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LEGAL STUDY MATERIAL FOR ALL

Motto: To support and uplift aspiring legal minds

PRACTICE TEST
(IMPORTANT MCQs of INDIAN CONTRACT ACT,
1872)

An initiative by-

UJJAWAL DIXIT SUNIDHI SACHDEVA

Advocate, Allahabad High Court B.A.LLB (JMI, New Delhi)
B.A.LLB (NLU Nagpur) CLAT PG 2024- AIR 50
LLM (RML NLU) CLAT PG 2025 -AIR 2
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1. Nudum Pactum non oritur actio implies

(a) For the contract to be concluded, the parties must inter-prasentees
(b) For a contract to be concluded, the parties may be inter-absentees
(c) Naked pact does not give rise to any cause action
(d) In every case of breach of contract, there arises a cause of action

2. When person reciprocally promise firstly to do certain things which are legal and
secondly to do certain things which are illegal, then
(a) Both sets of promises are void
(b) Both sets of promises are valid
(c) The first set of promise is a contract and the second set is a void agreement
(d) The first set of promise is a void agreement and the second set is a contract.

3. A sum of ₹5000 was promised by defendant as a personal contribution for the

purpose of constructing a bridge.
(a) It is not enforceable
(b) The promisor is not liable to pay because it unilateral promise
(c) The promise is liable to pay when the promisee had by doing some act altered his position
(d) Both (a) and (b)

4. An executed consideration is
(a) Reciprocal promises
(b) An Act done in response to a positive promise
(c) An act done in expectation of proposal
(d) None of these

5. Privity of consideration
(a) Applicable in India
(b) Partly applicable in India
(c) Not at all applicable in India
(d) Either (a) or (b) depends upon the parties to the contract

6. What is reasonable time for performance of contract, is a

(a) Question of prudence
(b) Question of law
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(c) Question of fact

(d) Mixed question of law and fact

7. “A voluntary service means a service rendered without any request or promise and
there is a subsequent promise to pay for the same.”
Select the correct option in view of the above statement
(a) Past consideration is no consideration in India
(b) A past voluntary service is adequately covered by the provision in Section 25(2) of the
ICA
(c) A past voluntary service is not covered by the ICA
(d) Only services rendered at request are covered by the ICA

8. An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void.

Which of the following agreement is not void?
(a) Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings
(b) Agreement under coercion
(c) Agreement in restraint of trade
(d) None of the above, as all are void

9. A agrees to sell and B to buy a quantity good at a stated price. Here, the consideration
is
(a) Executed
(b) Executory
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Partly executed, partly executory

10. A contract not specifying the place after performance —

(a) Can be performed at any place to knowledge of the promise
(b) The promisor has to apply to the promise for appointment of place of performance and
perform the promise at that place
(c) The promisor need not seek any instructions from the promisee as the place of
performance
(d) The promisor can perform the promise at place other than the place appointed by the
promisee
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11. A time barred debt is enforceable under

(a) Section 25(1)
(b) Section 25(2)
(c) Section 25(3)
(d) None of the above

12. Fraud, under Section 17 ICA does not include

(a) Representation made without knowing it to be false, honestly believing it to be true
(b) Suggestion, as a fact, of that which is not true, by one who does not believe it to be true
(c) Active concealment of a fact by one having knowledge or belief of the fact
(d) Promise made without any intention of performing it

13. Which of the following section imposes limitation on ‘freedom of contract’?

(a) Section 10
(b) Section 23
(c) Section 13
(d) Both (a) and (b)

14. The pawnee has the right to retain the goods pledged
(a) For payment of debt, interest and all necessary expenses in respect of the good pledged
(b) For payment of debt other than the debt in respect of goods pledged
(c) For payment of interest and necessary expenses in respect of the goods other than the one
pledged
(d) None of the above

15. Which of the following section of ICA declares that minor is not competent to
contract
(a) Section 2(h)
(b) Section 10
(c) Section 11
(d) Both (b) and (c)

16. A contract signed between two countries, without specifying as to which country’s
law shall govern in case of dispute, the law applicable should be
(a) The law of the country where the proposal was made
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(b) The law of the country where the contract was concluded
(c) The law of the country where the contract is localised
(d) Either (a) or (b) or (c)

17. An acceptance is the assent given to proposal. And it has the effect of converting the
proposal into —
(a) Promise
(b) An agreement
(c) A contract
(d) Reciprocal promise

18. If a minor enters into an agreement, he will not be liable

(a) In contract
(b) In tort arising out of contract
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Only (a)

19. A proposal cannot be revoked

(a) By failure of the acceptor to fulfil a condition precedent to acceptance
(b) By lapse of time prescribed in the proposal for its acceptance
(c) By insanity of the proposer, if the fact of insanity comes to the knowledge of the acceptor
before acceptance
(d) After communication of its acceptance is complete

20. Section 68 of ICA provides for the liability for necessaries supplied to
(a) Insane
(b) Idiot
(c) Child
(d) Person incompetent to contract

21. The principle of Delegatus non potest delegare is evident in

(a) Section 190, ICA
(b) Section 191, ICA
(c) Section 192, ICA
(d) Section 193, ICA
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22. Which of the following section of ICA uses the expression (words) “Act forbidden by
the Indian Penal Code”
(a) Section 15
(b) Section 16
(c) Section 17
(d) Section 18

23. Impossibility of performance is not an excuse in the case of

(a) Self induced frustration
(b) Commercial hardship
(c) Failure of one of the objects
(d) All of the above

24. Which of the following factor may be taken into account in order to determine
whether the contract induced by “undue influence”?
(a) Relation which involves domination
(b) Fiduciary relation
(c) Person in mental distress
(d) Person in all of the above

25. Clayton’s rule concept has been provided under the UCA in
(a) Section 37–39
(b) Section 40–50
(c) Section 59–61
(d) Section 62–67

26. A party cannot _______ if he had the means of discovering the truth with ordinary
diligence
(a) Fraud
(b) Fraud, mistake or coercion
(c) Misrepresentation or fraud by silence
(d) Fraud, misrepresentation, mistake or coercion

27. In which of the following cases, the exception to the doctrine of privity of contract
will not apply?
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(a) An agreement between two brothers to maintain their mother.

(b) In a sale-deed between A and B, the stipulation to pay a certain sum to C sought to be
enforced by C.
(c) An agreement between the lady’s father-in-law and her father that in consideration of her
marriage with his son, he would pay to her ₹5000 per month in perpetuity and an immovable
property was charged for it. The lady filed a suit for the recovery of arrears of annuity.
(d) A was indebted to both B and C. A assigned all his property to B in satisfaction of his
debt and B promised to pay A’s debt to C.

28. Right of rescission under Section 19 of ICA is lost

(a) By affirmation
(b) By lapse of time
(c) Intervention of rights of third parties
(d) All of the above

29. Damages allowed under Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act are
(a) Liquidated damages
(b) Compensatory damages
(c) Penal damages
(d) None of the above

30. The rescission of a voidable contract may be communicated or revoked in the same
manner as apply to the communication or revocation of
(a) A proposal
(b) An acceptance
(c) Either (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

31. Difference between a contract and social agreement is that of

(a) Consideration
(b) Intention to create legal relationship
(c) Consensus ad idem
(d) Certainty of performance
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32. Which of the following is a form of mistake as to subject-matter

(a) Non-existent subject matter
(b) Mistake as to title or rights
(c) Mistake as to substance of subject matter
(d) All of the above

33. Point out incorrect statement

(a) A party who rightfully rescinds a contract is entitled to compensation for his damages
(b) Where a person gives any bond for the performance of any act in which the public is
interested, he shall be liable upon its breach, to pay the whole sum mentioned therein
(c) A party to the contract complaining of the breach is not entitled to receive any
compensation from the other party, if no actual damages or loss is proved to have been
caused thereby
(d) The rule of compensation for loss or damages caused due to the breach of a contract does
not apply to void agreements

34. A solicitor was employed by the client to prevent removal by the father of the
client’s children from the United Kingdom. The solicitor accordingly notified the
passport agency but failed to renew the notification. The father added children to his
passport and took them away. The mother (client) sued the solicitor.
(a) The mother is not entitled to recover damages as there is no contract
(b) The solicitor’s failure to renew the notification was a breach of contractual duty
(c) The solicitor’s failure to renew the notification leads to mental distress to the client but
there is no breach of contractual duty
(d) The claim is founded on tort not on a contract

35. “For an acceptance, mere mental resolve to accept would not be sufficient, there
must be some external manifestation of the intent by speech, writing or other act.”
It was held by the Supreme Court in
(a) Fazal Ilahi v. East Indian Railway Co.
(b) M. Nanjappa v. Levering
(c) Dugdale v. Lovering
(d) Bhagwan Das v. Girdhari Lal
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36. A person who enters into a contract with government necessarily

(a) Undertakes public duty
(b) Promises to do an act in which the public are interested
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

37. Which one of the following contracts is void

(a) A and B contract to marry each other. Before the time fixed for the marriage, A goes mad
(b) A and B contract to marry each other at an early date. A insists on marriage immediately
after expiry of one month from the date of the contract
(c) A and B contact to marry each other, but A can fix the date of marriage only after his
return from England where he had gone for business
(d) A and B contract to marry each other. Before the time fixed for the marriage, A falls ill
and his physician advises him to take rest in bed for one month

38. Wagering agreements are

(a) Void
(b) Speculative in nature
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Void but not speculative in nature

39. If a tender was finalised within shorter period than otherwise allowed
(a) It will amount to conditional offer
(b) It will amount to a concluded contract
(c) It will amount to refusal of tender
(d) None of the above

40. Which of the following is not a similarity between an illegal and void agreement
(a) Main transaction void in either case
(b) Nothing can be recovered under either kind of agreement
(c) No action under the main transaction
(d) None of the above

41. X agreed to purchase tendu leaves for three years ending on 31 December 1970, the
terms of the lease providing that it was renewable every year. X was to opt for renewal
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within 15 days prior to December 31 and the leases were to be renewed by issue of order
by the government and acceptance by the department by 31 January next year. X
offered for renewal on 7 December 1968, and it was accepted by the government on 31
January 1969 but despatched on 7 February 1969. X sought to withdraw from the offer
on the ground that the government had not renewed it before 31 January1969.
(a) There was no renewal of lease owing to lapse of time prescribed
(b) X ceased to enjoy the terms of lease from 31 December 1970
(c) There was a fault on the part of the Government, X is entitled to claim
compensation.
(d) The lease stood renewed

42. ‘A’ telegraphed ‘B’ “will you sell your factory, telegraph the lowest cash price.” ‘B’
replied by telegram “lowest price for the factory is Rs. 25 Lakh”. This is
(a) void agreement
(b) voidable contract
(c) no contract
(d) acceptance of proposal

43. Which of the followings is/are exception(s) to the rule of ‘privity of contract’
(a) Covenants running with land
(b) Trust or charge
(c) Acknowledgement or estoppel
(d) all of the above

44. A bare promise which is devoid of consideration is called

(a) Ex contractu
(b) Nudum pactum
(c) Non est factum
(d) none of the above

45. Match the following

(A) Tinn V Hoffmann 1. Counter offer
(B) Household Fire Insurance Co. V Grant 2. Acceptance through post
(C) Hyde V Wrench 3. Cross offer do not create contract.
(D) Dunlop v Higgins 4. Acceptance complete when letter of acceptance posted.
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(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 1 3 2 4

46. A agrees to sell a house worth Rs. 10 lakh for Rs. 1 lakh. A’s consent to the
agreement was freely given. The agreement is
(a) a voidable contract
(b) void owing to inadequacy of the consideration
(c) a perfectly valid contract
(d) not a valid contract

47. The ‘Doctrine of Privity of Contract” was for the first time applied in
(a) Adler V Dickson
(b) Dutton V Poole
(c) Tweddle V Atkinson
(d) Dunlop Pneumatic Tyre Co. V Selfridge & Co.

48. Past consideration is valid in

(a) India only
(b) England only
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

49. Where a company enters into a contract beyond the scope of its Memorandum of
Association, such a contract is said to be
(a) intra vires
(b) ultra vires
(c) inter vires
(d) voidable contract

50. W had been served with summons requiring him to give evidence before a court of
law. D, who was party to the case, gave him a promissory note to pay a sum of money
for his trouble. The promissory note was
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(a) Valid
(b) Voidable
(c) Void
(d) Valid for good consideration

51. The leading case on the principle of “Promissory estoppel”

(a) Inder Singh V Parmeshwardhari Singh
(b) Kedarnath V Gorie Mohammad
(c) Raj Rani V Prem Adib
(d) Lalman Shukla V Gauri Dutt

52. Sometimes Promissory estoppel is spoken of as a substitute for

(a) restitution
(b) novation
(c) undue influence
(d) consideration

53. The law declared by the Privy Council in Mohoribibee case that a minor’s
agreement is
(a) absolutely void
(b) Valid
(c) Voidable
(d) illegal

54. G, a minor, was allotted by P, a film producer, the role of an actress in a particular
film. The agreement was made with her father. P, subsequently allotted that role to
another artiste and terminated the contract with G’s father
(a) G could have sued P
(b) G’s father could have sued P
(c) Neither G nor her father could have sued P
(d) either G or her father could have sued P

55. The agreement of a person of unsound mind is

(a) voidable in India
(b) void in India
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(c) Voidable in India and England as well

(d) Void in India and England as well

56. Who said “Restitution stops where repayment begins”

(a) Lord Summer
(b) Lord Mcnaughton
(c) Lord Lindley
(d) Lord Davey

57. The Bench which heard the case of Mohori Bibee V Dharamodas Ghose, consisted
of
(a) 7 Judges
(b) 6 Judges
(c) 5 Judges
(d) 3 Judges

58. According to section 12 of Indian Contract Act, 1872, who among the following
is/are incompetent to contract
(a) person disqualified from contracting by any law
(b) minor
(c) person of unsound mind
(d) all of the above

59. A property worth about Rs. 5 lakh was agreed to be sold by a person for Rs. 50,000/-
only. His mother proved that he was a congenital idiot, incapable of understanding the
transaction, hence sale is void. In this context which one of the following is correct?
(a) mother would succeed
(b) mother would not succeed
(c) agreement being voidable, therefore, could be avoided by the person
(d) mother had to act in accordance with the terms of contract

60. A contract which was formed without the free consent of the parties, would be
(a) Void
(b) Void ab-initio
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(c) Voidable
(d) Voidable at the option of party whose consent was not free

61. In which of the following case there is no coercion

(a) Threat to strike
(b) X entered into a contract to avoid the threatened prosecution
(c) A contract made under statutory compulsion
(d) None of the above

62. A, a financial institution, lends money to a borrower at high rate of interest, when
there is acute scarcity of liquidity in the market. Such high rate of interest renders the
agreement of loan
(a) void
(b) Valid
(c) Voidable
(d) illegal

63. A person is said to be able to dominate the will of another if

(a) he hold real or apparent authority over the another
(b) he stands in a fiduciary relation to another
(c) he makes a contract with a person whose mental capacity is temporarily or
permanently affected by reason of age, illness or mental or bodily distress
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c)

64. Which among the following relationships can be termed as fiduciary relationship
(a) Trustee and cestui que trust
(b) spiritual adviser and his devotee
(c) doctor and patient
(d) all of the above

65. A person is said to be in ‘distress’ when his mental capacity is

(a) permanently affected
(b) temporarily affected
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) either (a) or (b) but leads to medical unsoundness
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66. In an action to avoid a contract on the ground of undue influence the plaintiff has to
prove
(a) the other party was in a position to dominate his will
(b) the other party has actually used his influence to obtain plaintiff’s consent
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) either (a) or (b)

67. A presumption of undue influence is raised in case of

(a) unconscionable bargains
(b) conscionable bargains
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) constructive bargains

68. Which among the following does not amount to fraud

(a) suggestion as a fact of that which is not true by one who does not believe it to
be true
(b) the passive concealment of fact by one who having knowledge
(c) a promise made without intention of performing it
(d) Any such act or omission as the law specifically declares it to be fraudulent

69. X and Y being traders, enter upon a contract. X has private information of change
in prices which would affect Y’s willingness to proceed with the contract
(a) X is not bound to inform Y
(b) X is bound to inform Y
(c) X has duty to speak
(d) Y may claim damages caused due to non-disclosure of information by X

70. The essence of fraud is/are

(a) intentional misrepresentation
(b) false representation with dishonest intention
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) only (b) nor (a)

71. Who made and supervised the final revision of the draft and moved the Indian
Contract Bill
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(a) Thomas Babington Macaulay

(b) Sir James Fitzjames Stephen
(c) William Blackstone
(d) Sir Henry Maine

72. Who said “law of contract is that branch of law which determines the circumstances
in which a promise shall be legally binding on the person making it”
(a) Lord Atkin
(b) Powell
(c) Winfield
(d) Anson

73. Which case is popularly known as ‘Bumper Hall Pen case’

(a) Hyde V Wrench
(b) Harvey V Facey
(c) Tinn V Hoffman & Co.
(d) Lancaster V Walsh

74. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with
“Mirror Rule”
(a) Section 4
(b) Section 5
(c) Section 7
(d) Section 13

75. A offered to sell his watch to B for Rs. 5000/-. However, B replied that he can
purchase A’s watch for Rs. 3000/-. B’s reply amounts to
(a) Counter proposal
(b) Cross proposal
(c) Linear proposal
(d) Constructive proposal

76. An uncle, offered to buy a horse from his nephew and said “if I hear no more about
him, I shall consider that horse is mine”. The nephew did not answer, but asked the
auctioneer to sell that particular horse. The auctioneer sold the horse by mistake.
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(a) Uncle was entitled to sue his nephew

(b) Nephew was liable to the loss or damages caused to uncle.
(c) Nephew had no obligation to reply and his silence did not constitute an
acceptance.
(d) Giving instruction to the auctioneer as not to sell the horse, impliedly
constitute an acceptance, hence, nephew was liable.

77. Select the correct statement

(a) Stranger to consideration can enforce a promise
(b) Stranger to contract can enforce a promise
(c) Stranger to consideration has no right
(d) Stranger to consideration will be a stranger to contract

78. Inadequacy of consideration is relevant in determining the question of

(a) Misrepresentation
(b) Fraud
(c) Free consent
(d) Fraud

79. A release deed executed by a wife and son in consequence of a threat of committing
suicide would fall within the ambit of
(a) Section 16
(b) Section 15
(c) Section 18
(d) none of the above

80. In which case the difference between legitimate persuasion and undue influence had
been described
(a) Chunni Kaur V Rup Singh
(b) A.A Singh V Union of India
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Lingo Bhimrao Naik v Dattatraya Shripad Jamadagni

81. If the transaction appears to be unconscionable, then in terms of sub-section 3 of

section 16 of Indian Contract Act, 1872, the burden of proving that the contract was not
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induced by undue influence is to lie upon

(a) the person whose consent was caused by undue influence
(b) the person who was in a position to dominate the will of the other
(c) either party to the suit
(d) the person who first approaches the court for justice

82. An unconscionable bargain is such an agreement

(a) as no sane man, would make and no honest man would take advantage of
(b) which is made to defraud the other party
(c) which causes irreparable loss to the other party
(d) none of the above

83. The presumption as provided under section 16(3) of Indian Contract Act, 1872, is
(a) discretionary
(b) mandatory
(c) obligatory
(d) elective

84. Who can raise the plea of undue influence

(a) either party to the suit
(b) third party claiming adversely to such executant
(c) executant of the document or his representative in estate
(d) all of the above

85. Select the statement which is/are not FALSE

1. A mere false statement is not fraud.

2. Fraud is a deliberate deception with the design of securing something by taking unfair
advantage of another.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) both 1 & 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2
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86. Which of the following instances does not amount to fraud

(a) concealment of fact by the wife that she was suffering from a venereal disease
(b) non-disclosure of pre-marital divorced status by one party to the other party who was
unmarried
(c) the annulment of an earlier marriage on the ground of unsoundness of mind was
concealed
(d) none of the above

87. Where a contract is induced by fraud, the representee is entitled to claim

(a) rescission
(b) damages
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) either (a) or (b)

88. Select the correct statement in respect of the concept of fraud applied under Section
17 of Indian Contract Act, 1872, vis-à-vis section 12 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(a) the concept of fraud is used in same sense under both legislations
(b) the concept of fraud is used in wider sense under Contract Act, 1872 than used under
HMA, 1955
(c) the concept of fraud is used in narrower sense under Contract Act, 1872 than used under
HMA, 1955
(d) both laws have different and independent meaning of the concept of fraud as per their
own objective.

89. A student while filing University Examination Form did not mention the fact of his
shortage of attendance, although he knew that he was short of attendance.
(a) the student cannot be held liable for fraud
(b) the student may be held liable for fraud
(c) this is material fact and its concealment amounts to fraud
(d) both (b) and (c)

90. Select the correct statement

1. In fraud the person making the suggestion does believe the facts to be true
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2. In misrepresentation the person making the suggestion does not believe the facts to be
true
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

91. A makes a positive statement to B that C would be a director of a company about to

be formed, and B applies to shares oh the faith of that statement. A did not derive the
information from C directly, but from the third party, D. A’s statement amounts to:
(a) fraud
(b) misrepresentation
(c) mere surmise
(d) false statement, thus amount to fraud

92. In Derry V Peek, Lord Herschell held that fraud is proved when it is shown that a
false representation has been made
(a) recklessly whether it is true or false
(b) knowingly
(c) without belief in its truth
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c)

93. Who said “Public Policy is an unruly horse and when you once astride it, you never
know where it will carry you”.
(a) Julius stone
(b) Anson
(c) Justice Burrough
(d) Lord Summer

94. Select the statement which is not FALSE

Misrepresentation includes

1. a statement of fact, which if false, would be misrepresentation if the maker believes it

to be true, but which is not justified by the information he possesses
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2. any breach of duty which gains an advantage to the person committing it by

misleading another to his prejudice, there being no intention to deceive
3. dishonestly caused a party to an agreement to make a mistake as to the substance of
the thing which is the subject of the agreement
(a) 1 & 2 only
(b) 2 & 3 only
(c) 1 & 3 only
(d) all of the above

95. A positive assertion of act may be termed as misrepresentation when such fact is
made or adopted by a party to a contract and is untrue and such assertion is made
(a) fraudulently
(b) carelessly
(c) innocently
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c)

96. As per the provisions of Section 18 of Indian contract Act, 1872, who among the
following is entitled to obtain relief
(a) persons to whom the representation is directly made and their principals
(b) persons to whom the representor intended the representation to be passed on
(c) members of a class at which the representation was directed
(d) all of the above

97. A list was circulated amongst the bidders in an auction of liquor shops, which
showed the places where different existing liquor shops were located. Relying upon a
statement about location of a particular shop six miles away, the plaintiff purchased the
licence of one shop. The statement had not mentioned that that other shop had been
relocated closer to the shop of the plaintiff. It was a case of
(a) fraud
(b) deceit
(c) misrepresentation
(d) none of the above

98. Where a contract is tainted by fraud or misrepresentation, the transaction becomes

voidable, but where the fraudulent misrepresentation relates not merely to the contents
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but to the nature or character of the transaction, the transaction is

(a) valid
(b) void
(c) enforceable by law
(d) voidable

99. The plea of non est factum applies, where

(a) document is fundamentally different from what executant intended to execute or sign
(b) party to the contract give consent owing to fraud
(c) there is lack of consideration
(d) consent caused due to undue influence

100. Where consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, fraud or misrepresentation,

the agreement is a contract voidable at option of the party whose consent was so caused.
Such right of said person is called
(a) right of dissolution of contract
(b) right of novation of contract
(c) right of repudiation of contract
(d) right of rescission of contract

ANSWER KEY:

1. C
2. C
3. C
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. B
9. B
10. B
11. D
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12. A
13. D
14. A
15. B
16. C
17. A
18. C
19. D
20. D
21. A
22. A
23. D
24. D
25. C
26. C
27. B
28. D
29. B
30. A
31. B
32. D
33. D
34. B
35. D
36. D
37. A
38. C
39. D
40. D

41. D
42. C
43. D
44. B
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45. A
46. C
47. B
48. A
49. B
50. C
51. B
52. D
53. A
54. C
55. B
56. A
57. C
58. C
59. A
60. D
61. D
62. B
63. D
64. D
65. C
66. C
67. A
68. B
69. A
70. C
71. B
72. D
73. B
74. C
75. A
76. C
77. A
78. C
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79. B
80. D
81. B
82. A
83. B
84. C
85. C
86. D
87. C
88. B
89. A
90. D
91. B
92. D
93. C
94. A
95. D
96. D
97. C
98. B
99. A
100. D