2025 F=ma PhODS Solutions

Richard Yang, Kevin Cao, Sourish Pramanik

1. Observe that in II and III the particle moves with constant speed. √ From looking at the graphs
we can calculate that the speed for II is 1 m/s, and for III it is 2/2 m/s. Next, looking at I
it is evident that the particle is traveling in a circle of radius 10m and makes a revolution in
10 seconds. But this corresponds to a speed of 2π m/s. Thus our answer is B , II only.

2. For this problem we will want to stay in the lab frame. This is because using geometry, it
is clear that the first two disks will be delivered an impulse at 30◦ to the horizontal, so their
velocities in the lab frame will also be at that√angle. Let their speeds be u. Then it is evident
that the third disk will be traveling at v − u 3 rightward. We then use energy conservation:
√
v 2 − 2uv 3 + 3u2 + 2u2 = v 2 ⇒
√
u = 2 3/5v.
From this we can infer that the third disk is moving at v/5 leftward, for D .

3. In elastic collisions between objects of equal mass where one is originally at rest, all of the
momentum in the direction of the initially moving object is transferred to the other (from
vf = 2vcm −vi ). Since the normal vectors are aligned 30◦ from both velocities before collision,
the velocity is changed by a factor of 2−2 , which gives us C .

4. Imagine incrementing the time by dt. Then, the mouse goes rightward by u1 dt to M ′ , and the
cat goes upward u2 dt to C ′ . We want to find the angle M C ′ A′ ; it is approximately u1 dt/M C
by sin x ≈ x. So the instantaneous ω is u1 /L. Then the acceleration is simply u2 ω = u1 u2 /L,
for C . We can also use calculus to solve this, knowing that α = dω/dt and ω = u1 /r. We
get α = −u1 u2 /r2 , and then |a| = u1 u2 /L.

5. If the system is in equilibrium, there should be zero torque on the bottom cylinder about the
point of contact with the ground. For this to happen, extending the contact force between

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 the two cylinders should pass through the contact force on the ground. For this to happen,
we must have µ1 ≥ tan 15◦ . This corresponds to about 0.268. Looking at the three pairs,
only pair 1 and pair 2 have a µ1 greater than this. Next, observe that the normal force on
the bottom cylinder will be 3mg/2, and that the contact force between the bottom and top
cylinders must have a vertical component of mg/2. In equilibrium, we know the angle at
which this contact force will point, and its horizontal component will be mg tan 15◦ /2. The
friction force on the bottom cylinder must be enough to counteract this, meaning we derive
µ2 ≥ tan 15◦ /3. This leaves us with just pair 2, for B .

6. The distance
√ traveled is proportional to the velocity after leaving the ramp, which is propor-
tional to h, from energy conservation. This means that for the distance to increase by a
factor of 2.5, h must increase by a factor of 6.25, which is approximately at point A. Thus,
the answer is A .

7. Rule out (B) first. Trivial edge case argument for θ1 = θ2 , which gives us C .

8. idk man just look at it!! (framw trandfer.,..) C , 2ω clockwis

9. First we note that each circle is rotating at ω relative to the inertial frame. So then, we
calculate the velocity of the farthermost point. ω × r1 + ω × r2 + · · · = ω × (r1 + r2 + . . . ).
From this it becomes evident that the point will rotate in a circle, and thus has constant
acceleration, for E .

10. The final velocity of the lighter mass will approximately be 2v from vf = 2vcm − vi , so the
ratio of kinetic energies is 4m/M , or C .

11. The velocity of the heavier mass will approximately be 2vm/M from vf = 2vcm − vi , so the
ratio of kinetic energies is 4m/M , or C .

12. this is just an AP problem what ..... arccos(1/5) A .

13. The frictional force is constant, so the angular velocity and velocity linearly increase and

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 decrease, respectively. The only answer choice displaying that is A .

14. We know that when equilibrium is reached, vf = vi − f t/m = f t/mβ, where f is the frictional
force and β = I/mr2 is the coefficient of inertia. Solving for vf , f t/m = vi β/(β + 1) and
vf = vi /(β + 1). From this, vf is greatest when β is lowest, which in this case is when the
sphere is of uniform mass, corresponding to balls II and III. Therefore the answer is D .

15. Let K = 3L × J be the angular impulse. Then, the velocity of the endpoints of the massive
rod are Lω and Lω + 2LΩ. So, the momentum is
Lω + Lω + 2LΩ
J =m .
2
The angular momentum will be = 3LJ = Icm Ω + m · 2L · vav . Noting that vav = J/m, we
then have
1
LJ = m(2L)2 Ω.
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From this we get that ω + Ω = Ω/3, implying Ω = −3ω/2, for E .

16. Since the system was initially at equilibrium, from Young-Laplace we know that the gauge
pressure inside a bubble was proportional to γ/r, with r being the radius of the bubble. So,
in a smaller bubble, the pressure is higher. When we connect the smaller bubble to the larger
bubble, air will rush from the small bubble to the large bubble, resulting in answer choice
A.

17. First note that by setting r2 = x2 + y 2 , we have U (r) = −kr2 /2. Then, we have F (r) = kr.
Since the force is linear in radius and points radially, after a long time vr goes to infinity.
Also, due to angular momentum conservation, vθ is inversely proportional to radius and goes
to zero. Therefore, the velocity approaches a line pointing away from the origin, B .

18. Since the period of oscillation must be the same for all small vector displacements, we can
work with the case where x0 = y0 . Then, due to symmetry, we have U = kx2 /4 + ky 2 /4.
We see that the resulting motion is a superposition of two oscillations using keff = k/2,
p
so the period will then be 2π 2m/k, or D . We can also use vector calculus, finding
F⃗ = −∇U = −k(yx̂+xŷ)/2 = −k(xx̂+y ŷ)/2, which again is a superposition of two oscillations
using keff = k/2.

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19. Let the wind velocity be v. Then the kinetic energy of any small parcel of air is proportional
to v 2 . Now, since a wind turbine captures a constant fraction of this kinetic energy, one would
be tempted to say that doubling the velocity would quadruple the power. However, this fails
to take into the account that air moves through the turbine at a rate proportional to v. So,
the power will actually scale as v 3 . Thus, when the height doubles, the wind speed doubles,
and the new power will be 120 kW, for E . Alternatively, consider that P = F v, where
F = vdm/dt ∝ v 2 . Then P ∝ v 3 ∝ h3 .

20. The short version: the change in the energy is negligible, meaning that the semimajor axis
also changes negligibly, and thus also the period. So, the spanner will return to the same place
after one orbit, in 93 minutes, where the ISS will have also returned to. The answer choice
corresponding to T/2 is incorrect because the major axis becomes slightly tilted relative to
the original location due to its initial velocity, so the locations of both objects will not be as
close as C .
However, if you draw the orbits, it will look like there are two intersections, so isn’t the other
intersection where they will meet first? To address this possibility, note that in the spanner’s
orbit from when it leaves the ISS to the next intersection, it will be closer to Earth than the
ISS. It will thus be moving faster. So, it gets to the intersection before the ISS does. So, they
will first meet after 93 minutes, for C .

21. From the continuity equation, v1 r12 = v2 r22 . This gives us v2 = 40 cm/s, so the difference is
30 cm/s, or B .

22. Using Bernoulli’s equation, v 2 /2 + p/ρ = C, where p = ρgh. Then, |∆h| = (vf2 − vi2 )/2g = 7.5
mm, B .

23. We have k = mg/l, so

∆k p
= (∆m/m)2 + (∆g/g)2 + (∆l/l)2 .
k
It’s evident that the gravitational uncertainty is negligible. Then, the uncertainty in the length
measurement will be 0.5 mm, half of the smallest division mark. Then, the relative uncertainty
in the length is 1/30. Calculating (∆m/m)2 can be done in many ways. The simplest is to
just take the average and then calculate the difference, giving us (6/204)2 . Alternatively, we
can calculate the sample variance, giving us 2(6/204)2 . Squaring and summing, when we take
the square root, we will get something close to 0.04, for B .

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24. The bead rotates around an axis given by v̂ × r̂, so the period of revolution is 2πL/v, or A .

25. The change in velocity of the ramp from momentum conservation effects is negligible due to
its large mass, so the smaller mass exits with velocity 2v, or E .
One might question why
√ we can’t just use energy conservation in the lab-frame of reference
to deduce the answer 2 v. This is because in the lab frame, the change in kinetic energy
of the ramp is non negligible. To illustrate why, compared to the moving frame, consider
the following argument. Suppose the ramp’s velocity is changed by some dv on the order of
−m/M v due to momentum conservation. Then, the change in the ramp’s kinetic energy is
1 1
M ((v + dv)2 − v 2 ) = (M (2v dv + (dv)2 ).
2 2
Although the second order is negligible, the first order is ≈ −mv 2 which is the same order of
magnitude that the block’s kinetic energy is, thus we cannot ignore it in our final expression.
Then in the lab frame, our energy conservation reads as
1 1
mv 2 + mgh = −mv 2 + mvf2
2 2
1
2mv 2 = mv 2
2 f
vf = 2v,
which returns our final answer as expected. In the moving frame, the change in the kinetic
energy of the ramp is
1 m1
M (dv)2 ≈ mv 2 ≪ mv 2 ,
2 M2
which is negligible.