1. How does cadaveric spasm manifest in elderly people and children?

A) Does not occur

B) As usual
C) More intense than normal
D) Manifests weakly
E) Persists

2. Which characteristics should be noted during the examination of an

intact hymen?
A) Size of the opening
B) Edges
C) Free edge
D) All of the below
E) Dimensions of natural notches

4. What are the main criteria for female sexual maturity?

A) Intellectual development
B) Ability to engage in normal sexual intercourse, fertilization, pregnancy,
childbirth, and child-rearing
C) Pelvic dimensions
D) Ability to lactate
E) Absence of menstrual irregularities

5. Which injury is classified as minor trauma?

A) Femur fracture
B) Comminuted jaw fracture
C) Comminuted zygomatic bone fracture
D) Shinbone fracture
E) Wounds requiring surgical sutures

6. Which injury is life-threatening?

A) Spinal fracture
B) Abrasion on the forearm
C) Penetrating wounds of the pharynx, larynx, trachea, or esophagus
D) Concussion
E) Facial bone fractures

7. Which injury is life-threatening?

A) Closed fractures of laryngeal/tracheal cartilage with severe shock and
respiratory failure
B) Non-displaced rib fracture
C) Crushed finger injury
D) Closed, displaced shinbone fractures
E) Closed, displaced femur fracture

8. Which injury is life-threatening?

A) Phalangeal fracture
B) Open, displaced femur fracture
C) Outer table fracture of the frontal bone
D) Scapula fracture
E) Mild brain contusion

9. Which injury is life-threatening?

A) Ulnar artery injury
B) Radial artery injury
C) Popliteal artery injury
D) Peripheral vessel injury
E) Limited fracture of the outer bone layer... [text cut off]

10. Which indicates severe harm to health?

A) Complete loss of professional capacity
B) Up to 25% loss of general capacity
C) Up to 10% loss of general capacity
D) Up to 30% loss of general capacity
E) Up to 33% loss of general capacity

11. Which injury is classified as moderate harm?

A) Parietal bone fracture
B) Simple, non-displaced nasal fracture
C) Crushed-lacerated foot wound
D) Concussion
E) Zygomatic bone fracture

12. Which injury is classified as moderate harm?

A) Complete hearing loss in one ear
B) Loss of 2-3 permanent teeth
C) Subclavian artery injury
D) Skull base fracture
E) Concussion

13. What contact injury occurs from falling onto the feet from a height?
A) Comminuted calcaneal fractures
B) Transverse femur fracture
C) Avulsion and displacement of internal organs
D) Comminuted sternum fracture
E) Linear skull base fractures

14. What type of wounds are caused by blunt objects?

A) Bruised wounds
B) Saw-like wounds
C) Crushed-lacerated wounds
D) Incised wounds
E) Punctured wounds

15. Which hemorrhage is not intracranial?

A) Epidural
B) Subarachnoid
C) Subconjunctival
D) Subdural
E) Basal brain hemorrhage

16. Where can contusions occur distant from the impact site?
A) Anterior thigh
B) Posterior forearm
C) Sacral region
D) Periorbital area
E) Occipital region

17. Which question can an expert NOT answer during abrasion

examination?
A) Time of abrasion formation
B) Direction of force
C) Whether the abrasion is antemortem
D) Who caused the injury
E) Characteristics of the object causing the abrasion

18. Which sign does NOT prove an abrasion is antemortem?

A) Blood infiltration
B) Reddening around the abrasion
C) Fat embolism in limbs
D) Pinkish-red color
E) Inflammatory reaction

19. Which wound is caused by a blunt object?

A) Gunshot wound
B) Bruised wound
C) Crushed wound
D) Incised wound
E) Lacerated wound

20. What injuries occur when a vehicle runs over the body?
A) Subcutaneous forehead hematoma
B) Liver subcapsular hematoma
C) "Pocket-shaped" blood-filled wounds on the inner thigh and circular skin
peeling
D) Crushed head wound
E) Unilateral rib fractures
21. Which is NOT a blunt object?
A) Wooden plank
B) Knife
C) Iron pipe
D) Bullet
E) Brick

22. Which question can a forensic expert NOT resolve during abrasion
examination?
A) Direction of force
B) Who caused the injury and why
C) Object characteristics based on abrasion contours
D) Whether a blunt object caused it
E) Time of injury

23. Which fracture characteristic can an expert NOT determine?

A) Force applied
B) Direction of impact
C) Weapon type (firearm, blunt tool)
D) Fracture mechanism
E) Who caused the fracture

24. What does abrasion healing time NOT depend on?

A) Location
B) Age
C) Direction of force
D) Individual traits
E) Depth

25. How long do abrasions typically heal without scarring?

A) 9-11 days
B) 13-15 days
C) 3-5 days
D) 2-4 days
E) 7-9 days

26. Which is NOT a mechanical injury tool?

A) Tools
B) Objects
C) Weapons
D) Body parts
E) Chemical acids

27. Which sign indicates blunt force trauma?

A) Minimal bleeding
B) Bruised edges
C) Torn tissue fibers at wound angles
D) Smooth, non-abraded edges
E) Ragged edges with abrasions

28. Which procedure can an expert NOT perform during autopsy?

A) Sawing skull bones
B) Separating soft tissues
C) Internal organ examination
D) Anatomical dissection
E) Organ removal

29. When is spinal examination performed?

A) Suspected air embolism
B) Cervical vertebra fractures
C) Falls from height
D) Cervical dislocations
E) Spinal cord injury

31. Which is NOT a terminal stage?

A) Predagonal state
B) Terminal pause
C) Biological death
D) Agony
E) Clinical death

32. Which is NOT a relative sign of death?

A) Absent corneal reflex
B) Beloglazov sign (cat’s eye phenomenon)
C) Immobility
D) Loss of consciousness
E) Pupillary light reflex absence

33. What is NOT a forensic significance of mummification?

A) Identifying the cause of death
B) Estimating time of death
C) Indicating burial environment
D) Sometimes revealing cause of death
E) Aiding victim identification

34. Which tissue is NOT sampled for diatom testing in drowning?

A) Stomach section
B) 50-100g humerus marrow
C) Liver section
D) Whole kidney
E) 50-100g femur marrow

35. When is an autopsy incomplete?

A) External exam at morgue only
B) Internal exam only
C) Exam only at the scene
D) Exam limited to injured area
E) Full internal/external exam with additional tests

36. When does biological death occur?

A) After terminal pause
B) After predagonal state
C) After clinical death
D) After agony
E) After clinical death

37. Which is NOT a relative sign of death?

A) Immobility
B) Absent corneal reflex
C) Pupillary light reflex absence
D) Transient cardiac arrest
E) Prolonged asystole and apnea

38. Where is an incision NOT made to release gas during decomposition?

A) Forehead
B) Inner cheek
C) Inner lip
D) Back of neck
E) Behind ear pinna

39. Who CANNOT perform a corpse exam at the scene?

A) Pharmacologist
B) Pathologist
C) Forensic expert
D) Therapist
E) Surgeon

40. Which injury is life-threatening?

A) Concussion
B) Major vessel injury
C) Facial fractures
D) Forearm abrasion
E) Spinal fracture

41. Which skull fracture is NOT life-threatening?

A) Penetrating frontal bone fracture
B) Limited outer table fracture
C) Linear occipital bone fracture
D) Depressed parietal fracture
E) Inner skull base fracture

42. Which is NOT life-threatening?

A) Popliteal artery injury
B) Spinal canal wounds without cord damage
C) Mild brain contusion
D) Cervical fracture
E) Open submandibular gland injury

43. What document is issued for a living person’s examination?

A) Medical record
B) Examination report
C) Expert opinion
D) Medical certificate
E) Discharge summary

44. What is a sexual crime?

A) Signs of abortion
B) Ability to perform intercourse
C) Fertility
D) Pregnancy signs
E) Immoral acts

45. Which indicates severe harm?

A) Miscarriage
B) Uncomplicated closed clavicle fracture
C) 30% loss of general capacity
D) Long-term health impairment
E) Uncomplicated closed elbow fracture

46. Which indicates severe harm?

A) Vision loss
B) Conjunctivitis
C) Reduced vision in one eye
D) Eye hemorrhage
E) Strabismus

47. Which indicates severe harm?

A) Long-term health impairment
B) Vocal cord inflammation
C) Speech loss
D) Ptosis
E) Hoarseness

48. Which is severe harm?

A) Finger ankylosis
B) Organ or function loss
C) Elbow contracture
D) Missing all toes
E) Knee contracture

49. Which is minor harm?

A) Infertility
B) Hearing loss in one ear
C) Health impairment >21 days
D) 10-33% loss of general capacity
E) Short-term impairment

50. Which is minor harm?

A) Slight temporary capacity loss
B) Permanent facial disfigurement
C) Loss of professional capacity
D) Long-term impairment
E) Vision loss in one eye

51. Femoral artery injury is classified as:

A) Moderate harm
B) Minor harm
C) Requires outcome monitoring
D) Unclassified
E) Severe harm

52. What is determined in disputed sexual status examination?

A) Epispadias
B) Hermaphroditism
C) Transvestism
D) Hymen integrity
E) Fertility

54. Miscarriage is classified as:

A) Long-term impairment
B) Organ loss
C) <1/3 capacity loss
D) >1/3 capacity loss
E) Severe harm

55. Health assessment is what type of examination?

A) Commission
B) Additional
C) Complex
D) Repeated
E) Primary

56. What is simulation?

A) Faking nonexistent illness
B) Deafness
C) Epileptic seizures
D) Chorea
E) Nocturnal enuresis

57. What methods determine age?

A) Anthropometric, X-ray, dental
B) Ultrasound, serologic
C) Serologic
D) ECG
E) Encephalography, ultrasound

58. What is a key sign of pregnancy?

A) Fetal heartbeat
B) Lower back pain
C) Vaginal bleeding
D) Abdominal enlargement
E) Thirst

59. True hermaphroditism is characterized by:

A) Presence of male and female gonads
B) Female gonads
C) Bicornuate uterus
D) Absence of one testicle
E) Male gonads

60. What injuries suggest forced intercourse?

A) Bruises/abrasions on inner thighs
B) Ankle dislocation
C) Concussion
D) Thumb dislocation
E) Radial dislocation

61. How long does a torn hymen heal completely?

A) After 1 month
B) After 3 days
C) 6-7 days
D) 5 days
E) After 2 weeks

62. Which CPC article covers experts?

A) CPC Art. 116
B) CPC Art. 97
C) CPC Art. 93
D) CPC Art. 90
E) CPC Art. 100

63. What causes exogenous hypoxia?

A) Blood loss/diseases
B) Respiratory diseases
C) Low atmospheric oxygen
D) Cardiovascular diseases
E) Cyanide poisoning

64. What occurs during inspiratory dyspnea?

A) Bradycardia, minimal BP
B) Elevated BP, bradycardia, cyanosis
C) Cardiac arrest
D) BP drop
E) Bradycardia, BP drop

65. What occurs during expiratory dyspnea?

A) Bradycardia, minimal BP
B) Sphincter relaxation
C) BP drop, weak pulse, cyanosis
D) Bradycardia, BP drop
E) Cardiac arrest

66. Which is NOT a general asphyxia sign?

A) Tardieu spots
B) Gastric submucosal hemorrhages
C) Right heart dilation
D) Organ congestion
E) Dark fluid blood in veins

67. Amussat’s sign occurs in:

A) Compression asphyxia
B) Obturation asphyxia
C) Aspiration asphyxia
D) Strangulation
E) Confined space asphyxia

68. What is a key sign of hanging?

A) Ligature mark
B) Hair standing
C) Ecchymotic mask
D) Foam at mouth/nose
E) Facial cyanosis

69. Key sign of drowning?

A) Carmine pulmonary edema
B) Ligature mark
C) Tardieu spots
D) 5ml fluid in sphenoid sinus
E) Martin’s sign

70. Cause of "cadaveric catalepsy":

A) Brainstem injury
B) Cardiovascular disease
C) Lung disease
D) Liver injury
E) Phosphorus poisoning

71. Conditions for mummification:

A) Mineral-rich soil
B) Humid clay soil
C) 0-5°C, humid, black soil
D) Sea sand, high temperature
E) Dry, ventilated, porous sand

72. NOT a bullet exit wound feature:

A) No tissue defect
B) Tissue defect present
C) Irregular shape
D) No soot/abrasion collar
E) Everted edges

73. Vinogradov’s phenomenon requires:

A) Bullet velocity <100 m/s
B) Large caliber
C) No target obstruction
D) Two barriers (clothing/skin)
E) No clothing

74. Which is NOT severe harm?

A) Total professional incapacity
B) Miscarriage
C) Mental illness
D) 10-33% capacity loss
E) >33% permanent capacity loss

75. Which is NOT moderate harm?

A) 10-33% capacity loss
B) Absence of severe harm criteria
C) No life threat
D) Long-term impairment
E) Short-term impairment

76. Long-term impairment is defined as:

A) 15-20 days
B) >6 days
C) >10 days
D) >3-5 days
E) >21 days

77. Open fractures of long bones fall under which Criminal Code article?
A) Art. 126
B) Art. 127
C) Art. 128
D) Art. 125
E) Art. 124

78. Subclavian/axillary artery injuries fall under:

A) Art. 126
B) Art. 128
C) Art. 132
D) Art. 127
E) Art. 133

79. Virginity refers to:

A) Intact hymen
B) Non-penetrative intercourse
C) Small hymenal opening
D) Septate hymen
E) Incomplete labial fusion

80. Criminal abortion is:

A) Unauthorized termination
B) Hospital termination
C) Infection-induced miscarriage
D) Termination due to heart disease
E) Syphilis-related termination

81. Rape is defined as:

A) Non-consensual intercourse
B) Sodomy
C) Pedophilia
D) Consensual intercourse
E) Mutual consent

82. When is sex determination needed?

A) Divorce
B) Injury severity
C) Age determination
D) Injury type
E) Timing of hymen rupture

83. When is past childbirth evidence needed?

A) Suspected infanticide
B) Marriage age
C) Injury assessment
D) Hospital birth
E) Husband’s request

84. CPC article for crime scene examination:

A) Art. 238
B) Art. 236
C) Art. 237
D) Art. 234
E) Art. 235

85. When to examine periphery first?

A) Blood-like stains
B) Hairs found
C) Clear central scene
D) No peripheral traces
E) Risk of evidence loss

86. Autopsy is based on:

A) Expert bureau order
B) Family request
C) Chief physician’s order
D) Oral law enforcement request
E) Written law enforcement request

87. Which injuries are non-accidental?

A) Defensive wounds
B) Transport injuries
C) Boat propeller injuries
D) Autopsy artifacts
E) Exhumation injuries

88. Which is NOT blunt trauma?

A) Vehicle-pedestrian collision
B) Fist injury
C) Fall from height
D) Machinery injury
E) Incised neck wound

89. What is NOT abrasion significance?

A) Object direction
B) Injury proof
C) Timing determination
D) Cause of death via color
E) All of the above

90. Abrasion healing depends on:

A) Location
B) Size
C) Health status
D) All of the above
E) Depth

91. Abrasion significance includes:

A) Force direction
B) Injury proof
C) Timing
D) Violence type
E) All of the above

92. What do bruises NOT indicate?

A) Force application
B) Blunt object use
C) Object shape/size
D) Injury timing
E) Impact location

93. Bruise color progression:

A) Dark red → bluish-red → green → yellow
B) Dark red → green → gray
C) Reddish → green → yellow → gray
D) Dark red → bluish-red → yellow → green
E) Red → blue → green

94. What can’t fractures determine?

A) Injury type
B) Force direction/magnitude
C) Object type
D) Perpetrator
E) Mechanism

95. Which is NOT a vehicle-specific injury?

A) Tire tread marks on clothes
B) Tire tread marks on body
C) Bumper fracture
D) Headlight marks
E) Radiator grill imprint

96. Uncharacteristic vehicle injury:

A) Bumper fracture
B) Pocket-shaped lacerations
C) Tire tread abrasions
D) Organ damage from tire compression
E) Arm avulsion

97. Typical railway injury:

A) Whiplash fracture
B) Bumper fracture
C) Pocket-shaped lacerations
D) Tire tread marks
E) Compression/friction bands

98. Incised wound feature:

A) Length > depth/width
B) Linear shape
C) Smooth edges
D) Bruised edges
E) Sharp ends

99. Punctured wound feature:

A) Depth > length/width
B) Ragged edges
C) Uneven edges
D) Length > depth
E) Linear shape

100. NOT a chopped wound feature:

A) Bone damage
B) Linear abrasions from blade pressure
C) Crushed tissue at base
D) Marginal skin tearing
E) Serrated edges

101. Which is NOT a firearm cartridge?

A) Sporting
B) Hunting
C) Pistol
D) Construction
E) Rifle

102. NOT a forensic object:

A) Living persons
B) Case materials
C) Corpses
D) Evidence
E) Biopsy

103. Where are living persons examined?

A) Central clinic
B) Courtroom
C) Forensic outpatient clinic
D) Prosecutor’s office
E) Crime scene

104. Who issues the expert opinion?

A) Department
B) Institution
C) Association
D) Expert’s name
E) Court

105. Expert responsibility:

A) Shared with investigator
B) Collective
C) None
D) Shared with prosecutor
E) Personal

106. Can investigators attend examinations?

A) Only in some cases
B) Allowed
C) Only in assault cases
D) Mandatory
E) Prohibited

107. If death signs are absent, the expert must:

A) Provide first aid and call EMS
B) Only observe the scene
C) Interview witnesses
D) Draft a report
E) Wait for EMS

108. NOT a relative death sign:

A) Immobility
B) Absent corneal reflex
C) Pupillary light reflex absence
D) Skeletal muscle twitching
E) Skin pallor

109. Stages before biological death:

A) Terminal pause → agony → predagonal → clinical
B) Terminal pause → predagonal → agony → clinical
C) Predagonal → terminal pause → agony → clinical
D) Agony → terminal pause → predagonal → clinical
E) Predagonal → agony → terminal pause → clinical

110. Neurons die after circulatory arrest in:

A) 1-2 minutes
B) 5-8 minutes
C) 30-40 minutes
D) 1-2 hours
E) 20-30 seconds

111. NOT an absolute death sign:

A) Prolonged asystole/apnea
B) Beloglazov sign
C) Larche spots
D) Immobility/pain loss
E) Early postmortem changes

112. Beloglazov sign appears:

A) 30-40 seconds
B) 1-2 hours
C) 3-4 hours
D) 30-40 minutes
E) 10-15 minutes

113. Forensic death classification:

A) Natural/suspicious
B) Timely/premature
C) Suspicious/definite
D) Pathological/non-violent
E) Violent/non-violent

114. NOT an early postmortem change:

A) Cadaveric spasm
B) Desiccation
C) Adipocere
D) Cooling
E) Autolysis

115. Postmortem lividity stages:

A) Hypostasis → imbibition → stasis
B) Stasis → hypostasis → imbibition
C) Imbibition → stasis → hypostasis
D) Imbibition → hypostasis → stasis
E) Hypostasis → stasis → imbibition

116. Differentiating lividity from bruise:

A) Dynamometer pressure
B) Microscopy
C) Cross-shaped incision
D) Finger pressure
E) Linear incision

117. NOT a late postmortem change:

A) Autolysis
B) Mummification
C) Decomposition
D) Peat tanning
E) Adipocere

118. Initial decomposition sign (greenish discoloration):

A) Right thigh
B) Right forearm
C) Left groin
D) Left hip
E) Right hip

119. Supravital reactions determine:

A) Cause of death
B) Location of death
C) Mechanism of death
D) Time of death
E) Circumstances of death

120. Dismemberment for easier transport is:

A) Secondary
B) Degenerative
C) Defensive
D) Primary
E) Offensive

121. Exhumation requires:

A) Family request
B) Lawyer’s request
C) Investigator’s order
D) Court order
E) Police request

123. Terminal state excludes:

A) Metabolic disruption
B) Severe hypotension
C) Biological death
D) Excretory failure
E) Severe gas exchange disruption

124. Agony results from:

A) CNS failure
B) Cardiac arrest
C) Metabolic disruption
D) Lung failure
E) Kidney failure

125. Cadaveric spasm in sepsis:

A) Slowed
B) Accelerated
C) Normal
D) Very rapid
E) Biological death

126. Injury categories:

A) Physical, chemical, biological, psychological
B) Physical, biological, bacteriological, psychological
C) Physical, physiological, chemical, mechanical
D) Physical, chemical, biological, mental
E) Physical, histological, biochemical, biological

127. NOT functional injury:

A) Organ concussion
B) Scrotal impact shock
C) Organ rupture
D) Concussion
E) Neck impact shock

128. Fatal brain compression in elderly:

A) 1-5 ml
B) 15-50 ml
C) 10-15 ml
D) 100-150 ml
E) 40-50 ml

129. Transport trauma types:

A) Car, freight, metro
B) Car, motorcycle, rail
C) Road, air, water
D) Rail, car, water
E) Air, rail, motor

130. NOT a piercing tool:

A) Awl
B) Needle
C) Stiletto
D) Nail
E) Scalpel

131. Black powder composition:

A) Nitrate, sulfur, charcoal
B) Sulfur, salt, varnish
C) Nitrate, graphite, sand
D) Charcoal, oleic acid, graphite
E) Sulfur, sand, unburnt powder

132. Firearm range categories:

A) Contact, close, distant
B) Near, medium, distant
C) Non-contact, distant, very distant
D) Contact, close, distant
E) Point-blank, close, distant

133. Mechanical asphyxia types:

A) Strangulation, compression, obstruction, confined space
B) Aspiration, compression, obstruction, open
C) Aspiration, open, mixed, confined
D) Strangulation, mixed, open, confined
E) Ventilation, aspiration, obstruction, open

134. NOT found in asphyxia:

A) 0.3-0.4 cm gastric hemorrhages
B) Alveolar emphysema
C) Tardieu spots
D) Dark fluid blood in veins
E) Right heart dilation

135. Amussat’s sign in hanging:

A) Pectoralis minor hemorrhages
B) Carotid adventitial hemorrhages
C) Carotid intimal tears
D) Intervertebral disc hemorrhages
E) Aortic rupture

136. Manual strangulation sign:

A) Cervical fractures
B) Pectoralis minor hemorrhages
C) Hyoid fracture
D) Carotid adventitial hemorrhages
E) Carotid intimal tears

137. NOT a vital drowning sign:

A) Fluid blood in right ventricle
B) 5 ml sinus fluid
C) Edematous gallbladder
D) Middle ear hemorrhage
E) Skin maceration

138. “Glove-like” skin shedding starts after:

A) 5-6 days
B) 30-40 days
C) 3-5 days
D) 2-3 weeks
E) 1-3 hours

140. NOT life-threatening:

A) Acute renal/liver failure
B) Septicemia
C) Severe respiratory failure
D) Grade I-II shock
E) Massive blood loss

141. NOT minor harm:

A) Non-displaced 11th rib fracture
B) Non-displaced 7th rib fracture
C) Non-displaced 9th rib fracture
D) Non-displaced 10th rib fracture
E) Non-displaced 8th rib fracture

142. Minor harm includes:

A) Brainstem injury symptoms
B) Cervical dislocation
C) Non-displaced metacarpal fracture
D) Concussion
E) Closed radius fracture

143. Injury from falls depends on:

A) Victim’s sex
B) Height
C) Additional acceleration
D) Victim’s height
E) Victim’s weight

144. Vehicle-pedestrian injury:

A) Bumper fracture
B) Organ rupture
C) Brain contusion
D) Pelvic fracture
E) Skull base fracture

145. Dismemberment is common in:

A) Street trauma
B) Railway trauma
C) Industrial trauma
D) Sports trauma
E) Domestic trauma

146. When is wound probing allowed?

A) Abdominal wounds
B) Chest wounds prohibited
C) Never
D) Hollow organ injuries underwater
E) After layer-by-layer exam

147. Direct rib fracture sign:

A) Lung injury
B) Hemothorax
C) Straight fracture line on inner surface
D) No bruising at fracture site
E) Parietal pleura injury

148. Fatal hemorrhage sign:

A) Organ degeneration
B) Extensive lividity
C) Minakov spots (left ventricular hemorrhages)
D) Pleural hemorrhages
E) Visceral pleural hemorrhages

149. Prohibited during air embolism test:

A) Chest incision
B) Opening pericardium before organ removal
C) Piercing right ventricle underwater
D) Piercing left ventricle underwater
E) Filling pericardium with water

150. Direct rib fractures result from:

A) Falling from vehicle
B) Localized blunt force
C) High falls
D) Vehicle running over chest
E) Falling from own height