β, γ
and δ are constants. Ratio of initial velocity to initial acceleration is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Assertion : In a projectile motion, the vertical velocity of the particle is continuously decreased
during its ascending motion.
Reason : In projectile motion downward constant acceleration is present in vertical direction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

26) A car moving with a speed of 40 km/h can be stopped by applying brakes after at least 2m. If the
same car is moving with a speed of 80 km/h. Then the minimum stopping distance will be (assume
uniform retardation) :-

(1) 2m
(2) 4m
(3) 8m
(4) 6m

27) A ball is released from a sufficient height. The distance covered by the ball in 1st, 3rd and 6th
seconds are in ratio

(1) 1 : 3 : 5
(2) 1 : 5 : 11
(3) 3 : 5 : 9
(4) 1 : 2 : 3

28) A ball is thrown upwards from the top of a tower 40 m high with a velocity of 10 m/s, the time

when it strikes the ground (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 1s
(2) 2s
(3) 3s
(4) 4s

29) A particle is dropped from the top of a tower. During its motion it covers part of height of
tower in the last 1 second Then the height of tower is :

(1) 45 m
(2) 80 m
(3) 125 m
(4) 155 m

30) A body, thrown upwards with some velocity, reaches the maximum height of 20m. Another body
with double the mass thrown up, with double initial velocity will reach a maximum height of :

(1) 200 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 80 m
(4) 40 m

31) A body is at rest at t = 0, it starts moving in the positive X-direction with a constant acceleration.
At the same instant another body passes through x = 0 moving in the positive X-direction with a
constant speed. The position of the first body is given by x1(t) after time t and that of the second
body by x2(t) after same time interval. Which of the following graphs correctly describes (x1 –x2) as a
function of time t ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) In which part of motion velocity is maximum ?

(1) AB
(2) BC
(3) CD
(4) DE

33) The displacement-time graphs of two moving particles make angles of 30° and 45° with the x-

axis as shown in the figure. The ratio of their respective velocity is :

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3)
(4)

34) A particle located at x = 0 at time t = 0, starts moving along the positive x-direction with a
velocity 'v' which varies as , then position of particle varies with time as : (α is a constant)

(1) x ∝ t
(2) x ∝ t2
(3) x ∝ t3
(4) x = constant

35) Six person of same mass travel with same speed u along regular hexagon of side 'd' such that
each one faces the other always. After how much time they will meet each other

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) In case of a projectile fired at an angle equally inclined to the horizontal and vertical with
velocity u, the horizontal range is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Two stones are projected with the same speed but making different angles with the horizontal.

Their ranges are equal. If the angle of projection of one is and its maximum height is y1, then the
maximum height of the other will be :

(1) 3y1
(2) 2y1

(3)

(4)

38) A particle is projected in a vertical plane such that its velocity with time varies according to the
relation (m/s). Take horizontal ground as the x-y plane and vertical along
z-axis. If the particle was projected from origin. Find the time after which the particle again strikes
the ground :-

(1) 2 sec
(2) 4 sec
(3) 8 sec
(4) 10 sec

39) Three projectiles A, B and C are thro from the same point in the same plane Their trajectories

are shown in the figure. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) The time of flight is the same for all the three
(2) The launch speed is same for all the three
(3) The horizontal velocity component is largest for particle C
(4) The maximum height is same for all the three

40)

A particle is projected with velocity v so that its range on a horizontal plane is twice the greatest
height attained. If g is acceleration due to gravity, then its range is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41)

The horizontal range of a projectile fired at an angle of 15° is 50m. If it is fired with the same speed
at an angle of 45, its range will be;

(1) 60 m
(2) 100 m
(3) 71 m
(4) 141 m

42) If R and H represent the horizontal range and the maximum height achieved by a projectile then
which of the relation exists?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) The equation of projectile is (origin is point of projection); (x → horizontal; y →

vertical)

Column-I Column-II

A. Initial velocity P. S.I. unit

B. Range of projectile Q. 10 S.I. unit

Maximum height
C. R. 3.75 S.I. unit
of projectile

D. Angle of projection S.
S.I. unit
(1) A-Q; B-P; C-R; D-S
(2) A-R; B-S; C-P; D-Q
(3) A-P; B-R; C-S; D-Q
(4) A-S; B-P; C-Q; D-R

44) A projectile passes two points A and B at same height after 2 sec and 6 sec of its projection.
Horizontal separation between the points A and B is 120m. The horizontal range is closest to [g = 10

m/s2]

(1) 180 m
(2) 240 m
(3) 300 m
(4) 360 m

45) A train is moving towards east and a car is along north, both with same speed. The observed
direction of car to the passenger in the train is :

(1) East- North direction

(2) West-North direction
(3) South-East direction
(4) None of these

CHEMISTRY

1) There is no difference between a 2p and 3p orbital regarding ?

(1) Shape
(2) Size
(3) Energy
(4) Value of n

2) In zinc atom, how many electrons have n = 3 and ℓ = 2

(1) 10
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 2

3) The orbital of next higher energy than that of np-orbital is :-

(1) nd
(2) (n+1)p
(3) (n+1)d
(4) (n+1)s

4) Orbital angular momentum for 5f subshell will be:-

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Magnitude of K.E. in an orbit is equal to

(1) Half of the potential energy

(2) Twice of the potential energy
(3) One fourth of the potential energy
(4) None of these

6) Which of the following electronic configurations is not possible according to Hund's rule

(1) 1s2 2s2

(2) 1s2 2s1
2 2 1 1 1
(3) 1s 2s 2px 2py 2pz
2 2 2
(4) 1s 2s 2px

7) Threshold frequency of a metal is 5 × 1013 sec–1 upon which 1 × 10+14 sec–1 frequency light is
focused then maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron :-

(1) 3.3 × 10–21

(2) 3.3 × 10–20
(3) 6.6 × 10–21
(4) 6.6 × 10–20

8) A particle is moving 3 times faster than speed of e–. Ratio of wavelength of particle and electron is
1.8 × 10–4, then particle is :-

(1) Neutron
(2) α-particle
(3) Deutron
(4) Tritium

9) Bohr's model is applicable to explain :-

(1) Zeeman effect

(2) Stark effect
(3) Bond formation of H2
(4) Hydrogen spectrum

10) The uncertainty in the position of a moving bullet of mass 10 gm is 10–5 m. Calculate the
uncertainty in its velocity :-

(1) 0.5 × 10–27 m/sec

(2) 3.0 × 10–28 m/sec
(3) 5.2 × 10–22 m/sec
(4) 3 × 10–22 m/sec

11) Supposing the I.P. of hydrogen atom is 270 eV. Find out the value of principle quantun number
having the energy equal to –30 eV :-

(1) n = 2
(2) n = 3
(3) n = 4
(4) n = 1

12) In the reaction 4I– + Hg2+ → moles of made from 1 mol each of Hg2+ and I– will be :-

(1) 1 mol
(2) 0.5 mol
(3) 0.25 mol
(4) 2 mol

13)

200 gm CaCO3 heated and it decomposed into CaO and CO2. What is the weight of residue -(Atomic
weight of Ca= 40)

(1) 56 gm
(2) 200 gm
(3) 100 gm
(4) 112 gm

14) The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid (H3PO4) in the reaction,

NaOH + H3PO4 → NaH2PO4 + H2O is :-

(1) 59
(2) 49
(3) 25
(4) 98

15) 2.5 mol of calcium has mass of :-

(1) 100g
(2) 10g
(3) 5g
(4) 1g
16) Maximum number of atoms are in :-

(1) 22.4 L SO2 (g) at NTP

(2) 1.6 g CH4
(3) 1.8 g H2O
(4) 22.4 L O2(g) at NTP

17) A hydrocarbon has the following composition by mass C = 90%, H = 10%. Then, the empirical
formula of hydrocarbon is :

(1) C3H4
(2) C2H6
(3) C2H4
(4) C3H6

18) A compound contains 2% sulphur by mass. The minimum molecular mass of the compound is :

(1) 1600 amu

(2) 800 amu
(3) 800 g
(4) 1600 g

19) At STP 5.6 litre of a gas weigh 60 g. The vapour density of gas is :

(1) 60
(2) 120
(3) 30
(4) 240

20) Assertion : Fructose (C6H12O6) & Ethanoic acid (CH3COOH) have same percentage composition
of element.
Reason : Fructose and ethanoic acid have same empirical formula.

(1) Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion & Reason are False.

21) The volume of air needed for complete conversion of 100 cm3 of NO to NO2 will be :-
2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g)

(1) 500 cm3

(2) 100 cm3
(3) 250 cm3
(4) 1250 cm3
22) The molar ratio of Fe++ to Fe+++ in a mixture of FeSO4 and Fe2(SO4)3 having equal number of
sulphate ion in both ferrous and ferric sulphate is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 2 : 3
(4) can't be determined

23) Select the correct statement from the following:-

(a) IE2 > IE1 is always true for neutral atom.
(b) IE1 of He is maximum.
(c) EA1 of Cℓ is maximum.
(d) Cs is most electronegative element.
Choose the correct answers from the following options :-

(1) a, b, c and d
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, c and d

24) Assertion : Volume occupied by 1 mol of H2O(l) is equal to 22400 mL at NTP.

Reason : 1 mole of any substance occupies a volume of 22.4L at NTP.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

25) Following is the graph representing EN of certain elements A1, A2, A3, A4, A5. which of the

following option representing corresponding elements can be correct :

(1) A1 = N, A2 = P, A3 = F, A4 = Cl, A5 = Al
(2) A1 = Cl, A2 = P, A3 = O, A4 = N, A5 = Al
(3) A1 = N, A2 = P, A3 = O, A4 = Si, A5 = Al
(4) None

26) Match the column :-

Column-A Column-B
(Element IUPAC Symbol) (Permanent Name)

(a) Uub (1) Hassium

 (b) Uus (2) Copernicium

(c) Uno (3) Seaborgium

(d) Unh (4) Tennessine

(1) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
(2) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
(3) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(4) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1

27) Select the correct statements is/are -

(A) Ionisation enthalpy is always positive (for a neutral atom)
(B) The second ionisation enthalpy will be higher than the first ionisation enthalpy.
(C) Ionisation enthalpy of alkali metals are highest in each period.
(D) Ionisation enthalpy of noble gases are highest in each period.

(1) (A), (C) are correct

(2) (A), (B), (D) are correct
(3) (A), (B), (C), (D) are correct
(4) (C), (D) are correct

28) Which among the following has lowest value of negative electron gain enthalpy?

(1) Li
(2) O
(3) F
(4) Cl

29) Assertion : EN first decrease from B to Al then increase marginally in boron family.
Reason : Due to abnormality in atomic size of the elements.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

30) Identify the correct match :

Atomic
Group No
No

a 58 (i) IV A

b 79 (ii) II A

c 82 (iii) III B

d 38 (iv) IB
(1) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
(2) a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iiii
(3) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i
(4) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii

31) The successive Ionisation energy of an element are 16, 28, 34, 260 Kcal/mole. the element is
likely to be.

(1) Na
(2) Si
(3) Al
(4) Ca

32) ΔHIE1, ΔHIE2 & ΔHeg Value of a following element are given that.

Element ΔHIE1 ΔHIE2 ΔHeg

I 520 7300 -60

II 1681 3374 -328

Which of the above element is metal.
(1) I
(2) II
(3) Both I & II
(4) None of above

33) Correct order of Atomic radius.

(1) Ti < Zr HF
(2) Sc > Y > La
(3) S-2 > Cl -> K+ > Ca +2 > Ar
(4) Ni > Cu > Zn

34) Statement-I : End of valence electron is marked by a big jump in ionisation energy.
Statement-II : Electron affinity of carbon is greater then silicon.

(1) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect

(2) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(3) Statement-I and Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II is correct

35) Match the column

Column-I Column-II
Elements Property

(i) Li (A) Most Acidic oxide

(ii) Be (B) Most Metallic character

 (iii) C (C) Nature of oxide and hydroxide is similar to Al

(iv) Cs (D) Highest IE2

(1) (i) D (ii) C (iii) A (iv) B
(2) (i) D (ii) A (iii) C (iv) B
(3) (i) A (ii) C (iii) B (iv) D
(4) (i) C (ii) D (iii) B (iv) A

36) Which of following species will have the largest and the smallest size. Mg, Mg+2, Al , Al+3

(1) Mg+2 & Al+3

(2) Mg & Al
(3) Mg & Al+3
(4) Al & Al+3

37) Which of the following pair of oxide is amphoteric

(1) CO & NO
(2) Na2O & Cl2O7
(3) Al2O3 & AS2O3
(4) CO2 & B2O3

38) Which of the following element has least electron gain anthalpy.

(1) O
(2) S
(3) Se
(4) Po

39) The statement(s) that are correct about the species O2–, F–, Na+ and Mg2+.
(A) All are isoelectronic
(B) All have the same nuclear charge
(C) O2– has the largest Ionic radii
(D) Mg2+ has the smallest Ionic radii
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(1) C and D only

(2) A, C and D only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) A, B, C and D

40) Which of the following is the correct order?

(1) Atomic radius : I > Li

(2) Size : Fe ≅ Co ≅ Ni
(3) Zeff : O > F
(4) All are correct

41) Screening effect is not observed in:-

(1) Be+3
(2) H
(3) Li+2
(4) All

42) If the ionic radius of and are nearly same (1.34 A°) then the atomic radius of K and F
respectively are :-

(1) 1.96 A°, 0.72

(2) 1.34 A°, 1.34 A°
(3) 0.72 A°, 1.96 A°
(4) 1.96 A°, 1.34 A°

43) Pauling calculated electronegativity values of elements by using :-

(1) Ionisation energy

(2) Bond energy
(3) Electron affinity
(4) Both (1) and (2)

44) Electronegativity values of elements X and Y are 3.8 and 1.8 respectively Ionic percentage of
compound XY is :-

(1) 50
(2) 46
(3) 64
(4) 25

45) Oxygen is more electro negative than sulphur yet H2S is more acidic than H2O.

(1) Water is highly associated compound

(2) Molecular mass of H2S is more than that of H2O
(3) H2S is a gas under ordinarery condition while H2O is liquid
(4) H—S bond is weaker than H—O bond

BIOLOGY

1) How many statements are correct for RNAi ?

(1) Using Agrobacterium vectors, nematode-specific genes were introduced into the host plant.
(2) The introduction of DNA was such that it produced both sense and anti-sense RNA in the host
cells.
(3) Sense and antisense RNAs being complementary to each other.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Zero

2) Statement-I : Most Bt-toxic genes are insect group specific.

Statement-II : The choice of Bt toxic genes depends upon the crop and targeted pest.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I & Statement-II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

3) Crystals of Bt-toxin produced by some bacteria do not kill the bacteria themselves because :

(1) Bacteria are resistant to toxins

(2) Toxin is immature
(3) Toxin is inactive
(4) Bacteria encloses toxin in a special sac

4) Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay (ELISA) is a technique :-

(1) Of conventional method of dignosis

(2) Based on antigen antibody interaction in molecular diagnosis
(3) Of separation of DNA in gel electrophoresis
(4) Of large production in green revolution

5) For permanent cure of ADA deficiency, ADA gene isolated from marrow cells are introduced in
which cell?

(1) In any cell, after birth of an organism

(2) In cells of late embryonic stage
(3) In cells of early embryonic stage
(4) All of the above

6) Assertion : Very low concentration of a bacteria or virus can be detected by PCR.

Reason : PCR is used for amplification of specific DNA fragment.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

7) Which molecular diagnosis technique is used to detect mutations in genes in suspected cancer
patients-
(1) PCR
(2) Autoradiography
(3) Prob hybridisation
(4) All of above

8) CryIAc endotoxins obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis are effective against :-

(1) Nematodes
(2) Cotton bollworms
(3) Bacteria
(4) Weeds

9) Statement-I : Using conventional method of diagnosis like urine and serum analysis early
detection of disease can be possible. Statement-II : PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in
suspected AIDS patients.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only statement-I is correct.
(4) Only statement-II is correct.

10) Following is a diagrammatic representation of maturation of insulin. Select the correct set of the
names labelled A, B, C and D.

A B C D

Free C
(1) Proinsulin B-Peptide A-Peptide
Peptide

(2) Proinsulin A-Peptide B-Peptide Insulin

Free C
(3) Proinsulin A-Peptide B-Peptide
Peptide

(4) Proinsulin B-Peptide A-Peptide Insulin

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) CrylAb endotoxins obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis are effective against :-

(1) Nematodes
(2) Cotton Bollworms
(3) Mosquitoes
(4) Corn borer

12) Transgenic mice are being developed for use in :-

(1) Testing the safety of polio vaccines before they are used on human
(2) Production of clotting factor IX
(3) Production of human protein enriched milk
(4) Production of human insulin

13) Which Indian Government Organisation makes decisions regarding the validity of GM research
and the safety of introducing GM - organisms for public services ?

(1) ICAR
(2) GEAC
(3) IARI
(4) Both (2) and (3)

14) The use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other organisations without proper
authorisation from the countries and people, concerned without compensatory payment is called :-

(1) Biopatent
(2) Biopiracy
(3) Biowar
(4) Bioprocess

15) Bt-toxin is produced as inactive protoxin and gets converted into active form in insect gut due to
:-

(1) Alkaline pH
(2) Acidic pH
(3) Neutral pH
(4) High amount of silicon

16) Match the columns :

Column-A Column-B

(A) Bt toxin (1) Silencing of mRNA

(B) RNAi (2) cry gene

 (C) Gene therapy (3) Transgenic sheep

(D) Human insulin (4) E.coli

(E) Treatment of emphysema (5) SCID

(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5
(2) A-2, B-1, C-5, D-4, E-3
(3) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3, E-5
(4) A-4, B-5, C-1, D-2, E-3

17) Transgenic tobacco which is developed through RNA interference, prevent the infection of :-

(1) A nematode – Meloidegyne incognitia

(2) A bacterium – Pseudomonas putida
(3) A fungi – Tricoderma
(4) A insect – Amphid

18)
(a) and (b) are :-

(a) Roots of a typical control plants.

(1) (b) Transgenic plants root 5 days after deliberate infection of nematode but protected through
novel mechanism.
(a) Transgenic plants root 5 days after deliberate infection of nematode but protected through
(2) novel mechanism.
(b) Roots of a typical control plants.
(a) Host plant-generated dsRNA triggers protection against nematode infestation.
(3)
(b) Roots of a typical control plants.
(a) Roots of a typical control plants.
(4)
(b) Host plant-generated dsRNA triggers protection against nematode infestation.

19) Following are the steps involved in action of toxin in Bt. Cotton.
A. The inactive toxin converted into active form due to alkaline pH of gut of insect.
B. Bacillus thuringiensis produce crystals with toxic insecticidal proteins.
C. The alkaline pH solubilises the crystals.
D. The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut cells, creates pores and causes death of the
insect.
E. The toxin proteins exist as inactive protoxins in bacteria.

(1) E → C → B → A → D
(2) B → C → A → E → D
(3) A → E → B → D → C
(4) B → E → C → A → D

20) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I :- In pBR-322 restriction site of BamHI present on Ampicillin resistance gene.
Statement-II :- RNAi technique use in formation of Nematode resistance plant.
In the light of above Statement choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

21) To prevent the blindness associated with vitamin A deficiency, which of the following is advisable
:-

(1) Bt corn
(2) Soyabean
(3) Golden rice
(4) Flavr savr tomato

22)

Flavr Savr Tomato has increased

(1) Productivity
(2) Vigour
(3) Self Life
(4) Insect resistance

23) Which technique is employed to check the progression of a restriction enzyme digestion ?

(1) Polymerase Chain Reaction

(2) Restriction mapping
(3) Downstream processing
(4) Agarose gel electrophoresis

24) Assertion : Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals during a particular
phase of their growth. These crystals contain a toxic insecticidal protein.
Reason : Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce proteins that kill certain insects such as
lepidopterans, coleopterans & dipterans.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
25) With regard to insulin choose correct statements:-
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(b) The insulin produced by r-DNA technology has C-peptide
(c) The Pro Insulin has C-peptide.
(d) A peptide and B peptide of insulin are inter-connected by disulphide bridges.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) b and d only

(2) b and c only
(3) a, c and d only
(4) a and d only

26) Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching?

(1) Micropropagation - Invitro production of plants in large numbers

(2) Callus - Unorganised mass of cells produced in tissue culture
(3) Somatic hybridization - Fusion of two diverse somatic cells
(4) Vector DNA - Site for t-RNA synthesis

27) pBR322, which is frequently used as a vector for cloning gene in E.coli is a/an :-

(1) Original bacterial plasmid

(2) Modified bacterial plasmid
(3) Viral genome
(4) Transposon

28) Which of the following is a wrong match?

(1) Taq polymerase - Thermostable enzyme

(2) Gene gun — Gold or Tungsten microparticles
(3) Agrobactcrium tumefaeicns — T-DNA
(4) EcoRl - Exonuclease

29) Ethidium bromide stained agarose gel is exposed to.........., to observe DNA as bright orange
coloured bands.

(1) Air
(2) UV light
(3) Infrared
(4) Green light

30) Assertion (A) :- Ti plasmid are used as vectors in gene transfer.

Reason (R) :- Down stream processing vary from product to product.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

31)

The substrate for restriction enzyme is -

(1) Single stranded RNA

(2) Proteins
(3) Double stranded DNA
(4) Single stranded DNA

32) Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Bt cotton (i) Tomato

(b) Flavr-savr (ii) Golden rice

Detection of
(c) β-carotene gene (iii)
HIV infection

(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction endonuclease.
Identify the incorrect statement :-

(1) The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA
(2) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand
Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA a little away from the centre of the palindrome sites,
(3)
but between the different two bases on the opposite strands
(4) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA

34)

Observe the given diagram and choose the correct option

(1) A - Motor, B - Foam braker, C - Flat bladed impeller, D - Sterile air
(2) A - Sterile air, B - Foam braker, C - Flat bladed impeller, D - Motor
(3) A - Flat bladed impeller, B - Motor, C - Sterile air, D - Foam braker
(4) A - Sterile air, B - Motor, C - Foam braker, D - Flat bladed impeller

35) Which one of the following is a case of correct matching ?

(1) Callus → Unorganised mass of cells produced in tissue culture

(2) Protoplast fusion → A technique of micropropagation
(3) Protoplast → A cell without cell membrane
(4) Green revolution → decreased food supply

36)

Consider the following statements w.r.t RNAi and choose the correct option.
Statement-A: RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense.
Statement-B: It involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule,
that binds to and prevents transcription of the mRNA (silencing).

(1) Both statements A and B are true

(2) Both statements A and B are false
(3) Statements A is true but statements B is false
(4) Statements A is false but statements B is true

37)

Identify the restriction enzyme used to cut the site 'X', 'Y' respectively :

(1) Pvu I, Pst I

(2) Sal I, E.CoRI
(3) Pvu II, Pst I
(4) BamHI, Sal I

38) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

Replacement of a faulty gene by a normal

(a) Gene gun (i)
healthy gene

(b) Gene therapy (ii) Used for transfer of gene

(c) Gene cloning (iii) Total DNA in the cells of an organism

To obtain indentical copies of a

(d) Genome (iv)
particular DNA molecule
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(2) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
(4) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

39) Which microbes used as a biopesticide ?

(1) Streptococcus
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Pseudomonas putida
(4) Yeast

40) The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to :-

(1) Growth of LAB

(2) Production of O2 & ethanol
(3) Production of CO2
(4) Growth of Monascus yeast

41) Read the following statement having two blanks (A & B) :

"A drug used for (A) patients is obtained from a species of the organism (B) . The one correct
option for the two blanks is -
Blank - A Blank - B
(1) Heart Streptococus
(2) Heart Monascus
(3) Organ - transplant Trichoderma
(4) Swine flu Monascus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
42) Given below diagram showing cloning vector pBR322. Mark the incorrect statement/statements

:-

(1) Label 'a' represent rop site, which codes for the proteins involved in the replication of plasmid
(2) BamH 1 site is located in ampR region
(3) Label 'b' repersent 'ori' site
(4) Both (1) and (3)

43) First fermented acid is :-

(1) Gluconic acid

(2) Formic acid
(3) Lactic acid
(4) Fumaric acid

44) Match the column I and II and select correctly matched option :-

Column-I Column-II
Chromogenic
(A) EcoRI (i)
substrate
Restriction
(B) Gene gun (ii)
endonuclease
(C) X-Gal (iii) Gene transfer
Digest bacterial cell
(D) Lysozyme (iv)
wall
Options:-
A B C D

(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
45)

Here are the recognition sites of some restriction endonucleases :

(A) EcoRI

(B) Sma I

(C) Hind III

(D) Sca I
Which of the above enzymes will not create compatible blunt end ?

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) B and D
(4) A and C

46) Which of the following is responsible for idli, dosa formation ?

(1) Streptococcus thermophilus

(2) Lactobacillus acidophilus
(3) LAB
(4) Yeast

47) Functioning of statin is based on

(1) Allosteric inhibition

(2) Non-competitive inhibition
(3) Competitive inhibition
(4) End product inhibition

48) Competent host cell is required for transformation with rDNA. Following processes are used to
make the host cell competent except :-

(1) Treating them with specific concentration of divalent ion like Ca++
By incubating the cells with rDNA on ice, followed by placing them briefly at 42ºC & then
(2)
putting back on ice
(3) Agarose gel electrophoresis
(4) Both (1) & (2)

49) Study the following figures and identify the enzymes involved in steps A and B :-
(1) Eco RI and DNA ligase
(2) Hind II and DNA ligase
(3) Eco RI and Hind II
(4) Restriction endonuclease and exonuclease

50) Assertion (A) : Saccharomyces cerevisae is used for bread making and in brewing industry.
Reason (R) : Saccharomyces cerevisae is a unicellular fungi.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

51)

Physical removal of large and small particle from the sewage through filtration and sedimentation is
called ?

(1) Primary treatment

(2) Secondary treatment
(3) Biological treatment
(4) Both (2) and (3)

52) Consider the following statement and select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Ori site of vector is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA
(2) Antibiotic resistance genes in vector used as a selectable marker
(3) In PBR322 rop gene is used for replication of plasmid
(4) PBR322 contain only one selectable marker gene,

53) Find the wrongly matched pair.

(1) Requefort cheese - Ripened by a fungus

(2) Swiss cheese - Has large holes that are produced by a fungus
(3) Penicillin - Obtained from a mould
(4) Ethanol - Produced by yeast

54) Insertional inactivation is related to :-

(1) Microinjection
(2) Electroportion
(3) Gel electrophoresis
(4) Selection of recombinants

55) Which of the following is also called brewer's yeast?

(1) Penicillum notatum

(2) Acetobactoer - aceti
(3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(4) Trichoderma

56) The method of producing thousands of plants through tissue culture is called............

(1) Somaclones
(2) Micropropagation
(3) Explant
(4) Macropropagation

57) Nutritionally curd is more suitable then milk. Which of the following reason not supporting to
this view

(1) It increasing vitamin B12

(2) It checks disease causing microbes
(3) LAB convert lactose into lactic curd
(4) It provide additional proteins

58) Large holes in "Swiss cheese" are due to production of large amount of CO2 by ...............
bacterium

(1) Leuconostoc mesenteroides

(2) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(3) Thermococcus proteus
(4) Staphylococcus thermophiles

59) Which of the following is not a product of distillation

(1) Whisky
(2) Brandy
(3) Wine
(4) Rum

60) Assertion (A) : Bacillus thuringiensis is also used in making curd.

Reason (R) : Bacillus thuringienis is the group of bacteria which converts the lactose into lactic
acid.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

61) Which of the following bacteria was associated with discovery of penicillin

(1) Streptococus
(2) Staphylococcus
(3) Saccharomyces cerveisiae
(4) Propionobacterium

62) Match the following

A. Citric acid i. Haemolytic streptococcus

B. Streptokinase ii. Aspergillus niger

C. Cyclosporin-A iii. Monascus purpureus

D. Statins iv. Trichoderma polysporum

A B C D

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) ii i iii iv

(3) ii i iv iii

(4) iv ii iii i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63) The technology of biogas production was developed in India mainly due to efforts of

(1) IARI
(2) KVIC
(3) IPM
(4) Both 1 and 2

64) Cultivation of which of the following crop plant specially get benifitted by application of
cyanobacteria

(1) Maize
(2) Legumes
(3) Wheat
(4) Rice

65) Methanogens are :-

(1) Present in rumen of humans

(2) Found in Aerobic sludge of sewage
(3) Produce large amount of CO2 with little amount of methane
(4) Grow anaerobically on cellulosic material

66) Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorous from soil by plants ?

(1) Anabaena
(2) Glomus
(3) Rhizobium
(4) Frankia

67) Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) grow in milk and convert it to curd and also improve its nutritional
quality by increasing .

(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin B12
(3) Vitamin B6
(4) Vitamin C and A

68) In which of the following conditions use of baculoviruses is desirable

(1) When they are used as part of IPM

(2) When an ecologically sensitive area is being treated
(3) When beneficial insects are being conserved
(4) All of the above

69) Which of the following is one of the advantage of application of viruses as bioinsecticides

(1) They are less effective

(2) They are host specific
(3) They are costly
(4) They can not obtain easily
70) Identify this microbe -

(1) Bacteriophage
(2) Adeno virus
(3) Fungal colony
(4) TMV

71) Which of the following biological agents are used for species specific, narrow spectrum
insecticidal applications

(1) Adenoviruses
(2) Nucleopolyhedrosis viruses
(3) Retroviruses
(4) Trichoderma

72) Bacillus thuringiensis show their inhibitory effect on which part of the insect body

(1) Gut
(2) Respiratory tract
(3) Nervous system
(4) Circulatory system

73) Match list-I and II & select the correct option.

List-I List-II

(a) LAB (i) Statins

(b) Monascus purpureus (ii) Ethanol

(c) Acetobacter aceti (iii) Curd

(d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (iv) Acetic acid

(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii

74) Which viruses are employed as biocontrol agents ?

(1) Baculoviruses
(2) Bacteriophage virus
(3) TMV
(4) Pseudomonas

75) In gobar gas, the maximum amount is that of :

(1) C3H8
(2) CO2
(3) C4H10
(4) CH4

76) Which one of the microorganism is laboratory weed ?

(1) Lactobacillus vulgaris

(2) Penicillium citrinum
(3) Aspergillus niger
(4) Rhizopus nigricans

77) Formation of vinegar by :

(1) Acetobactor aceti

(2) Lactobacilus lactis
(3) Clostridium
(4) Penicillium

78) Which one of the following is not a component of biogas :

(1) CH4
(2) O2
(3) CO2
(4) H2

79) Symbiotic Nitrogen fixing Bacteria is :

(1) Nitrosomonas
(2) Nitrobacter
(3) Frankia
(4) Azolla

80) Baculoviruses are used as biological control agents that attacks

(1) Insects
(2) Mammals
(3) Other arthropods
(4) Both (1) and (3)
81) Dragoflies are potential biocontrole agent of

(1) Mosquitoes
(2) Lepidopteran perts
(3) Jassids
(4) All of the above

82) Tricoderma is one of the potential biocontrol agents because

(i) It is a mycoparasite
(ii) It secrets extracellular hydrolytic enzyme to lyse the host calls
Which of the given statements is correct

(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Both I and II
(4) None

83) Which of the following is not a product of metabolism in methanogens

(1) Methane
(2) Oxygen
(3) H2S
(4) CO2

84) Methanogens are not found in-

(1) Anaerobic sludge

(2) Rumen of cattle
(3) Oceam depth
(4) Stomach of human

85) Statement –I : Cattle dung, the substrate for biogas production, is frequently available in rural
areas.
Statement-II: Most of the biogas plants are located in costal regions.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

86) Probiotics are :-

(1) Live microbial food suppliment

(2) Cancer inducing microbes
(3) New kind of food allergens
(4) Safe antibiotics
87) Which one of the following statements is correct?

(1) At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers

(2) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies
(3) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants
Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and
(4)
potassium for plant nutrition in soil

88) The below diagram shows a typical bio gas plant. Which of the following four option, products

labelled as A, B and C are correctly identified ?

(1) A-Sludge, B–Digester, C–Dung, water

A–Digester, B–Methane, Carbon dioxide,
(2)
C–Dung, water
A–Sludge, B–Ethylin, Carbon dioxide,
(3)
C–Dung, water
A–Sludge, B–Methane, Carbon dioxide,
(4)
C–Sewage

89) Assertion :- Mycorrhizal association is useful for plants.

Reason :- All bacteria shows mycorrhizal association.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

90)

IPM (Integrated Pest Management) involves :

(1) Tissue culture

(2) Biological control
(3) Bio-fertilizers
(4) Confusion technique
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 3 2 4 4 3 2 2 3 2 1 2 3 2 2 3 2 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 2 4 1 3 2 4 3 3 2 3 3 2 3 1 4 2 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 1 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 4 3 1 4 2 1 4 1 2 3 4 4 1 1 1 1 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 3 4 3 1 2 1 4 3 3 1 1 1 1 3 3 1 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 2 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 3 2 3 1 4 2 4 3 4 1 2 2 1 2 1 1 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 4 2 3 4 2 4 2 1 3 2 3 1 1 1 4 1 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 3 2 4 4 3 3 1 2 1 4 2 4 3 2 4 2 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 4 4 4 2 2 4 2 2 2 1 1 1 4 3 1 2 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 2 3 2 1 2 1 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) ∵ cos 2θ = 2 cos2θ – 1

2) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:
We need to determine which graph represents the equation x = P2, where x is proportional to
the square of P.
Concept:
This involves understanding the relationship between x and P. When x is proportional to the
square of P, the graph is a parabola.
Formula:
For x = P2, the graph will be a parabola with the vertex at the origin and opening to the right
because x will always be non-negative.
Calculation:

A. Since x = P2 , the value of x will always be positive or zero, regardless of whether P is positive
or negative.
B. The graph is a parabola that opens to the right, with its vertex at the origin (0, 0).
C. Let's analyze the options:

Option 1: A parabola that opens upwards (incorrect for x = P2).

Option 2: A different type of curve (incorrect).
Option 3: A parabola that open to the right, passing through the origin, which matches x = P2.
Option 4: A parabola that opens to the left (incorrect).

Final Answer:
The correct answer is Option 3, as it represents a parabola opening to the right, consistent with the
equation x = P2.

3) Explain - Find equation of line from given graph.

Concept - First find slope of line then apply Trigonometry and find constant c.
Formula - Slope = tan θ = m, y = mx + c
Calculation-
Slope = m = tan 45°
=1
interest of line of y-axis is
c=3
So y = mx + c
y=x+3

4)

5)

6) Let
Now, (3λ)2 + (4λ)2 = 72 + 242
⇒ λ=5
∴ .

7) =1
0.09 + b2 + 0.16 = 1
b=

8)

9)

Ax = A cos 45° =
 Ay = A sin 45° =

10) (1) Asking About:

Using the triangle law of vector addition, find the correct relationship between the given
vectors.
(2) Concept:
The triangle law of vector addition states that if two vectors are represented by two sides of
a triangle taken in the same order, their resultant is given by the third side in the reverse
order.
For the given triangle:

A. and are in the same order

B. is in the reverse order.

(3) Formula:
The triangle law of vector addition can be expressed as:

(4) Solution/Explanation:

A. In the given triangle, vectors and are aligned in the same cyclic order.
B. According to the triangle law, the sum of and equals in the reverse direction.
C. Mathematically:

A. Comparing this with the options, Option 3 is correct.

(5) Final Answer:

Option 3:

11)
By homegeneity ⇒ [a] = [x2] = L2

So, ⇒

0
⇒ M–1L T2

12) As at is a dimensionless further, as x and have same dimensions.

0
v0 = [M L1T–1]
13) Torque = Nm

Stress = N/m2

Latent heat = J Kg–1

Power = N ms–1
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

14) Pressure gradient =

Energy density =
= [M1 L-1 T-2 ]

Electric field =
1 1 –3 -1
= [M L T A ]

Latent heat =
0
= [M L2 T-2]

15) 1MSD = = 0.1 cm

10VSD = 8MSD

1VSD = MSD
L.C. = 1MSD – 1VSD

= 1MSD – MSD = MSD

= × 0.1 = 0.02 cm

16)

Thickness of body = 11mm + 65

= 11.65

17)

As

(R → constant)
18) Ques explanation: To check the impact of velocity components on minimum time in
crossing the river.
Solution: The assertion is correct: to cross the river in minimum time, the swimmer should
swim perpendicular to the current.
The reason is correct because the river flow does not assist in crossing the river; it only affects
the swimmer's horizontal displacement.
Concept: River-Boat Concept
Formula: Not required
Question level: Easy

19)

20) = +
=
So speed = units

22)

θ = 45º
south-east direction.

23) f = at

24) v = = β + 2γt + 4δt3 = β(at t = 0)

a= = 2γ + 12δt2 = 2γ (at t = 0)

Ratio =

25)

B. Given Data:

A. Projectile motion: Motion of an object thrown with an initial velocity under the influence
of gravity.

C. Concept:

A. Projectile Motion:

A. Characterized by two independent motions:

A. Uniform horizontal motion

B. Uniformly accelerated vertical motion (due to gravity)

B. Acceleration due to Gravity (g): A constant downward acceleration acting on all

objects near the Earth's surface.

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Vertical Motion:

A. Can be described using the equation: v = u - gt

A. where:

A. v: final vertical velocity

B. u: initial vertical velocity

C. g: acceleration due to gravity

D. t: time
 B. As time (t) increases during the upward motion, the term 'gt' increases, leading to
a decrease in the final vertical velocity (v).

E. Final Answer:

A. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion. option 1

26)

S=
If u becomes 2 times, stopping distance becomes 4 times i.e., 8m.

27)

∵ Snth =
∴ Snth α (2x –1)
∴ S1st : S3rd : S6th = (2 × 1 –1) : (2 × 3 –1) : (2 × 6 – 1)
= 1 : 5 : 11

28)

tNet = tup + tdown =

t=

29) 1. Asking About

We need to find the height of a tower from which a particle is dropped. The particle covers
of the total height of the tower in the last 1 second of its fall.
2. Concept

A. A freely falling object undergoes uniformly accelerated motion with acceleration g = 10 m/s2
B. The total distance h covered by a particle in t seconds of free fall is given by:

C. The distance covered in the last second ( slast ) can be calculated as:

where g(t - 1) the initial velocity at the start of the last second.

D. The problem states:

3. Formula
Using the given conditions:

A. Total height:

B. Distance covered in the last second:

C. Relationship between and h:

4. Solution / Explanation

A. Start with the total height:

B. Write the expression for s lost :

C. Substitute the relation ;

D. Simplify:

E. Cross-multiply:

F. Rearrange into a quadratic equation:

G. Solve using the quadratic formula:

 H. Find t:

= 5 seconds (select positive root).

I. Calculate the height:

5. Final Answer
The height of the tower is:

30)

31)
x2 = vt

x1 – x2 = at2 – vt
Y = k1x2 – k2x

32)

velocity → In AB →

In BC →

In CD → v =

In DE → v =
maximum velocity during CD

33) Velocity is slope of x–t graph

34)

Concept:
The problem involves finding the position x of a particle moving along the x-axis, where the
velocity of the particle v depends on its position x.
We are given that:

Where α is a constant.
 We need to determine how the position x changes with time l.
Given

A. Velocity equation:
B. At time t = 0, the particle is at x = 0.

Explanation:

1. Relation between velocity and position:

A. Velocity is the rate of change of position with respect to time:

B. Substituting the given expression for v:

2. Rewriting the equation:

A. We can separate the variables to solve for x(t):

3. Integrating both sides

A. Integrating the left side with respect to x and the right side with respect to t:

A. At t = 0. x = 0. so the constant C = 0.
B. Thus, the equation simplifies to α =

​
4. Solving for x:

A. Squaring both sides:

Answer: The position x of the particle varies with time t as:

Correct Option : 2
35)

36) θ = 45° ;

37) For same range θ1 + θ2 = 90°

∴ θ2 = 90 ° – θ1 = 30°

38) Time of flight, T = =2

39) Asking about : T, R & H Via graph

Concept : Interprate different quantity by trajectory.
Solution/Explanation/Calculation :

,H= ,T=
as max. height is same for all hence uy = is same for all
But Range are diff. hence ux is deff.
hence launch speed in diff. for all the three.
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

40)

R = 2H ⇒ tanθ = =2

41)

∴
R2 = 100 m

42)

43) Given equation

Equation trajectory
By comparition

(1) ⇒
(2) R =

(3) ⇒

(4) Hmax = ⇒ ⇒ u = 10 m/s

44)
 30 m/s = u cos θ = ux

40 m/s = u sin θ

45)

direction of :- West-North

CHEMISTRY

47)
ℓ = 2 for d sub shell

57)

I.R.

t = 0 1 mol 1 mol
t=∞ 0 0.75 mol 0.25 mol

60)

mass = 2.5 × 40
= 100 g

68)

NCERT-XI (Part-1) Pg. # 91

69)

1 mole = 2204 L is only valid for gases at STP

 72)

VWR > SBCR

VWR 2 × CR

75) Based classification of group. in periodic table

77) NCERT problem 3.31 page 98

78) Refer - NCERT D & F block chapter

80) NCERT-XI, Part-I Pg.-94

81) Problem 3.5 NCERT

83)

Theory based NCERT Page No.75

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg. # 209

92) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 209

94) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 212

95) NCERT-XII-Page No. # 211 (E), 231, 232 (H)

96) NCERT Pg#212

97) NCERT Pg # 212

98) NCERT Pg. No. 180

99) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 153

100) NCERT Pg # 182/(H)199

103) NCERT Pg # 213

104) NCERT, Pg. # 185

105) NCERT XII, Pg # 179

108) NCERT Pg. # 210

110)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 198, 200

111) NCERT XII, Page # 178

112)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. 208

113)

NCERT XII Pg # 202

114) NCERT Page No. # 208 / 228

115)

NCERT XII, Pg # 182

116)

NCERT XII Pg # 178

117) The correct answer is:

(2) Modified bacterial plasmid.
Explanation: pBR322 is a modified bacterial plasmid that is commonly used as a vector for
cloning genes in E. coli. It was engineered from a natural plasmid to include specific features
like antibiotic resistance markers, making it easier to select transformed cells.

120) NCERT, Pg # 204

122)

NCERT XII Pg # 208, 209, 212

123) NCERT-XII, Pg # 196 & 197

124) NCERT-XII, Pg # 212, 213

127)

BamHI is a restriction enzyme that cuts at a specific sequence, commonly used in cloning and
plasmid manipulation.
Sal I is another restriction enzyme used to cut at a specific site, often in recombinant DNA
technology.

128) Problem statement : Asking About :

Match column of gene gun, gene therapy, gene closing, genome.

Concept :
Gene gun - Vector less gene transfer.
Gene therapy - Adenosine deaminase deficiency.

Solution / Explanation :
Gene gun used for gene transfer.
Gene therapy replacement of a faulty gene by normal gene.
Gene closing to obtain identical copies of a gene.
Genome is DNA of organisim's cell.

129)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 187

130) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 151

131)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 153

133) NCERT XII, Pg. # 183

134)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 166, 171

136)

The correct answer is: 4. Yeast.

Explanation: Yeast is also involved in the fermentation process for idli and dosa. The yeast
ferments the carbohydrates in the dough, producing carbon dioxide, which helps the dough
rise and become fluffy.
137)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 183

139) EcoRI is the restriction enzyme that creates sticky ends on the vector and foreign DNA.
DNA ligase is used to join the sticky ends and form recombinant DNA.

140)

NCERT Pg. # 152

141) NCERT-XII, Page # 184 (10.3)

145)

The correct answer is 3: Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

Explanation: The organism also called brewer's yeast is Saccharomyces cerevisiae. lt is
used in the brewing industry for fermenting beer and in baking industry to help dough rise.

146)

The correct answer is: 2. Micropropagation

Explanation: Micropropagation is the method of producing thousands of plants through
tissue culture. It involves the invitro cultivation of plant cells, tissues or organs to regenerate
whole plants, which can then be propagated on a large scale. This technique is widely used for
the rapid multiplication of plants with desirable traits.

147)

While curd (yogurt) has various nutritional benefits over milk, it does not provide additional
proteins compared to milk. The protein content in curd is similar to that in milk; however, the
proteins in curd are often more easily digestible due to the fermentation process.

148)

Propionibacterium shermanii is the bacterium responsible for the characteristic large holes in
Swiss cheese (Emmental). During the fermentation process, this bacterium produces carbon
dioxide (CO2) as a byproduct of fermentation, which forms the holes or "eyes" in the cheese.

149)

Wine is made through the process of fermentation of grapes or other fruits, not distillation.
Fermentation converts sugars into alcohol, and the product is wine.

151)
 Staphylococcus bacteria were crucial in the discovery of penicillin. In 1928, Alexander Fleming
discovered penicillin when he noticed that a mold (Penicillium notatum) had killed the bacteria
Staphylococcus aureus in a petri dish. This led to the development of penicillin as the first
widely used antibiotic.
Transgenic animals, such as goats and sheep, have been genetically engineered to produce
human AAT in their milk. This AAT can be purified and used to treat individuals with AAT
deficiency, helping to prevent or slow the progression of emphysema.

152)

A. Citric acid ii. Aspergillus niger

B. Streptokinase i. Haemolytic streptococcus

C. Cyclosporin iv. Trichoderma polysporum

D. Statins iii. Monascus purpureus

153)

IARI (Indian Agricultural Research Institute) and KVIC (Khadi and Village Industries
Commission) both played significant roles in the development and promotion of biogas
technology in India.

A. IARI contributed through research on the agricultural aspects of biogas production, such as
optimizing the use of organic waste for biogas generation.
B. KVIC was instrumental in promoting the practical application of biogas plants, especially in
rural areas, and supported their widespread adoption for energy production, particularly in
the 1970s.

154)

Cyanobacteria, particularly nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria, are commonly used in rice

cultivation. They help improve soil fertility by fixing atmospheric nitrogen, which is beneficial
for the rice plants. These bacteria are often applied to rice paddies as a natural biofertilizer,
particularly in flooded conditions where they thrive.

158)

Baculoviruses are a group of viruses used as biological control agents in pest management.
Their use is particularly desirable in several conditions:
1. When they are used as part of Integrated Pest Management (IPM): Baculoviruses can be an
effective part of 1PM, where they help control pest populations without harming the
environment or non-target organisms.
2. When an ecologically sensitive area is being treated: Baculoviruses are specific to certain
insect pests and do not harm other wildlife, making them ideal for use in ecologically sensitive
areas.
3. When beneficial insects are being conserved: Since baculoviruses are highly specific to
certain pests, they do not negatively affect beneficial insects (such as pollinators or natural
predators), making them safer to use in conservation efforts.
159)

Viruses used as bioinsecticides are host-specific, meaning they only target specific insect
species. This is a significant advantage because it reduces the impact on non-target organisms,
making them safer for the environment compared to broad-spectrum chemical insecticides.

160) NCERT XII Pg. # 180, Fig.10.2

161)

Nucleopolyhedrosis viruses (NPVs) are species-specific and narrow-spectrum biological agents

used in insect pest control. They specifically target certain insect species, typically those in the
order Lepidoptera (e.g., caterpillars), and cause disease by infecting the insect's cells,
eventually leading to the insect's death.

162)

Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) produces toxins that specifically affect the gut of insects. When an
insect consumes St-contaminated material, the toxins in the bacteria disrupt the gut lining,
leading to paralysis, starvation, and death of the insect. The toxins primarily target the insect's
digestive system, causing it to stop feeding.

163) NCERT-XII Pg#153

164) NCERT Pg. # 186

167)

NCERT XII, Pg # 183

178)

NCERT Page no. 156