5th Class General science key points mcqs

1. What is the process of grouping organisms based on similarities and

differences called?
a) Biodiversity
b) Conservation
c) Classification of organisms
d) Evolution

Answer: c) Classification of organisms

2. What are the large groups of organisms called?

a) Species
b) Phylum
c) Kingdoms
d) Classes

Answer: c) Kingdoms

3. Which of the following is NOT a kingdom in biological classification?

a) Monera
b) Protista
c) Plantae
d) Viruses

Answer: d) Viruses

4. Which of the following is an example of the Monera kingdom?

a) Yeast
b) Rhizopus
c) Bacteria
d) Mushrooms

Answer: c) Bacteria

5. Which kingdom includes all plants?

a) Monera
b) Fungi
c) Plantae
d) Animalia

Answer: c) Plantae

6. Monocot plants include:

a) Guava, Pumpkin
b) Bamboo, Maize
c) Mango, Rose
d) Rose, Rice
Answer: b) Bamboo, Maize

7. Which of the following is an example of a dicot plant?

a) Wheat
b) Rice
c) Mango
d) Bamboo

Answer: c) Mango

8. What are the two groups of flowering plants?

a) Vertebrates and Invertebrates
b) Monocot and Dicot plants
c) Fish and Amphibians
d) Mammals and Reptiles

Answer: b) Monocot and Dicot plants

9. Which of the following groups includes vertebrates?

a) Fish, Amphibians, Reptiles
b) Sponges, Worms, Insects
c) Molluscs, Echinoderms, Worms
d) Yeast, Rhizopus, Mushrooms

Answer: a) Fish, Amphibians, Reptiles

10. What is biodiversity?

a) The conservation of plants
b) The division of vertebrates and invertebrates
c) The number of kinds of organisms found at any particular
place
d) The destruction of habitats

Answer: c) The number of kinds of organisms found at any particular place

1. What are microorganisms?

a) Large organisms visible to the naked eye
b) Tiny organisms visible only under a microscope
c) Non-living organisms
d) Organisms made of complex tissues

Answer: b) Tiny organisms visible only under a microscope

2. Which of the following is NOT a major group of microorganisms?

a) Viruses
b) Bacteria
c) Fungi
d) Plants
Answer: d) Plants

3. What are viruses?

a) Single-celled organisms
b) Multicellular organisms
c) Tiny infectious particles
d) Complex tissues

Answer: c) Tiny infectious particles

4. Where can bacteria be found?

a) Only in water
b) Only in the air
c) In all types of environments
d) Only on land

Answer: c) In all types of environments

5. What are fungi?

a) Unicellular or multicellular organisms
b) Complex multicellular organisms only
c) Single-celled organisms found only in water
d) Tiny infectious particles

Answer: a) Unicellular or multicellular organisms

6. Which of the following roles do some microorganisms play in nature?

a) They decompose dead bodies into simple components
b) They increase the number of dead organisms
c) They stop the breakdown of complex matter
d) They turn living organisms into complex components

Answer: a) They decompose dead bodies into simple components

7. Which of the following is NOT a source of transmission for infectious

diseases?
a) Air
b) Food
c) Sunlight
d) Animals

Answer: c) Sunlight

8. How are microorganisms beneficial in medicine?

a) They can be used to make medicines
b) They cause diseases that can be treated with medicine
c) They stop medicine production
d) They destroy medicine
Answer: a) They can be used to make medicines

9. What is a good way to prevent infections?

a) Avoid getting vaccinated
b) Keep yourself neat and clean
c) Never wash your hands
d) Avoid food prepared by microorganisms

Answer: b) Keep yourself neat and clean

10. Which of the following food items are made using

microorganisms?
a) Vegetables and fruits
b) Meat and fish
c) Yoghurt and bread
d) Water and tea

Answer: c) Yoghurt and bread

1. Which of the following is NOT a part of a flower?

a) Sepals
b) Petals
c) Roots
d) Carpel

Answer: c) Roots

2. What is pollination?

a) Transfer of pollen grains from stigma to anther

b) Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma
c) Division of pollen grains
d) Production of seeds
Answer: b) Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma

3. How many types of pollination are there?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

Answer: b) Two

4. What is reproduction?

a) The process of forming new organisms of a different kind

b) The process of organisms producing new organisms of their own
kind
 c) A process that ends a generation
d) Only found in animals

Answer: b) The process of organisms producing new organisms of their

own kind

5. In which type of reproduction is only one parent involved?

a) Sexual reproduction
b) Asexual reproduction
c) Pollination
d) Cross-pollination

Answer: b) Asexual reproduction

6. Which of the following is NOT a method of asexual reproduction in

plants?

a) Layering
b) Stem cutting
c) Fertilization
d) Tuber

Answer: c) Fertilization

7. What results from the fusion of male and female gametes?

a) Seed
b) Zygote
c) Ovule
d) Stem

Answer: b) Zygote

8. What does the ovule form after fertilization?

a) Fruit
b) Seed
c) Root
d) Flower

Answer: b) Seed

9. What is formed when the ovary ripens?

a) Seed
b) Stem
c) Fruit
d) Leaf

Answer: c) Fruit
10. What type of plant is maize?

a) Monocot
b) Dicot
c) Tricot
d) Polycot

Answer: a) Monocot

11. What are the main parts of a maize seed?

a) Seed coat, endosperm, embryo

b) Roots, stem, flower
c) Cotyledon, leaf, root
d) Flower, pollen, seed coat

Answer: a) Seed coat, endosperm, embryo

12. How many cotyledons does a gram seed have?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

Answer: b) Two

13. Which of the following is NOT required for seed germination?

a) Water
b) Air
c) Suitable temperature
d) Light

Answer: d) Light

1. What is pollution?
a) A change in the environment that benefits living things
b) A change in the environment that harms living things
c) A natural process
d) A process that occurs only in water

Answer: b) A change in the environment that harms living things

2. How many types of pollution are mentioned?

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five

Answer: b) Three
 3. What is the main cause of air pollution?
a) Rainwater
b) Smoke from vehicles and factories
c) Overpopulation
d) Waste from homes

Answer: b) Smoke from vehicles and factories

4. Which of the following contributes to water pollution?

a) Smoke from vehicles
b) Insecticides, fertilizers, and factory waste
c) Plant growth in rivers
d) Garbage from homes

Answer: b) Insecticides, fertilizers, and factory waste

5. What are the main sources of land pollution?

a) Leaking oil and carbon dioxide
b) Garbage from homes, fertilizers, and chemical sprays
c) Fossil fuels and greenhouse gases
d) Smoke from factories

Answer: b) Garbage from homes, fertilizers, and chemical sprays

6. What is a consequence of water pollution for aquatic animals?

a) They thrive and increase in number
b) They die due to polluted water
c) They move to cleaner water
d) They become immune to pollution

Answer: b) They die due to polluted water

7. What health issues can smog cause?

a) Digestive problems
b) Lung, throat, skin, and eye diseases
c) Heart problems
d) Bone disorders

Answer: b) Lung, throat, skin, and eye diseases

8. What is global warming primarily caused by?

a) Reduction of greenhouse gases
b) Increasing amounts of carbon dioxide and burning fossil fuels
c) Decrease in air pollution
d) Planting more trees

Answer: b) Increasing amounts of carbon dioxide and burning fossil fuels

 9. What term is used for the materials that break down naturally into
simple substances?
a) Non-biodegradable materials
b) Fossil fuels
c) Greenhouse gases
d) Biodegradable materials

Answer: d) Biodegradable materials

10. What principle is used to reduce pollution caused by non-

biodegradable materials?
a) 3R Principle
b) 4R Principle
c) Recycling Principle
d) Conservation Principle

Answer: b) 4R Principle

1. What happens during a physical change?

a) A new material with different properties is formed

b) No new material is formed
c) Heat is always absorbed
d) The material disappears

Answer: b) No new material is formed

2. What is the process called when a solid becomes a liquid by absorbing

heat?

a) Freezing
b) Melting
c) Boiling
d) Evaporation

Answer: b) Melting

3. What happens when heat is released from a liquid turning it into a

solid?

a) Melting
b) Freezing
c) Boiling
d) Evaporation

Answer: b) Freezing

4. What is the term for the change of liquid into gas upon heating?

a) Melting
 b) Freezing
c) Boiling
d) Condensation

Answer: c) Boiling

5. What is evaporation?

a) The change of water into vapors

b) The change of gas into liquid
c) The change of solid into liquid
d) The release of heat from a liquid

Answer: a) The change of water into vapors

6. What is condensation?

a) Change of liquid into solid

b) Change of gas into liquid
c) Change of solid into gas
d) Absorption of heat by a gas

Answer: b) Change of gas into liquid

7. What is a solution?

a) A mixture where solid and liquid do not mix

b) A mixture in which one material dissolves uniformly in another
c) A solid material mixed with another solid
d) A gas mixed with a liquid

Answer: b) A mixture in which one material dissolves uniformly in another

8. In a solution, what is the solute?

a) The component that dissolves another substance

b) The minor component that is dissolved
c) The liquid part of a solution
d) The gas in the mixture

Answer: b) The minor component that is dissolved

9. What is a dilute solution?

a) A solution with a large amount of dissolved solute

b) A solution with a small amount of dissolved solute
c) A solution that does not dissolve any solute
d) A solution with no solvent

Answer: b) A solution with a small amount of dissolved solute

10. What is rusting?

 a) A chemical reaction involving heat
b) A physical change on metal
c) A change on the surface of iron due to oxygen and water
d) The evaporation of iron

Answer: c) A change on the surface of iron due to oxygen and water

11. What is a chemical change?

a) A change that forms a new material with different properties

b) A process where no new material is formed
c) A change that happens without heat
d) A process where the material remains the same

Answer: a) A change that forms a new material with different properties

1. What is light?
a) A form of energy that enables us to hear sounds
b) A form of energy that enables us to see objligh
c) A form of sound energy
d) A form of heat energy

Answer: b) A form of energy that enables us to see objects

2. What type of object allows us to see clearly through it?

a) Opaque
b) Translucent
c) Transparent
d) Reflective

Answer: c) Transparent

3. What happens when light hits an opaque object?

a) It passes through
b) It creates a shadow behind the object
c) It forms a faint image
d) It makes the object transparent

Answer: b) It creates a shadow behind the object

4.What can be seen across a translucent object?

a) A clear image
b) A faint image
c) No image
d) A shadow

Answer: b) A faint image

4. How does light travel?

 a) In a zigzag path
b) In circles
c) In a straight line
d) Randomly

Answer: c) In a straight line

5. From which surface is more light reflected?

a) A rough surface
b) A shining surface
c) A transparent surface
d) A black surface

Answer: b) A shining surface

6. How is sound produced?

a) By a vibrating body
b) By light hitting an object
c) By reflection of light
d) By passing through solid objects only

Answer: a) By a vibrating body

7. Through which medium can sound pass?

a) Air
b) Water
c) Solid objects
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

8. In which medium does sound travel fastest?

a) Air
b) Liquids
c) Solids
d) Vacuum

Answer: c) Solids

9. What happens to the intensity of sound as the distance from its

source increases?
a) It increases
b) It decreases
c) It remains the same
d) It becomes louder

Answer: b) It decreases

10. What are unpleasant, harsh, and irritant sounds called?

 a) Music
b) Echoes
c) Noise
d) Vibrations

Answer: c) Noise

11. Why is reducing noise necessary?

a) It helps improve sound quality
b) It is harmful for human health
c) It increases the speed of sound
d) It creates shadows

Answer: b) It is harmful for human health

1. What is the flow of charge called?

a) Voltage
b) Resistance
c) Electric current
d) Electromagnet

Answer: C) Electric current

2. What is the path through which current flows called?

a) Electric field
b) Electric circuit
c) Conductor
d) Insulator

Answer: B) Electric circuit

3. What happens when the switch is turned OFF in a circuit?

a) The circuit becomes closed

b) The current starts flowing
c) The circuit becomes open
d) The circuit completes

Answer: C) The circuit becomes open

4. Which materials allow the flow of electric current?

a) Insulators
b) Conductors
c) Magnetic materials
d) Non-magnetic materials

Answer: B) Conductors
5. What is the purpose of a fuse in an electric circuit?

a) To increase current
b) To control current direction
c) For safety purposes
d) To attract magnetic materials

Answer: C) For safety purposes

6. What kind of materials are attracted by magnets?

a) Plastic
b) Paper
c) Magnetic materials
d) Insulators

Answer: C) Magnetic materials

7. What are the ends of a magnet called?

a) Magnetic fields
b) Magnetic poles
c) Electric terminals
d) Conductors

Answer: B) Magnetic poles

8. Which direction does a freely suspended magnet always point to?

a) East-West
b) North-South
c) Up-Down
d) South-East

Answer: B) North-South

9. What device is used to find directions accurately?

a) Voltmeter
b) Ammeter
c) Magnetic compass
d) Galvanometer

Answer: C) Magnetic compass

10. What is an electromagnet?

a) A permanent magnet
b) A piece of iron that behaves like a magnet when electric current
flows through a coil around it
c) A fuse in a circuit
 d) A naturally occurring magnetic rock

Answer: B) A piece of iron that behaves like a magnet when electric

current flows through a coil around it

1. What is the outermost layer of the Earth called?

a) Mantle
b) Core
c) Crust
d) Lithosphere

Answer: C) Crust

2. Which layer of the Earth consists of extremely hot thick fluid?

a) Crust
b) Mantle
c) Core
d) Oceanic layer

Answer: B) Mantle

3. Which part of the Earth is the hottest and heaviest?

a) Crust
b) Mantle
c) Core
d) Lithosphere

Answer: C) Core

4. Which of the following is not a source of water?

a) Rivers
b) Glaciers
c) Mantle
d) Underground water

Answer: C) Mantle

5. Which type of soil is best for making pottery?

a) Sand
b) Clay
c) Silt
d) Humus

Answer: B) Clay

6. What is sand primarily used for?

 a) Making pottery
b) Glass production
c) Cultivation
d) Fertilizing soil

Answer: B) Glass production

7. Which soil type is good for cultivation?

a) Sand
b) Clay
c) Silt
d) Rock
Answer: C) Silt

8. What is the decayed matter in soil called?

a) Clay
b) Humus
c) Silt
d) Sand

Answer: B) Humus

9. What does humus do to the soil?

a) Makes it dry
b) Makes it fertile
c) Turns it into clay
d) Helps it retain water

Answer: B) Makes it fertile

10. Which layer of the Earth contains solid rocks and seas?

a) Crust
b) Mantle
c) Core
d) Lithosphere

Answer: A) Crust

1. What is space?

a) A limited area around the Earth

b) A part of the atmosphere
c) The unlimited expanse where heavenly bodies are located
d) A vacuum with no objects

Answer: C) The unlimited expanse where heavenly bodies are located

2. What is NASA?

a) A European space agency

b) A Russian space program
c) An American agency responsible for space exploration and aviation
d) A private company working on space tourism

Answer: C) An American agency responsible for space exploration and

aviation

3. What is a satellite?

a) A planet that revolves around the Sun

b) An object that revolves around a larger object due to gravity
c) A star
d) A space station

Answer: B) An object that revolves around a larger object due to gravity

4. What are artificial satellites?

a) Natural objects revolving around Earth

b) Moons of other planets
c) Objects placed into orbit around Earth by humans
d) Meteoroids in space

Answer: C) Objects placed into orbit around Earth by humans.

5. How long does it take for a geo-stationary satellite to complete one

orbit?

a) 12 hours
b) 1 day
c) 1 week
d) 1 month

Answer: B) 1 day

6. Which of the following is NOT a use of satellites?

a) Communication
b) TV display
c) Surveying planets outside our solar system
d) Weather monitoring

Answer: C) Surveying planets outside our solar system

7. What is the International Space Station (ISS)?

a) A satellite used for navigation

b) A human-made space station orbiting around the Earth
 c) A natural satellite of Earth
d) A telescope placed in space

Answer: B) A human-made space station orbiting around the Earth

8. Geo-stationary satellites are primarily used for which of the following?

a) Exploring deep space

b) Mapping the ocean floor
c) Communication and TV broadcasting
d) Launching space probes

Answer: C) Communication and TV broadcasting

9. What allows a satellite to stay in orbit around a larger object?

a) Its speed alone

b) Magnetic fields
c) The gravity of the larger object
d) Wind in space

Answer: C) The gravity of the larger object

10. Which of the following is an example of a human-made laboratory in

space?

a) Hubble Space Telescope

b) International Space Station
c) Sputnik
d) Mars Rover

Answer: B) International Space Station

1. What tool is used to check the level of a horizontal surface?

a) Plumb line
b) Spirit level
c) Measuring tape
d) Compass

Answer: B) Spirit level

2. Which tool do masons use to keep a wall vertically straight?

a) Spirit level
b) Compass
c) Plumb line
d) Ruler

Answer: C) Plumb line

3. Why is it important to know the correct operating method for machines
and tools?

a) To save time only

b) To ensure efficient and safe operation
c) To avoid using the wrong tools
d) To save on power consumption

Answer: B) To ensure efficient and safe operation

4. What can the knowledge of first aid and disaster management help
prevent?

a) Only life losses

b) Only financial losses
c) Both financial and life losses
d) Minor injuries

Answer: C) Both financial and life losses

5. Which of the following is a skill that helps in creating and working with
machines and tools?

a) Carpentry
b) Drawing
c) Making technical models
d) Writing reports

Answer: C) Making technical models

6. What should be prioritized when assembling and operating technical

tools?

a) Speed
b) Correct method and safety precautions
c) Appearance of the machine
d) Size of the tools

Answer: B) Correct method and safety precautions

7. What is the purpose of a plumb line in construction?

A) To check the level of a surface

a) B) To measure distances
b) C) To ensure vertical alignment
c) D) To check temperature

Answer: C) To ensure vertical alignment

8. Why is it useful to have a spirit level in construction work?

 a) To measure angles
b) To check horizontal level
c) To mark lines on walls
d) To weigh materials

Answer: B) To check horizontal level

9. Which of the following is NOT directly related to first aid knowledge?

a) Treating minor injuries

b) Helping in disaster management
c) Increasing productivity at work
d) Reducing life losses

Answer: C) Increasing productivity at work

10. What is the primary benefit of knowing disaster management

practices?

a) Learning to operate machines

b) Preventing disasters
c) Minimizing life and financial losses
d) Training in medical emergencies

Answer: C) Minimizing life and financial losses

1. What is the structural and functional unit of living things?

a) Tissue
b) Organ
c) Cell
d) Organ system

Answer: c) Cell

2. Which of the following structures are common to both plant and animal
cells?

a) Cell wall and chloroplast

b) Cell membrane, nucleus, and ribosome
c) Chloroplast and mitochondria
d) Large central vacuole and cytoplasm

Answer: b) Cell membrane, nucleus, and ribosome

3. Which of the following is found only in plant cells?

a) Nucleus
b) Mitochondria
c) Cell membrane
d) Chloroplast
Answer: d) Chloroplast

4. What is the correct order of biological organization from cell to

organism?

a) Tissue → System → Organ → Cell → Organism

b) Cell → Tissue → Organ → System → Organism
c) System → Organ → Tissue → Cell → Organism
d) Organ → Cell → Tissue → System → Organism

Answer: b) Cell → Tissue → Organ → System Chloroplas

5. How do organ systems in an organism work to perform life processes?

a) They work independently.

b) They work in isolation from other systems.
c) They work in coordination with each other.
d) They perform the same function.

Answer: c) They work in coordination with each other.

1. Which of the following processes is absent in asexual reproduction?

a) Gamete formation
b) Pollination
c) Fertilization
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

2.Vegetative propagation is a form of which type of reproduction?

a) Sexual reproduction
b) Asexual reproduction
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

Answer: b) Asexual reproduction

3.Which of the following is a natural vegetative propagation technique?

a) Cutting
b) Budding
c) Grafting
d) Tissue culture

Answer: b) Budding

4.Which of the following is an artificial vegetative propagation technique?

a) Runners
b) Bulbs
 c) Layering
d) Tuber

Answer: c) Layering

5.How does artificial vegetative propagation improve agriculture?

a) By promoting sexual reproduction

b) By increasing the number of genetically identical plants quickly
c) By reducing plant growth
d) By limiting reproduction

Answer: b) By increasing the number of genetically identical plants quickly

1.Which of the following is not one of the seven different types of

nutrients?

a) Carbohydrates
b) Proteins
c) Fats and oils
d) Sugars

Answer: d) Sugars

2. A balanced diet contains:

a) Only carbohydrates and fats
b) Only vitamins and water
c) All types of nutrients
d) Only proteins and minerals

Answer: c) All types of nutrients

3.A deficiency of any nutrient in the diet may lead to:

a) Weight gain
b) Nutritional deficiency disease
c) Better immunity
d) Increased energy levels

Answer: b) Nutritional deficiency disease

4.Which of the following factors determine the amount of nutrients

needed in a diet?

a) Age
b) Gender
c) Activities
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

5.How does a balanced diet benefit an individual?

a) It causes weight loss

b) It makes you fit and healthy
c) It increases fat storage
d) It leads to nutrient deficiencies

Answer: b) It makes you fit and healthy.

1. What is the main purpose of digestion?

a) To remove waste from the body

b) To break down food into small molecules
c) To create new cells
d) To store food for energy

Correct answer: b) To break down food into small molecules

2. Which of the following are the two types of digestion?

a) Absorption and chemical

b) Chemical and physical
c) Mechanical and chemical
d) Physical and mechanical

Correct answer: c) Mechanical and chemical

3. Mechanical digestion involves which of the following processes?

a) Enzymes breaking down molecules

b) Absorbing nutrients into the bloodstream
c) Physically breaking down food by cutting, grinding, and mashing
d) Transporting food to other parts of the body

Correct answer: c) Physically breaking down food by cutting, grinding, and

mashing

4. What role do enzymes play in digestion?

a) Transporting food molecules

b) Breaking down large food molecules into smaller ones
c) Absorbing food molecules into the bloodstream
d) Storing food for future energy use

Correct answer: b) Breaking down large food molecules into smaller ones

5. Where does the digestive system start and end?

a) Stomach to small intestine

b) Mouth to stomach
c) Mouth to anus
 d) Throat to large intestine

Correct answer: c) Mouth to anus

6. Which of the following is NOT a common digestive disorder?

a) Vomiting
b) Diarrhoea
c) Constipation
d) Hypertension

Correct answer: d) HHypertensio

7. How are nutrients transported to other parts of the body after

absorption?

a) Through the digestive tract

b) Through the bloodstream
c) By mechanical digestion
d) By enzymes

Correct answer: b) Through the bloodstream

8. Which process is a chemical reaction in digestion?

a) Chewing food in the mouth

b) Breaking large molecules into small ones
c) Grinding food with teeth
d) Absorbing water from food

Correct answer: b) Breaking large molecules into small ones

1. What is the main characteristic of matter?

a) It is always in a solid state

b) It has mass and occupies space
c) It changes shape automatically
d) It has no mass

Correct answer: b) It has mass and occupies space

2. How many states of matter exist according to the paragraph?

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five

Correct answer: b) Three

3. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of solids?

 a) Definite shape
b) Definite volume
c) Changes shape according to container
d) Does not change shape

Correct answer: c) Changes shape according to container

4. What is a key characteristic of liquids?

a) Definite shape and volume

b) No definite shape but definite volume
c) Definite shape but no definite volume
d) No definite shape and no definite volume

Correct answer: b) No definite shape but definite volume

5. Which of the following is true about gases?

a) They have a definite shape

b) They have a definite volume
c) They have no definite shape and no definite volume
d) They cannot change their volume

Correct answer: c) They have no definite shape and no definite volume

6. What causes a material to change its state of matter?

a) The amount of space it occupies

b) The amount of mass it has
c) The amount of heat gained or lost
d) The speed at which it moves

Correct answer: c) The amount of heat gained or lost

7. Liquids take the shape of the container they are placed in because they
have:

a) No definite shape and no definite volume

b) Definite shape but no definite volume
c) No definite shape but definite volume
d) Definite shape and definite volume

Correct answer: c) No definite shape but definite volume

8. Which of the following is true about gases in terms of shape and

volume?

a) Definite shape but no definite volume

b) No definite shape and no definite volume
c) Definite shape and volume
d) No definite shape but definite volume
Correct answer: b) No definite shape and no definite volume

1. What is matter defined as?

a) Anything that moves

b) Anything that has mass and occupies space
c) Anything that is visible
d) Anything that contains energy

Correct answer: b) Anything that has mass and occupies sspac

2. What is the smallest unit into which matter can be divided?

a) Molecule
b) Cell
c) Atom
d) Compound

Correct answer: c) Atom

3. When atoms are grouped together, what do they form?

a) Elements
b) Cells
c) Molecules
d) Compounds

Correct answer: c) Molecules

4. What is an element?

a) A substance made of one type of molecule

b) A substance made of different molecules
c) A substance made of the same types of atoms
d) A mixture of two or more different elements

Correct answer: c) A substance made of the same types of atoms

5. How are molecules formed?

a) By dividing atoms
b) By joining two or more atoms together
c) By combining different compounds
d) By splitting elements

Correct answer: b) By joining two or more atoms together

6. What is a compound?

a) A substance made of one type of element

b) A substance made of two or more different elements in a fixed ratio
by weight
 c) A mixture of different atoms without a fixed ratio
d) A combination of identical atoms

Correct answer: b) A substance made of two or more different elements in

a fixed ratio by weight

7. On what basis are elements classified as metals and non-metals?

a) Based on their chemical properties

b) Based on their atomic weight
c) Based on their physical properties
d) Based on their molecular structure

Correct answer: c) Based on their physical properties

8. Which of the following is true about elements?

a) Elements are made by combining compounds

b) Elements are made of one type of atom
c) Elements are created by joining two or more different elements
d) Elements have no physical properties

Correct answer: b) Elements are made of one type of atom

1. What is a mixture?

a) A chemical combination of two substances

b) A substance made from a single element
c) A combination of two or more substances that are not chemically
combined
d) A compound made of two elements

Correct answer: c) A combination of two or more substances that are not

chemically combined

2. What happens to the properties of the components in a mixture?

a) They lose their individual properties

b) They combine to form new properties
c) They keep their individual properties
d) They change into a new compound

Correct answer: c) They keep their individual properties

3. Which of the following is an example of a mixture?

a) Water
b) Salt
c) Air
d) Carbon dioxide
Correct answer: c) Air

4. How can mixtures be separated?

a) By chemical reactions
b) Using physical methods like evaporation, distillation, filtration, and
chromatography
c) By freezing the components
d) By combining them with other substances

Correct answer: b) Using physical methods like evaporation, distillation,

filtration, and chromatography

5. What is a homogeneous mixture called?

a) Suspension
b) Solution
c) Colloid
d) Compound

Correct answer: b) Solution

6. What is true of a dilute solution?

a) It has no solute
b) It has a low amount of solute
c) It has a high amount of solute
d) It cannot dissolve more solute

Correct answer: b) It has a low amount of solute

7. What is true of a concentrated solution?

a) It has a low amount of solute

b) It has a high amount of solute
c) It contains only one substance
d) It has no solute at all

Correct answer: b) It has a high amount of solute

8. What is solubility?

a) The process of forming a solid from a liquid

b) The ability of a solution to concentrate
c) The amount of solute dissolved in a specific amount of solvent at a
particular temperature
d) The evaporation of a solvent from a solution

Correct answer: c) The amount of solute dissolved in a specific amount of

solvent at a particular temperature
1. What is energy defined as?

a) The ability to create matter

b) The capacity to do work
c) The amount of force applied
d) The force of gravity

Correct answer: b) The capacity to do work

2. Which of the following is NOT a form of energy?

a) Heat
b) Light
c) Sound
d) Gravity

Correct answer: d) Gravity

3. What are the two basic categories of energy?

a) Electrical and thermal

b) Light and sound
c) Kinetic and potential
d) Mechanical and thermal

Correct answer: c) Kinetic and potential

4. What is kinetic energy?

a) Energy due to position

b) Energy due to motion
c) Energy due to light
d) Energy stored in food

Correct answer: b) Energy due to motion

5. What is potential energy?

a) Energy due to the motion of an object

b) Energy due to the position of an object
c) Energy from heat
d) Energy due to sound waves

Correct answer: b) Energy due to the position of an object.

6. What is the transformation of energy?

a) The creation of new energy

b) The process of conserving energy
c) The change of one form of energy into another
d) The destruction of energy
Correct answer: c) The change of one form of energy into another

7. What does the law of conservation of energy state?

a) Energy can be created and destroyed

b) Energy cannot be transformed
c) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can change form
d) Energy is always lost in every transformation

Correct answer: c) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can
change form

8. Which of the following is NOT a renewable energy resource?

a) Solar
b) Wind
c) Biomass
d) Coal

Correct answer: d) Coal

9. What characterizes non-renewable energy sources?

a) They can be replenished quickly

b) They come from sources that do not replenish quickly
c) They do not produce any pollution
d) They are always in abundance

Correct answer: b) They come from sources that do not replenish quickly

10. Which of the following is a renewable energy resource?

a) Natural gas
b) Solar energy
c) Oil
d) Coal

Correct answer: b) Solar energy

1. What is it called when charges are in a state of rest?

a) Current electricity
b) Static electricity
c) Electric motor
d) Electric charge

Correct answer: b) Static electricity

2. What happens between two like charges?

a) They attract each other

b) They repel each other
 c) They remain neutral
d) They lose energy

Correct answer: b) They repel each other

3. What happens between two unlike charges?

a) They attract each other

b) They repel each other
c) They neutralize each other
d) They gain energy

Correct answer: a) They attract each other

4. What is it called when charges are in a state of motion?

a) Static electricity
b) Current electricity
c) Magnetic electricity
d) Mechanical energy

Correct answer: b) Current electricity

5. What does a cell do in an electric circuit?

a) Converts mechanical energy to electrical energy

b) Converts electrical energy to chemical energy
c) Converts chemical energy to electrical energy
d) Converts light energy to electrical energy

Correct answer: c) Converts chemical energy to electrical energy

6. How many terminals does a battery or cell have?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

Correct answer: b) Two

7. What is the function of an electric wire in a circuit?

a) It stops the flow of current

b) It provides a conducting path for current to flow
c) It produces light
d) It converts electrical energy to mechanical energy

Correct answer: b) It provides a conducting path for current to flow

8. What does a bulb do in an electric circuit?

 a) Produces light from electricity
b) Stores electrical energy
c) Converts mechanical energy to electrical energy
d) Conducts current

Correct answer: a) Produces light from electricity

9. What happens when a switch is open in an electric circuit?

a) The circuit is closed and current flows

b) The circuit is open and current does not flow
c) The circuit is broken and current increases
d) The circuit is complete and current flows faster

Correct answer: b) The circuit is open and current does not flow

10. What is true of a series circuit?

a) There is only one path for current to flow

b) There is more than one path for current to flow
c) It has no path for current to flow
d) It provides mechanical energy

Correct answer: a) There is only one path for current to flow

11. What is true of a parallel circuit?

a) There is only one path for current to flow

b) There is more than one path for current to flow
c) It prevents current from flowing
d) It only allows current to flow in one direction

Correct answer: b) There is more than one path for current to flow

12. What does an electric motor do?

a) Converts electrical energy into light energy

b) Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
c) Converts electrical energy into mechanical energy
d) Converts electrical energy into sound energy

Correct answer: c) Converts electrical energy into mechanical energy

1. What is a magnet?

a) A material that produces electricity

b) A material or object that produces a magnetic field
c) A material that conducts heat
d) A material that repels metal objects

Correct answer: b) A material or object that produces a magnetic field

2. What is a magnetic field?

a) The region around an electric current

b) The region around a magnet where the magnetic force is felt by
another magnet
c) The space where only electricity can flow
d) The area where heat is generated

Correct answer: b) The region around a magnet where the magnetic force
is felt by another magnet

3. In which direction do magnetic field lines move outside the magnet?

a) From South to North

b) From North to South
c) From East to West
d) From West to East

Correct answer: b) From North to South

4. What natural object behaves like a giant magnet?

a) The Sun
b) The Moon
c) Earth
d) Mars

Correct answer: c) Earth

5. What does an electric current produce around it?

a) Light
b) Magnetic field
c) Heat energy
d) Mechanical energy

Correct answer: b) Magnetic field

6. What is a permanent magnet?

a) A magnet that retains its magnetic properties even in the absence

of another magnet or current
b) A magnet that needs an electric current to work
c) A magnet that loses its properties when heated
d) A magnet that can only work in water

Correct answer: a) A magnet that retains its magnetic properties even in

the absence of another magnet or current

7. What is the function of a compass needle?

 a) To generate electricity
b) To point in the geographical North-South directions
c) To measure temperature
d) To create a magnetic field

Correct answer: b) To point in the geographical North-South directions

8. What is an electromagnet?

a) A magnet that works only with heat

b) A type of magnet that produces a magnetic field due to an electric
current
c) A magnet that always has a magnetic field
d) A natural magnet found on Earth

Correct answer: b) A type of magnet that produces a magnetic field due to

an electric current

9. What does "demagnetize" mean?

a) To increase the strength of a magnet

b) To remove magnetic properties
c) To generate a stronger magnetic field
d) To change the polarity of a magnet

Correct answer: b) To remove magnetic properties

10. Inside a magnet, in which direction do magnetic field lines move?

a) From South to North

b) From North to South
c) From East to West
d) From West to East

Correct answer: a) From South to North

1. What is one of the best ways to grow vegetables and fruits?

a) Hydroponics
b) Earthen pot gardening
c) Indoor farming
d) Vertical farming

Correct answer: b) Earthen pot gardening

2. What is a fertilizer?

a) A substance that kills insects on plants

b) A substance that helps plants grow by adding it to the soil
c) A chemical used to kill weeds
d) A tool for planting seeds
Correct answer: b) A substance that helps plants grow by adding it to the
soil

3. What are the two types of fertilizers?

a) Organic and inorganic

b) Chemical and natural
c) Natural and synthetic
d) Liquid and solid

Correct answer: c) Natural and synthetic

4. What are yogurt and cheese classified as?

a) Baked goods
b) Fermented milk products
c) Dried foods
d) Processed meats

Correct answer: b) Fermented milk products

5. What is the main ingredient of yogurt and cheese?

a) Water
b) Soy
c) Milk
d) Wheat

Correct answer: c) Milk

6. What are circuits used for?

a) To store energy
b) To provide power to lights, appliances, and devices
c) To generate heat
d) To control water flow

Correct answer: b) To provide power to lights, appliances, and devices

7. What is a solar oven?

a) A device that uses electricity to cook food

b) A device that uses the energy of direct sunlight to heat, cook, or
pasteurize food and drinks
c) A tool for grilling outdoors
d) A device that uses gas to cook food

Correct answer: b) A device that uses the energy of direct sunlight to heat,
cook, or pasteurize food and drinks

1. What is the period of rotation (one day) for Earth?

 a) 25 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 59 days
d) 10 hours

Correct answer: b) 24 hours

2. Which planet has the longest period of revolution (one year)?

a) Saturn
b) Uranus
c) Neptune
d) Jupiter

Correct answer: c) Neptune

3. How many days does it take Venus to complete one rotation (one day)?

a) 59 days
b) 24 hours
c) 243 days
d) 19 hours

Correct answer: c) 243 days

4. Which planet has a period of rotation of 10 hours?

a) Jupiter
b) Saturn
c) Uranus
d) Both a and b

Correct answer: d) Both a and b (Jupiter and Saturn)

5. What is the period of revolution of Jupiter around the Sun?

a) 12 years
b) 29 years
c) 84 years
d) 165 years

Correct answer: a) 12 years

6. How many times larger is Jupiter’s diameter compared to Earth’s

diameter?

a) 5 times
b) 11 times
c) 20 times
d) 15 times
Correct answer: b) 11 times

7. Which planet is the smallest in the solar system?

a) Venus
b) Earth
c) Mercury
d) Neptune

Correct answer: c) Mercury

8. How many Mercury planets can fit into Earth?

a) 12
b) 18
c) 24
d) 15

Correct answer: b) 18

9. Which planet is the hottest?

a) Mercury
b) Jupiter
c) Venus
d) Mars

Correct answer: c) Venus

10. Which planet is the coldest?

a) Neptune
b) Uranus
c) Saturn
d) Mars

Correct answer: a) Neptune

1.What is a planet?

a) A celestial body that is in orbit around the Sun and has sufficient
mass.
b) A small object in the solar system.
c) A body that does not orbit any star.
d) A type of meteorite.

Answer: A) A celestial body that is in orbit around the Sun and has
sufficient mass.

2.What constitutes our solar system?

a) Only the Sun.

 b) The Sun and the cluster of bodies around it.
c) Only planets.
d) Planets and moons only.

Answer: B) The Sun and the cluster of bodies around it.

3.What is a dwarf planet?

a) A large celestial body orbiting a star.

b) A small planetary-mass object.
c) An asteroid that has become a planet.
d) A moon of a larger planet.

Answer: B) A small planetary-mass object.

4.Which of the following describes dwarf planets?

a) Objects located within Earth’s atmosphere.

b) Natural objects outside of Earth’s atmosphere.
c) Objects that orbit the Earth.
d) Planets that have not yet formed.

Answer: B) Natural objects outside of Earth’s atmosphere.

5.What is an asteroid?

a) A small piece of debris from a comet.

b) An object larger than a meteoroid that revolves around the Sun and
is made of rock or metal.
c) A celestial body that does not orbit the Sun.
d) A type of satellite.

Answer: B) An object larger than a meteoroid that revolves around the Sun
and is made of rock or metal.

1.What is a meteorite?

a) A type of asteroid.
b) A solid piece of debris from an object that originates in outer space.
c) A planet that has collided with another object.
d) A comet that has lost its tail.

Answer: B) A solid piece of debris from an object that originates in outer

space.

2.What is a satellite?

a) A planet that revolves around another planet.

b) A body that orbits around another body in space.
c) A type of asteroid.
d) A man-made object.
Answer: B) A body that orbits around another body in space.

3.What distinguishes an artificial satellite from a natural satellite?

a) An artificial satellite is larger than a natural satellite.

b) An artificial satellite is a man-made object launched into orbit using
rockets.
c) An artificial satellite orbits the Sun.
d) There is no difference between them.

Answer: B) An artificial satellite is a man-made object launched into orbit

using rockets.

4.What are the two main systems in plants?

a) Photosynthesis and Respiration

b) Root system and Shoot system
c) Xylem and Phloem
d) Stomata and Chlorophyll

Answer: B) Root system and Shoot system

5.Which part of the plant transports water?

a) Phloem
b) Stomata
c) Xylem
d) Chlorophyll

Answer: C) Xylem

1.What is transpiration?

a) The process of making food in leaves

b) The breakdown of food for energy
c) The loss of water from stomata
d) The transport of food by phloem

Answer: C) The loss of water from stomata

2. Which process do leaves use to make food?

a) Respiration
b) Photosynthesis
c) Transpiration
d) Fermentation

Answer: B) Photosynthesis

3. Photosynthesis cannot occur if any of the following is missing EXCEPT:

a) Light
 b) Oxygen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Water

Answer: B) Oxygen

4. What is the purpose of respiration in plant cells?

a) To transport water
b) To make food
c) To release energy from food
d) To absorb sunlight

Answer: C) To release energy from food

5. Which plant structure is best adapted to perform photosynthesis?

a) Roots
b) Flowers
c) Leaves
d) Stems

Answer: C) Leaves

1. If all alveoli in the lungs were flattened and put together, their surface
area would be as large as a:

a) Football field
b) Tennis court
c) Basketball court
d) Swimming pool

Answer: B) Tennis court

2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of alveoli?

a) They are thin-walled.

b) They have a large surface area.
c) They are surrounded by cartilage.
d) They are moist.

Answer: C) They are surrounded by cartilage.

3. If all blood vessels in the human body were laid end to end, they would:

a) Cover the distance to the moon

b) Stretch halfway around the Earth
c) Stretch around Earth more than twice
d) Reach the sun

Answer: C) Stretch around Earth more than twice

4. Why is blood typically drawn from veins?

a) Veins have thicker walls

b) Blood flows faster in veins
c) Veins are larger with slower blood flow
d) Veins contain only oxygenated blood

Answer: C) Veins are larger with slower blood flow

5. How many times does the human heart beat in one year, on average?

a) 4 million times
b) 42 million times
c) 100 million times
d) 1 billion times

Answer: B) 42 million times

6. Approximately how much blood is present in the human body?

a) 1 liter
b) 3 liters
c) 5 liters
d) 10 liters

Answer: C) 5 liters

7. The heart is made up of which type of muscle?

a) Skeletal muscles
b) Cardiac muscles
c) Smooth muscles
d) Voluntary muscles

Answer: B) Cardiac muscles

8. What makes cardiac muscles unique?

a) They get tired easily.

b) They work continuously without getting tired.
c) They can be controlled voluntarily.
d) They regenerate quickly.

Answer: B) They work continuously without getting tired.

1. What are the two types of respiration?

a) Pulmonary and Systemic

b) Internal and External
a) Aerobic and Anaerobic
b) Voluntary and Involuntary
Answer: C) Aerobic and Anaerobic

2. What is the main function of the respiratory system?

a) To provide energy to cells

b) To transport blood
c) To remove oxygen from blood
d) To take in oxygen and remove carbon dioxide from blood

Answer: D) To take in oxygen and remove carbon dioxide from blood

3. What are the main components of the circulatory system?

a) Lungs and air passageway

b) Plasma, red blood cells, and white blood cells
c) Blood, blood vessels, and heart
d) Right and left atrium, right and left ventricle

Answer: C) Blood, blood vessels, and heart

4. Which of the following is NOT a component of blood?

a) Platelets
b) White blood cells
c) Plasma
d) Lymph nodes

Answer: D) Lymph nodes

5. How many chambers are there in the human heart?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

Answer: C) 4

6. Which of the following is a type of blood vessel?

a) Ventricles
b) Arteries
c) Plasma
d) Atria

Answer: B) Arteries

7. The four chambers of the heart are:

a) Left and right atrium, left and right ventricle

b) Plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets
c) Lungs, liver, stomach, intestines
 d) Left and right arteries, left and right veins

Answer: A) Left and right atrium, left and right ventricle

8. What is the role of the heart in the circulatory system?

a) To absorb nutrients
b) To pump blood throughout life
c) To store oxygen
d) To filter waste from blood

Answer: B) To pump blood throughout life

9. What keeps oxygenated and deoxygenated blood separate in the heart?

a) The blood vessels

b) The chambers of the heart
c) The valves
d) The lungs

Answer: B) The chambers of the heart

1. What percentage of oxygen is present in inhaled air?

a) 16%
b) 21%
c) 4%
d) 78%

Answer: B) 21%

2. How much carbon dioxide is present in exhaled air?

a) 0.04%
b) 4%
c) 16%
d) 21%

Answer: B) 4%

3. What is the amount of nitrogen in both inhaled and exhaled air?

a) 16%
b) 78%
c) 21%
d) 0.04%

Answer: B) 78%

4. Which gas has a variable amount in inhaled air and becomes saturated
in exhaled air?
 a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Water vapour

Answer: D) Water vapour

5. What is the percentage of oxygen in exhaled air?

a) 4%
b) 21%
c) 16%
d) 78%

Answer: C) 16%

6. Which gas has the lowest percentage in inhaled air?

a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Water vapour

Answer: B) Carbon dioxide

7. How much carbon dioxide is present in inhaled air?

a) 4%
b) 0.04%
c) 16%
d) 21%

Answer: B) 0.04%

1.Which of the following is NOT an additional layer of defense to protect

the body?

a) Face mask
b) Gloves
c) Sanitizer
d) Junk food

Answer: D) Junk food

2.How do infants naturally receive passive immunity from their mothers?

a) Through antibodies passed via the placenta and breast milk

b) Through vaccines
c) Through exposure to pathogens
d) By taking medications
Answer: A) Through antibodies passed via the placenta and breast milk

3.What are the three types of immunity in humans?

a) Innate, passive, and acquired

b) Passive, adaptive, and innate
c) Physical, chemical, and biological
d) Maternal, adaptive, and innate

Answer: B) Passive, adaptive, and innate

4.Which type of immunity includes the first two lines of defense?

a) Adaptive immunity
b) Passive immunity
c) Innate immunity
d) Artificial immunity

Answer: C) Innate immunity

5.What causes diseases such as Hepatitis A, B, C, D, COVID-19, and

dengue fever?

a) Bacteria
b) Viruses
c) Fungi
d) Parasites

Answer: B) Viruses

6.Which of the following diseases is caused by bacteria?

a) Typhoid
b) Hepatitis A
c) COVID-19
d) Dengue fever

Answer: A) Typhoid

7.Which type of immunity develops and strengthens with exposure to

pathogens or vaccines?

a) Passive immunity
b) Innate immunity
c) Adaptive immunity
d) Maternal immunity

Answer: C) Adaptive immunity

8.What is a common strategy for strengthening the immune system?

a) Eating junk food

 b) Leading a healthy lifestyle
c) Staying indoors all the time
d) Taking no precautions

Answer: B) Leading a healthy lifestyle

9.How can the spread of infectious diseases be controlled?

a) By avoiding any form of defense

b) By diagnosing symptoms and adopting specific measures
c) By only relying on passive immunity
d) By avoiding medical check-ups

Answer: B) By diagnosing symptoms and adopting specific measures

1. What is always formed in a chemical reaction?

a) No new substances
b) A new substance
c) Only physical changes
d) Only reversible changes

Answer: B) A new substance

2. Who is credited with the discovery of the law of conservation of mass?

a) Albert Einstein
b) Antoine Lavoisier
c) Isaac Newton
d) Marie Curie

Answer: B) Antoine Lavoisier

3. What does the law of conservation of mass state?

a) Matter can be destroyed and created in chemical reactions.

b) Mass is lost in every chemical reaction.
c) Matter is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.
d) Mass is always doubled in chemical reactions.

Answer: C) Matter is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.

4. What type of change is burning?

a) Physical change
b) Reversible change
c) Chemical change
d) Structural change

Answer: C) Chemical change

5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a physical change?

 a) No new substances are formed
b) It can be easily reversed
c) A new substance is formed
d) Only the physical properties change

Answer: C) A new substance is formed

6. Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?

a) Melting of ice
b) Boiling of water
c) Rusting of iron
d) Dissolving sugar in water

Answer: C) Rusting of iron

7. What type of property is flammability?

a) Physical property
b) Chemical property
c) Amount-related property
d) Structural property

Answer: B) Chemical property

8. Which of the following are physical properties of matter?

a) Rusting and flammability

b) Volume and melting point
c) Combustion and rusting
d) Structure and changeability

Answer: B) Volume and melting point

9. What is the term for the ability of a substance to catch fire easily?

a) Rusting
b) Boiling point
c) Flammability
d) Combustion

Answer: C) Flammability

10. Which of these changes cannot be reversed?

a) Freezing of water
b) Rusting of iron
c) Melting of ice
d) Boiling of water

Answer: B) Rusting of iron

1. Who proposed the Solid Sphere Model of the atom in 1803?

a) J.J. Thomson
b) Ernest Rutherford
c) John Dalton
d) Niels Bohr

Answer: C) John Dalton

2. Which atomic model was proposed by J.J. Thomson in 1904?

a) Planetary Model
b) Quantum Model
c) Plum Pudding Model
d) Nuclear Model

Answer: C) Plum Pudding Model

3. Who developed the Nuclear Model of the atom in 1911?

a) John Dalton
b) Ernest Rutherford
c) Niels Bohr
d) Erwin Schrödinger

Answer: B) Ernest Rutherford

4. Which model describes electrons orbiting the nucleus in fixed paths,

introduced in 1913?

a) Plum Pudding Model

b) Quantum Model
c) Solid Sphere Model
d) Planetary Model

Answer: D) Planetary Model

5. Who proposed the Quantum Model of the atom in 1926?

a) J.J. Thomson
b) John Dalton
c) Erwin Schrödinger
d) Ernest Rutherford

Answer: C) Erwin Schrödinger

6. Which model describes the atom as a solid, indivisible sphere?

a) Plum Pudding Model

b) Nuclear Model
c) Solid Sphere Model
 d) Quantum Model

Answer: C) Solid Sphere Model

7. In which year was the Planetary Model of the atom introduced?

a) 1803
b) 1904
c) 1911
d) 1913

Answer: D) 1913

8. Which model of the atom includes a positively charged nucleus with

electrons surrounding it, similar to planets orbiting the sun?

a) Plum Pudding Model

b) Planetary Model
c) Quantum Model
d) Solid Sphere Model

Answer: B) Planetary Model

9. Which atomic model is associated with a probability cloud of electrons

rather than fixed orbits?

a) Nuclear Model
b) Solid Sphere Model
c) Quantum Model
d) Planetary Model

Answer: C) Quantum Model

10. Who among the following scientists is associated with the concept of
electrons embedded in a positively charged sphere, like plums in a
pudding?

a) John Dalton
b) Niels Bohr
c) J.J. Thomson
d) Erwin Schrödinger

Answer: C) J.J. Thomson

1. In which year did John Dalton propose the Solid Sphere Model of the
atom?

a) 1803
b) 1904
c) 1911
d) 1926
Answer: A) 1803

2. When was the Plum Pudding Model introduced by J.J. Thomson?

a) 1803
b) 1904
c) 1913
d) 1926

Answer: B) 1904

3. Ernest Rutherford proposed the Nuclear Model of the atom in which

year?

a) 1904
b) 1911
c) 1913
d) 1926

Answer: B) 1911

4. The Planetary Model of the atom was introduced by Niels Bohr in what
year?

a) 1803
b) 1904
c) 1913
d) 1926

Answer: C) 1913

5. In which year did Erwin Schrödinger propose the Quantum Model of the
atom?

a) 1803
b) 1904
c) 1911
d) 1926

Answer: D) 1926

6. Which of the following years is associated with the introduction of the

Nuclear Model?

a) 1803
b) 1904
c) 1911
d) 1913

Answer: C) 1911
7. The Quantum Model of the atom, proposed by Erwin Schrödinger, was
introduced in:

a) 1904
b) 1911
c) 1913
d) 1926

Answer: D) 1926

8. Which year marks the introduction of J.J. Thomson's model of the atom?

a) 1803
b) 1904
c) 1913
d) 1926

Answer: B) 1904

9. The Solid Sphere Model, introduced in 1803, was proposed by:

a) J.J. Thomson
b) Ernest Rutherford
c) John Dalton
d) Niels Bohr

Answer: C) John Dalton

10. Which year is associated with the Planetary Model of the atom?

a) 1803
b) 1904
c) 1913
d) 1926

Answer: C) 1913

1. What makes noble gases less reactive and stable?

a) Their low atomic mass

b) Their complete outermost shells
c) Their high boiling points
d) Their electronegativity

Answer: B) Their complete outermost shells

2. What is the maximum number of electrons that can be filled in the first
shell of an atom?

a) Four
b) Six
 c) Eight
d) Two

Answer: D) Two

3. What term describes the arrangement of two electrons in the first shell?

a) Octet
b) Triplet
c) Duplet
d) Doublet

Answer: C) Duplet

4. Which noble gas has a duplet configuration?

a) Neon
b) Argon
c) Helium
d) Xenon

Answer: C) Helium

5. How many electrons can be filled in the second shell of an atom?

a) Two
b) Four
c) Six
d) Eight

Answer: D) Eight

6. Which of the following elements has a complete octet?

a) Helium
b) Hydrogen
c) Neon
d) LitEigh

Answer: C) Neon

7. What is the atomic number of Neon?

a) 2
b) 8
c) 10
d) 18

Answer: C) 10

1. What are the three subatomic particles that make up an atom?

 a) Protons, electrons, and isotopes
b) Protons, electrons, and neutrons
c) Electrons, neutrons, and ions
d) Neutrons, protons, and photons

Answer: B) Protons, electrons, and neutrons

2. What does it mean for an atom to be electrically neutral?

a) It has more protons than electrons.

b) It has an equal number of protons and electrons.
c) It has only neutrons.
d) It has a net positive charge.

Answer: B) It has an equal number of protons and electrons.

3. What is the mass number of an element?

a) The number of protons only

b) The number of neutrons only
c) The sum of protons and neutrons in the nucleus
d) The total number of electrons in an atom

Answer: C) The sum of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.

4. What defines the atomic number of an atom?

a) The number of neutrons

b) The number of electrons
c) The number of protons
d) The sum of protons and electrons

Answer: C) The number of protons

5. What is the term used for the distribution of electrons in their shells?

a) Electron affinity
b) Electron cloud
c) Electronic configuration
d) Atomic structure

Answer: C) Electronic configuration

6. If an atom has 6 protons, how many electrons does it have to be

electrically neutral?

a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 12
Answer: B) 6

7. Which of the following statements is true about neutrons?

a) They have a positive charge.

b) They have a negative charge.
c) They are electrically neutral.
d) They are found outside the nucleus.

Answer: C) They are electrically neutral.

1. What is valency?

a) The total number of protons in an atom

b) The combining capacity of atoms to form bonds
c) The mass of an atom
d) The number of neutrons in an atom

Answer: B) The combining capacity of atoms to form bonds

2. What does a chemical formula represent?

a) The physical state of a substance

b) The temperature of a substance
c) The symbolic representation of the elements in a compound
d) The weight of the elements in a substance

Answer: C) The symbolic representation of the elements in a compound

3. How can a chemical formula be determined?

a) By the temperature of the reaction

b) By using the mass of the substances involved
c) By using the valency of an atom
d) By measuring the volume of the solution

Answer: C) By using the valency of an atom

4. What is a chemical bond?

a) A physical mixture of substances

b) A mutual force of attraction between atoms
c) A type of reaction that releases energy
d) A solid form of matter

Answer: B) A mutual force of attraction between atoms.

5. What is acetone primarily used as?

a) A solid fuel
b) A liquid solvent that can dissolve other substances
c) A coloring agent
 d) A type of plastic

Answer: B) A liquid solvent that can dissolve other substances.

6. Which of the following products commonly includes acetone?

a) Baking soda
b) Nail polish remover
c) Table salt
d) Sugar

Answer: B) Nail polish remover

7. In addition to being a solvent, what other applications does acetone

have?

a) Manufacturing metals
b) Producing textiles and lacquers
c) Creating energy
d) Generating heat

Answer: B) Producing textiles and lacquers

1. What is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances called?

a) Compound
b) Solution
c) Colloid
d) Suspension

Answer: B) Solution

2. What is the term for the substance that dissolves and is present in
lesser amounts in a solution?

a) Solvent
b) Solute
c) Solubility
d) Aqueous

Answer: B) Solute

3. In a solution, which substance is present in a greater amount?

a) Solute
b) Solvent
c) Aqueous
d) Colloid

Answer: B) Solvent

4. What is an aqueous solution?

 a) A solution with no solute
b) A solution with a gas as the solute
c) A solution in which water is the solvent
d) A solid mixture

Answer: C) A solution in which water is the solvent

5. Which of the following describes a dilute solution?

a) A solution with a high amount of solute

b) A solution with a relatively small amount of solute
c) A solution that is fully saturated
d) A solution that has not been mixed

Answer: B) A solution with a relatively small amount of solute

6. What is a saturated solution?

a) A solution where no solute has dissolved

b) A solution where the maximum amount of solute has dissolved at a
given temperature
c) A solution with very low solute concentration
d) A solution that is not mixed

Answer: B) A solution where the maximum amount of solute has dissolved

at a given temperature

7. What happens in a supersaturated solution?

a) No solute can dissolve

b) The solute is at its maximum solubility
c) More solute is added at a higher temperature, and crystals form as
temperature decreases
d) The solution has no solute

Answer: C) More solute is added at a higher temperature, and crystals

form as temperature decreases

8. According to the principle "like dissolves like," what does this mean?

a) Different compounds will dissolve in one another

b) Compounds with similar chemical features will dissolve one another
c) All compounds will dissolve in water
d) Solids dissolve better in gases

Answer: B) Compounds with similar chemical features will dissolve one

another.

9. How does temperature affect the solubility of solids and liquids?

a) Solubility decreases with higher temperatures

 b) Solubility remains unchanged
c) Solubility increases with higher temperatures
d) Solubility is irrelevant to temperature

Answer: C) Solubility increases with higher temperatures.

10. What accelerates the process of dissolving?

a) Decreasing temperature
b) Stirring and grinding solute particles into smaller pieces
c) Reducing pressure
d) Increasing the amount of solute

Answer: B) Stirring and grinding solute particles into smaller pieces.

1. What does SI units stand for?

a) Standard Index Units

b) Simple International Units
c) International System of Units
d) Scientific International Units

Answer: C) International System of Units

2. Why was there a need for a unified system of units?

a) To make measurements easier for children

b) To standardize scientific research and business
c) To create confusion among scientists
d) To reduce the number of measurements needed

Answer: B) To standardize scientific research and business.

3. When was the International System of Units (SI) approved?

a) 1950
b) 1960
c) 1970
d) 1980

Answer: B) 1960

4. What does a speedometer measure?

a) Average speed over a long distance

b) Speed at any instant of time (instantaneous speed)
c) Total distance covered
d) Acceleration of the car

Answer: B) Speed at any instant of time (instantaneous speed)

5. What does an odometer measure?

 a) Instantaneous speed
b) Fuel efficiency
c) Distance covered by the car
d) Engine temperature

Answer: C) Distance covered by the car

6. How is speed defined?

a) Distance covered in a day

b) Distance covered in unit time
c) Total distance regardless of time
d) The rate of fuel consumption

Answer: B) Distance covered in unit time

7. In a distance-time graph, which variable is plotted on the y-axis?

a) Time
b) Distance
c) Speed
d) Force

Answer: B) Distance

8. What is the unit of force in the International System of Units?

a) Joule
b) Pascal
c) Newton
d) Watt

Answer: C) Newton

9. What is the definition of a contact force?

a) A force that acts without physical contact

b) A force that requires physical contact between two bodies
c) A force that cannot be measured
d) A force that only acts in space

Answer: B) A force that requires physical contact between two bodies.

10. What does the statement “Every action has equal but opposite
reaction” describe?

a) The principle of acceleration

b) The law of conservation of energy
c) Newton’s third law of motion
d) The principle of gravity
Answer: C) Newton’s third law of motion

1. What types of waves are generated by earthquakes?

a) Only transverse waves

b) Only longitudinal waves
c) Both transverse and longitudinal waves
d) Electromagnetic waves only

Answer: C) Both transverse and longitudinal waves

2. What are longitudinal waves that travel faster through the Earth and
reach seismographs first called?

a) S-waves
b) Q-waves
c) P-waves
d) T-waves

Answer: C) P-waves

3. What are the slower waves generated by earthquakes called?

a) Primary waves
b) T-waves
c) S-waves
d) Longitudinal waves

Answer: C) S-waves.

4. How can seismologists estimate the distance from the detector to the
earthquake?

a) By measuring the amplitude of the waves

b) By analyzing the frequency of the waves
c) By the difference in the time of arrival of P-waves and S-waves
d) By calculating the energy released

Answer: C) By the difference in the time of arrival of P-waves and S-waves.

5. What is true about electromagnetic waves like light?

a) They require a material medium to travel

b) They travel faster than seismic waves
c) They do not require a material medium to travel
d) They are only longitudinal waves

Answer: C) They do not require a material medium to travel.

6. In electromagnetic waves, what vibrates instead of medium particles?

a) Sound waves
 b) Electric and magnetic fields
c) Water molecules
d) Solids and liquids

Answer: B) Electric and magnetic fields

7. What type of wave are electromagnetic waves classified as?

a) Longitudinal waves
b) Transverse waves
c) Mechanical waves
d) Surface waves

Answer: B) Transverse waves.

8. Which waves are used by seismographs to detect earthquakes?

a) Electromagnetic waves
b) Longitudinal waves only
c) Both P-waves and S-waves
d) Only transverse waves

Answer: C) Both P-waves and S-waves

1. What is a hearing aid?

a) A type of musical instrument

b) A small electronic device for amplifying sound
c) A device used for recording sounds
d) A machine for diagnosing hearing problems

Answer: B) A small electronic device for amplifying sound.

2. Where can a hearing aid be worn?

a) Only in the pocket

b) In or behind the ear
c) On the wrist
d) Around the neck

Answer: B) In or behind the ear

3. What is the primary purpose of a hearing aid?

a) To help with speech recognition

b) To make sounds louder for those with hearing loss
c) To produce music
d) To measure sound levels

Answer: B) To make sounds louder for those with hearing loss.

4. In which situations can a hearing aid help individuals?

 a) Only in quiet environments
b) Only in noisy environments
c) In both quiet and noisy situations
d) Only during conversations

Answer: C) In both quiet and noisy situations

5. Who can benefit from using a hearing aid?

a) Only children
b) Only elderly individuals
c) Anyone with hearing loss
d) Only musicians

Answer: C) Anyone with hearing loss

6. What activities can individuals with hearing aids participate more fully
in?

a) Only listening to music

b) Daily activities and communication
c) Sports activities
d) Reading books

Answer: B) Daily activities and communication

7. Which of the following is a feature of hearing aids?

a) They eliminate all background noise

b) They can amplify sounds in various environments
c) They are only effective in silent rooms
d) They can only be used at home

Answer: B) They can amplify sounds in various environments.

1. What is the speed of light?

a) 332 meters per second

b) 300,000 kilometers per second
c) 150,000 kilometers per hour
d) 1,000 meters per second

Answer: B) 300,000 kilometers per second

2. What is the speed of sound at 0°C?

a) 300,000 kilometers per second

b) 150 meters per second
c) 332 meters per second
d) 1,200 kilometers per hour
Answer: C) 332 meters per second

3. What is a wave?

a) A physical object
b) A disturbance in a medium causing particles to vibrate
c) A type of matter
d) A measurement of time

Answer: B) A disturbance in a medium causing particles to vibrate

4. What do waves transfer from one point to another?

a) Matter
b) Sound
c) Energy
d) Light

Answer: C) Energy

5. What are mechanical waves?

a) Waves that can travel through a vacuum

b) Waves that can only travel through a medium
c) Waves that do not require any medium
d) Waves that are produced by light

Answer: B) Waves that can only travel through a medium

6. What are electromagnetic waves?

a) Waves that can only travel through solids

b) Waves that can pass through both vacuum and medium
c) Waves that produce sound
d) Waves that require a physical medium to travel

Answer: B) Waves that can pass through both vacuum and medium

7. In transverse waves, how do particles of the medium vibrate?

a) Parallel to the direction of wave travel

b) In a circular motion
c) Perpendicular to the direction of wave travel
d) Randomly

Answer: C) Perpendicular to the direction of wave travel

8. In longitudinal waves, how do particles of the medium vibrate?

a) Perpendicular to the direction of wave travel

b) In a circular motion
c) Parallel to the direction of wave travel
 d) They do not vibrate

Answer: C) Parallel to the direction of wave travel

9. What produces sound?

a) Non-vibrating bodies
b) Silent environments
c) Vibrating bodies
d) Mechanical devices only

Answer: C) Vibrating bodies

10. What does the pitch of sound indicate?

a) The volume of the sound

b) The quality of the sound
c) How shrill or grave the sound is
d) The distance of the sound source

Answer: C) How shrill or grave the sound is

11. What is loudness in relation to sound?

a) The frequency of the sound wave

b) The sensation produced by sound on our ears
c) The speed of sound
d) The quality of the sound

Answer: B) The sensation produced by sound on our ears.

12. What is an echo?

a) A continuous sound
b) A sound that fades away
c) Repetition of sound due to reflection of sound waves from a hard
surface
d) A type of musical note

Answer: C) Repetition of sound due to reflection of sound waves from a

hard surface.

1. What are the two fixed reference points used to form a temperature
scale?

a) Freezing point of ice and boiling point of alcohol

b) Freezing point of water and boiling point of water
c) Melting point of iron and boiling point of water
d) Room temperature and absolute zero

Answer: B) Freezing point of water and boiling point of water.

2. What is the lower reference point on the Kelvin scale?

a) 0K
b) 273 K
c) 373 K
d) 100 K

Answer: B) 273 K

3. What is the upper reference point on the Kelvin scale?

a) 0K
b) 100 K
c) 273 K
d) 373 K

Answer: D) 373 K

4. How many equal divisions are there between the freezing and boiling
points of water on the Kelvin scale?

a) 50
b) 180
c) 100
d) 360

Answer: C) 100

5. What is the freezing point of water on the Celsius scale?

a) 0 °C
b) 32 °C
c) 100 °C
d) 273 °C

Answer: A) 0 °C

6. What is the boiling point of water on the Celsius scale?

a) 0 °C
b) 32 °C
c) 100 °C
d) 212 °C

Answer: C) 100 °C

7. What is the relationship between a change of one Kelvin and a change

of one degree Celsius?

a) They are different units.

b) They are the same; one change equals the other.
 c) One Kelvin change is greater than one degree Celsius.
d) One degree Celsius is greater than one Kelvin change.

Answer: B) They are the same; one change equals the other.

8. What is the freezing point of water on the Fahrenheit scale?

a) 0 °F
b) 32 °F
c) 100 °F
d) 273 °F

Answer: B) 32 °F

9. What is the boiling point of water on the Fahrenheit scale?

a) 0 °F
b) 100 °F
c) 212 °F
d) 373 °F

Answer: C) 212 °F

10. How many equal divisions are there between the freezing and boiling
points of water on the Fahrenheit scale?

a) 100
b) 180
c) 360
d) 273

Answer: B) 180

11. How does a change of one degree Fahrenheit compare to a change of

one degree Celsius or one Kelvin?

a) It is greater than a change of one degree Celsius.

b) It is less than a change of one degree Celsius.
c) It is the same as a change of one degree Celsius.
d) It is greater than a change of one Kelvin.

Answer: B) It is less than a change of one degree Celsius.

1. What is the total kinetic energy and potential energy of all the particles
in a substance called?

a) Thermal energy
b) Mechanical energy
c) Chemical energy
d) Nuclear energy
Answer: A) Thermal energy

2. What does the temperature of a body measure?

a) Total energy of the body

b) Average kinetic energy of its particles
c) Potential energy of its particles
d) The mass of the body

Answer: B) Average kinetic energy of its particles

3. Which of the following is NOT one of the three temperature scales?

a) Kelvin scale
b) Celsius scale
c) Joule scale
d) Fahrenheit scale

Answer: C) Joule scale

4. What is heat?

a) A type of solid matter

b) A form of thermal energy that flows from a hotter body to a colder
body
c) The total energy of a substance
d) A unit of temperature measurement

Answer: B) A form of thermal energy that flows from a hotter body to a

colder body

5. What is thermal equilibrium?

a) When two bodies have different temperatures

b) When heat flows from cold to hot
c) When two bodies attain the same temperature
d) When no heat is transferred

Answer: C) When two bodies attain the same temperature

6. What is thermal expansion?

a) Change in color of a substance due to heating

b) Increase in the weight of a substance
c) Change in length, area, volume, shape, or density of a substance
when heated
d) Decrease in temperature of a substance
Answer: C) Change in length, area, volume, shape, or density of a
substance when heated

7. From where to where does heat transfer occur?

a) From colder objects to hotter objects

b) From hot objects to cold objects
c) Between objects at the same temperature
d) From liquids to gases only

Answer: B) From hot objects to cold objects

8. What are the three methods of heat transfer?

a) Conduction, radiation, and evaporation

b) Conduction, convection, and radiation
c) Conduction, convection, and filtration
d) Radiation, convection, and condensation

Answer: B) Conduction, convection, and radiation

9. Which of the following statements is true regarding heat transfer?

a) Heat always flows from cold to hot.

b) Heat can be transferred through vacuum only.
c) Heat flows from hot to cold due to temperature difference.
d) Heat cannot flow through solids.

Answer: C) Heat flows from hot to cold due to temperature difference.

1. What is the property of an object that wants to maintain either rest or

uniform motion called?

a) Gravity
b) Mass
c) Inertia
d) Weight

Answer: C) Inertia

2. Which of the following is an example of inertia?

a) A fan turns off and stops immediately.

b) A large stone is easy to move.
c) A stone continues to rest until a force is applied.
d) Water flows continuously without resistance.

Answer: C) A stone continues to rest until a force is applied.

3. What keeps the planets in our solar system circling around the sun?

a) Inertia alone
b) Gravity
c) Air resistance
d) The mass of the planets

Answer: B) Gravity

4. What is the quantity of matter in a body called?

a) Weight
b) Volume
c) Mass
d) Density

Answer: C) Mass

5. What is the force with which Earth attracts anything towards its center
called?

a) Inertia
b) Gravitational pull
c) Weight
d) Mass

Answer: C) Weight

6. What does gravitational field strength (g) refer to?

a) The weight of a body on Earth

b) The gravitational force on a body of mass 1 kg
c) The mass of the Earth
d) The distance from Earth to the sun

Answer: B) The gravitational force on a body of mass 1 kg

7. What are tides?

a) The rise and fall of atmospheric pressure

b) The rise and fall of water levels in oceans, rivers, and lakes
c) The movement of the Earth’s crust
d) The gravitational pull on the sun

Answer: B) The rise and fall of water levels in oceans, rivers, and lakes

8. What is a constellation?
 a) A type of planet
b) A group of stars that forms a pattern or picture
c) A gravitational force
d) A unit of mass

Answer: B) A group of stars that forms a pattern or picture

9. At what angle is the Earth tilted from the perpendicular of its orbital
plane?

a) 90 degrees
b) 45 degrees
c) 23.5 degrees
d) 10 degrees

Answer: C) 23.5 degrees

10. What are the two main hemispheres of the Earth?

a) Eastern and Western

b) Northern and Southern
c) Tropical and Polar
d) Coastal and Inland

Answer: B) Northern and Southern

11. When it is summer in the Northern Hemisphere, what season is it in

the Southern Hemisphere?

a) Fall
b) Winter
c) Spring
d) Summer

Answer: B) Winter

1. What process allows green plants to prepare food?

a) Respiration
b) Decomposition
c) Photosynthesis
d) Combustion

Answer: C) Photosynthesis

2. Which organisms are described as consumers in the paragraph?

a) Plants
b) Pathogens
c) Parasites
d) Animals
Answer: D) Animals

3. What is one of the primary causes of global warming mentioned?

a) Natural disasters
b) Overpopulation
c) Increased oxygen levels
d) Photosynthesis

Answer: B) Overpopulation

4. How are oxygen and carbon dioxide kept in balance in the

environment?

a) Through photosynthesis and respiration

b) Through combustion
c) Through conservation steps
d) Through nutrient cycling

Answer: A) Through photosynthesis and respiration

5. In a food chain, what happens to the major portion of energy at each

level?

a) It is stored for future use

b) It is lost
c) It is doubled
d) It remains constant

Answer: B) It is lost

6. Which of the following statements is true about parasites and

pathogens?

a) All parasites are pathogens

b) All pathogens are parasites
c) All parasites are beneficial
d) All pathogens are beneficial

Answer: B) All pathogens are parasites

7. What is suggested as necessary to sustain life on earth according to the

paragraph?

a) Increasing carbon dioxide levels

b) Conserving nature
 c) Reducing oxygen levels
d) Stopping photosynthesis

Answer: B) Conserving nature

1. What is the role of the nervous system in the human body?

a) It pumps blood to all organs.

b) It coordinates and regulates all body functions.
c) It provides energy to muscles.
d) It digests food.

Answer: B) It coordinates and regulates all body functions.

2. What are neurons responsible for conducting in the nervous system?

a) Blood circulation
b) Hormone release
c) Messages in the form of electrical signals
d) Oxygen transport

Answer: C) Messages in the form of electrical signals

3. Which part of the neuron transmits nerve impulses to the cell body?

a) Axon
b) Cell body
c) Dendrites
d) Nucleus

Answer: C) Dendrites

4. What is the function of the cell body in a neuron?

a) To transmit impulses away from the cell

b) To act as the thick part containing the nucleus and most cytoplasm
c) To receive messages from other neurons
d) To connect neurons to muscles

Answer: B) To act as the thick part containing the nucleus and most
cytoplasm

5. Which part of the neuron transmits nerve impulses away from the cell
body?

a) Axon
b) Dendrites
c) Cell body
d) Cytoplasm

Answer: A) Axon
 1. Which type of neuron transmits nerve impulses from receptors to
the central nervous system?
a) Motor neurons
b) Sensory neurons
c) Interneurons
d) Peripheral neurons

Answer: B) Sensory neurons

2. What is the function of motor neurons?

a) They transmit impulses from sensory neurons to interneurons.
b) They transmit nerve impulses from the central nervous system to
effectors.
c) They connect the brain and spinal cord.
d) They transmit nerve impulses from receptors to sensory neurons.

Answer: B) They transmit nerve impulses from the central nervous system
to effectors.

3. What is an example of a receptor in the human body?

a) Muscles
b) Glands
c) Eyes
d) Brain

Answer: C) Eyes

4. What is an effector in the nervous system?

a) A part of the brain that controls sensory neurons
b) A muscle, gland, or organ that responds to a stimulus
c) A part of the spinal cord that processes motor signals
d) A receptor that detects environmental changes

Answer: B) A muscle, gland, or organ that responds to a stimulus

5. Which part of the human nervous system consists of the brain and
spinal cord?
a) Peripheral nervous system
b) Sensory neurons
c) Motor neurons
d) Central nervous system

Answer: D) Central nervous system

6. What is the correct order of signal transmission in response to a

stimulus?
a) CNS ➔ Sensory neuron ➔ Effector ➔ Response ➔ Motor neuron
b) Stimulus ➔ Effector ➔ CNS ➔ Motor neuron ➔ Response
 c) Stimulus ➔ Sensory neuron ➔ CNS ➔ Motor neuron ➔ Effector ➔
Response
d) Effector ➔ Stimulus ➔ Motor neuron ➔ Sensory neuron ➔ CNS ➔
Response

Answer: C) Stimulus ➔ Sensory neuron ➔ CNS ➔ Motor neuron ➔ Effector

➔ Response

1. How many main parts is the human brain divided into?

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five

Answer: B) Three

2. Which of the following is NOT a main part of the brain?

a) Forebrain
b) Midbrain
c) Cerebellum
d) Hindbrain

Answer: C) Cerebellum

3. What is the largest part of the human brain?

a) Cerebellum
b) Thalamus
c) Cerebrum
d) Medulla Oblongata

Answer: C) Cerebrum

4. What functions are associated with the cerebrum?

a) Reflex movements of eye muscles
b) Control and precision of all voluntary muscle movements
c) Consciousness, memory, learning, reasoning, and emotions
d) Regulation of body temperature, appetite, and emotions

Answer: C) Consciousness, memory, learning, reasoning, and emotions

5. Which part of the brain plays a critical role in the processing of

perception?
a) Cerebrum
b) Thalamus
c) Hypothalamus
d) Midbrain

Answer: B) Thalamus
 6. The hypothalamus is responsible for:
a) Reflex movements of eye muscles
b) Sending sensory information to the cerebrum
c) Regulating body temperature, appetite, water balance, and
emotions
d) Voluntary muscle control

Answer: C) Regulating body temperature, appetite, water balance, and

emotion.

7. Which part of the brain is reduced in humans and serves as a link

between the forebrain and hindbrain?
a) Midbrain
b) Cerebellum
c) Thalamus
d) Hypothalamus

Answer: A) Midbrain

8. What is the function of the cerebellum?

a) Controls reflex movements of eye muscles
b) Regulates emotions like aggression and pleasure
c) Controls and coordinates all movements involving voluntary muscles
d) Receives sensory information from receptor organs

Answer: C) Controls and coordinates all movements involving voluntary

muscles

9. The right cerebral hemisphere controls which side of the body?

a) Right side
b) Left side
c) Both sides equally
d) It varies depending on the function

Answer: B) Left side

10. The medulla oblongata is a part of which section of the brain?

a) Forebrain
b) Midbrain
c) Hindbrain
d) Cerebrum

Answer: C) Hindbrain

1. What is the primary function of the pons?

a) Controls involuntary activities
b) Serves as a bridge between the cerebellum and other parts of the
brain
 c) Protects the spinal cord
d) Controls reflex actions

Answer: b) Serves as a bridge between the cerebellum and other parts of

the brain

2. Which part of the brain controls involuntary activities such as heart

rate and breathing?
a) Pons
b) Cerebellum
c) Medulla oblongata
d) Spinal cord

Answer: c) Medulla oblongata

3. Which of the following is a characteristic of the spinal cord?

a) It has outer grey matter and central white matter
b) It has a central butterfly-shaped grey matter and outer white matter
c) It only contains myelinated fibres
d) It connects directly to the cerebellum

Answer: b) It has a central butterfly-shaped grey matter and outer white

matter

4. Which of the following activities is controlled by the spinal cord?

a) Heart rate regulation
b) Swallowing
c) Withdrawal of hand on touching a hot object
d) Coughing

Answer: c) Withdrawal of hand on touching a hot object.

5. What distinguishes the grey matter in the spinal cord from the white
matter?
a) Grey matter has myelinated fibres, and white matter has non-
myelinated fibres
b) Grey matter contains cell bodies and non-myelinated fibres, while
white matter has myelinated fibres
c) Grey matter is located on the outside, and white matter is on the
inside
d) Grey matter is found only in the brain

Answer: b) Grey matter contains cell bodies and non-myelinated fibres,

while white matter has myelinated fibres

1. What is the main function of the peripheral nervous system?

a) To control involuntary actions
b) To link different body parts with the brain
 c) To protect the brain and spinal cord
d) To perform voluntary actions only

Answer: b) To link different body parts with the brain

2. Which of the following best describes a nerve in the peripheral

nervous system?
a) A single motor neuron wrapped in muscle tissue
b) A bundle of sensory neurons only
c) Many fibers of sensory and/or motor neurons protected in a sheath
of connective tissue
d) A single sensory neuron wrapped in connective tissue

Answer: c) Many fibers of sensory and/or motor neurons protected in a

sheath of connective tissue

3. How many pairs of cranial nerves do humans have?

a) 12
b) 24
c) 31
d) 10

Answer: a) 12

4. Which of the following nerves originate from the spinal cord?

a) Cranial nerves
b) Voluntary nerves
c) Peripheral nerves
d) Spinal nerves

Answer: d) Spinal nerves

5. What is the main difference between voluntary and involuntary

actions?
a) Voluntary actions are not under conscious control, while involuntary
actions are
b) Voluntary actions are under conscious control, while involuntary
actions are not
c) Both are controlled by cranial nerves
d) Both are controlled by the spinal cord

Answer: b) Voluntary actions are under conscious control, while

involuntary actions are not

1. What is a reflex action?

a) A response controlled by conscious thought
b) A sudden response to a specific stimulus without conscious control
c) A response controlled by the brain after thorough analysis
 d) An activity to keep the brain healthy

Answer: b) A sudden response to a specific stimulus without conscious

control

2. Which part of the reflex arc carries impulses from the receptor to the
CNS?
a) Motor neuron
b) Interneuron
c) Sensory neuron
d) Effector

Answer: c) Sensory neuron

3. What happens to the pupil of the eye when exposed to bright light?
a) It becomes larger
b) It changes color
c) It becomes smaller
d) It remains the same size

Answer: c) It becomes smaller

4. Which of the following is not listed as an activity to keep your brain

healthy?
a) Painting
b) Answering questions
c) Redecorating your room
d) Sleeping for extended periods

Answer: d) Sleeping for extended periods

5. Which is the correct sequence of the reflex arc pathway?

a) Effector → Interneuron → Motor neuron → Sense organ → Sensory
neuron
b) Sense organ → Sensory neuron → Interneuron → Motor neuron →
Effector
c) Sense organ → Motor neuron → Sensory neuron → Interneuron →
Effector
d) Interneuron → Effector → Motor neuron → Sense organ → Sensory
neuron

Answer: b) Sense organ → Sensory neuron → Interneuron → Motor neuron

→ Effector

6. Which of the following activities is recommended for reducing stress

and keeping the brain healthy?
a) Debating aggressively
b) Playing field games
 c) Watching TV all day
d) Avoiding any physical exercise

Answer: b) Playing field games

7. What is the effect of exercise on the brain?

a) It reduces blood flow to the brain
b) It increases blood flow and makes the brain more efficient
c) It exhausts the brain quickly
d) It has no effect on the brain

Answer: b) It increases blood flow and makes the brain more efficient.

1. What is the primary role of the nervous system?

a) To interlink different body parts according to the body’s needs
b) To provide energy to muscles
c) To control only voluntary actions
d) To store nutrients

Answer: a) To interlink different body parts according to the body’s needs.

2. What is the basic functional unit of the nervous system?

a) Brain
b) Spinal cord
c) Neuron
d) Receptor

Answer: c) Neuron

3. What is a stimulus in terms of the nervous system?

a) The change in an organism’s activity
b) The change in the environment
c) A voluntary action
d) The nerve impulse pathway

Answer: b) The change in the environment

4. Which of the following comprises the central nervous system (CNS)?

a) Cranial and spinal nerves
b) Brain and spinal cord
c) Neurons and receptors
d) Brain and cranial nerves

Answer: b) Brain and spinal cord

5. What is the pathway called that transmits a nerve impulse from a

receptor to an effector?
a) Reflex action
b) Reflex arc
 c) Voluntary action
d) CNS

Answer: b) Reflex arc

6. Which of the following is an example of an involuntary action?

a) Writing a note
b) Picking up an object
c) Breathing
d) Walking

Answer: c) Breathing

7. How are reflex actions best described?

a) Sudden voluntary responses
b) Sudden involuntary responses
c) Delayed voluntary responses
d) Conscious responses

Answer: b) Sudden involuntary responses

8. Which system consists of cranial and spinal nerves?

a) Central Nervous System (CNS)
b) Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)
c) Somatic Nervous System
d) Autonomic Nervous System

Answer: b) Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

9. What term is used for actions that are performed consciously?

a) Reflex actions
b) Involuntary actions
c) Voluntary actions
d) Automatic actions

Answer: c) Voluntary actions

1.What is the functional unit of the nervous system?

A) Brain
B) Neuron
C) Spinal cord
D) Reflex arc

Answer: B) Neuron

2.What does the Central Nervous System (CNS) consist of?

a) Cranial and spinal nerves

b) Brain and spinal cord
 c) Reflex arc
d) Neuron and brain

Answer: B) Brain and spinal cord

3. Which of the following is part of the Peripheral Nervous System

(PNS)?
A) Reflex arc
B) Neuron
C) Cranial and spinal nerves
D) Brain and spinal cord

Answer: C) Cranial and spinal nerves

4. What is the term for a sudden involuntary response?

a) Stimulus
b) Voluntary action
c) Reflex action
d) Conscious response

Answer: C) Reflex action

5. The pathway of a nerve impulse from receptor to effector is known

as what?
A) Reflex arc
B) Voluntary action
C) Stimulus
D) Conscious pathway

Answer: A) Reflex arc

6. What is the term for a change in the environment that triggers a

response?
A) Reflex
B) Effector
C) Stimulus
D) Response

Answer: C) Stimulus

7. Which of the following actions is performed without conscious

control?
A) Voluntary action
B) Reflex arc
C) Involuntary action
D) Stimulus

Answer: C) Involuntary action

 8. What connects different body parts to respond according to the
body’s needs?
A) Reflex arc
B) Peripheral Nervous System
C) Nervous system
D) Voluntary actions

Answer: C) Nervous system

1. What is the functional unit of the nervous system?

a) Brain
b) Neuron
c) Spinal cord
d) Reflex arc

Answer: B) Neuron

2. What does the Central Nervous System (CNS) consist of?

a) Cranial and spinal nerves

b) Brain and spinal cord
c) Reflex arc
d) Neuron and brain

Answer: B) Brain and spinal cord

3. Which of the following is part of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)?

a. Reflex arc
b. Neuron
c. Cranial and spinal nerves
d. Brain and spinal cord

Answer: C) Cranial and spinal nerves

4. What is the term for a sudden involuntary response?

a) Stimulus
b) Voluntary action
c) Reflex action
d) Conscious response

Answer: C) Reflex action

5. The pathway of a nerve impulse from receptor to effector is known as

what?

a. Reflex arc
b. Voluntary action
c. Stimulus
 d. Conscious pathway

Answer: A) Reflex arc

6. What is the term for a change in the environment that triggers a

response?

a. Reflex
b. Effector
c. Stimulus
d. Response

Answer: C) Stimulus

7. Which of the following actions is performed without conscious control?

a. Voluntary action
b. Reflex arc
c. Involuntary action
d. Stimulus

Answer: C) Involuntary action

8. What connects different body parts to respond according to the body’s

needs?

a) Reflex arc
b) Peripheral Nervous System
c) Nervous system
d) Voluntary actions

Answer: C) Nervous system

1.What is heredity?

a) The study of variations

b) The process by which traits are passed to the next generation
c) The environmental influence on traits
d) The study of mutations

Answer: B) The process by which traits are passed to the next generation

2.What is the main focus of the field of genetics?

a) Evolution
b) Environmental impact on species
c) Study of heredity and variation
d) Study of only structural adaptations

Answer: C) Study of heredity and variation

3.What is an example of a continuous variation in humans?

 a) Blood groups
b) Ear lobes
c) Skin color
d) Fingerprints

Answer: C) Skin color

4.Which of the following is an example of a behavioral adaptation?

a) Cactus storing water in its stems

b) Seasonal migration of birds
c) Human eye color
d) Variations in height

Answer: B) Seasonal migration of birds

5.What causes genetic variations in sexually reproducing organisms?

a) Adaptations only
b) Mutations, crossing over, and environmental factors
c) Environmental factors alone
d) Only mutations

Answer: B) Mutations, crossing over, and environmental factors

6.What type of adaptation is seen in plants that store water to survive in

dry environments?

a) Behavioral adaptation
b) Discontinuous variation
c) Structural adaptation
d) Genetic mutation

Answer: C) Structural adaptation

1.Why are variations within a species important?

a) They lead to behavioral changes

b) They ensure genetic uniformity
c) They contribute to species survival
d) They create discontinuous traits only

Answer: C) They contribute to species survival

2.Which of the following is an example of discontinuous variation?

a) Human height
b) Skin color
c) Free or attached ear lobes
d) Plant height
Answer: C) Free or attached ear lobes

3.What is adaptation in terms of evolution?

a) The process by which individuals migrate

b) A process where species become fit for their environment
c) The result of environmental changes only
d) A random occurrence in a species

Answer: B) A process where species become fit for their environment

4.How do well-adapted organisms increase the success of their species?

a) By reducing the need for food

b) By living longer and producing more offspring
c) By limiting genetic variation
d) By migrating to other environments

Answer: B) By living longer

5.Where is genetic information stored within a cell?

a) Cytoplasm
b) Ribosomes
c) Nucleus
d) Mitochondria

Answer: C) Nucleus

6.How many chromosomes do humans have in each body cell?

a) 23
b) 46
c) 22
d) 44

Answer: B) 46

7.What is DNA responsible for?

a) Cellular respiration
b) Production of enzymes
c) Transmission of hereditary information
d) Protein synthesis

Answer: C) Transmission of hereditary information

2. What are chromosomes primarily composed of?

a) DNA and lipids
b) RNA and carbohydrates
c) Proteins and DNA
 d) Lipids and proteins

Answer: C) Proteins and DNA

3. What is the hereditary material in all living organisms?

a) RNA
b) DNA
c) Protein
d) Lipid

Answer: B) DNA

4. Which component is NOT part of a nucleotide in DNA?

a) Deoxyribose
b) Phosphate group
c) Nitrogenous base
d) Amino acid

Answer: D) Amino acid

5. What nitrogenous base pairs with adenine in a DNA molecule?

a) Cytosine
b) Thymine
c) Guanine
d) Adenine

Answer: B) Thymine

6. How many types of nitrogenous bases are found in DNA?

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five

Answer: C) Four

7. What is the shape of a DNA molecule?

a) Single helix
b) Double helix
c) Straight ladder
d) Spherical

Answer: B) Double helix

8. Which nitrogenous base pairs with cytosine in DNA?

a) Thymine
b) Guanine
c) Adenine
d) Cytosine
Answer: B) Guanine

1. What is the starting cell of a sexually produced organism

called?
a) Gamete
b) Zygote
c) Embryo
d) Nucleus

Answer: B) Zygote

2. What is the main purpose of mitosis in the human body?

a) Sexual reproduction
b) Production of gametes
c) Growth, development, and wound healing
d) Photosynthesis

Answer: C) Growth, development, and wound healing

3. How many daughter cells are produced in mitosis?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

Answer: B) Two

4. Which phase of mitosis involves the chromosomes aligning in

the center of the cell?
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Telophase

Answer: B) Metaphase

5. During which phase do chromatids separate and move toward

opposite poles?
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Telophase

Answer: C) Anaphase

6. What happens to the chromosomes during telophase?

 A) They align in the center

B) They coil tightly and become visible

C) They split and move to opposite poles

D) They uncoil and disappear

Answer: D) They uncoil and disappear

7. What is cytokinesis?

A) Division of the nucleus

B) Replication of DNA

C) Division of the cell’s cytoplasm

D) Formation of chromosomes

Answer: C) Division of the cell’s cytoplasm

 8. In mitosis, how many chromosomes do the daughter cells
have compared to the parent cell?

A) Half the number of chromosomes

B) Double the number of chromosomes

C) The same number of chromosomes

D) None of the above

Answer: C) The same number of chromosomes

9. What happens to DNA before mitosis begins?

A) DNA is destroyed

B) DNA is coiled up

C) DNA is replicated

D) DNA moves to the poles

Answer: C) DNA is replicated

 10. What structure connects the two chromatids of a
chromosome?

A) Centriole

B) Nucleus

C) Centromere

D) Spindle fiber

Answer: C) Centromere

Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on the provided

text, along with their answers:

1. What is the starting cell of a sexually produced organism called?

A) Gamete

B) Zygote

C) Embryo

D) Nucleus
Answer: B) Zygote

2. What is the main purpose of mitosis in the human body?

A) Sexual reproduction

B) Production of gametes

C) Growth, development, and wound healing

D) Photosynthesis

Answer: C) Growth, development, and wound healing

3. How many daughter cells are produced in mitosis?

A) One

B) Two

C) Three

D) Four

Answer: B) Two
4. Which phase of mitosis involves the chromosomes aligning in the
center of the cell?

A) Prophase

B) Metaphase

C) Anaphase

D) Telophase

Answer: B) Metaphase

5. During which phase do chromatids separate and move toward opposite

poles?

A) Prophase

B) Metaphase

C) Anaphase

D) Telophase

Answer: C) Anaphase
6. What happens to the chromosomes during telophase?

A) They align in the center

B) They coil tightly and become visible

C) They split and move to opposite poles

D) They uncoil and disappear

Answer: D) They uncoil and disappear

7. What is cytokinesis?

A) Division of the nucleus

B) Replication of DNA

C) Division of the cell's cytoplasm

D) Formation of chromosomes

Answer: C) Division of the cell's cytoplasm

8. In mitosis, how many chromosomes do the daughter cells have
compared to the parent cell?

A) Half the number of chromosomes

B) Double the number of chromosomes

C) The same number of chromosomes

D) None of the above

Answer: C) The same number of chromosomes

9. What happens to DNA before mitosis begins?

A) DNA is destroyed

B) DNA is coiled up

C) DNA is replicated

D) DNA moves to the poles

Answer: C) DNA is replicated

10. What structure connects the two chromatids of a chromosome?

A) Centriole

B) Nucleus

C) Centromere

D) Spindle fiber

Answer: C) Centromere

Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on the provided

text, along with their answers:

1. What is the purpose of meiosis in sexually reproducing

organisms?

A) To create identical cells

B) To produce gametes with half the chromosome

number

C) To create body cells

D) To increase chromosome number

Answer: B) To produce gametes with half the chromosome number

2. What type of cells are produced through meiosis?

A) Nerve cells

B) Gametes (sperm and egg)

C) Blood cells

D) Muscle cells

Answer: B) Gametes (sperm and egg)

3. How many daughter cells are produced at the end of

meiosis?

A) One

B) Two

C) Three
 D) Four

Answer: D) Four

4. What is the key difference between meiosis I and

meiosis II?

A) Chromosome number doubles in meiosis II

B) Crossing over occurs in meiosis II only

C) Meiosis I reduces chromosome number, while

meiosis II is like mitosis

D) Meiosis I only involves cytokinesis

Answer: C) Meiosis I reduces chromosome number, while meiosis II is like

mitosis

5. During which phase of meiosis I does crossing over

occur?

A) Prophase I
 B) Metaphase I

C) Anaphase I

D) Telophase I

Answer: A) Prophase I

6. What is the result of crossing over?

A) Chromosome doubling

B) Identical cells

C) Genetic variations in offspring

D) Reduced chromosome number

Answer: C) Genetic variations in offspring

7. In which phase of meiosis I do paired chromosomes

separate and move to opposite poles?
 A) Prophase I

B) Metaphase I

C) Anaphase I

D) Telophase I

Answer: C) Anaphase I

8. How many chromosomes does each daughter cell have

at the end of meiosis compared to the parent cell?

A) Double the number of chromosomes

B) Same number of chromosomes

C) Half the number of chromosomes

D) No chromosomes

Answer: C) Half the number of chromosomes

 9. What is formed around chromosomes at each pole
during telophase I?

A) Spindle fibers

B) Chromatid pairs

C) Nuclear membrane

D) Centromeres

Answer: C) Nuclear membrane

10. How does meiosis II compare to mitosis?

A) It doubles the chromosome number

B) It is similar to mitosis in process

C) It only occurs in body cells

D) It produces identical daughter cells

Answer: B) It is similar to mitosis in process

Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on the provided
text, along with their answers:

1. What is the purpose of meiosis in sexually reproducing organisms?

A) To create identical cells

B) To produce gametes with half the chromosome number

C) To create body cells

D) To increase chromosome number

Answer: B) To produce gametes with half the chromosome number

2. What type of cells are produced through meiosis?

A) Nerve cells

B) Gametes (sperm and egg)

C) Blood cells

D) Muscle cells

Answer: B) Gametes (sperm and egg)

3. How many daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis?

A) One

B) Two

C) Three

D) Four

Answer: D) Four

4. What is the key difference between meiosis I and meiosis II?

A) Chromosome number doubles in meiosis II

B) Crossing over occurs in meiosis II only

C) Meiosis I reduces chromosome number, while meiosis II is like mitosis

D) Meiosis I only involves cytokinesis

Answer: C) Meiosis I reduces chromosome number, while meiosis II is like

mitosis
5. During which phase of meiosis I does crossing over occur?

A) Prophase I

B) Metaphase I

C) Anaphase I

D) Telophase I

Answer: A) Prophase I

6. What is the result of crossing over?

A) Chromosome doubling

B) Identical cells

C) Genetic variations in offspring

D) Reduced chromosome number

Answer: C) Genetic variations in offspring

7. In which phase of meiosis I do paired chromosomes separate and move
to opposite poles?

A) Prophase I

B) Metaphase I

C) Anaphase I

D) Telophase I

Answer: C) Anaphase I

8. How many chromosomes does each daughter cell have at the end of
meiosis compared to the parent cell?

A) Double the number of chromosomes

B) Same number of chromosomes

C) Half the number of chromosomes

D) No chromosomes

Answer: C) Half the number of chromosomes

9. What is formed around chromosomes at each pole during telophase I?

A) Spindle fibers

B) Chromatid pairs

C) Nuclear membrane

D) Centromeres

Answer: C) Nuclear membrane

10. How does meiosis II compare to mitosis?

A) It doubles the chromosome number

B) It is similar to mitosis in process

C) It only occurs in body cells

D) It produces identical daughter cells

Answer: B) It is similar to mitosis in process

Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on the provided
text, along with their answers:

1. What does genetics study?

A) Structure of cells

B) Role of genes in inheritance

C) Types of organisms

D) Environmental factors only

Answer: B) Role of genes in inheritance

2. What are genes?

A) Units of inheritance

B) Units of respiration

C) Types of chromosomes

D) Types of variations
Answer: A) Units of inheritance

3. What are chromosomes made up of?

A) Proteins only

B) Genes

C) Variations

D) Cytoplasm

Answer: B) Genes

4. What are variations?

A) Differences between species

B) Differences among members of the same species

C) Identical characteristics

D) Types of chromosomes
Answer: B) Differences among members of the same species

5. What characteristic is common in successful organisms?

A) Speed

B) Ability to adapt to their environment

C) Large size

D) Identical genes

Answer: B) Ability to adapt to their environment

6. What does mitosis do to the chromosome number in daughter

cells?

A) Doubles it

B) Reduces it by half
 C) Retains it

D) Removes chromosomes completely

Answer: C) Retains it

7. Why is meiosis important in sexual reproduction?

A) It increases chromosome number

B) It ensures variation only

C) It reduces the chromosome number in gametes by half

D) It produces identical cells

Answer: C) It reduces the chromosome number in gametes by half

8. What are the basic units of DNA called?

A) Chromosomes

B) Genes
 C) Nucleotides

D) Cytoplasm

Answer: C) Nucleotides

9. Why does meiosis reduce the chromosome number in

gametes?

A) To allow for asexual reproduction

B) To maintain chromosome number in the next

generation

C) To create identical offspring

D) To adapt to the environment

Answer: B) To maintain chromosome number in the next generation

10. What type of cell division retains the chromosome

number?
 A) Meiosis

B) Cytokinesis

C) Mitosis

D) Fertilization

Answer: C) Mitosis

Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on the provided

text, along with their answers:

1. What does biotechnology involve?

A) Creation of synthetic organisms

B) Engineering living organisms to produce valuable

products

C) Studying living organisms only

D) Observing natural processes

Answer: B) Engineering living organisms to produce valuable products

 2. What has genetic engineering made possible?

A) Production of biofuels only

B) Modification of only microorganisms

C) Modification of microorganisms, higher animals, and

plants

D) Replacement of all natural species

Answer: C) Modification of microorganisms, higher animals, and plants

3. How has biotechnology benefited agriculture?

A) It has decreased food production

B) It has produced disease- and drought-resistant plants

C) It has increased the cost of crops

D) It has eliminated the need for agriculture

Answer: B) It has produced disease- and drought-resistant plants

 4. What is one benefit of genetically modified animals in
farming?

A) Decreased lifespan

B) Increased milk and meat production

C) Reduced size of animals

D) Increased need for pesticides

Answer: B) Increased milk and meat production

5. How does biotechnology contribute to food security?

A) By increasing the cost of food

B) By reducing shelf life of food materials

C) By reducing costs and increasing shelf life of food

materials

D) By promoting only organic food

Answer: C) By reducing costs and increasing shelf life of food materials

6. How is biotechnology helping to combat mineral deficiency

diseases like anaemia?

A) By increasing food production only

B) By promoting synthetic foods

C) By inserting genes in plants to absorb and store more

minerals

D) By reducing the need for minerals

Answer: C) By inserting genes in plants to absorb and store more minerals

7. What role does biotechnology play in healthcare?

A) It reduces the availability of vaccines

B) It helps in fast diagnosis and personal drugs

C) It increases hospital costs

 D) It replaces all traditional medicines

Answer: B) It helps in fast diagnosis and personal drugs

8. How is vaccination contributing to health, according to

biotechnology?

A) It increases disease spread

B) It is helping to eradicate diseases

C) It prevents gene modification

D) It decreases immunity

Answer: B) It is helping to eradicate diseases

9. What environmental benefit do biofuels offer?

A) Increase in pollution

B) Control of pollution and reduction of global warming

 C) Increase in toxic waste

D) Increased deforestation

Answer: B) Control of pollution and reduction of global warming

10. What is replacing toxic synthetic dyes in the textile

industry?

A) Synthetic chemicals

B) Biologically produced dyes

C) Heavy metals

D) Plastic-based dyes

Answer: B) Biologically produced dyes

Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on the provided

text, along with their answers:

1. How are elements arranged in the Periodic Table?

A) By alphabetical order
 B) By increasing atomic number

C) By decreasing atomic mass

D) By group number only

Answer: B) By increasing atomic number

2. What are the vertical columns in the Periodic Table

called?

A) Periods

B) Groups

C) Rows

D) Layers

Answer: B) Groups
 3. What information does the group number in the
Periodic Table provide?

A) Number of protons in the nucleus

B) Number of neutrons in the nucleus

C) Number of electrons in the outermost shell

D) Number of atoms in the element

Answer: C) Number of electrons in the outermost shell

4. Which electrons are involved in chemical reactions?

A) Innermost electrons

B) Outermost electrons

C) Protons

D) Neutrons

Answer: B) Outermost electrons

 5. Elements with the same number of outer electrons
have what in common?

A) Similar atomic numbers

B) Different chemical properties

C) Similar chemical properties

D) Identical atomic masses

Answer: C) Similar chemical properties

6. Which of the following is NOT a property of metals?

A) Shiny appearance

B) Ductile

C) High melting point

D) Bad conductor of heat

Answer: D) Bad conductor of heat

7. What is a characteristic of non-metals?

A) Malleable

B) High melting point

C) Dull appearance

D) Good conductor of electricity

Answer: C) Dull appearance

8. How can metals be made harder and stronger?

A) By cooling them quickly

B) By heating them constantly

C) By mixing them with other metals or non-metals

D) By reducing their atomic mass

Answer: C) By mixing them with other metals or non-metals

9. What is the common state of most non-metals at room

temperature?

A) Solid

B) Liquid

C) Gaseous

D) Plasma

Answer: C) Gaseous

10. What are the horizontal rows in the Periodic Table

called?

A) Groups

B) Periods
 C) Columns

D) Levels

Answer: B) Periods

Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on the provided

text, along with their answers:

1. What is a chemical change also called?

A) Physical change

B) Reaction catalyst

C) Chemical reaction

D) Atomic fusion

Answer: C) Chemical reaction

2. Which of the following is a sign of a chemical reaction?

A) Change in color

B) Change in shape
C) Physical separation

D) Evaporation only

Answer: A) Change in color

3. What does a chemical equation represent?

A) The number of atoms in an element

B) The representation of a chemical reaction

C) The atomic structure of an element

D) Physical change

Answer: B) The representation of a chemical reaction

4. According to the law of conservation of mass, the total mass of

reactants and products is:

A) Created

B) Destroyed
C) Increased

D) Conserved

Answer: D) Conserved

5. What happens in a synthesis reaction?

A) One reactant produces multiple products

B) Two or more reactants combine to form a single product

C) Reactants separate into elements

D) No reaction takes place

Answer: B) Two or more reactants combine to form a single product

6. What is a decomposition reaction?

A) A single reactant produces multiple products

B) Two reactants combine into one product

C) Heat is absorbed
D) Gas is emitted

Answer: A) A single reactant produces multiple products

7. Which reaction involves the exchange of atoms or groups of atoms

between compounds?

A) Synthesis reaction

B) Decomposition reaction

C) Displacement reaction

D) Double displacement reaction

Answer: D) Double displacement reaction

8. What type of reaction releases heat?

A) Endothermic

B) Exothermic

C) Synthesis
D) Neutralization

Answer: B) Exothermic

9. What is an ionic bond?

A) Bond formed by sharing electrons

B) Bond that binds two metals

C) Force of attraction between oppositely charged ions

D) Attraction between similar atoms

Answer: C) Force of attraction between oppositely charged ions

10. What is a triple covalent bond?

A) Sharing of one electron pair

B) Sharing of two electron pairs

C) Sharing of three electron pairs

D) No sharing of electrons

Answer: C) Sharing of three electron pairs

Name : Chemical formula

Hydrochloric acid : HCL

Nitric acid : HNO3

Sulphuric acid :H2SO4

Phosphoric acid : H3PO4

Carbonic acid : H2CO3

Acetic acid : CH3COOH

Formic acid : HCOOH

Citric acid : C6H8O7

Sodium hydroxide(caustic soda) Naoh

Potassium hydroxide (caustic potash) KOH

Calcium hydroxide (slacked lime) CA(OH) 2

Ammonium hydroxide NH4OH

Magnesium hydroxide ( Milk of Magnesium) Mg(OH) 2

Based on the information provided about common indicators and their

color changes in acid and alkali, here are some multiple-choice questions
(MCQs) along with the correct answers:

MCQs on Common Indicators

1. What color does Litmus turn in an acidic solution?

A) Blue

B) Yellow
 C) Red

D) Pink

Answer: C) Red

2. In what color does Methyl orange appear in an alkaline

solution?

A) Red

B) Colourless

C) Yellow

D) Pink

Answer: C) Yellow

3. What color does Phenolphthalein exhibit in a basic

solution?

A) Colourless

B) Red
 C) Yellow

D) Pink

Answer: D) Pink

4. What is the color of Litmus in an alkaline solution?

A) Colourless

B) Blue

C) Red

D) Yellow

Answer: B) Blue

5. Which indicator is colorless in acidic solutions?

A) Methyl orange

B) Litmus
 C) Phenolphthalein

D) Both A and C

Answer: C) Phenolphthalein

6. Which indicator changes from red to yellow when

moving from an acid to an alkali?

A) Litmus

B) Phenolphthalein

C) Methyl orange

D) All of the above

Answer: C) Methyl orange

7. In which solution does Phenolphthalein appear

colorless?

A) Neutral
 B) Acidic

C) Alkaline

D) All of the above

Answer: B) Acidic

8. What color does Methyl orange change to in acidic

conditions?

A) Colourless

B) Blue

C) Yellow

D) Red

Answer: D) Red

1. What do acids produce when dissolved in water?

A) Hydroxide ions (OH⁻)

B) Hydrogen ions (H⁺)

C) Salt

D) Water

Answer: B) Hydrogen ions (H⁺)

2. Which of the following correctly describes an alkali?

A) Produces hydrogen ions in solution

B) Produces hydroxide ions in solution

C) Is always a solid

D) Does not affect litmus paper

Answer: B) Produces hydroxide ions in solution

3. What color does blue litmus paper turn in an acidic solution?

A) Yellow

B) Green

C) Red
D) Blue

Answer: C) Red

4. What is the pH value of a neutral solution?

A) Less than 7

B) Equal to 7

C) Greater than 7

D) 0

Answer: B) Equal to 7

5. Which of the following statements is true about acids and the pH scale?

A) Acids have a pH greater than 7

B) Acids have a pH less than 7

C) All solutions have a pH of 7

D) Acids are neutral solutions

Answer: B) Acids have a pH less than 7

6. What type of reaction occurs when an acid reacts with an alkali?

A) Synthesis reaction

B) Decomposition reaction

C) Neutralization reaction

D) Redox reaction

Answer: C) Neutralization reaction

7. What do antacids do?

A) Increase acidity in the stomach

B) Neutralize excess acid in the stomach

C) Produce hydrogen ions

D) Change the color of litmus paper

Answer: B) Neutralize excess acid in the stomach

8. When an acid reacts with an alkali, what products are formed?

A) Water and carbon dioxide

B) Salt and hydrogen gas

C) Salt and water

D) Water and oxygen

Answer: C) Salt and water

Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on the provided

paragraph, along with their answers:

1. What is a force?

A) A type of energy

B) A push or pull exerted on an object

C) A measure of mass

D) A change in temperature

Answer: B) A push or pull exerted on an object

2. What is the net force?

A) The total mass of an object

B) The sum of all forces acting on an object

C) The force applied by friction

D) The weight of an object

Answer: B) The sum of all forces acting on an object

3. What happens when the net force on an object is 0 N?

A) The object is moving at high speed

B) The forces are unbalanced

C) The forces are balanced

D) The object is at rest only

Answer: C) The forces are balanced

4. What do unbalanced forces produce?

A) No change in motion

B) A change in motion of an object

C) Equal forces acting on an object

D) Increased stability

Answer: B) A change in motion of an object

5. What does the term "pressure" refer to?

A) The weight of an object

B) The force acting on a unit area of a surface

C) The total force applied by gravity

D) The speed of an object

Answer: B) The force acting on a unit area of a surface

6. How does liquid pressure behave with increasing depth?

A) It decreases

B) It remains constant

C) It increases
D) It fluctuates

Answer: C) It increases

7. What is buoyancy?

A) A downward force exerted by a solid

B) A downward force exerted by a liquid

C) An upward force exerted by a fluid that opposes weight

D) A type of friction

Answer: C) An upward force exerted by a fluid that opposes weight

8. What does friction resist?

A) The weight of an object

B) Motion of one object relative to another

C) Pressure on a surface

D) Buoyancy

Answer: B) Motion of one object relative to another

9. What principle do hydraulic elevators use?

A) The principle of gravity

B) The principle of momentum

C) The principle of hydraulics

D) The principle of buoyancy

Answer: C) The principle of hydraulics

10. When one object exerts a force on a second object, what happens?

A) The second object exerts no force

B) The first object experiences a decrease in force

C) The second object exerts a force on the first object

D) The first object stops moving

Answer: C) The second object exerts a force on the first object

Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on the new

paragraph about light and its interactions, along with their answers:
 1. What can happen when light interacts with matter?

A) It can only be absorbed

B) It can be transmitted, absorbed, and reflected

C) It can only be reflected

D) It can disappear

Answer: B) It can be transmitted, absorbed, and reflected

2. How far does light travel in one second?

A) About 300 kilometers

B) About 300,000 kilometers

C) About 30,000 kilometers

D) About 3,000 kilometers

Answer: B) About 300,000 kilometers

 3. In what manner does light travel?

A) In curved paths

B) In straight lines called rays

C) In zigzag patterns

D) In waves only

Answer: B) In straight lines called rays

4. What do the laws of reflection state about the incident ray, reflected
ray, and normal?

A) They are all perpendicular to each other.

B) They lie in the same plane.

C) They form a triangle.

D) They can never meet.

Answer: B) They lie in the same plane.

 5. What is the angle of reflection in relation to the angle of incidence?

A) The angle of reflection is always greater than the angle of

incidence.

B) The angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence.

C) The angle of reflection is always less than the angle of

incidence.

D) The angle of reflection varies randomly.

Answer: B) The angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence.

6. What is a real image?

A) An image that cannot be seen

B) An image that can be obtained on a screen

C) An image that is always virtual

D) An image that is always upside down

Answer: B) An image that can be obtained on a screen

 7. What is a virtual image?

A) An image that can be projected onto a screen

B) An image that cannot be obtained on a screen

C) An image that is always distorted

D) An image that is always larger than the object

Answer: B) An image that cannot be obtained on a screen

8. What causes refraction?

A) The reflection of light

B) The bending of light as it passes from one medium to another

C) The absorption of light by an object

D) The scattering of light

Answer: B) The bending of light as it passes from one medium to another

 9. What is a concave mirror?

A) A mirror with a flat surface

B) A mirror with a reflecting surface on the outside

C) A mirror with a reflecting surface on the inside

D) A mirror that cannot reflect light

Answer: C) A mirror with a reflecting surface on the inside

10. What is a convex mirror?

A) A mirror with a reflecting surface on the inside

B) A mirror with a flat surface

C) A mirror with a reflecting surface on the outside

D) A mirror that produces only virtual images

Answer: C) A mirror with a reflecting surface on the outside

Unit of charge: coulumb

Unit of current : Ampare

United of voltage : volt

Unit of Resistance : Ohm

Unit of power : Whatt

Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on the new

paragraph about electricity and electromagnetism, along with their
answers:

1. What is the rate of flow of charge called?

A) Voltage

B) Resistance

C) Current

D) Charge

Answer: C) Current

2. What term is used to describe the difference of electric potential

between two points?

A) Current

B) Resistance
 C) Voltage

D) Power

Answer: C) Voltage

3. What is resistance a measure of?

A) The speed of charge flow

B) The strength of an electric field

C) Opposition to the flow of current

D) The total voltage in a circuit

Answer: C) Opposition to the flow of current

4. What is a device intended to offer resistance called?

A) A capacitor

B) A transformer
 C) A resistor

D) A conductor

Answer: C) A resistor

5. What is the purpose of a fuse or circuit breaker?

A) To increase current flow

B) To measure voltage

C) To prevent overloading in high current drainage

D) To provide electrical insulation

Answer: C) To prevent overloading in high current drainage

6. How is the metal body of an electrical appliance earthed?

A) By connecting it to a live wire

B) By connecting it to the ground to avoid electrical shock

 C) By insulating it completely

D) By increasing its resistance

Answer: B) By connecting it to the ground to avoid electrical shock

7. What is an electromagnet?

A) A permanent magnet made of steel

B) A coil with a soft iron core that acts as a magnet when current
flows through it

C) A device that measures electric current

D) A type of resistor

Answer: B) A coil with a soft iron core that acts as a magnet when current
flows through it

8. What factors increase the strength of an electromagnet?

A) Decreasing current and increasing resistance

B) Increasing current and increasing the number of turns in the

coil
 C) Reducing the size of the core

D) Decreasing the number of turns in the coil

Answer: B) Increasing current and increasing the number of turns in the

coil

9. What is the function of a circuit breaker?

A) To increase voltage in a circuit

B) To automatically disconnect a circuit in case of overload

C) To measure electric current

D) To convert AC to DC

Answer: B) To automatically disconnect a circuit in case of overload

10. What does the term “earthing” refer to in electrical

appliances?

A) Connecting the appliance to an electrical source

 B) Insulating the appliance from all electrical sources

C) Providing a path for electrical current to the ground to prevent

shock

D) Increasing the voltage of the appliance

Answer: C) Providing a path for electrical current to the ground to prevent

shock

Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on the latest

paragraph about solar cookers, wind turbines, and uninterruptible power
supplies (UPS), along with their answers:

1. What type of solar cooker is typically made from curved reflective

sheets or small mirrors?

A) Flat plate solar cooker

B) Concave mirror type solar cooker

C) Electric solar cooker

D) Gas solar cooker

Answer: B) Concave mirror type solar cooker

2. What is the primary function of a parabolic solar cooker?

 A) To cool food

B) To focus solar radiation on a small area for cooking

C) To generate wind energy

D) To store electrical energy

Answer: B) To focus solar radiation on a small area for cooking

3. What materials can be used for the reflective surface of a solar

cooker?

A) Only metal

B) Only plastic

C) Metal, plastic, or plywood covered with reflective foil

D) Glass only

Answer: C) Metal, plastic, or plywood covered with reflective foil

4. What does a wind turbine convert into electrical energy?

 A) Solar energy

B) Chemical energy

C) Kinetic energy of wind

D) Thermal energy

Answer: C) Kinetic energy of wind

5. What is the main purpose of an uninterruptible power supply (UPS)?

A) To store energy for future use

B) To provide emergency power when the main power source

fails

C) To convert AC power to DC power

D) To regulate voltage levels in a circuit

Answer: B) To provide emergency power when the main power source fails
 6. Which of the following is a key feature of a concave mirror type solar
cooker?

A) It uses only electricity to cook food.

B) It can only operate at night.

C) It captures and concentrates sunlight for cooking.

D) It requires a fuel source like gas.

Answer: C) It captures and concentrates sunlight for cooking.

7. How does a wind turbine function?

A) By harnessing thermal energy

B) By converting wind’s kinetic energy into electrical energy

C) By using solar panels

D) By generating heat from friction

Answer: B) By converting wind’s kinetic energy into electrical energy

 8. In which scenario would a UPS be most beneficial?

A) During a sunny day

B) When the main power source is stable

C) During a power outage

D) When using a solar cooker

Answer: C) During a power outage

9. What is the advantage of using reflective sheets in a solar cooker?

A) They make the cooker lighter.

B) They enhance the cooking speed by focusing sunlight.

C) They increase the cost of the cooker.

D) They allow for more heat loss.

Answer: B) They enhance the cooking speed by focusing sunlight.

 10. What is a common use of energy generated by wind turbines?

A) Heating water

B) Charging batteries

C) Providing electricity to homes and industries

D) Cooking food

Answer: C) Providing electricity to homes and industries

Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on the latest

paragraph about galaxies, stars, and space exploration, along with their
answers:

1. What is a galaxy?

A) A type of star

B) A huge collection of gases, dust, stars, and their solar systems

C) A tool used by astronomers

D) A planet in the solar system

Answer: B) A huge collection of gases, dust, stars, and their solar systems
 2. Which galaxy does our solar system belong to?

A) Andromeda

B) Milky Way

C) Triangulum

D) Sombrero

Answer: B) Milky Way

3. What are stars primarily composed of?

A) Solid metal

B) Cold gases

C) Huge balls of hot gases

D) Liquid hydrogen

Answer: C) Huge balls of hot gases

 4. How are stars born?

A) By merging with other stars

B) From the cooling of gases

C) When gaseous clouds contract due to the pull of gravity

D) From solid materials in space

Answer: C) When gaseous clouds contract due to the pull of gravity

5. What happens to stars at the end of their life cycle?

A) They explode and become black holes.

B) They turn into supernovas.

C) They die when the fuel for nuclear reactions is used up.

D) They remain unchanged.

Answer: C) They die when the fuel for nuclear reactions is used up.
 6. What is cosmology?

A) The study of stars

B) The study of planets

C) The study of the character and evolution of the universe

D) The study of galaxies only

Answer: C) The study of the character and evolution of the universe

7. What will happen to the sun in the future?

A) It will become a black hole.

B) It will turn into a white dwarf.

C) It will explode as a supernova.

D) It will vanish completely.

Answer: B) It will turn into a white dwarf.

 8. What is the primary purpose of a telescope?

A) To measure distances in space

B) To see far-away objects enlarged

C) To create stars

D) To analyze the composition of planets

Answer: B) To see far-away objects enlarged

9. What is a space probe?

A) A type of satellite

B) A vehicle without astronauts launched to explore the universe

C) A device used to communicate with astronauts

D) A tool for measuring gravitational pull

Answer: B) A vehicle without astronauts launched to explore the universe

 10. What role does gravity play in the formation of stars?

A) It causes stars to explode.

B) It pulls gaseous clouds together, leading to star formation.

C) It prevents stars from forming.

D) It only affects planets, not stars.

Answer: B) It pulls gaseous clouds together, leading to star formation.