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SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 22 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C.: FIAS-SFG25-L2T22 Test Booklet Series
Test Code: 221172

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES & CSAT

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 Page 2

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 22 |

Q.1) Which of the following are not necessarily Q.4) Consider the following statements:
the consequences of the proclamation of the 1. Unlike the President of India, the Governor of
President’s rule in a State? a state has constitutional discretion.
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly 2. The office of the Governor of a state is an
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the employment under the Cental government.
State 3. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
3. Dissolution of the local bodies (1976) made the advice of the Council of
Select the correct answer using the code given Ministers binding on the Governor.
below: Which of the statements given above is/are
a) 1 and 2 only correct?
b) 1 and 3 only a) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2
Q.2) Consider the following:
1. Elected members of the Lok Sabha Q.5) With reference to Military exercise Pitch
2. Nominated members of Rajya Sabha black, consider the following statements:
3. Elected members of the state legislative 1. It is a biennial multinational exercise.
councils 2. The latest edition was hosted by the United
4. Elected members of the state legislative States Air Force.
assembly of Jammu & Kashmir 3. India participated in the multinational
5. Elected members of the state legislative exercise.
assembly of Puducherry Which of the statements given above are
How many of the above are part of the electoral correct?
college that elects the President of India? a) 1 and 2 only
a) Only two b) 1 and 3 only
b) Only three c) 2 and 3 only
c) Only four d) 1, 2 and 3
d) All five
Q.6) Consider the following statements with
Q.3) With reference to Central Pay Commission reference to the Vice-President of India:
in India, consider the following statements: 1. Only the elected members of Parliament
1. The Chairman and members of the Central participate in the election of the Vice-
Pay Commission are appointed by the President.
President of India. 2. If the office of Vice-President falls vacant, a
2. As of 2025, a total of eight Central Pay fresh election must be held within six
Commissions have been constituted in India. months.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. As per the Constitution, the Vice-President
correct? does not have a fixed tenure.
a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
b) 2 only correct?
c) Both 1 and 2 a) 1 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None of the above

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SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 22 |

Q.7) With reference to the Prime Minister of 3. To impeach the President, the resolution
India, consider the following statements: must be passed in each house by a majority
1. The Constitution of India does not provide a of not less than two-thirds of the total
fixed tenure to the Prime Minister. membership of the House.
2. S/he is responsible for appointing the Which of the statements given above is/are
ministers in the Union Council of Ministers. correct?
3. The Oath to the Prime Minister is a) 2 only
administered by the Chief Justice of India. b) 1 and 3
4. The Prime Minister is the supreme c) 2 and 3
commander of the defense forces in India. d) 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) 1 and 2 Q.10) Which of the following statements is/are
b) 1 and 3 correct regarding the National Institutional
c) 1 only Ranking Framework (NIRF)?
d) 3 and 4 1. It is prepared and annually released by the
NITI Aayog.
Q.8) Consider the following statements with 2. ‘Graduation Outcome’ one of the parameters
reference to the Union Council of Ministers under NIRF is given the highest weightage for
(CoM): ranking educational institutions.
1. The total number of Ministers, including the Select the correct answer using the code given
Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers below:
shall not exceed 15% of the total number of a) 1 only
members of the House of the people. b) 2 only
2. The salaries and allowances of ministers are c) Both 1 and 2
determined by the President of India. d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. The Council of Ministers does not cease to
hold office even after the dissolution of the Q.11) Under Article 355 of the Constitution of
Lok Sabha. India, it is the duty of the Union to:
4. The advice given by the CoM to the President a) protect Sates against external aggression and
cannot be called into question in any court. internal disturbance.
Which of the statements given above are b) allow the extension of executive powers of
correct? the Union to any Sate.
a) 1 and 2 only c) declare that the powers of the Legislature of
b) 3 and 4 only a State shall be exercisable by or under the
c) 1, 2 and 3 authority of the Parliament.
d) 1, 3 and 4 d) allow the Parliament to include or exclude
any caste, race or tribe into the list of the
Q.9) Consider the following statements with Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes
reference to the impeachment of the President
of India: Q.12) Who among the following can make
1. As per the Constitution s/he can be removed provisions for discharge of functions of
from office only on the grounds of proved Governor in any contingency not provided in the
misbehaviour or incapacity. constitution?
2. The impeachment resolution to be a) President
introduced in the Parliament must be signed b) State Legislatures
by at least one-fourth of the total members c) Prime Minister
of the house where it's introduced. d) Parliament of India

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SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 22 |

Q.13) Consider the following statements 2. High-Quality Liquid Assets (HQLA) under it
regarding the Cabinet Secretary of India: includes investments in government
1. Appointments Committee of the Cabinet securities by financial institution.
approves the appointment of the Cabinet Which of the statements given above is/are
Secretary. correct?
2. S/he has a fixed tenure of two years. a) 1 only
3. S/he is the administrative head of the b) 2 only
Cabinet Secretariat. c) Both 1 and 2
4. S/he is the ex-officio Chairperson of the d) Neither 1 nor 2
Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above are Q.16) Consider the following bodies in India:
correct? 1. National Crisis Management Committee
a) 1, 3 and 4 only 2. Atomic Energy Commission
b) 2 and 3 only 3. Cabinet Committee on Security
c) 1 and 4 only 4. National Security Council
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Which of the following bodies are headed by or
under the chairmanship of the Prime Minister of
Q.14) With reference to Article 356 of the India?
Constitution of India popularly called as a) 1 and 2 only
President’s Rule, consider the following b) 3 and 4 only
statements: c) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. A proclamation imposing the President’s Rule d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
must be approved by both Houses of
Parliament with a majority of all the then Q.17) Consider the following statements:
members of the House. 1. Any bill passed by the State Legislature must
2. In a state, it can be extended beyond one be reserved for the consideration of the
year only if the Governor of the state President.
suggests such an extension. 2. The President can issue directions for the
3. Chhattisgarh and Telangana are the only reduction of salaries and allowances of
States in India where the President's rule has Supreme Court and High Court judges.
not been imposed so far. 3. The tenure of the Lok Sabha is automatically
Which of the statements given above is/are extended by one year.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
a) 1 and 2 only consequences of Financial Emergency under
b) 3 only Article 360 of the Indian Constitution?
c) 1 only a) 1 and 2
d) None of the above b) 2 only
c) 1 only
Q.15) Consider the following statements with d) 2 and 3
reference to the Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR)
as mandated by the Basel III framework:
1. It refers to the proportion of highly quality
liquid assets held by financial institutions
against their gross Non-Performing assets.

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SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 22 |

Q.18) In the context of Parliamentary control Q.21) Which of the following are the
over the executive in India, consider the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a
following statements: State?
Statement I: The passing of the Censure motion 1. Sending a report to the President of India for
in the Lok Sabha necessarily leads to the imposing the President’s rule
resignation of the Council of Ministers. 2. Appointing the Ministers
Statement II: The Council of Ministers is 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State
collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Legislature for consideration of the President
Which one of the following is correct in respect of India
of the above statements? 4. Making the rules to conduct the business of
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are the State Government.
correct and Statement II explains Select the correct answer using the code given
Statement I. below:
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are a) 1 and 2 only
correct, but Statement II does not explain b) 1 and 3 only
Statement I. c) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is Q.22) Consider the following statements
correct. regarding the Cabinet Committees in India:
1. They are extra-constitutional in nature.
Q.19) With reference to the office of the 2. These are set up by the Prime Minister of
Governor in India, consider the following India.
statements: 3. Presently, the Cabinet Committee on
1. A person appointed as Governor shall not be Parliamentary Affairs is headed by the
a member of either House of Parliament or Minister of Defence.
the Legislature of any State. Which of the statements given above are
2. The oath of office to the Governor is correct?
administered by the Chief Justice of the High a) 1 and 3 only
court exercising jurisdiction in relation to the b) 1 and 2 only
state. c) 2 and 3 only
3. The salaries and allowances of the Governor d) 1, 2 and 3
are determined by the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are Q.23) Consider the following officials in the
correct? Union and State governments:
a) 1 and 2 only 1. Governor of a State
b) 1 and 3 only 2. Attorney General of India
c) 2 and 3 only 3. Members of the Union Public Service
d) 1, 2 and 3 Commission (UPSC)
4. Union Council of Ministers
Q.20) The ‘Moidams’, recently mentioned in the 5. Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)
news, are related to which of the following? As per the Constitution of India how many of the
a) Burial mounds of Ahom Kings and Queens in above officials hold office during the pleasure of
Assam. the President?
b) Stepwell situated in the town of Patan, a) Only two
Gujarat. b) Only three
c) Early Buddhist monasteries in Himachal c) Only four
Pradesh d) All five
d) Collection of Historic forts associated with
Maratha empire in Maharashtra.

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SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 22 |

Q.24) With reference to Solicitor General of Which of the statements given above are
India, consider the following statements: correct?
1. The post of Solicitor General of India is non- a) 1, 2 and 3 only
statutory in nature. b) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. S/he can represent the government in c) 2, 3 and 4 only
references made by the President to the d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Supreme Court under Article 143 of the
Constitution. Q.27) Which of the following best describes “the
3. Similar to the Attorney General of India, the Doctrine of Eminent Domain” in Indian legal
Solicitor General can participate in context?
parliamentary proceedings. a) The right of the citizen to own and sell
Which of the statements given above is/are private property.
correct? b) The power of the government to take private
a) 1 and 3 only property for public use with compensation.
b) 2 only c) The principle that all land belongs to the
c) 2 and 3 only State by default.
d) 1, 2 and 3 d) The power of the government to impose
taxes on private property and income.
Q.25) The term "Middle-Income Trap", often
seen in the news, refers to: Q.28) Consider the following posts in the
a) A situation where a country faces high context of Indian polity:
inflation due to excessive foreign 1. State Election Commissioner
investments. 2. Chairman of the State Public Service
b) A situation where countries fail to transition Commission
from middle-income to high-income status 3. Advocate General of the State
due to slow growth and challenges in 4. Chief Secretary of the State
innovation. How many of the above are appointed by the
c) A phase when low-income countries Governor of the State?
experience rapid economic growth due to a) Only one
wage competition. b) Only two
d) A condition where advanced economies lose c) Only three
their technological edge to middle income d) All four
countries having cheaper labour.
Q.29) With reference to the post of Deputy Chief
Q.26) With reference to the financial powers of Minister in Indian states, consider the following
the President of India, consider the following statements:
statements: 1. As per Article 164 of Indian Constitution,
1. A Money Bill can be introduced in the Lok every state shall have a Deputy Chief
Sabha only with prior recommendation of the Minister.
President. 2. The post of Deputy Chief Minister is
2. No demand for a grant can be made in the equivalent to the rank of a cabinet minister in
Parliament except on the recommendation of the state.
the President. 3. If the Chief Minister's seat falls vacant, the
3. The President can make advances out of the Deputy Chief Minister must assume office
Contingency Fund of India to meet until a new Chief Minister is appointed by the
unforeseen expenditure. Governor.
4. The President constitutes the Finance Which of the statements given above are
Commission every 5 years to recommend the incorrect?
distribution of revenue between the Centre a) 1 and 2 only
and the states. b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

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SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 22 |

Q.30) The ‘Technology Security Initiative’ 3. When the government of a state wilfully
recently seen in news is a cooperation refuses to discharge its constitutional
mechanism between India and which one of the obligations, endangering the security of the
following countries/organizations? state.
a) United States of America 4. When a party resigns following its defeat in
b) Russia the assembly and no other party is willing or
c) European Union able to form a government with majority
d) United Kingdom support in the assembly.
Select the correct answer using the code given
Q.31) At the national level, which ministry is the below:
nodal agency to ensure effective implementation a) 1, 2 and 3 only
of the scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional b) 1, 2 and 4 only
Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) c) 2, 3 and 4 only
Act, 2006? d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change Q.34) Consider the following statements:
b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj 1. The members of the Union Public Service
c) Ministry of Rural Development Commission have a fixed term of six years or
d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs until they attain the age of 65 years,
whichever is earlier.
Q.32) Which of the following states are 2. The Chairman of Union Public Service
constitutionally required to appoint a Minister in Commission, Chief Election Commissioner
charge of tribal welfare? and Comptroller and Auditor General of India
1. Madhya Pradesh hold the same rank in the order of
2. Bihar precedence.
3. Odisha 3. As per the Constitution of India, Parliament
4. West Bengal has the power to make regulations with
5. Chhattisgarh respect to the conditions of service of the
6. Jharkhand members and staff of the Union Public
Select the answer using code given below: Service Commission.
a) 1, 3, 5, and 6 4. Union Public Service Commission submits an
b) 1, 2, 5 and 6 annual report to the President of India.
c) 3, 4, 5 and 6 Which of the statements given above are
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
Q.33) In which of the following situations would b) 1, 2 and 4 only
the imposition of President’s Rule be c) 3 and 4 only
constitutionally justified as per the Supreme d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Court's interpretation of Article 356 in S. R.
Bommai vs. Union of India (1994) ? Q.35) Which one of the following is not a correct
1. When there is maladministration or description of the Union Cabinet?
allegations of corruption in the state a) It is part of the Parliament.
government. b) It is responsible to the Parliament.
2. When a duly elected state government c) It remains in power till it enjoys the
adopts policies that are anti-secular in confidence of Parliament.
nature. d) A person from outside the Parliament can
never be appointed a member of the Cabinet.

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SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 22 |

Q.36) Consider the following statements : 2. the authority empowered to dismiss him/her
Statement - I: The President or the Governor gives it in writing that it is not possible to
shall be personally liable for any contract made hold such an inquiry.
in the discharge of duties under the 3. the President is satisfied that in the interest
Constitution of India. of the security of the State, it is not
Statement - II: All contracts under the executive expedient to hold such inquiry.
power of the Union or a State shall be expressed Which of the statements given above are
to be made in the name of the President or the correct?
Governor of that State. a) 1 and 3 only
Which one of the following is correct in respect b) 1 and 2 only
of the above statements? c) 2 and 3 only
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are d) 1, 2 and 3
correct and Statement-II explains
Statement-I. Q.39) With reference to Ordinance making
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are power of Governor, consider the following
correct, but Statement-II does not explain statements:
Statement-I. 1. It is a discretionary power of the Governor.
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is 2. In case of an Unicameral legislature in the
incorrect. state the Governor can promulgate an
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is ordinance only when the Legislative
correct. Assembly of the state is not in session.
3. An ordinance will cease to operate if not
Q.37) Consider the following statements approved by the state legislature within 6
regarding the election of the President of the weeks of its promulgation.
USA and that of India: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Unlike the Indian President, the US President correct?
is directly elected by the people of the a) 1 and 3 only
country. b) 2 only
2. Both the US and the Indian President are c) 2 and 3 only
elected on the basis of the first-past-the- d) 1, 2 and 3
post (FPTP) system.
Which of the statements given above is/are Q.40) Which of the following statements best
correct? describes the concept of 'Jumping Genes'?
a) 1 only a) Genes that move from one location to
b) 2 only another within the genome.
c) Both 1 and 2 b) Genes that jump between different species
d) Neither 1 nor 2 through horizontal gene transfer.
c) Genes that are transferred from parents to
Q.38) As per the Constitution of India, consider offspring through genetic inheritance.
the following statements: d) Genes that are responsible for antibiotic
No person who is a member of an all India resistance in bacteria.
service can be dismissed from his/her office
without a formal enquiry except when: Q.41) To whom does the President of India
1. he/she is dismissed on the ground of address his resignation?
conduct which has led to his conviction on a a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
criminal charge. b) Vice-President of India
c) Chief Justice of India
d) Prime Minister of India

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 Page 9

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 22 |

Q.42) With reference to proclamation of Q.44) Consider the following pairs:

emergency under Article 352 of the Indian Types of Pardoning Description
Constitution (National Emergency), consider the Power of President
following statements: of India
1. The President can proclaim such an 1. Commutation Substitution of one
emergency only after getting a written form of punishment for
recommendation for the same from the a lighter form.
Prime Minister. 2. Remission Reducing the period of
2. The President can proclaim such an sentence without
emergency even before the actual changing its character.
occurrence of war, external aggression or 3. Respite Stay on the execution
armed rebellion. of sentence for a
3. The declaration of such an emergency in temporary period to
India must be approved by both the Houses enable the convict have
of Parliament within two months of its time to seek pardon.
issuance. 4. Reprieve Awarding a lesser
4. Such an emergency can be extended sentence in place of
indefinitely with the approval of the
one originally awarded
Parliament every six months.
due to some special
Which of the statements given above are fact such as pregancy
correct?
of the woman convict.
a) 1, 2 and 4
How many of the pairs given above are correctly
b) 1 and 4 only
matched?
c) 2 and 4 only
a) Only one
d) 2 and 3 only
b) Only two
c) Only three
Q.43) In the context of Central Council of d) All four
Ministers in India, consider the following
statements: Q.45) Consider the following counties:
Statement-I: In case a minister disagrees with a 1. India
cabinet decision and is not prepared to defend 2. United States of America
it, then he/she must resign. 3. Sri Lanka
Statement-II: The Minister shall hold office 4. Russia
during the pleasure of the President. 5. Mauritius
Which one of the following is correct in respect How many of the above countries are member
of the above statements? countries of Colombo Security Conclave?
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are a) Only two
correct and Statement II explains b) Only three
Statement I. c) Only four
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are d) All five
correct, but Statement II does not explain
Statement I. Q.46) In a code language APPLES is written as 3,
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is PARROT is written as 18. How is SCHOOL
incorrect. written in that code language?
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is a) 12
correct. b) 18
c) 6
d) 7

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 Page 10

SFG 2025 | LEVEL 2 |Test 22 |

Q.47) A team is to be selected from seven ineffective marketing strategies. Major hurdles
members A through G. In that team at least one include high import tariffs, limited availability of
among B, D and F must be selected. If B is perishable cargo carriers, elevated freight costs,
selected then neither C nor G can be selected. A and insufficient refrigerated transport and cold
and F cannot be selected together. If D is chain logistics.
selected then E must be selected and if C is
selected then A must be selected. Q.49) Which of the following statements most
If a team of five members is to be selected then accurately captures the key message of the
who among the following cannot be selected? passage?
a) C a) India’s floriculture industry has strong
b) A production potential, but infrastructural and
c) G policy-level constraints are impeding its
d) B export performance.
b) The global floriculture industry is expanding
Q.48) A Question is given followed by two rapidly, and India is poised to become a
Statements I and II. Consider the Question and leading exporter in the near future.
the Statements. c) The shift of floriculture production to
Question: Is x always negative? developing countries has translated into
Statements: export success for India.
I. x > x² d) While India benefits from favorable agro-
II. x² > x⁴ climatic conditions, domestic demand limits
Which one of the following is correct in respect the scope of floriculture exports.
of the above Question and the Statements?
a) The Question can be answered by using one Passage II
of the Statements alone, but cannot be The concept of infinity is truly the embodiment
answered using the other Statement alone. of the limitless, the boundless, and the
b) The Question can be answered by using immeasurable. Some of history’s most
either Statement alone. celebrated philosophers, like Aristotle and Zeno,
c) The Question can be answered by using both have questioned whether infinity was a real
the Statements together, but cannot be phenomenon or just a useful idea. Even modern
answered using either Statement alone. scientific advancements are trying to
d) The Question cannot be answered even by understand the idea of infinity. Yet after
using both the Statements together. centuries of exploration, infinity remains a
paradox and continues to challenge human
perception while shaping theories about the
Direction for the following two (2) items: Read universe and our existence within it.
the following two passages and answer the
item that follows the passage. Q.50) Based on the above passage, the following
assumptions have been made:
1. Human understanding of infinity is still
Passage I
incomplete despite long-standing
The production centers of the floriculture
philosophical and scientific inquiry.
industry are shifting from developed countries
2. The idea of infinity is mostly of philosophical
to developing nations. This shift has allowed
interest and has little or no relevance in
India to emerge as a significant production base
modern scientific thought.
for floriculture. Although India's diverse agro-
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
climatic zones offer an abundant and varied
a) Only 1
production base, the country’s floriculture
b) Only 2
exports remain underwhelming. The sector
c) Both 1 and 2
continues to face challenges related to trade
d) Neither 1 nor 2
facilitation, inadequate infrastructure, and

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