1.

Which command will provide information about the status of all interfaces
including the number of giants, runts, and collisions on the interface?
a) Show running-config
b) Show interfaces
c) Show ip interface brief
d) Show history

2. Match the router prompt to the configuration task

a) RouterA(configu-line)#
b) RouterA(config-if)#
c) RouterA#

3. Which address should be configured as the default gateway address of a

client device?
a) The IPv4 address of the router interface that is connected to the internet
b) The layer 2 address of the switch management interface
c) The layer 2 address of the switch port that is connected to the workstation
d) The IPv4 address of the router interface that is connected to the same
LAN

4. Refer to the exhibit. A cisco router was configured with a sequence of

commands and accidently loses power. What happens to the router
configuration?
a) The configuration is restored in the RAM after the router reboots
b) The configuration is lost because the copy startup-config running-config
command was not issued at the beginning of the configuration
c) The configuration is saved automatically to the NVRAM
d) The configuration is lost because a last command to save the
configuration to NVRAM was not issued
5. Which command sequence secures a user EXEC mode on a cisco router?
a) Line console 0 password password login
b) Line vty 0 4 password password login transport input {ssh | telnet | none |
all}
c) Service password-encryption
d) Enable secret password
6. Which characteristic describes a VLAN?
a) Manages traffic that goes between servers within the organization and
data moving into and out of the organization
b) Provides a way to logically grou devices together in the same LAN on
different switches
c) A small network between a trusted private network and the internet
containing web and mail servers
d) Constantly monitors all users on the network regardless of their status or
role

7. Which statement accurately describes the peer-to-peer (P2P)

communications model?
a) It is centralized and clearly distinguishes between the client and server
roles
b) It requires a centralized server for peers to exchange data and services
c) It is decentralized, allowing one host (peer) to handle client and server
roles simultaneously
d) Peers can only act as a requestor of services and cannot provide
responses

8. Which statement describes a key consideration when selecting a network

topology to ensure fault tolerance?
a) The physical layout of the production facility or line
b) The number of network devices connected to the switches and gateways
c) The aesthetic appeal of the network layout
d) The availability of advanced network management tools

9. Which statement accurately describes the deployment of firewalls in the

enterprise zone?
a) Firewalls in the enterprise zoon are exclusively used for routing traffic
between different internal subnetworks within an organization
b) Firewalls in the enterprise zone are installed within cloud environments
to provide security for virtualized applications and services
 c) Firewalls in the enterprise zone are primarily used to protect individual
devices, such as laptops and desktop computers, from external cyber
threats
d) Firewalls in the enterprise zone are placed at the boundary between the
private network and the public internet to regulate traffic entering and
leaving the network
e) Firewalls in the Enterprise zone are typically deployed within the internal
network to monitor traffic between end user devices and the local servers

10. What is a characteristic of operational technology (OT) that distinguishes it

from information Technology (IT)?
a) OT employs specialized communication protocols for real-time control
b) OT primarily deals with digital data and systems
c) OT manages the efficiency of networks over wider connections
d) OT focuses on overseeing external connections to the internet and email

11. Which benefit of smart grids is related to electricity transmission?

a) Slower power restoration after disturbances
b) More efficient electricity transmission with less line losses
c) Increased line losses
d) Higher operations costs for utilities

12. Based on their operational environment, what is a key difference between

standard IT Wi-Fi networks used in homes and offices and industrial
operational technology (OT) wireless networks?
a) Industrial plants have smaller coverage areas and more employees than
corporate offices
b) Industrial environments have less interference and dead zones than
corporate offices
c) Industrial environments include large coverage areas, interference from
machinery, and harsh conditions
d) Corporate offices have stricter reliability and security needs compared to
industrial environments
13. What is a key advantage of Wi-Fi 6E over previous Wi-Fi standards
regarding wireless performance?
a) Wi-Fi 6E provides increased capacity with 59 additional nonoverlapping
channels
b) Wi-Fi 6E does not support Wi-Fi protected Access 3 (WPA3) for
enhanced security
c) Wi-Fi 6E shares the 6 GHz Spectrum with non-Wi-Fi 6E devices for
broader compatibility
d) Wi-Fi 6E has a smaller number of nonoverlapping channels

14. Which wireless protocol is specifically designed for low-rate wireless

personal area networks (LR-WPANs) and is the basis for ZigBee, Thread,
and 6LoWPAN?
a) IEEE 802.11 (Wi-Fi)
b) Narrow band internet of things (NB-IOT)
c) IEEE 802.15.4
d) Bluetooth low energy (BLE)

15. What is the purpose of configuring a switch port Analyzer (SPAN) port in a
network switch?
a) To mirror network traffic from specific switch interfaces for analysis
b) To prevent unauthorized access to network resources
c) To increase the bandwidth of the network and prevent critical traffic
congestion
d) To establish a secure tunnel between two remote networks

16. What is the primary function of Deep packet inspection (DPI) in network
analysis ?
a) Identifying network protocols
b) Monitoring network traffic flows
c) Optimizing network performance
d) Analyzing individual packet contents

17. What feature of cisco industrial switches provides network visibility into
traffic within the cell/area zone in an industrial automation architecture?
 a) Cyber vision network sensor
b) Network resiliency protocols
c) NetFlow export
d) Cisco TrustSec

18. Which statement describes networks design in industrial automation plants

?
a) QoS models are not essential for guaranteeing network performance and
operation in industrial automation
b) Different network devices and functions in industrial automation plants
are segmented into different zones based on the purdue model for control
hierarchy
c) Industrial automation plants do not follow any standard model for
network segmentation
d) The Purdue model for control Hierarchy is primarily used to manage the
mechanical systems within industrial plants

19. What is the main purpose of power over Ethernet (PoE) technology?
a) To control communication between devices in industrial automation
b) To provide power to devices over Ethernet cabling eliminating separate
power supplies
c) To serve as a backup power source for critical systems
d) To distribute electrical power to equipment such as sensors , actuator and
controllers

20. Which hierarchical model influences the design of industrial automation

and control systems (IACS) by segmenting devices and equipment into
hierarchical function and zones?
a) Six Sigma Model
b) ITIL Model
c) Purdue Model for control hierarchy
d) ISO 9001 model

21. Which protocol is specifically tailored for smart grid application,

incorporates advanced security with AES 128 encryption, and features an
 adaptive, directed meshing system allowing devices to function as message
repeaters?
a) IEC 61850
b) IEC 60870-5-101
c) Distributed Network protocol 3 (DNP3)
d) Open smart Grid protocol (OSGP)
e) Modus

22. Which critical area is addressed in the ANSI/TIA-1005A standard for

industrial premises telecommunications infrastructure?
a) Software development guidelines
b) Hardware manufacturing specifications
c) Agricultural practices in industrial areas
d) Cabling specifications and performance requirements

23. What does the first digit represent in the IP code used to describe the ingress
protection of electronics enclosures ?
a) Temperature resistance
b) Liquid ingress protection
c) Electrical insulation level
d) Solid particle protection

24. What is the primary purpose of the industrial DMZ in a network?

a) To provide unrestricted access to critical infrastructure
b) To maximize network security by allowing traffic to flow freely
c) To serve as a boundary for inspecting, monitoring and filtering network
traffic
d) To allow direct communication to occur between the enterprise and the
industrial zones

25. How is an IPv6 address represented?

a) As a series of 16-bit hexadecimal numbers separated by colons
b) As a series of 8-bit hexadecimal number separated by colons
c) As a series of 128-bit hexadecimal number separated by colons
d) As a series of 32-bit hexadecimal numbers separated by periods
 e) As a series of 256-bit hexadecimal numbers separated by colons

26. How does IPv6 handle one-to-many addressing compared to IPv4?

a) By using broadcast addresses
b) By using multicast addresses
c) By using unicast addresses
d) By using anycast addresses

27. How do static routers differ from routes learned using dynamic routing
protocols?
a) Static routes are automatically updated
b) Dynamic routing protocols require manual intervention
c) Dynamic routing protocols do not support changes to route configuration
d) Static routes must be manually reconfigured

28. What two statements define a default static route? (choose two)
a) It identifies the gateway IP address
b) It matches all packets
c) It is used only for routing IPv6 packets
d) It sends packets only to specific destinations
e) Dynamic routing protocols are required for configuring it

29. How do routers, enabled with OSPF, communicate with each other?
a) They communicate using unique public IP addresses
b) They use unicast communicating exclusively
c) They use the reserved OSPF multicast address 224.0.0.5
d) They must use broadcast communication exclusively

30. What is the primary purpose of NAT (Network address translation)?

a) To authenticate users accessing the network
b) To translate between IPv4 and IPv6 addresses
c) To translate between private IPv4 and public IPv4 addresses
d) To encrypt data transmitted over the network
31. What are two reasons why private IPv4 addresses were introduced in the
mid-1990s? (choose two)
a) To provide globally unique addresses for all devices
b) To allow users to self-assign their own unique IP addresses
c) Due to the depletion of IPv4 address space
d) Because private IPv4 addresses are unique and cannot be used internally
within any network
e) To enhance security within local networks

32. What security benefit is associated with network segmentation?

a) Expansion of potential threats
b) Reduced network independence
c) Increased attack surface
d) Isolation of vulnerable devices

33. Which protocol is commonly used by applications that stream stored audio
and video content?
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) DNS
d) ICMP

34. Which range of port numbers is reserved for registered ports, which
organizations can use to register specific applications?
a) 0 to 1023
b) 1024 to 49151
c) 49152 to 65535
d) 1024 to 65535

35. What is the primary purpose of the netstat command?

a) Managing user accounts on a host
b) Managing disk partitions and file systems on a host
c) Displaying the active network connections open an a host
d) Monitoring the CPU and system memory usages on a host
36. What two actions does a server take when it receives a request on port 80?
(choose two)
a) The server sends the requested web page back to the client
b) The server authenticates the client’s request
c) The server processes the request using the file transfer protocol (FTP)
d) The server redirects the request to another port
e) The server processes the request using the hypertext transfer
protocol(HTTP)

37. What are two features of the message queue telemetry transport (MQTT)
protocol? (select two)
a) MQTT utilizes a request response communication pattern
b) MQTT is primarily used for peer-to-peer communication
c) MQTT uses a publish subscribe communication model
d) MQTT is optimized for machine-to-machine (M2M) communication
e) MQTT is a convergence protocol

38. Match the OCPP functionality to the description

a) Firmware updates
b) Fault diagnosis and maintenance

39. Mathch

40. Why is it important to save the configuration of a router when changes are
implemented

a) To revert the router back to its factory settings

b) To ensure that the router will keep functioning as expected even after a
reboot
c) To allow remote access to the router
d) To prevent unauthorized users from accessing the router and modifying
the current configuration

41. What are two examples of strong passwords based on common password
security practices? (choose two)
 a) BlueSky
b) jA#2!f4
c) RunFastRunFast
d) B@ss w0rd!
e) B00kS!
f) 12345678

42. Match the configuration command to the corresponding password

protections actions
a) Login block-for # attempts # within #
b) Exec-timout
c) Service password-encrypiton

43. Which term is associated with physical addressing ?

a) Public addresses
b) Media access control addresses
c) Network addresses
d) Host ip address

44. Which organization supports standards for both IT networks and IACS
networks?
a) Institute of Electrical and electronics engineers (IEEE)
b) International Electrotechniacl commission (IEC)
c) Internet engineering task Force (IETF)
d) American national standards institute (ANSI)

45. What feature is designed to regulate and secure the flow information in
IACS networks , often employing encryption , authentication and access
controls to ensure that data remains confidential and protected from
unauthorized access or tampering?
a) Segmentation
b) Conduits
c) Layers
d) Zoning
46. What is the main role of the IDMZ in an IACS network?
a) It monitors and maintains power plants, water treatment facilities and
electronic vehicle systems
b) It is responsible for the segregation of all data traffic between IT and OT
segments
c) It provides firewall protection and controls traffic between the enterprise
and industrial zones
d) It concerns the configuration and troubleshooting of data networks

47. Which two IPv4 addresses are in the same network segment?(choose two)
a) 173.16.2.7/16
b) 172.18.100.49/16
c) 172.16.252.3/16
d) 172.17.3.24/16
e) 172.16.2.6/16

48. Which statement describes a broadcast domain on an Ethernet LAN?

a) All network devices on the Ethernet LAN use the same subnet mask
b) All network devices on the Ethernet LAN use the same routing protocol
c) All network devices on the Ethernet LAN receive the same ARP message
d) All network devices on the Ethernet LAN connect to the same router

49. Match network application service to the description

a) CIP
b) PROFINET
c) DNP3

50. Match the communication protocol supported by IEC 61850 to the

description
a) Sampled measure values (SMV)
b) Sampled values (SV)