Yakeen Plus (2025)

Practice Test - 36

DURATION
DURATION ::180
90 Minutes
Minutes DATE : 17/03/2025 M. MARKS : 720

Topics Covered
Physics : Full Syllabus
Chemistry : Full Syllabus
Biology : (Botany): Full Syllabus
(Zoology): Full Syllabus

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 180 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple choice questions (four
options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 45
questions in each subject
3. The test booklet consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There is only one correct response for each question.
5. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
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Practice Test-37
Yakeen Plus (2025)

Q1 Given below are two statements: one is labelled A sealed tank containing a liquid of density ρ

as Assertion A and the other is labelled as moves with a horizontal acceleration a, as shown
Reason R: in the figure. The difference in pressure between
Assertion A : Emission of electrons in the points A and B is
photoelectric effect can be suppressed by
applying a sufficiently negative electric
potential to the photoemissive substance.
Reason R : A negative electric potential, which
stops the emission of electrons from the surface
of a photoemissive substance, varies linearly with
(1) hρg
frequency of incident radiation.
(2) lρa
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) hρg − lρa
correct answer from the options given below:
(4) hρg + lρa
(1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true. Q5 The stress-strain graphs for materials A and B are
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct shown in the figure. Choose the correct
explanation of A. alternative
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A.

Q2 The reading of the ammeter as per figure shown

is:
(1) Material A is stronger than material B
(2) Material B is stronger than material A
(3) The Young's modulus of A is equal to that of B
(4) The Young's modulus of B is greater than that
of A
(1) 1

8
A (2) 3
A
4

(3) 1

2
A (4) 2A Q6 When a particle of mass m is attached to a
vertical spring of spring constant k and released,
Q3 The depth d at which the value of acceleration
its motion is described by y(t) = y0 sin
2
ωt ,
due to gravity is 1/6th of the acceleration due to
where 'y' is measured from the lower end of
gravity at altitude R from surface of the earth is:
unstretched spring. Then ω is:
(R : radius of earth) −−
(1) √ g

(1) R (2) 23
R y0
24 −−
(3) 2R (4) 14
R (2) 1
√
g

15 2 y0

−−
(3) √ 2g
Q4 y0

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−−
−
(4) √ g
volume. At a distance x from its centre for x < R,
2y 0

the electric field is directly proportional to:

Q7 Following is given the equation of a stationary (1) 1
2
(2) 1

x
x

wave (all in S.I. units) (3) x (4) x2

y = (0.06)sin (2π x)cos (5π t)
Q10 In the figure, the blocks A, B and C of mass m
Match List-I with List-II:
each have accelerations a1, a2 and a3
List-I List-II
respectively. F1 and F2 are external forces of
Amplitude of
magnitude 2mg and mg respectively.
(A) constituent (I) 0.06
wave
Position of
(B) node at x = (II) 0.5
......m
Position of
(C) antinode at x (III) 0.25
= ......m (1) a1 = a2 = a3
(2) a1 > a3 > a2
Amplitude at
(D) (IV) 0.03 (3) a1 = a2, a2 > a3
x= 3
m
4
(4) a1 > a2, a2 = a3
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below: Q11 A particle is moving along a circle of radius R
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I with constant speed v0. What is the magnitude
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I of change in velocity when the particle goes
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I from point A to B as shown?
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Q8 A square plate of edge a and a circular disc of

diameter a are placed touching each other at the
midpoint of an edge of the plate as shown in
figure. Locate the centre of mass of the
combination, considering point O as origin and (1) 2v0 sin
θ
(2) v0 sin
θ

2 2

assuming same mass per unit area for the two (3) 2v0 cos
θ
(4) v0 cos
θ

2 2

plates.
Q12 Given below are two statements:
Statement I: When the frequency of an a.c.
source in a series LCR circuit increases, the
(1)
4a
(2) a
current in the circuit first increases, attains a
π+4 π+4

(3) 4
(4) 3a maximum value and then decreases.
π+3 π+4
Statement II: In a series LCR circuit, the value of
Q9 A solid non-conducting sphere of radius R has a power factor at resonance is one.
uniform distribution of electric charge in its choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:

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(1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is (3) 37.58 cm

correct. (4) 55.44 cm

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are

Q15 A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just
incorrect.
hold a block stationary against a wall. The
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
coefficient of friction between the block and the
incorrect.
wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is:
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

Q13 Match List-I (Electromagnetic wave type) with

List-II (Its association/application) and select the
correct option from the choices given below the
lists: (1) 20 N (2) 50 N
List-I List-II (3) 100 N (4) 2 N
Infrared To treat
(A) (I) Q16 The potential energy of a body is given by,
waves muscular pain
U = A – Bx2 (Where x is the displacement). The
For
(B) Radio waves (II) magnitude of force acting on the particle is:
broadcasting
(1) Constant
To detect (2) Proportional to x
(C) X-rays (III) fracture of (3) Proportional to x2
bones (4) Inversely proportional to x
Absorbed by
the ozone layer Q17 The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper
(D) Ultravoilet (IV) is 9 times that of steel. In the composite
of the
atmosphere cylindrical bar shown in the figure, what will be
the temperature at the junction of copper and
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
steel?
(2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Q14 Region I and II are separated by a spherical

surface of radius 25 cm . An object is kept in (1) 75°C (2) 67°C
region I at a distance of 40 cm from the surface. (3) 25°C (4) 33°C
The distance of the image from the surface is:
Q18 A solid material is supplied with heat at a
constant rate. The temperature of material is
changing with heat input as shown in the figure.
What does slope DE represent?

(1) 9.52 cm

(2) 18.23 cm

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(1) Latent heat of liquid

(2) Latent heat of vapour
(3) Heat capacity of vapour
(4) Inverse of heat capacity of vapour

Q19 The diagram shows a force - extension graph for A positive charge is moved from A to B in each
a rubber band. Consider the following diagram.
statements: (1) In all the four cases the work done is the
I. It will be easier to compress this rubber than same.
expand it. (2) Minimum work is required to move q in figure
II. Rubber does not return to its original length (I).
after it is stretched. (3) Maximum work is required to move q in figure
III. The rubber band will get heated if it is (II).
stretched and released. (4) Maximum work is required to move q in figure
(III).

Q23 When an independent positive charge moves

from higher potential to lower potential, then
match the entries of List-I with List-II:

Which of these can be deduced from the graph?

(1) III only (2) II and III
(3) I and III (4) I only
Choose the correct answer from the options
Q20 There is a hole of area A at the bottom of given below:
cylindrical vessel. Water is filled up to a height h (1) A-III, B-II, C-I
and water flows out in t second. If water is filled (2) A-II, B-III, C-I
to a height 4h, it will flow out in time equal to: (3) A-III, B-I, C-II
(1) t (2) 4t (4) C-I, B-II, C-III
(3) 2t (4) t/4
Q24 A galvanometer of 100 Ω resistance gives full
Q21 What is the effective capacitance between points scale deflection when 10 mA of current is passed.
X and Y? To convert it into 10 A range ammeter, the
resistance of the shunt required will be:
(1) 10Ω (2) 1Ω
(3) 0.1Ω (4) 0.01Ω

Q25 Relative permittivity and permeability of a

(1) 12 µF (2) 18 µF material are εr and µr, respectively. Which of the
(3) 24 µF (4) 6 µF
following values of these quantities, are allowed
Q22 The diagrams below show regions of for a diamagnetic material?

equipotentials; (1) εr = 1.5, μ r = 0.5

(2) εr = 0. 5, μ r = 0.5

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(3) εr = 1.5, μ r = 1.5 moment of Inertia about their diameter axis AB

−
−
(4) εr = 0. 5, μ r = 1.5
as shown in figure is √ x . The value of x is:
8

Q26 A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of

2 × 104 JT–1 is free to rotate in a horizontal plane.
A horizontal magnetic field B = 6 x 10–4 T exists in
the space. The work done in taking the magnet
slowly from a direction parallel to the field to a
direction 60° from the field is:
(1) 12J (2) 6J
(3) 2J (4) 0.6J (1) 17 (2) 34
(3) 67 (4) 51
Q27 If ∈ o is the permittivity of free space and E is the
electric field, then ∈o E2 has the dimensions: Q31 For the two adiabatics shown on a pressure-
volume (P – V) diagram, if process 1 is for oxygen
(1) [MoL–2 T A]
(2) [M L–1 T–2] gas, then process 2 may be for (Assume all gases
are ideal):
(3) [M–1 L–3 T4 A2]
(4) [M L2 T–2]

Q28 Least count of a vernier caliper is 1

20N
cm. The
value of one division on the main scale is 1 mm.
(1) N2 (2) CO2
Then the number of divisions of main scale that
(3) He (4) O3
coincide with N divisions of vernier scale is:
(1) ( 2N−1 ) (2) (2N – 1) Q32 The variation of pressure P with volume V for an
2N
ideal diatomic gas is parabolic as shown in the
(3) ( 2N−1 ) (4) ( 2N−1 )
2 20N figure. The molar specific heat of the gas during
this process is:
Q29 Given below are two statements :
Statement I: The mean free path of gas
molecules is inversely proportional to square of
molecular diameter.
Statement II: Average kinetic energy of gas
(1) (2)
9R 17R

molecules is directly proportional to absolute 5 6

(3) (4)
3R 8R

temperature of gas. 4 5

In the light of the above statements, choose the

Q33 The equation of trajectory of a projectile is
correct answer from the options given below :
, where x is in meter. The
5 2
y = 10x − x
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 9

maximum height of the projectile will be:

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(1) 45 m (2) 90 m
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) 30 m (4) 60 m
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Q34 Two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is located
Q30 Ratio of radius of gyration of a hollow sphere to
1 m away from the slits. A light of wavelength
that of a solid cylinder of equal mass, for
500 nm is used. The width of each slit to obtain

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10 maxima of the double slit pattern within the

central maximum of the single slit pattern is
__________ × 10–4 m.
(1) 8 (2) 2
(3) 9 (4) 4
(1) 6 A (2) 4 A
Q35 The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is (3) 1 A (4) 2 A
→
given by E =
ˆ
i 40 cos (
ω t −
z
/c ) NC–1. The
Q39 Two straight infinitely long and thin parallel wires
magnetic field induction of this wave is (in S.I.
are spaced 10 cm apart and carry a current of 1A
unit) :
→
each. What is magnetic field at a point distance
(1) z
ˆ
B = j 40 cos ω (t −
c
) 10 cm from both wires when current flowing are
→
(2) ˆ 40 z in opposite direction?
B = k cos ω (t − )
c c

(3) →
40 z
B = î cos ω (t − )
c c

(4) →
40 z
(1) 2 × 10−6 T
ˆ
B = j cos ω (t − ) –
(2)
−6
c c 4√3 × 10 T
–
(3) 2√3 × 10
−5
Q36 The value of net resistance of the network as T
–
shown in the given figure is: (4) 6√2 × 10
−5
T

Q40 The linear charge density on the semi-circular

ring in magnitude is same. The electric field at
the centre is:

(1) (5/2) Ω
(2) (30/11) Ω
(3) (15/4) Ω
(4) 6 Ω
(1) Along +x-axis
Q37 Which of the following nuclear fragments (2) Along –x-axis
corresponding to nuclear fission between (3) Along +y-axis
neutron 1
( n)
0
and uranium isotope (
235
92
U) is (4) Along –y-axis
correct.
Q41 Hydrogen atom from excited state comes to the
(1) 144 Ba +
89
Kr + 3 n
1

56 36 0
ground state by emitting a photon of wavelength
(2) 144 Ba +
89
Kr + 4 n
1

56 36 0
λ. The value of principal quantum number 'n' of
(3) 153 Sb +
99
Nb + 3 n
1

51 41 0
the excited state will be : (R : Rydberg constant)
(4) 140 Xe +
94
Sr + 3 n
1
−−−
56 38 0
(1) √ λR

λ−1

Q38 Consider the circuit as shown in the following −−−−

(2) √ λR

figure. The current through the resistor marked λR−1

−−−−
R1 immediately after closing the switch is: (3) √ λ

λR−1

−−− −
(4) √ 2
λR

λR−1

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Q42 A ball is hit by a batsman at an angle of 37° as (3) tan−1 (

tan α
)
e

shown in figure. The man standing at P should (4)

run at what minimum velocity so that he catches
the ball before it strikes the ground. Assume that
height of man is negligible in comparison to Q46 Concentrated nitric acid is labelled as 75% by
maximum height of projectile. mass. What is the volume in mL of the solution
which contains 30 g of nitric acid?
Given: Density of nitric acid solution is 1.25 g/mL.
(1) 32 (2) 40
(3) 55 (4) 45

(1) 3 ms–1 Q47 An aqueous solution of ethanol contains 23g of

(2) 5 ms–1 ethanol dissolved in 90g of water. Find mole
(3) 9 ms–1 fraction of ethanol in the solution.
(4) 12 ms–1 (1) 3
(2) 3

4 5

(3) 2
(4) 1

Q43 If ar and at represents radial and tangential 7 11

accelerations, the motion of a particle will be Q48 What is the product (P) in the given reaction?
uniformly circular if:
(1) ar = 0 and at = 0
(2) ar = 0 but at ≠ 0
(3) ar ≠ 0 but at = 0
(4) ar ≠ 0 and at ≠ 0
(1)
Q44 Under the action of a force, a 1 kg body moves,
such that its position x as a function of time t is
3

given by , where x is in meter and t is in

t
x =
2

second. The work done by the force in first (2)

3 second is:
(1) 243 J (2) 2430 J
(3) 729
J (4) 24.3 J (3)
8

Q45 A ball of mass m hits a floor with a speed v

making an angle α with the normal N. The
coefficient of restitution is e. The angle made by
reflected ball with normal is: (4)

Q49 Given below are two statements: one is labelled

as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
(1) cot−1 (e cos α)
Reason R.
(2) tan−1 (cot α)

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Assertion (A): Cyclooctatetraene is anti-aromatic What is the function of BaSO4 in Rosenmund

in nature. reaction?
Reason (R): Cyclooctatetraene is non-planar in (1) To stop further oxidation of aldehyde.
nature. (2) To stop further reduction of aldehyde.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) Act as a promoter catalyst.
correct answer from the options given below. (4) It increases the reactivity of Pd.
(1) A is true but R is false.
Q55 Given below are two statements: one is labelled
(2) A is false but R is true.
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Reason R.
explanation of A.
Assertion (A): The outer electronic configuration
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
of Cr and Cu are 3d5 4s1 and 3d10 4s1
explanation of A.
respectively.
Q50 The limiting molar conductivities Λ° for NaCl, Reason (R): Electrons are filled in orbitals in
KBr and KCI are 126, 152 and 150 S cm2 mol–1 order of increasing energies given by (n + l) rule.
respectively. The Λ° for NaBr is: In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) 278 S cm2 mol–1 correct answer from the options given below.
2 –1
(2) 176 S cm mol (1) A is true but R is false.
2 –1
(3) 128 S cm mol (2) A is false but R is true.
(4) 302 S cm2 mol–1 (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
Q51 In compound X, all the bond angles are exactly
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
109°28', X is;
explanation of A.
(1) Chloromethane
(2) Iodoform Q56 For a reaction Ea = 0 and k = 3.2 × 104 s–1 at 300
(3) Carbon tetrachloride K. The value of k at 310 K would be:
(4) Chloroform (1) 6.4 × 104 s–1
(2) 3.2 × 104 s–1
Q52 For the reaction: H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g), the rate
(3) 3.2 × 108 s–1
of disappearance of H2 is 1.0 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1.
(4) 3.2 × 105 s–1
The rate of appearance of HI will be:
(1) 1.0 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1 Q57 How many times the solubility of CaF2 is
(2) 0.50 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1 decreased in 4 × 10–3 M-KF(aq) solution as
(3) 2.0 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1 compared to pure water at 25°C.
(4) 4.0 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1 Given: Ksp (CaF2) = 3.2 × 10–11
(1) 50 (2) 100
Q53
(3) 500 (4) 1000

Q58 In the following sequence of reactions:

Above conversion can be done by:
KMnO4 SOCl 2 H2 / Pd

(1) NaBH4 (2) LiAlH4 Toluene −−−→ A −−→ B −−−→ C

BaSO 4

(3) PCC (4) KMnO4

The product (C) is:
Q54 (1) C6H5CH2OH (2) C6H5CHO

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(3) C6H5COOH (4) C6H5CH3 5 gm of solute is

(B) 10% w/w (II) dissolved in 100
Q59 The Ist , IInd, IIIrd, IVth and Vth ionisation energy of
mL of solution.
an element are 7.1, 14.3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2 eV
10 gm of solute is
respectively. The element is likely to be:
(C) 10% V/V (III) dissolved in 100
(1) Na (2) Si
gm of solution.
(3) F (4) Ca
10 mL of solute is
Q60 (D) 5% V/V (IV) dissolved in 100
mL of solution.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
The major product (A) is;
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(1)
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Q63 What is the empirical formula of the compound

(2)
which has the following percentage composition:
Carbon 80%, Hydrogen 20%. If the molecular
(3) mass is 30, then also calculate molecular
formula.
(1) CH3, C2H6
(4) (2) C2H2, CH3
(3) C2H6, CH3
(4) CO3, CH3

Q61 The correct order of decreasing ionic nature of Q64 The reason for double helical structure of DNA is
lead dihalides is: the operation of:
(1) PbF2 > PbCl2 > PbBr2 > PbI2 (1) Electrostatic attractions
(2) PbF2 > PbBr2 > PbCl2 > PbI2 (2) Vander Waal’s forces
(3) PbF2 < PbCl2 > PbBr2 < PbI2 (3) Dipole-dipole interactions
(4) PbI2 > PbBr2 > PbCl2 < PbF2 (4) Hydrogen bonding

Q62 Match List-I with List-II. Q65 The species which do not undergo
List-II disproportionation reaction is;
List-I
(Meaning of (1) ClO–4 (2) ClO–3
(Concentration of
concentration of (3) ClO– (4) ClO–2
solution)
solution)
Q66 Which of the following alkyne do not give Birch
5 mL of solute is
reduction?
(A) 5% w/V (I) present in 100 mL
(1) CH3 – C ≡ C– CH3
of solution.
(2) CH3 – C ≡ C– C2 H5

(3) CH3 – C ≡ C– H

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(4) C2 H5 – C ≡ C– C2 H5 (I) Linear - H2O, SO2

(II) V-shaped - H2O, NO2
Q67 The standard reduction potential for Li+/Li,
(III) See Saw – SF4, SF2Cl2
Zn2+/Zn, H+/H2 and Ag+/Ag is –3.05, –0.762, 0.00
(IV) T-shaped - ClF3, BrF3
and + 0.80 V. Which of the following has highest
(1) Only (I)
reducing capacity:
(2) Both (I) and (II)
(1) Ag (2) H2
(3) Only (III)
(3) Zn (4) Li
(4) Both (III) and (IV)
Q68 The value of Kp for the equilibrium
Q72 Which of the following is the pair of maximum
NH4HS(s) ⇌ NH3(g) + H2S(g) at a certain
and minimum Lewis acid Character respectively?
temperature and total 2 atm pressure at
(1) BF3, BI3 (2) BCl3, BF3
equilibrium will be:
(3) BI3, BF3 (4) BBr3, BI3
(1) 0.25 atm2 (2) 1.0 atm2
(3) 4.0 atm2 (4) 2.0 atm2 Q73 Match List-I with List-II.
List-II (Type of
Q69 The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) and List-I (Reactions)
reactions)
the spin only magnetic moment in Bohr
magneton (BM) for the complex K3[Fe(CN)6]
Nucleophilic
respectively, are:
−− (A) (I) aromatic
(1) 0. 0Δ0 and √35 BM
– substitution
(2) −2. 0Δ0 and √3 BM
−−
(3) −0. 4Δ0 and √24 BM
(4) −2. 4Δ0 and 0.0 BM Electrophilic
(B) (II) substitution
Q70 Given below are two statements. reaction
Statement I: In the presence of alkaline KMnO4
4-Methylacetophenone is oxidised to benzoic
Saytzeff
acid. (C) (III)
elimination
Statement II: Keto group is oxidised to –CHO
group.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Nucleophilic
most appropriate answer from the options given (D) (IV)
substitution (SN1)
below.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect. Choose the correct answer from the options
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is given below.
correct. (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
incorrect. (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Q71 Incorrect matching amongst the following is: Q74

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If a reaction involves only solids and liquids,

which of the following is true:
(1) ΔΗ < ΔΕ
(2) ΔΗ = ΔΕ
(3) ΔΗ > ΔΕ (1)
(4) ΔΗ = ΔΕ + RTΔng

Q75 In a reaction, the threshold energy is equal to:

(1) activation energy + normal energy of (2)
reactants
(2) activation energy – normal energy of
reactants
(3) normal energy of reactants – activation (3)
energy
(4) average kinetic energy of molecules of
reactants

Q76 Number of oxygen atoms present in chemical

(4)
formula of fuming sulphuric acid is:
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 7 (4) 8

Q77 Given below are two statements: one is labelled

as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Q79
Reason R.
Assertion (A): When a chlorine atom becomes
chloride ion, its size decreases.
The major product B is:
Reason (R): In comparison to the parent atom,
(1) Benzene (2) Aniline
the size of the cation is smaller but anion is
(3) Nitro-benzene (4) Cyclo hexane
larger.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Q80 Given below are two statements: one is labelled
correct answer from the options given below. as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
(1) A is true but R is false. Reason R.
(2) A is false but R is true. Assertion (A): In CrO5, oxidation number of Cr is
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct +6.
explanation of A. Reason (R): CrO5 has butterfly structure in which
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct one peroxide bond is present.
explanation of A. above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below.
Q78 Identify the final product.
(1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.

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(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct Statement-II : As electronegativity of the central
explanation of A. atom increases, bond angle decreases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Q81 With F highest stable oxidation state of Mn is:
most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) +6 (2) +4
below.
(3) +7 (4) +3
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
Q82 Which of the following reagents can not incorrect.
distinguish between glucose and fructose? (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) Tollen’s reagent correct.
(2) Fehling’s reagent (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(3) Benedict’ solution (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) All of these incorrect.

Q83 The Uncertainty in the momentum of an electron Q86 The major product (B) of the following reaction
is 1.0 × 10 –5 –1
kg ms . The Uncertainty in its is:
position will be: (h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js)
(i) DI BAL−H CH3 MgBr

R– C ≡ N −−−−−−−→ A −−−−−→ B
(1) 1.05 × 10–28 m
+
(ii) H2 O H /H2 O

(2) 1.05 × 10–26 m (1) R – CHOH – CH3

(3) 5.27 × 10–30 m (2) RCONH2
(4) 5.25 × 10–28 m (3) RCOOH
(4) RCH2NH2
Q84 Match List-I with List-II.
List-II (Major Q87 Calculate w for the isothermal reversible
List-I (Reaction) expansion of 1 mol of an ideal gas from an initial
Product)
AlCl 3
pressure of 1.0 bar to a final pressure of 0.1 bar at
(A) Benzene + Cl2 −−→ (I) Benzoic acid
a constant temperature of 273 K:
Benzene + Methylphenyl (1) –5227.2 J
(B) (II)
CH3 Cl −−→
AlCl 3
ketone (2) +5227.2 J
(3) –2257 J
Benzene +
(C) AlCl 3
(III) Toluene (4) +2257 J
CH3 COCl −−→

Q88 The correct order of ligand field strength is:

(D) Toluene −−−−−−−−→ (IV) Chlorobenzene
KMnO4 / NaOH

(1) H2O < Cl– < CO < NH3

Choose the correct answer from the options (2) CO < NH3 < Cl– < H2O
given below. (3) H2O < CO < NH3 < Cl–
(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (4) Cl– < H2O < NH3 < CO
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV Q89 In the dichromate dianion;
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (1) Four Cr–O bonds are equivalent.
(2) Six Cr–O bonds are equivalent.
Q85 Given below are two statements. (3) All Cr–O bonds are equivalent.
Statement-I : Bond angle of H2S is smaller than (4) All Cr–O bonds are non-equivalent.
H2O.

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Q90 Match List-I with List-II. Q94 Read the following statements and select how
List-II many is/are incorrect?
List-I
(Characteristic of A. Conjoint type of vascular bundles is seen in
(Reaction of glucose)
glucose molecule) leaves.
B. Trichomes are found in stem and help in
Presence of
(A) (I) preventing water loss due to transpiration.
carbonyl group.
C. Epidermis is usually multilayered in dicot root.
Presence of D. The cells of epidermis in root bear a number of
(B) (II)
aldehydic group. unicellular hairs.
All six carbon Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(C) (III) atoms are linked in options given below:

a straight chain. (1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four
Presence of five –
(D) (IV)
OH groups. Q95 In a monocot seed, the plumule and radicle are
enclosed in sheaths which are called ___A___
Choose the correct answer from the options
and ___B___ respectively. Identify A and B
given below.
respectively.
(1) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
(1) A-coleoptile, B-coleorhiza
(2) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(2) A-coleorhiza, B-coleoptile
(3) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
(3) A-aleurone layer, B-scutellum
(4) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
(4) A-scutellum, B-aleurone layer
Q91 Identify correct about binomial nomenclature.
Q96 The process by which seedless fruits are
(1) Name of the author appears before the
produced is known as:
specific epithet.
(1) embryogeny. (2) parthenocarpy.
(2) Both genus and specific epithet are printed in
(3) apomixis. (4) polyembrony.
italics.
(3) In specific epithet first letter starts with Q97 Read the following function of the plant growth
capital. regulator(PGR) and select the correct option for
(4) First word represents the specific epithet and I, II and III?
second component denotes the genus. I. Bolting in a rosette plant
II. Promote seed dormancy
Q92 Select the correct option for genera that belong
III. Flowering in mango tree
to the same class of algae?
(1) I - Gibberellins, II - Abscisic acid and III -
(1) Sargassum, Laminaria and Gelidium
Cytokinin
(2) Ectocarpus, Dictyota and Laminaria
(2) I - Auxin, II - Cytokinin and III - Ethylene
(3) Porphyra, Ectocarpus and Chara
(3) I - Auxin, II - Cytokinin and III - Gibberellins
(4) Chara, Fucus and Polysiphonia
(4) I - Gibberellins, II - Abscisic acid and III -
Q93 Actinomorphic symmetry is present in the Ethylene
flowers of all except:
Q98 Select the incorrectly matched pair from the
(1) chilli. (2) mustard.
following.
(3) pea. (4) Datura.

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(1) Zeatin - Isolated from corn kernels and Choose the correct answer from the option given
coconut milk below.
(2) Abscisic acid - Isolated from ripened oranges (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) Gibberellins - Isolated from fungus Gibberella (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
fujikuroi (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) Auxin - Isolated from human urine (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Q99 Telophase II in meiosis ends with the formation Q102 Which of the given algae has stored food which
of: is very similar to amylopectin and glycogen in
(1) tetrad of haploid cells. structure?
(2) tetrad of diploid cells. (1) Chara (2) Volvox
(3) dyad of diploid cells. (3) Fucus (4) Porphyra
(4) dyad of haploid cells.
Q103 Match List-I with List-II.
Q100 Given below are two statements: one is labelled List-I List-II
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Terminalisation of
Reason R: (A) Pachytene (I)
chiasmata
Assertion A: The specific epithet of lion is written Crossing over and
as leo. (B) Diakinesis (II)
recombination
Reason R: Lion belongs to Canidae family.
Chromosome
In the light of the above statements, choose the (C) Leptotene (III)
synapsis
correct answer from the options given below:
Gradual visibility of
(1) A is true but R is false.
(D) Zygotene (IV) chromosomes under
(2) A is false but R is true.
light microscope
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Choose the correct answer from the options
explanation of A.
given below:
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
explanation of A.
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Q101 Match List-I with List-II. (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
List-I List-II (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Golgi Ribosomal
(A) (I) Q104 If there is only one PMC in a microsporangium
apparatus RNA
then the total number of male gametes
Form produced by it is:
(B) Nucleolus (II) glycoproteins
(1) four. (2) two.
and glycolipids
(3) eight. (4) six.
Helps in
(C) Cilia (III) osmoregulation Q105 Genetic material found in the following organism
and excretion is:

Contractile
(D) (IV) Microtubules
vacuole

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(1) Entamoeba – Protozoa

(2) Nostoc – Cyanobacteria
(3) Colletotrichum – Chrysophytes
(4) Gonyaulax – Dinoflagellates

Q111 Read the following processes given below and

choose the correct option where Coenzyme A is
required as substrate.
A. Glycolysis
B. Lactic acid fermentation
(1) DNA only. C. Krebs’ cycle
(2) RNA only. D. Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate
(3) protein only. Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(4) DNA,RNA and protein. options given below:
(1) C and D only (2) B only
Q106 Identify the correctly matched pair from the
(3) C only (4) A and C only
following in C4 plants.
(1) Bundle sheath cells-RuBisCO present Q112 Match List-I with List-II.
(2) Mesophyll cells-PEPcase absent List-I List-II
(3) Mesophyll cells- RuBisCO present Polygenic
(4) Bundle sheath cells-PEPcase present (A) (I) Down’s syndrome
inheritance

Q107 In the respiratory pathway glycerol would enter Sex-linked recessive

(B) (II) Phenylketonuria
after being converted to: trait
(1) 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL). Inborn error of
(C) (III) Colour blindness
(2) 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate (BPGA). metabolism
(3) phosphoenolpyruvate. Additional copy of Skin colour in
(D) (IV)
(4) acetyl CoA. 21 chromosome humans
Choose the correct answer from the options
Q108 Using a prism T.W. Engelmann split light into its
given below:
spectral components and then illuminated a :
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(1) mint plant.
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) green alga.
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) purple bacteria.
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) green sulphur bacteria.
Q113 Match the List-I with List-II.
Q109 In angiosperms the ovules:
List-I List-II
(1) contain microsporangium.
(2) may be either one or many in each ovary. Francois
(3) lack nucellus in seeds of beet. Jacob and DNA
(A) (I)
(4) has integument at microplylar end. Jacque fingerprinting
Monod
Q110 Which of the following pair is incorrectly Alec
matched? (B) (II) lac operon
Jeffreys

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Proposed Herbivores
(A) (I) Commensalism
Frederick double helical and plants
(C) (III)
Griffith structure for (B) Mycorrhiza (II) Mutualism
DNA Flamingoes
(C) (III) Predation
James and fishes
Watson Orchid and
Transforming (D) (IV) Competition
(D) and (IV) mango tree
principle
Francis
Choose the correct answer from the options
Crick
given below:
Choose the correct answer from the option given (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
below: (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II Q117 The human liver fluke a trematode parasite
depends on two intermediate hosts ___A___ and
Q114 Given below are two statements: ____B___ to complete its cycle.Identify A and B
Statement-I: The strand of DNA which does not respectively.
code for anything is referred to as coding strand. (1) A - human, B - snail
Statement-II: The promoter and terminator flank (2) A - fish, B - human
the structural gene in a transcription unit. (3) A - snail, B - fish
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) A - snail, B – mosquito
most appropriate answer from the options given
below: Q118 The rate of biomass production is expressed in
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is terms of:
incorrect. (1) kcal m.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (2) kcal m–2 yr.
correct. (3) g m–2.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) g m–2 yr–1.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Q119 Select the incorrect match from the following.
incorrect.
(1) Polysome- mRNA to protein
Q115 Among the traits studied by Mendel in pea (2) Plasmid- Antibiotic resistance
plants, which one was not included? (3) Centriole - Spindle fibre
(1) Pod shape and pod colour. (4) Fimbriae- Locomotion
(2) Height of plant and flower position.
Q120 A typical bacterial cell lacks which of the
(3) Seed shape and seed colour.
following?
(4) Flower shape and leaf colour.
A. Cell wall
Q116 Match List-I with List-II. B. Cilia.
List-I List-II C. Flagella.
D. Circular DNA
E. 70S ribosomes.

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Choose the most appropriate answer from the In the light of the above statements, choose the
options given below: correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and E only (1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A and C only (2) A is false but R is true.
(3) B only (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(4) B and D only explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
Q121 Choose the false statement concerning energy
explanation of A.
flow in grazing food chain (GFC) and Detritus
food chain (DFC). Q124 All of the following processes are involved in the
(1) GFC is major conduit for energy flow in secondary treatment of sewage except:
aquatic ecosystem. (1) aerobic digestion of organic matter.
(2) In DFC first trophic level is formed by (2) BOD reduction and biogas formation.
producers. (3) sequential filtration and sedimentation.
(3) Much larger fraction of energy flows through (4) anaerobic digestion of bacteria and fungi.
DFC in terrestrial ecosystem.
Q125 Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(4) DFC may be interconnected with GFC.
(1) In agriculture, there is a method of controlling
Q122 Match List-I with List-II. pests that relies on natural predation rather
List-I List-II than introduced chemicals.
Clostridium (2) A key belief of the organic farmer is that
(A) Cyclosporin A (I) biodiversity furthers health.
butylicum
(B) Statin (II) Streptococcus (3) Biofertiliser refers to the use of biological
methods for controlling plant diseases and
(C) Streptokinase (III) Monascus purpureus
pests.
Trichoderma
(D) Butyric acid (IV) (4) The use of biocontrol measures greatly reduce
polysporum
our dependence on toxic chemicals and
Choose the correct answer from the options
pesticides.
given below:
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV Q126 According to Rivet Popper Hypothesis, which of
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I the following is not comparable?
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (1) Safety of flight- Stability of ecosystem
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) Rivets- Species
(3) Airplane- Ecosystem
Q123 Given below are two statements: one is labelled
(4) Popping of rivets- Origin of species
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R: Q127 Which of the following is correct for Photosystem
Assertion A: When alien species are introduced II?
unintentionally some of them cause extinction of (1) It is not associated with splitting of water.
indigenous species. (2) It is found in membrane or lamellae of the
Reason R: Introduction of Clarias gariepinus in grana lamellae only.
Indian rivers has led to a decline in native Indian (3) It is involved in both cyclic and non-cyclic
plants. flow of electron.

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(4) It is found on the outer surface of the the metaxylem lies towards the periphery of
thylakoids. the organ.
(4) only metaxylem is present and no protoxylem
Q128 In the process of translation, the order and
is found.
sequence of amino acids are defined by the:
(1) sequence of bases in the mRNA. Q134 Under what condition is a fruit classified as a true
(2) sequence of bases in the rRNA. fruit?
(3) sequence of bases in the tRNA. (1) If ovary of the flower develops into fruit.
(4) sequence of bases in the UTRs. (2) When calyx of the flower develops into fruit.
(3) When thalamus of the flower develops into
Q129 The major pigments found in brown algae are:
fruit.
(1) r-phycoerythrin.
(4) If all floral whorls of the flower develops into
(2) chlorophyll a and b.
fruit.
(3) chlorophyll a, c and fucoxanthin.
(4) chlorophyll b, d and carotenoids. Q135 Select the correct statement/s w.r.t. primary
productivity.
Q130 The region of the stem where leaves are born are
A. It depends on the plant species inhabiting a
called:
particular area.
(1) nodes. (2) internodes.
B. It depends on photosynthetic capacity of
(3) terminal buds. (4) axillary buds.
plants.
Q131 Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t dicot leaf. C. It is same in all types of ecosystems.
(1) Mesophyll is differentiated into palisade and D. For a natural ecosystem it depends upon
spongy parenchyma. availability of nutrients in soil.
(2) Mesophyll which possesses chloroplasts carry Choose the most appropriate answer from the
out photosynthesis. options given below:
(3) The size of the vascular bundles are (1) A and B only
independent of the size of the veins. (2) A, B and D only
(4) The vascular system includes vascular bundles (3) B, C and D only
which can be seen in the veins and the midrib. (4) C and D only

Q132 Who observed that within a region, species Q136 Read the given statements carefully.
richness increased with increasing explored area A. Their mouth is usually ventral.
but only upto a limit? B. They have four gill pairs covered by an
(1) Paul Ehrlich operculum.
(2) David Tilman C. Their skin is covered with placoid scales.
(3) Alexander von Humboldt D. They possess an air bladder for buoyancy.
(4) Edward Wilson Choose statements which stand correct for
Osteichthyes.
Q133 In transverse section of root of flowering plants: (1) A and B only (2) B only
(1) the protoxylem lies towards the pith. (3) B and D only (4) C only
(2) arrangement of primary xylem is called
exarch type. Q137 Which of the following statement is/are correct
(3) regarding frog?

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A. The colour of ventral side of body is dark In an experiment, a researcher uses two different
green. restriction enzymes to cut a plasmid and a
B. Membranous tympanum receives sound foreign DNA fragment. What will happen if these
signals. enzymes generate non-complementary sticky
C. It exhibit sexual dimorphism. ends?
D. Neck and tail are absent. (1) The fragments will not ligate properly.
(1) A, B and C only (2) DNA ligase will still join the fragments.
(2) B, C and D only (3) The fragments will randomly join and form
(3) A, C and D only recombinant DNA.
(4) A, B, C and D (4) The restriction enzyme will correct the
mismatched ends.
Q138 Which of the following statements is correct
regarding function of labelled part X in the given Q141 A 16-year-old male exhibits signs of delayed
diagram? puberty and underdeveloped testes. Laboratory
results show decreased levels of luteinizing
hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone
(FSH). Which condition is the most probable
cause of these findings?
(1) Primary testicular failure
(2) Hypothalamic dysfunction
(3) Progesterone deficiency
(4) Sertoli cell dysfunction
(1) It stores and nourishes sperm until ejaculation.
(2) It transports sperm from the rete testis to the Q142 Which of the following blood cells can cause
epididymis. clotting disorder if found in a reduced number?
(3) It secretes seminal fluid to provide nutrition to (1) Erythrocytes (2) Leucocytes
sperm. (3) Neutrophils (4) Thrombocytes
(4) It is responsible for sperm production within
Q143 Match List-I with List-II.
the testes.
List-I List-II
Q139 Which of the given techniques are used in early (A) Non-medicated IUD (I) Multiload 375
detection of a disease in our body?
(B) Copper-releasing IUD (II) LNG-20
A. Recombinant DNA technology
Hormone-releasing Creams, jellies,
B. Serum analysis (C) (III)
IUD foams
C. Urine analysis
(D) Spermicidal agents (IV) Lippes Loop
D. PCR
E. ELISA Choose the correct answer from the options

(1) A and B only given below:

(2) B and C only (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(3) A, D and E only (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) C and D only
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Q140

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Q144 Given below are two statements: (1) Composed only of prostate gland secretions.
Statement I: Jawless fish probably evolved (2) Sperms and seminal plasma.
around 350 mya. (3) Contains sperm along with testosterone.
Statement II: Homo erectus had a large brain (4) Includes only sperms.
around 900cc.
Q149 Read following statements about human
In the light of the above statements, choose the
evolution.
most appropriate answer from the options given
A. Australopithecines probably lived in East
below:
African grasslands.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
B. Ramapithecus was more ape like.
incorrect.
C. Neanderthal man hunted with stone weapons
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
but essentially ate fruit.
correct.
D. Homo erectus used hides to protect their
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
body and buried their dead.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
E. During ice age between 75,000-10,000 years
incorrect.
ago modern Homo sapiens arose.
Q145 Which of the following statements about the Select the correct statements:
occurrence of the notochord is incorrect? (1) A and D only
(1) It is present in larval tail of Ascidia. (2) A and E only
(2) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult (3) B, C and D only
frog. (4) A, B, and C only
(3) It is absent throughout life of Macropus from
Q150 Given below are two statements: one is labelled
the very beginning.
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
(4) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus.
Reason R:
Q146 Which of the following conditions promote CO2 Assertion A: Mechanisms of breathing is same
to bind with haemoglobin in tissues? among different groups of animals.
(1) High pCO2 and low pO2 Reason R: Mechanisms of breathing depends
(2) Low pCO2 and high pO2 mainly on their habitats and levels of
(3) Low pCO2 and low pO2 organisation of animals.
(4) High pCO2 and high pO2 In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
Q147 Thymus gland secretes a peptide hormone called
(1) A is true but R is false.
___X___ which play a major role in differentiation
(2) A is false but R is true.
of T-lymphocytes.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.
explanation of A.
(1) Thymine
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(2) Thymosins
explanation of A.
(3) TSH
(4) Thyrocalcitonin Q151 Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
Q148 Which of the following option accurately
(A) Echinus (I) Sea lily
describes the composition of semen?

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(B) Antedon (II) Brittle star (1) Addison’s disease

(C) Cucumaria (III) Sea urchin (2) Cretinism

(D) Ophiura (IV) Sea cucumber (3) Graves’ disease

(4) Acromegaly
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below: Q155 Which of the following statements are not true
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II about human skull?
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (1) It is dicondylic.
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) Hyoid is included in skull bones.
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (3) It includes 8 facial bones.
(4) It includes 6 ear ossicles.
Q152 Five events in the transmission of nerve impulse
across the synapse are given. In which sequence Q156 The correct order of chemical composition of
do these events occur? living tissues/cells in terms of percentage of the
A. Opening of specific ion channels allows the total cellular mass is;
entry of ions, a new action potential is generated (1) Nucleic acid > Protein > Water > Carbohydrate
in the post synaptic neuron. > Ions > Lipids
B. Neurotransmitter binds to the receptor on (2) Water > Protein > Nucleic acid > Carbohydrate
post synaptic membrane. > Lipids > Ions
C. Synaptic vesicle fuses with pre-synaptic (3) Water > Protein > Carbohydrate > Nucleic acid
membrane, neurotransmitter releases into > Lipids > Ions
synaptic cleft. (4) Lipids > Ions > Carbohydrate > Water > Protein
D. Depolarisation of pre-synaptic membrane. > Nucleic acid
E. Arrival of action potential at axon terminal.
(1) E → D → C → B → A Q157 Grey matter of the brain is:
(2) A → B → C → D → E A. present outside the white matter.
(3) A → B → D → C → E B. contain medullated nerve fibres.
(4) E → D → C → A → B C. grey in colour.
D. contains cell bodies of nerve fibres.
Q153 What does adaptive radiation describe? Which of the statements mentioned above is/are
(1) Diversification of species from a common correct?
ancestor to adapt to various habitats. (1) A only
(2) Development of traits due to geographical (2) B only
barriers. (3) A, C and D only
(3) Migration of species across regions. (4) B, C and D only
(4) Individual adaptation to environmental
changes. Q158 A car accident results in a traumatic injury to the
brain stem of a patient. The patient experiences a
Q154 A patient presents with weight loss, increased loss of coordination and balance but maintains
basal metabolic rate, and protrusion of the normal respiratory and cardiovascular functions.
eyeballs. Laboratory tests reveal elevated levels Which specific part of the brain stem is most
of T3 and T4. Which of the following is the most likely unaffected in this case?
likely diagnosis? (1) Midbrain

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(2) Pons (2) To increase our understanding of how genes

(3) Medulla oblongata contribute to the development of diseases.
(4) Cerebellum (3) To create genetically modified animals for
agricultural purposes.
Q159 A person is suffering from pulmonary edema, a
(4) To eliminate the need for ethical approval in
condition in which fluid accumulates in the
biomedical research.
alveoli of the lungs. Based on your knowledge of
tissues, which type of epithelium is most affected Q163 Which of the given graphs, shows the effect of
in this condition? temperature on the velocity of a typical enzyme
(1) Simple squamous epithelium catalysed reaction?
(2) Ciliated columnar epithelium (1)
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(4) Stratified squamous epithelium

Q160 A patient undergoing fertility treatment is found

to have a weakened myometrium. Which of the (2)
following complications is most likely to arise
during childbirth as a result of this condition?
(1) Inability to ovulate due to hormonal
imbalances.
(3)
(2) Reduced ability to expel the baby due to
insufficient uterine contractions.
(3) Increased risk of endometrial shedding during
pregnancy.
(4) Blockage of the cervical canal, preventing the
(4)
baby from passing through.

Q161 Which of the following statements is incorrect

about transport of gases?
(1) About 97 per cent of O2 is transported by
RBCs in the blood.
Q164 Match List-I with List-II:
(2) 3 per cent of O2 is carried in a dissolved state
List-I List-II
through the plasma.
Artificial removal
(3) 20-25 per cent of CO2 is transported by RBCs (A) Glycosuria (I)
in the form of carbaminohaemoglobin. of urea from blood

(4) 70 per cent of carbon dioxide is carried in a (B) Haemodialysis (II) Kidney failure
dissolved state through plasma. Inflammation of
(C) Renal failure (III)
glomeruli
Q162 Which of the following is the primary purpose of
Presence of
creating transgenic animal models for human (D) Glomerulonephritis (IV)
glucose in urine.
diseases?
Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) To decrease our understanding towards gene
given below:
regulation.
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

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(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (3) A- Plasmodium falciparum, B- Hookworm, C-

(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III Nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (4) A- Plasmodium falciparum, B- Ringworm, C-
Nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat
Q165 Which of the following labelled part in the given
diagram undergoes spermiogenesis? Q168 In the given diagram, identify A,B and C.

(1) A - Cerebellum, B - Medulla, C-Pons

(2) A-Cerebrum, B-Medulla, C-Pons
(1) D (2) C
(3) A - Cerebrum, B - Pons, C-Olfactory lobe
(3) A (4) B
(4) A -Cerebral aqueduct, B - Cerebellum, C-
Q166 The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear Medulla
white in contrast to blue colonies of non-
Q169 A patient with kidney disease has a significantly
recombinant bacteria because:
reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR) to 50
(1) of insertional inactivation of α -galactosidase
ml/min. What is the most likely consequence?
in non-recombinant bacteria.
(1) Increased urine output
(2) of insertional inactivation of α -galactosidase
(2) Accumulation of waste products in the blood
in recombinant bacteria.
(3) Excessive loss of glucose in urine
(3) of inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in
(4) Dehydration due to excessive filtration
recombinant bacteria.
(4) non-recombinant bacteria contains β - Q170 Given below are two statements: one is labelled
galactosidase. as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Q167 Identify A, B, and C.
Assertion A: Day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
Causative is called fertile period.
Disease Symptoms
agent Reason R: During fertile period, ovulation is
Chill and high fever expected.
Malignant
A recurring every three In the light of the above statements, choose the
malaria
to four days correct answer from the options given below:
Scaly lesions on (1) A is true but R is false.
B Microsporum various parts of the (2) A is false but R is true.
body (3) Both A and R true and R is the correct
Common cold Rhino virus C explanation of A.
(1) A- Plasmodium malariae, B- Ascariasis, C- (4) Both A and R true and R is not the correct
Wheezing sound and difficulty in breathing explanation of A.
(2) A- Plasmodium vivax, B- Typhoid, C-
Q171 Select the incorrect statement.
Congestion and runny nose
(1)

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In the resting state a subunit of troponin (4) In autoimmunity diseases immune system
masks the active binding sites for actin on the attacks self-antigens.
myosin filaments.
Q176 Which one of the following biomolecules is
(2) Axial skeleton is aligned along the main axis
correctly characterised?
of the body.
(1) Lecithin - A phospholipid present in cell
(3) In human beings, skeletal system is made up
membranes
of 206 bones and a few cartilages.
(2) Palmitic acid - An unsaturated fatty acid with
(4) Fibrous joints allow no movement at all.
18 carbon atoms.
Q172 Match List-I with List-II. w.r.t cockroach. (3) Adenylic acid - Adenosine with a glucose and
List-I List-II a phosphate molecule.
(A) Spiracles (I) 2 in number (4) Glutamic acid - An aromatic amino acid.

Malpighian Q177 Which of the following statements about making

(B) (II) 10 segments
tubules bacterial cells competent for DNA uptake is
(C) Abdomen (III) 100-150 in number incorrect?
(D) Maxillae (IV) 10 pairs (1) Treatment with divalent cations, such as
Choose the correct answer from the options calcium, increases the efficiency of DNA entry
given below: through pores in the bacterial cell wall.
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) Heat shock at 42°C followed by cooling on ice
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I is a critical step for the uptake of recombinant
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III DNA by bacterial cells.
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (3) Bacterial cells can directly take up
recombinant DNA without any chemical or
Q173 Choose the incorrect match.
physical treatment.
(1) Serum → Plasma without the clotting factors
(4) The hydrophilic nature of DNA prevents it
(2) Fibrinogens → Needed for coagulation of
from passively crossing the hydrophobic cell
blood
membrane.
(3) Albumins → Help in osmotic balance
(4) Lymphocytes → Most abundant cells of the Q178 Given below are two statements: one is labelled
total WBCs as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R:
Q174 Total lung capacity - Functional residual capacity
Assertion A: The immune response mediated by
=
antibodies in the blood is called humoral
(1) Expiratory capacity
immunity.
(2) Inspiratory capacity
Reason R: Humoral immunity is primarily carried
(3) Residual volume
out by T-cells.
(4) Tidal volume
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Q175 Choose the incorrect statement. correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Tonsil is a primary lymphoid organ. (1) A is true but R is false.
(2) Spleen is a secondary lymphoid organ. (2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Allergy is hypersensitivity towards allergens. (3) Both A and R true and R is the correct
explanation of A.

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(4) Both A and R true and R is not the correct Choose the incorrect statement from the
explanation of A. following.
A. Renin converts angiotensinogen in blood to
Q179 Which of the following statements is correct in
angiotensin I and further to angiotensin II.
the context of observing DNA separated by
B. Angiotensin II, being a powerful vasodilator,
agarose gel electrophoresis?
increases the glomerular blood pressure and
(1) DNA can be seen in visible light.
thereby GFR.
(2) DNA can be seen with staining in visible light.
C. Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Cl– and
(3) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in
water from the distal parts of the tubule.
visible light.
D. The JGA plays a complex regulatory role.
(4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen
(1) B and C only
under exposure to UV light.
(2) A, B and D only
Q180 (3) C only
(4) A and D only

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