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CCNAv7 (2020) – New Questions Part 6

February 19th, 2021 Go to comments

Premium Members: You can practice these questions first via these links:
+ First 15 Questions
+ Questions 16 to end

Question 1

What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose
two)

A. Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures

B. Data collection and analysis tools establish a baseline for the network
C. New devices are onboarded with minimal effort
D. Machine learning minimizes the overall error rate when automating troubleshooting processes
E. Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools

Answer: A E

Question 2

A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1. The requirement is to use a
public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client. Which
configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?

A.
R1#enable
R1#configure terminal
R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com
R1(config)#crypto key generate ec keysize 1024

B.
R1#enable
R1#configure terminal
R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com
R1(config)#crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

C.
R1#enable
R1#configure terminal

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R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com

R1(config)#crypto key generate ec keysize 2048

D.
R1#enable
R1#configure terminal
R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com
R1(config)#crypto key encrypt rsa name myKey

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: B

Explanation

Both RSA, elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) are asymmetrical encryption so it satisfies the requirement of this
question (to use a public and private key pair). Asymmetrical encryption is different from symmetrical
encryption in that to send data in a single direction, two associated keys are needed. One of these keys is known
as the private key, while the other is called the public key.

To generate an Elliptic Curve (EC) key pair, use the crypto key generate ec keysize command in global
configuration mode.
crypto key generate ec keysize {256 | 384} [exportable] [label key-label]

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/security/a1/sec-a1-cr-book/sec-cr-c4.html

-> EC only supports 256 or 384 bit key size -> Answer A and answer C are not correct.

The command “crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024” generate a 1024 bit RSA key pair. Although 1024-bit or
smaller key pair should not be used but it is the only correct answer in this question.

Note: The command “crypto key encrypt rsa name …” is used to encrypt the RSA key.

Question 3

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be
configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points?

A. Client Band Select

B. OEAP Split Tunnel
C. 11ac MU-MIMO
D. Re-Anchor Roamed Clients

Answer: A

Explanation

Band selection works by regulating probe responses to clients and it can be enabled on a per-WLAN basis. It
makes 5-GHz channels more attractive to clients by delaying probe responses to clients on 2.4-GHz channels.
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Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-3/config-
guide/b_cg83/b_cg83_chapter_011100.html

Question 4

When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?

A. Unicode
B. base64
C. ASCII
D. decimal

Answer: C

Explanation

When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 Preshared Key (PSK), we can choose the encryption key format as
either ASCII or HEX.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/9800/config-guide/b_wl_16_10_cg/multi-
preshared-key.pdf

Question 5

Which networking function occurs on the data plane?

A. facilitates spanning-tree elections

B. processing inbound SSH management traffic
C. forwarding remote client/server traffic
D. sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets

Answer: C

Question 6

What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound
API?

A. XML
B. Java
C. REST
D. OpenFlow

Answer: D

Explanation

OpenFlow and NETCONF are Southbound APIs used for most SDN implementations.

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Note: SDN northbound APIs are usually RESTful APIs used to communicate between the SDN Controller and
the services and applications running over the network.

Question 7

A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2
GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address
2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?

A. ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B

B. ipv6 address 2001 db8:0::500:a:4F:583B
C. ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5:a:4F:583B
D. ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B

Answer: A

Question 8

An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken
to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?

A. Enable Security Association Teardown Protection and set the SA Query timeout to 10
B. Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the Comeback timer to 10
C. Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set the Comeback timer to 10
D. Enable MAC filtering and set the SA Query timeout to 10

Answer: B

Explanation

Comeback timer specifies the time which an associated client must wait before the association can be tried again
when first denied with a status code 30.

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SA query timeout specifies the amount of time the WLC waits for a response from the client for the query
process.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/212576-configure-
802-11w-management-frame-prote.html

Note: We can use either 802.1x or PSK as the authentication key management method so answer C is not
correct.

Question 9

What is the benefit of using FHRP?

A. balancing traffic across multiple gateways in proportion to their loads

B. reduced management overhead on network routers
C. reduced ARP traffic on the network
D. higher degree of availability

Answer: D

Question 10

Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?

A. Authentication Request
B. Probe Request
C. Reassociation Request
D. Association Request

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Answer: C

Explanation

Association request frame – (0x00) Sent from a wireless client, it enables the AP to allocate resources and
synchronize. The frame carries information about the wireless connection including supported data rates and
SSID of the network to the wireless client that wants to associate. If the request is accepted, the AP reserves
memory and establishes an association ID for the device.

Association response frame – (0x01) Sent from an AP to a wireless client containing the acceptance or rejection
to an association request. If it is an acceptance, the frame contains information, such as an association ID and
supported data rates.

Reassociation request frame – (0x02) A device sends a reassociation request when it drops from range of the
currently associated AP and finds another AP with a stronger signal. The new AP coordinates the forwarding of
any information that may still be contained in the buffer of the previous AP.

Reassociation response frame – (0x03) Sent from an AP containing the acceptance or rejection to a device
reassociation request frame. The frame includes information required for association, such as the association ID
and supported data rates.

Probe request frame – (0x04) Sent from a wireless client when it requires information from another wireless
client.

Authentication frame – (0x0B) The sending device sends an authentication frame to the AP containing its
identity.

Reference: https://www.ii.pwr.edu.pl/~kano/course/module8/8.2.1.4/8.2.1.4.html

Question 11

What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?

A. Both have a 50 micron core diameter

B. Both have a 9 micron core diameter
C. Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter
D. Both have a 100 micron core diameter

Answer: A

Explanation

At present, there are four kinds of c: OM1, OM2, OM3 and OM4. The letters “OM” stand for optical multi-
mode. OM3 and OM4 fibers will support upcoming 40 and 100 Gb/s speeds. OM2, OM3, OM4 and OM5 have
50 micron core diameter.

Question 12

Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch?

A. Internet Group Management Protocol

B. Cisco Discovery Protocol
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C. Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol

D. Neighbor Discovery Protocol

Answer: B

Question 13

When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?

A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6

Answer: D

Syslog levels are listed below

Level Keyword Description

0 emergencies System is unusable
1 alerts Immediate action is needed
2 critical Critical conditions exist
3 errors Error conditions exist
4 warnings Warning conditions exist
5 notification Normal, but significant, conditions exist
6 informational Informational messages
7 debugging Debugging messages

The highest level is level 0 (emergencies). The lowest level is level 7. By default, the router will send
informational messages (level 6). That means it will send all the syslog messages from level 0 to 6.

Question 14

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be executed for Gi1/1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in
desirable or trunk mode?

A. switchport mode trunk

B. switchport mode dot1-tunnel
C. switchport mode dynamic auto
D. switchport mode dynamic desirable

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Answer: D

Explanation

According to the trunking condition table below, we can use either (dynamic) “auto” or (dynamic) “desirable”
mode or even “trunk” mode so in fact this question has three correct answers.

Question 15

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic. Which configuration
accomplishes this task?

Option A Option B
interface gigabitethernet1/1 interface gigabitethernet1/1
switchport mode access switchport mode access
switchport access vlan 300 switchport access vlan 400
switchport voice vlan 400 switchport voice vlan 300
Option C Option D
interface gigabitethernet1/1 interface gigabitethernet1/1
switchport mode trunk switchport mode trunk

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switchport access vlan 300 switchport trunk vlan 300

switchport voice vlan 400 switchport trunk vlan 400

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: A

Question 16

What describes the operation of virtual machines?

A. Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources
B. Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware
C. Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment
D. In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time

Answer: B

Explanation

Hypervisors are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources, not virtual machines ->
Answer A is not correct.

Virtual machines are not the physical hardware but virtual instances -> Answer C is not correct.

In a virtual machine environment, a Type 1 physical server usually run a hypervisor (not operating system) to
create multiple virtual machines -> Answer D is not correct.

-> Only answer B is the best choice left.

Question 17

What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?

A. connect wireless devices to a wired network

B. support secure user logins to devices or the network

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C. integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks

D. serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network

Answer: A

Question 18

Refer to the exhibit.

SiteA#show interface TenGigabitEthernet0/1/0

TenGigabitEthernet0/1/0 is up, line protocol is up
Hardware is BUILT-IN-EPA-8x10G, address is aabb.cc00.0100 (bia aabb.cc00.0100)
Description: Connection to SiteB
Internet address is 10.10.10.1/30
MTU 8146 bytes, BW 10000000 Kbit/sec, DLY 10 usec,
reliability 166/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255
Full Duplex, 10000Mbps, link type is force-up, media type is SFP-LR
5 minute input rate 265746000 bits/sec, 24343 packets/sec
5 minute output rate 123245000 bits/sec, 12453 packets/sec

SiteB#show interface TenGigabitEthernet0/1/0

TenGigabitEthernet0/1/0 is up, line protocol is up
Hardware is BUILT-IN-EPA-8x10G, address is 0000.0c00.750c (bia 0000.0c00.750c)
Description: Connection to SiteA
Internet address is 10.10.10.2/30
MTU 8146 bytes, BW 10000000 Kbit/sec, DLY 10 usec,
reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255
Full Duplex, 10000Mbps, link type is force-up, media type is SFP-LR
5 minute input rate 123245000 bits/sec, 15343 packets/sec
5 minute output rate 265746000 bits/sec, 12453 packets/sec

Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path, users at SiteA report intermittent
connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB. What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?

A. Interface errors are incrementing

B. An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA
C. High usage is causing high latency
D. The sites were connected with the wrong cable type

Answer: A

Explanation

The txload and rxload on both sites are 1/255 so the interfaces are not busy in transmitting and receiving traffic.
But the reliability on SiteA is only 166/255 which indicates input and output errors increase. Reliability is
calculated by this formula: reliability = number of packets / number of total frames.

Question 19

Refer to the exhibit.

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Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.

Branch-1: priority 614440
Branch-2: priority 39082416
Branch-3: priority 0
Branch-4: root primary

Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?

A. Branch-1
B. Branch-2
C. Branch-3
D. Branch-4

Answer: C

Explanation

Priority 0 is the lowest priority of a bridge so it will be elected the root bridge.

Note: The command “root primary” only checks the current root bridge priority and tries to use a better (lower)
priority value to become the new root bridge. But it does not ensure the local switch will become the root bridge.
If another switch has priority of 0 and we issue the “root primary” command then it will inform that it cannot
become root, as it cannot get a value lower than 0.

Question 20

Refer to the exhibit.

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The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1. What does the
switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?

A. Map the Layer 2 MAC address to the Layer 3 IP address and forward the frame
B. Insert the source MAC address and port into the forwarding table and forward the frame to Sales-1
C. Perform a lookup in the MAC address table and discard the frame due to a missing entry
D. Flood the frame out of all ports except on the port where Sales-1 is connected

Answer: B

Explanation

The Sales-1 information was already learned by the switch so it just forwards the frames to Sales-1. The switch
also learns the information of Sales-4 because this is the first time this host communicates to other hosts.

Question 21

Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?

A. virtual device contexts

B. network port ID visualization
C. virtual routing and forwarding
D. server virtualization

Answer: D

Question 22

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with last usable address in
the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?

A. interface gi0/1
no cdp enable

B. interface gi0/1
clear cdp table
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C. interface gi0/0
no cdp run

D. interface gi0/0
no cdp advertise-v2

Answer: A

Explanation

In order to disable CDP on an interface, we have to use the “no cdp enable” under interface mode.

Note: “no cdp run” is a global configuration command.

Question 23

Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? (Choose two)

A. FRTS
B. CAR
C. PQ
D. PBR
E. CBWFQ

Answer: C E

Question 24

What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?

A. The wireless network becomes vulnerable to unauthorized access

B. Wireless devices are unable to distinguish between different SSIDs
C. Network communications are open to eavesdropping
D. Users experience poor wireless network performance

Answer: D

Question 25

Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute-value pairs?

A. array
B. string
C. object
D. Boolean

Answer: C

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Explanation

An object is an unordered collection of zero or more name/value pairs. For example {“name”:”John”}. Objects
are denoted by curly brackets, which means that the order is not guaranteed. For example, if you send a request
{“name”:”9tut”,”preferredColor”:”Blue”}, it is not always guaranteed that the receiver receives them in the same
order.

Note: In contrast to object, an array is an ordered sequence of zero or more values. For example [“a”,”b”,”c”].
Arrays use square brackets to denote arrays. Order is guaranteed in JSON arrays.

Question 26

An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN
database which action must be taken?

A. Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number
B. Add the switch in the VTP domain with a higher revision number
C. Add the switch with DTP set to dynamic desirable
D. Add the switch with DTP set to desirable

Answer: A

Explanation

If you add a higher revision number switch to the network then all other switches in the current network will
learn from the newly added one. And all current VLAN databases will be overwritten.

Question 27

Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?

A. distribution system
B. service
C. redundancy
D. console

Answer: A

Explanation

Redundancy Port is used for High-Availability (HA) deployment designs when there are two WLCs available.
In this setup, both WLCs are physically connected with each other through the Redundant Port using an Ethernet
cable. The redundancy port is used for configuration, operational data synchronization and role negotiation
between the primary and secondary controllers.

The service port is used for out-of-band management of the controller and system recovery and maintenance in
the event of a network failure.

The distribution system ports are the most important ports on the WLC as they connect the internal logical
interfaces and wireless client traffic to the rest of our network. The SFP Ports are able to accept fiber optic or
Ethernet copper interfaces, with the use of the appropriate SFPs.

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The service-port interface is used for out-of-band management of the controller.

============================= New Questions (added on 7th-Mar-2021)

=============================

Question 28

An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions.
Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result?

A. logging trap 2
B. logging trap 3
C. logging trap 4
D. logging trap 5

Answer: C

Explanation

Syslog levels are listed below

Level Keyword Description

0 emergencies System is unusable
1 alerts Immediate action is needed
2 critical Critical conditions exist
3 errors Error conditions exist
4 warnings Warning conditions exist
5 notification Normal, but significant, conditions exist
6 informational Informational messages
7 debugging Debugging messages

The highest level is level 0 (emergencies). The lowest level is level 7. If we configure syslog level 4 then it will
send all the syslog messages from level 0 to 4.

Question 29

Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right.

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Answer:

+ 802.11b: Supports a maximum data rate of 11 Mbps

+ 802.11a: Operates in the 5 GHz band only and supports a maximum data rate of 54 Mbps
+ 802.11ac: Operates in the 5 GHz band only and supports a maximum data rate that can exceed 100 Mbps
+ 802.11n: Operates in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands
+ 802.11g: Operates in the 2.4 GHz band only and supports a maximum data rate of 54 Mbps

Explanation

Wireless Standards

IEEE Frequency/Medium Speed Topology Transmission Range Access

Standard Method

802.11 2.4GHz RF 1 to Ad 20 feet indoors. CSMA/CA

2Mbps hoc/infrastructure

802.11a 5GHz Up to Ad 25 to 75 feet indoors; range can be CSMA/CA

54Mbps hoc/infrastructure affected by building materials.

802.11b 2.4GHz Up to Ad Up to 150 feet indoors; range can CSMA/CA

11Mbps hoc/infrastructure be affected by building materials.

802.11g 2.4GHz Up to Ad Up to 150 feet indoors; range can CSMA/CA

54Mbps hoc/infrastructure be affected by building materials.

802.11n 2.4GHz/5GHz Up to Ad 175+ feet indoors; range can be CSMA/CA

600Mbps hoc/infrastructure affected by building materials.

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802.11ac uses dual-band wireless technology, supporting simultaneous connections on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz
Wi-Fi devices. 802.11ac offers backward compatibility to 802.11a/b/g/n and bandwidth rated up to 1300 Mbps
on the 5 GHz band plus up to 450 Mbps on 2.4 GHz.

Question 30

Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two)

A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. Telnet
D. SCP
E. SSH

Answer: C E

Explanation

The service-port interface controls communications through and is statically mapped by the system to the service
port. The service port can be used for out-of-band management.
The service port can obtain an IPv4 address using DHCP, or it can be assigned a static IPv4 address, but a default
gateway cannot be assigned to the service-port interface. Static IPv4 routes can be defined through the controller
for remote network access to the service port.
If the service port is in use, the management interface must be on a different supernet from the service-port
interface.

The service-port interface supports the following protocols:

+ SSH and Telnet
+ HTTP and HTTPS
+ SNMP
+ FTP, TFTP, and SFTP
+ Syslog
+ ICMP (ping)
+ NTP
Note: TACACS+ and RADIUS are not supported through the service port.

Question 31

Refer to the exhibit.

How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?
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Option A Option B

conf t conf t
RouterA(config)#no cdp run RouterA(config)#cdp run
RouterA(config)#interface gi0/0/1 RouterA(config)#interface gi0/0/1
RouterA(config)#cdp enable RouterA(config)#cdp enable

Option C Option D

conf t conf t
RouterA(config)#cdp run RouterA(config)#cdp run
RouterA(config)#interface gi0/0/0 RouterA(config)#interface gi0/0/0
RouterA(config)#cdp enable RouterA(config)#no cdp enable

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: D

Explanation

If CDP is disabled globally, you cannot enable it on each interface using the “cdp enable” interface configuration
mode command.

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/optical/cpt/r9_5/command/reference/cpt95_cr/cpt95_cr_chapter_01101.pdf

Therefore in order to enable CDP on a specific interface only, we must:

1. Enable CDP globally
2. Disable CDP on other interfaces.

============================= New Questions (added on 5th-May-2021)

=============================

Question 32

What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology?

A. supports application optimization

B. provides direct connections between subscribers
C. supports Layer 2 VPNs
D. allows access restrictions to be implemented between subscriber sites

Answer: D

Question 33

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Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running configuration?

A. enable secret
B. enable password-encryption
C. service password-encryption
D. password-encrypt

Answer: C

Explanation

The service password-encryption command will encrypt all current and future passwords so any password
existed in the configuration will be encrypted.

Comments (10) Comments

Comment pages
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1. ArmandoRacer
August 10th, 2021

Hello, I would like to know if the questions that come in the current exam are those of “NEW QUESTION
PART 5,6,7,8” ??? OR COME THOSE THAT ARE IN THE ROW OF CCNA THAT BEGINS WITH
THE BASIC QUESTIONS BOSE THE ONE OF EACH THEME AS IT IS DIVIDED IN 9 TUT

2. 9tut
August 11th, 2021

@ArmandoRacer: The questions come from both so you need to grasp all of them before taking the exam.

3. exam
August 17th, 2021

is the exam is stabel till end of august?

4. Ahmed
November 5th, 2021

In question 29, there seems to be a contradiction.

In the answer it says “802.11ac: Operates in the 5 GHz band only…” but in the explanation is says
“802.11ac uses dual-band wireless technology, supporting simultaneous connections on *both* 2.4 GHz
and 5 GHz Wi-Fi devices”.

5. Hiro
February 24th, 2022

@9tut
Could you please check the question below?
I think the answer is B, not A.

Question 26

An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the
VLAN database which action must be taken?
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11:12, 16/06/2022 CCNA Training » CCNAv7 (2020) – New Questions Part 6

A. Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number
B. Add the switch in the VTP domain with a higher revision number
C. Add the switch with DTP set to dynamic desirable
D. Add the switch with DTP set to desirable

Answer: A

6. 9tut
February 24th, 2022

@Hiro: This question is correct. If you add a higher revision number switch to the network then all other
switches in the current network will learn from the newly added one. And all current VLAN databases will
be overwritten.

7. Anonymous
February 25th, 2022

@9tut: “And all current VLAN databases will be overwritten.”

This result is what is called “VTP bomb”. Please check again.

8. 9tut
February 25th, 2022

Yes, so we have to “Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number”. This means the old
switch must have a lower revision number than the ones in our network.

9. Barbie
May 20th, 2022

Hello
Can someone explain why isn’t the answer of Q32 “B”?
Why is it D?

10. JD
May 24th, 2022

@Barbie:

“direct connections between subscribers” is a full-mesh topology, not the hub and spoke. In hub and spoke
every subscriber (spoke) connects to the central (hub). This way security policies can be implemented on
hub to restrict access between subscribers.

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