DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C: P-SIA-D-UPGI
PRELIMS FITNESS – 2022
Serial: 737246
TEST - 3
F

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

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at
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT

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THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,

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ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

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2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. _c
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
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provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
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4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises
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four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
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case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the
best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
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5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
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6. All items carry equal marks.

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7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
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Admission Certificate.
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8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
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concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
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9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that question
will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

 PREFIT TEST 3
1. Consider the following statements 4. The Governor’s term of five years should not
1. The governor of Assam can direct that be disturbed except for compelling
an act of Parliament does not apply to a situations has been recommended by which
tribal area in that state.
of the following?
2. The President can make regulations for
(a) Rajamannar committee
the peace, progress and good
(b) Sarkaria commission
government of Andaman and Nicobar
(c) Punchhi commission
Islands, Daman and Diu, Puducherry
and Lakshadweep. (d) Anadpur Sahib resolution
Which of the statements given above is/are

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correct? 5. Consider the following statements

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(a) 1 only regarding Goods and Services Tax council

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(b) 2 only 1. It is a Constitutional body.

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(c) Both 1 and 2
2. It is chaired by Union Finance Minister.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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3. It strives for the development of a

2. Consider the following statements

_c harmonized national market for goods
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and services.
regarding the laws made during President’s
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rule in a state Which of the statements given above is/are

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1. A law made by the Parliament for a state correct?

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continues even after the President’s (a) 1 only

rule. (b) 1 and 2 only
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2. This law cannot be repealed by the (c) 1 and 3 only

concerned state legislature.
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
d

correct?
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6. Consider the following statements

(a) 1 only
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1. The Parliament can establish an Inter-

(b) 2 only
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(c) Both 1 and 2 State Council to discuss the subject of

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 common interest between centre and

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states.
3. Consider the following statements 2. The Parliament can provide for provide
1. The judges of a state High Court are for adjudication of disputes regarding
transferred by the Governor.
use, distribution and control of waters
2. Integrated judicial system in India
of inter-state rivers.
enforces both the Central laws as well a
Which of the statements given above is/are
State laws.
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

1
 PREFIT TEST 3
7. Consider the following statements Select the correct answer using the code
1. U.P.S.C. can also serve the needs of a given below:

state on the request of the state (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 4 only
governors and with the approval of the
(c) 1 and 3 only
President.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. For joint recruitment of two or more
states of any services, the states will 10. Consider the following statements:
seek the help of Public Service 1. The Inter-State council is a

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Commission. Constitutional body.
2. It can deal with both legal and non-legal

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Which of the statements given above is/are

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issues.
correct?
3. Its function upon inter- state disputes

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(a) 1 only
is complementary to the Supreme

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(b) 2 only
Court’s jurisdiction under Article 131.
(c) Both 1 and 2
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4. Like the Court, its verdict is binding on
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 parties involved.
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Select the correct answer using the code

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8. Which of the following has been described given below:

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(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

by the Constitution as the balancing wheel
(b) 1 and 4 only
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of fiscal federalism in India?

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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(a) NITI Aayog

(d) 1, 2, 3 only
(b) Union Public Service Commission
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(c) Comptroller and Auditor General of 11. Consider the following statements
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India regarding Full Faith and Credit Clause:

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(d) Finance Commission 1. Under Full Faith and Credit Clause,

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public acts, records and judicial

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proceedings of the Centre and every

9. Which of the following bills can be
state is applicable throughout the
introduced in the Parliament only with
territory of India.
President’s recommendation? 2. To implement it, it is required that
1. Money bills courts of a state can enforce the penal
2. Constitutional Amendment bill laws of another state.
3. A bill which imposes any tax or duty in Which of the statements given above is/are

which states are interested correct?

(a) 1 only
4. A bill which alters “agricultural income”
(b) 2 only
meaning for enactments relating to
(c) Both 1 and 2
Income Tax purposes.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2
 PREFIT TEST 3
12. Trade, commerce and intercourse Which of the statements given above is/are
throughout the territory of India is free has correct?
been provided in the Constitution. It is
(a) 1 only
applicable to
(b) 2 only
1. Inter-state trade, commerce and
(c) Both 1 and 2
intercourse
2. Intra-state trade, commerce and (d) Neither 1 nor 2
intercourse
Select the correct answer using the code 15. Consider the following statements:

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given below:
1. Emergency proclamation can be
(a) 1 only

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revoked by the President without

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(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 parliamentary approval.

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. The President must revoke the

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emergency proclamation if Lok Sabha
13. Consider the following statements:
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pass a resolution disapproving its
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1. All the six zonal councils are statutory
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continuation.
bodies created under State
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Which of the statements given above is/are

reorganization Act, 1956.
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2. The Home Minister is the chairman of correct?

the council. (a) 1 only

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3. The chief secretary of the state, (b) 2 only

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development commissioner of each (c) Both 1 and 2

d

state in the state are also part of the

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2

council entitled to voting rights in the
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proceedings.
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Which of the statements given above is/are 16. Every resolution approving the emergency
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correct? proclamation or its continuance must be

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(a) 1 only passed by either house of Parliament by

(b) 2 only
(a) more than 50% of the members present
(c) 1 and 3 only
and voting.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2/3rd members present and voting

14. Consider the following statements: supported by more than 50% of the total
1. The resolution approving the strength of the house.
proclamation of President’s rule is (c) 2/3rd members present and voting.
passed by special majority by either
(d) 2/3rd members of the total strength of
house of Parliament.
the house.
2. President’s rule can be extended for a
maximum period of three years.

3
 PREFIT TEST 3
17. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. While emergency proclamation is in correct?
operation, both the life of Lok Sabha (a) 1 only
and State Legislative Assembly may be (b) 2 only
extended. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. The proclamation of national emergency
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
can be judicially reviewed.
Which of the statements given above is/are
20. Consider the following statements:
correct?
1. Article 358 suspends Fundamental

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(a) 1 only
rights only under Article 19 whereas
(b) 2 only

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Article 359 suspends all Fundamental

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(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 rights.

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2. The legislative and executive actions

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18. Consider the following statements: taken during the emergency operations
1. The President can declare different
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under both Articles 358 and 359 cannot
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proclamations of national emergency on be challenged in court.
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different grounds simultaneously. Which of the statements given above is/are

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2. Fort second Amendment Act replaced correct?

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the term “internal disturbance” by (a) 1 only

“armed rebellion” in respect of national
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(b) 2 only
emergency.
(c) Both 1 and 2
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Which of the statements given above is/are

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
d

correct?
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(a) 1 only
21. Consider the following statements:
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(b) 2 only
1. The Parliament dismisses the state
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(c) Both 1 and 2

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 council of Ministers during President’s

rule in a state.
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19. Consider the following statements: 2. The President either suspends or

1. Under Article 358, if an emergency dissolves the state legislative assembly
proclamation is made, the fundamental during President’s rule in a state.
rights under Article 19 are suspended. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Though fundamental rights are correct?
suspended, the state cannot make laws (a) 1 only
or take executive action abridging the (b) 2 only
fundamental rights under Article 19,
(c) Both 1 and 2
as it will violate the basic structure of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Constitution.

4
 PREFIT TEST 3
22. Who among the following will be acquiring 25. The burden lies on whom to justify the
some extraordinary powers during imposition of President’s rule in a state?
President’s rule in a state? (a) The Centre or Union government
(a) Governor of a state (b) President
(b) President (c) Parliament
(c) Parliament
(d) Governor
(d) High court of a state

26. Consider the following statements:

23. Consider the following statements:
1. During President’s rule, the state

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1. Under Article 352, If National
legislative assembly can only be
Emergency is proclaimed, the

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dissolved after the Parliament approved

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Parliament can make laws in state list
automatically. Presidential proclamation.

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2. National emergency under Article 352 2. A state government pursuing anti-

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does not affect the fundamental rights secular politics is liable to action under
of the citizens.
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Article 356.
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Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
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correct? correct?
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(a) 1 only (a) 1 only

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(b) 2 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2
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(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Fr
d

24. Consider the following statements:

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27. The imposition of President’s rule in a state

1. The President’s rule in a state has no
would be improper under which of the
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effect on fundamental rights of the

following situations?
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citizens.
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2. The national emergency can be 1. The government willfully refuses to

discharge its constitutional obligations.
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extended indefinitely, with

Parliamentary approval for every six 2. Maladministration in the state.
months. 3. Sorting out intra-party problems of
3. The President’s rule can be only revoked ruling party.
by the President on his own. 4. Hung Assembly situations
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

5
 PREFIT TEST 3
28. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code
1. Financial emergency proclamation given below:
must be approved by both Houses of (a) 1 and 3 only

Parliament within two months from the (b) 1 and 2 only

issue date. (c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 3 only
2. Approval is by means of special majority
in both Houses of Parliament.
31. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. All money bills of states even after
correct?

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passed by the legislative assemblies can
(a) 1 only
be reserved for the consideration of

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(b) 2 only

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President during financial emergency.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. In 1991, during BoP crisis, Indian

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Government has announced financial

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emergency.
29. Consider the following statements:
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Which of the statements given above is/are
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1. Financial emergency proclamation once correct?
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approved by Houses of parliament (a) 1 only

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continues indefinitely till it is revoked. (b) 2 only

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2. A parliamentary approval is required for (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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every six months.

3. Financial emergency proclamation can
Fr

32. Consider the following statements:

be revoked by the President.
d

1. The Cauvery water management

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Which of the statements given above is/are

scheme 2018 provides for Cauvery
correct?
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Water Management Authority (CWMA)

(a) 2 and 3 only
nl

and Cauvery Water Regulation

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(b) 1 and 2 only Committee (CWRA).

(c) 1 and 3 only
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2. Cauvery Water Management Authority

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (CWMA) will be headed by a chairman
appointed by the central government
30. When financial emergency proclamation is with concerned state governments
in operation, the President may issue ordrs recommendation.
for reduction of salaries and allowances of Which of the statements given above is/are

1. Any class of persons serving the Union correct?

and states. (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
2. Judges of Supreme Court
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Judges of High Court
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6
 PREFIT TEST 3
33. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. The National Water Development correct?
Agency has identified in total of 30 (a) 1 only
projects for interlinking of water and (b) 2 only
river valleys. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. The Southern India river linking project (d) Neither 1 nor 2
majorly involves 3 rivers namely
Narmada, Godavari and Krishna rivers. 36. Who recommended the formation of the
Which of the statements given above is/are Permanent Inter-State Council under

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correct? Article 263?
(a) 1 only (a) The Constitution

at
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(b) 2 only (b) The Supreme Court
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Punchhi Commission

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Sarkaria Commission

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34. Consider the following statements:
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37. As per the recent Home Ministry data,
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1. Fundamental rights under Articles 20 which state has most interstate border
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and 21 cannot be suspended even disputes in India?

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during a national emergency. (a) Nagaland

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2. The President can declare a national (b) Assam

emergency only on the written (c) Mizoram
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recommendation of the Council of (d) Jammu and Kashmir

Fr

Ministers.
d

Which of the statements given above is/are 38. Which of the following criteria are taken
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correct? into account by the Fifteenth Finance

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(a) 1 only Commission for devolution formula

nl

(b) 2 only calculations?

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(c) Both 1 and 2 1. Income distance

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Population

3. Agricultural output
35. Consider the following statements 4. Demographic performance
regarding The Inter-State River Water 5. Forest and ecology
Disputes (Amendment) Bill, 2019. 6. Fiscal efforts
1. The Central government will be setting Select the correct answer using the code
up Dispute Resolution Committee given below
(DRC). (a) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
2. If a dispute cannot be settled by the (b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
DRC, the central government will refer (c) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
it to the Inter-State River Water (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Disputes Tribunal.

7
 PREFIT TEST 3
39. Consider the following statements: 42. Which one of the following statements
1. The share of states in central taxes for about Asmi is not correct?
2021−26 is 42%, same as recommended
(a) India’s first indigenously developed 9-
by the fourteenth finance commission.
mm machine pistol.
2. The members of finance commission are
(b) Asmi is jointly developed by Ordnance
not eligible for reappointment.
Which of the statements given above is/are factory board.

correct? (c) The 3D printing technology has been

(a) 1 only used in designing the gun.

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(b) 2 only
(d) The weapon has huge potential in

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(c) Both 1 and 2
armed forces as a personal weapon.

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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40. Who developed Agriculture Marketing and 43. Consider the following statements about

Farmer Friendly Reforms Index highlighting _c

Bankapur Wildlife sanctuary
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the need to take reforms in agriculture? 1. It is first-ever ‘Wolf Sanctuary’ in the
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(a) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers'

drylands of Karnataka.
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Welfare
2. It will also help the conservation of
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(b) Ministry of Statistics and Programme

other mammal and reptile population in
Implementation
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(c) Centre for sustainable agriculture the region.

Fr

(d) NITI Aayog Which of the statements given above is/are

d

correct?
de

41. Consider the following statements:

(a) 1 only
oa

1. ‘Sustainable Action for Transforming

(b) 2 only
nl

Human Capital-Education’ was

(c) Both 1 and 2
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launched to identify and build three

(d) None of the above
D

‘role model’ States for the school

education sector.
2. Jharkhand, Odisha and Madhya 44. Shramshakthi portal is associated with
Pradesh were chosen for this project.
(a) Labour dispute resolution
3. This project is under NITI Aayog.
(b) Portal for migrant workers.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) National Database on Unorganized
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only Workers

(b) 1 and 2 only (d) Digitisation of Help Groups.

(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

8
 PREFIT TEST 3
45. Which of the following statements is/are 3. The summit focuses on securing the
correct about Smart Anti Airfield Weapon? new investments in order to ensure that
1. It is developed by Defence Research and millions of smallholder farmers could
Development Organisation (DRDO) in adapt to the impact of climate on food
collaboration with Russia. production.
2. It is a high precision guided bomb with Which of the statements given above is/are
range around 1500km. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 only
correct? (b) 2 and 3 only

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(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) All the above

at
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(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above 48. Which of the following statements is/are

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correct about FIST scheme?

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46. Consider the following statements about 1. The scheme was launched to strengthen
Great reset
_c
the Science and Technology (S&T)
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1. It is based on the premise that the world infrastructure.
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economy is in deep trouble. 2. It is considered as complimentary

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2. It is developed by Organisation for support for enabling Departments/

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Economic Co-operation and Centres/ Schools/ Colleges to pursue

Development. research activities more effectively.
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3. It emphasizes that the world must act Select the correct code
Fr

jointly to revamp all aspects of our (a) 1 only

d

societies and economies, from (b) 2 only

de

education to social contracts and (c) Both 1 and 2

oa

working conditions. (d) None of the above

nl

Which of the statements given above is/are

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correct? 49. Consider the statements about Flash

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(a) 1 and 2 only droughts

(b) 2 only 1. It occurs during warm seasons
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. Flash droughts can develop in only a
(d) 1 and 3 only few weeks.
3. Lack of precipitation is a key driver of
47. Consider the following statements about flash drought.
Climate Adaptation Summit 2021 Select the correct code
1. The summit was built on the advances (a) 1 and 2 only
of the UN Climate Action Summit. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. India has committed to provide the (c) 1 and 3 only
clean cooking fuel to 80 million rural (d) All the above
households during the summit.

9
 PREFIT TEST 3
50. What are the likely impacts that can occur
due to recent Changes in CSR Rules?
1. Private trusts would either have to be
converted to registered public trusts, or
stop acting as CSR implementing
agencies.
2. The list of CSR projects or programmes
that are approved to be undertaken in
areas or subjects to be specified in the

es
rules.

at
Select the code

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(a) 1 only

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(b) 2 only

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(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
_c
sc
up
e/
t.m
om
Fr
d
de
oa
nl
ow
D

10
 DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C: P-SIA-D-UPGI
PRELIMS FITNESS – 2022
Serial: 737246
TEST - 3
F

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

es
at
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT

pd
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,

_u
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

se
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. _c
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
sc
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
up

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises
e/

four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
t.m

case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the
best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
om

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
Fr

6. All items carry equal marks.

ed

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
d
oa

Admission Certificate.
nl

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
ow

concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
D

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that question
will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

 PREFIT TEST 3
1. Consider the following statements
1. The governor of Assam can direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a tribal area in
that state.
2. The President can make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of
Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Daman and Diu, Puducherry and Lakshadweep.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

es
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

at
EXPLANATION:

pd
Only in the state of Assam, the governor is empowered to alter the application of both

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parliamentary and state laws in the tribal areas of the state. So, statement 1 is correct.

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The President can make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of all union
_c
territories except Puducherry, NCT of Delhi, and Chandigarh. So, statement 2 is not correct.
sc
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 30
up
e/

2. Consider the following statements regarding the laws made during President’s rule in a state
t.m

1. A law made by the Parliament for a state continues even after the President’s rule.
om

2. This law cannot be repealed by the concerned state legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Fr

(a) 1 only
d
de

(b) 2 only
oa

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
nl
ow

EXPLANATION:
D

A law made by the Parliament or President or any other specified authority continues to be
operative even after the President’s rule. So, statement 1 is correct.
It can be repealed or altered or re-enacted by the state legislature. So, statement 2 is not
correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
The President acquires the following extraordinary powers when the President's Rule is imposed in a
state:
• He can take up the functions of the state government and powers vested in the governor or
any other executive authority in the state.
• He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament.

1
 PREFIT TEST 3
• He can take all other necessary steps including the suspension of the constitutional
provisions relating to anybody or authority in the state.
Therefore, when the President's Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council
of ministers headed by the chief minister. The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries on
the state administration with the help of the chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by
the President. This is the reason why a proclamation under Article 356 is popularly known as the
imposition of 'President's Rule' in a state. Further, the President either suspends or dissolves the state
legislative assembly The Parliament passes the state legislative bills and the state budget.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 16

es
at
3. Consider the following statements

pd
1. The judges of a state High Court are transferred by the Governor.

_u
2. Integrated judicial system in India enforces both the Central laws as well a State laws.

se
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
_c
sc
(b) 2 only
up

(c) Both 1 and 2

e/

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

t.m

EXPLANATION:
om

The President transfers a judge from one high court to another after consulting the Chief Justice
of India. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Fr

The single system of courts, adopted from the Government of India Act 1935, enforces both
d
de

central laws as well as state laws. The Constitution of India provides for a single integrated
oa

judiciary with the Supreme Court at the apex of the judicial system. So, statement 2 is correct.
nl

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 34

ow

Source: Indian Polity, Lakshmikanth chapter: centre-state relations

D

4. The Governor’s term of five years should not be disturbed except for compelling situations has
been recommended by which of the following?
(a) Rajamannar committee
(b) Sarkaria commission
(c) Punchhi commission
(d) Anadpur Sahib resolution
EXPLANATION:

2
 PREFIT TEST 3
The Sarkaria commission on centre-state relations recommended for an undisturbed five-year
term of governor; except in compelling situations. So, option B is correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 30

5. Consider the following statements regarding Goods and Services Tax council
1. It is a Constitutional body.
2. It is chaired by Union Finance Minister.
3. It strives for the development of a harmonized national market for goods and services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

es
(a) 1 only

at
(b) 1 and 2 only

pd
(c) 1 and 3 only

_u
(d) 1, 2 and 3

se
EXPLANATION:
_c
GST council is a constitutional body (Article 279A) for making recommendations to the Union
sc
and State Government on issues related to Goods and Services Tax. It is considered as a federal
up

body where both the centre and the states get due representation. So, statement 1 is correct.
e/

The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and other members are the Union
t.m

State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in charge of Finance or Taxation of all the
om

States. So, statement 2 is correct.

GST will create a common national market that will strive for the development of a harmonized
Fr

national market for goods and services. So, statement 3 is correct.

d
de
oa

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
nl

• GST council is chaired by Union Minister.

ow

• Its other members are the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in
D

charge of Taxation of all the States. Finance or

• The 122nd Constitutional Amendment Bill, 2016 was passed in Parliament for the
introduction of Goods and Services Tax in the country.
• Consequent upon this, the same was notified as to the 101st Constitution Act, 2016.
• As per the GST Act, states guaranteed compensation for is any revenue shortfall below 14%
growth for the first 5 years ending 2022.
• The compensation is calculated keeping the base year as 2015-16.
• GST compensation is paid every 2 months by the Centre to states.
• It has written to states telling them that the GST and compensation cess collections in the
last few months have become a "matter of concern".

3
 PREFIT TEST 3
SOURCE: http://www.gstcouncil.gov.in/gst-council

6. Consider the following statements

1. The Parliament can establish an Inter-State Council to discuss the subject of common
interest between centre and states.
2. The Parliament can provide for provide for adjudication of disputes regarding use,
distribution and control of waters of inter-state rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

es
(b) 2 only

at
(c) Both 1 and 2

pd
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

_u
EXPLANATION:

se
Article 263 empowers the president to establish an Inter-State Council to discuss the subject of
_c
common interest between centre and states. So, statement 1 is not correct.
sc
Article 262 empowers the parliament to provide for the adjudication of disputes regarding the
up

use, distribution and control of waters of inter-state rivers. So, statement 2 is correct.
e/

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 14

t.m
om

7. Consider the following statements

1. U.P.S.C. can also serve the needs of a state on the request of the state governors and with the
Fr

approval of the President.

d
de

2. For joint recruitment of two or more states of any services, the states will seek the help of
oa

Public Service Commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
nl
ow

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
D

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The Union Public Service Commission can serve all or any of the needs of a state at the request
of the state governor and with the approval of the President of India. So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 315 states that Two or more States may agree that there shall be one Public Service
Commission for that group of States, and if a resolution to that effect is passed by the House or,
where there are two Houses, by each House of the Legislature of each of those States, Parliament
may by law provide for the appointment of a Joint State Public Service Commission (referred to

4
 PREFIT TEST 3
in this Chapter as Joint Commission) to serve the needs of those States. So, statement 2 is
correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
• The UPSC performs the following functions:
• It conducts examinations for appointments to the all-India services, Central services and
public services of the centrally administered territories.
• It assists the states (if requested by two or more states to do so) in framing and operating
schemes of joint recruitment for any services for which candidates possessing special

es
qualifications are required.

at
•

pd
It serves all or any of the needs of a state at the request of the state governor and with the
approval of the president of India.

_u
• It is consulted on the following matters related to personnel management.

se
• All matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and for civil posts.
_c
• The principles to be followed in making appointments to civil services and posts and in
sc

making promotions and transfers from one service to another.

up

• The suitability of candidates for appointments to civil services and posts; for promotions and
e/
t.m

transfers from one service to another; and appointments by transfer or deputation. The
concerned departments make recommendations for promotions and request the UPSC to
om

ratify them.
Fr

• All disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under the Government of India in a civil
capacity including memorials or petitions relating to such matters.
d
de

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 43

oa
nl

8. Which of the following has been described by the Constitution as the balancing wheel of fiscal
ow

federalism in India?
D

(a) NITI Aayog

(b) Union Public Service Commission
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(d) Finance Commission
EXPLANATION:
The constitution describes the finance commission as the balancing wheel of fiscal federalism in
India because it involves the fiscal distribution of revenue sharing of the central pool of central
government between the central and state governments. So, option D is correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 45

5
 PREFIT TEST 3
9. Which of the following bills can be introduced in the Parliament only with President’s
recommendation?
1. Money bills
2. Constitutional Amendment bill
3. A bill which imposes any tax or duty in which states are interested
4. A bill which alters “agricultural income” meaning for enactments relating to Income Tax
purposes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

es
(b) 1 and 4 only

at
(c) 1 and 3 only

pd
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

_u
EXPLANATION:

se
The Money Bills can be introduced in the Parliament only with the President prior
recommendation. So, statement 1 is correct.
_c
sc
Constitutional amendment bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member
up

and does not require the prior recommendation of the President, but must be passed in each
e/

House by a special majority. So, statement 2 is not correct.

t.m

No Bill or amendment which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which States are interested, or
om

which varies the meaning of the expression "agricultural income" as defined for the purposes of
the enactments relating to Indian income tax, or which affects the principles on which under any
Fr

of the foregoing provisions of this Chapter moneys are or may be distributable to States, or which
d
de

imposes any such surcharge for the purposes of the Union shall be introduced or moved in either
oa

House of Parliament except on the recommendation of the President. So, statements 3 and 4
are correct.
nl
ow

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 14

D

10. Consider the following statements:

1. The Inter-State council is a Constitutional body.
2. It can deal with both legal and non-legal issues.
3. Its function upon inter- state disputes is complementary to the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction
under Article 131.
4. Like the Court, its verdict is binding on parties involved.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

6
 PREFIT TEST 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The establishment of an Inter-state Council is done under Article 263 of the constitution. So,
statement 1 is correct.
The Council can deal with any controversy whether legal or non-legal, but its function is advisory
unlike that of the court which gives a binding decision. So, statement 2 is correct and 4 is not
correct.
The council's function to enquire and advise upon inter-state dispute is complementary to the
Supreme Courts jurisdiction under Article 131 to decide a legal controversy between the

es
Governments. So, statement 3 is correct.

at
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 15

pd
_u
11. Consider the following statements regarding Full Faith and Credit Clause:

se
1. Under Full Faith and Credit Clause, public acts, records and judicial proceedings of the
_c
Centre and every state is applicable throughout the territory of India.
sc
2. To implement it, it is required that courts of a state can enforce the penal laws of another
up

state.
e/

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

t.m

(a) 1 only
om

(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Fr

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

d
de

EXPLANATION:
oa

Article 261 (2) says that Full faith and credit shall be given throughout the territory of India to
nl

public acts, records and judicial proceedings of the Union and every State. Statement 1 is
ow

correct.
D

The Final Judgments and orders of Civil courts are any part of India are capable of executive
anywhere within India. The rule applies only to civil Judgments and not criminal Judgments. In
other words, it does not require the courts of a state to enforce the penal laws of another state.
So, statement 2 is not correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Under the Constitution, the jurisdiction of each state is confined to its own territory. Hence, it is
possible that the acts and records of one state may not be recognised in another state. To remove any
such difficulty, the Constitution contains the "Full Faith and Credit" clause which lays down the
following:
Full faith and credit are to be given throughout the territory of India to public acts, records and judicial
proceedings of the Centre and every state. The expression 'public acts include both legislative and

7
 PREFIT TEST 3
executive acts of the government. The expression public record' includes any official book, register or
record made by a public servant in the discharge of his official duties. The manner in which and the
conditions under which such acts, records and proceedings are to be proved and their effect
determined would be as provided by the laws of Parliament. This means that the general rule
mentioned above is subject to the power of Parliament to lay down the mode of proof as well as the
effect of such acts, records and proceedings of one state in another state.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 15

12. Trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India is free and has been provided

es
in the Constitution. It is applicable to

at
1. Inter-state trade, commerce and intercourse

pd
2. Intra-state trade, commerce and intercourse

_u
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

se
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
_c
sc
(c) Both 1 and 2
up

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

e/

EXPLANATION:
t.m

Article 301 declare that trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall
om

be free. The object of this provision is to break down the border barrier between the states and
to create one unit to encourage the free flow of trade. The freedom under this provision is not
Fr

confined to inter-state trade, commerce and intercourse but also extend to intra-state trade,
d
de

commerce and intercourse. So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

oa

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 15

nl
ow

13. Consider the following statements:

1. All the six zonal councils are statutory bodies created under State reorganization Act, 1956.
D

2. The Home Minister is the chairman of the council.

3. The chief secretary of the state, development commissioner of each state in the state are also
part of the council entitled to voting rights in the proceedings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:

8
 PREFIT TEST 3
Only 5 zonal councils were established under the state reorganization act, 1956. The 6th zonal
council of the northeast was established by the northeast council act 1971. So, statement 1 is
not correct.
The Home Minister of Central Government is the Common Chairman of the Zonal Councils. So,
statement 2 is correct.
Each Zonal Council consists of the following members, home minister of the central Government,
chief minister of all the states in the zone, Two other ministers from each state, Administrator of
each union territory in the zone can be associated with the Zonal councils as advisors (without
the right of voting in the meetings). So, statement 3 is not correct.

es
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 15

at
pd
14. Consider the following statements:

_u
1. The resolution approving the proclamation of President’s rule is passed by special majority by

se
either house of Parliament.
_c
2. President’s rule can be extended for a maximum period of three years.
sc
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
up

(a) 1 only
e/

(b) 2 only
t.m

(c) Both 1 and 2

om

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:
Fr

Every resolution approving the proclamation of the President’s rule or its continuation can be
d
de

passed by either house of Parliament only by a simple majority. So, statement 1 is not correct.
oa

The President rule is approved by both the house of parliament it can continue for six months.
nl

It can be extended for a maximum period of three years with the approval of the parliament,
ow

every six months. So, statement 2 is correct.

D

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Article 355 imposes a duty on the Centre to ensure that the government of every state is carried on in
accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. It is this duty in the performance of which the
Centre takes over the government of a state under Article 356 in case of failure of constitutional
machinery in the state. This is popularly known as President's Rule' It is also known as 'State
Emergency' or 'Constitutional Emergency'.
The President's Rule can be proclaimed under Article 356 on two grounds-one mentioned in Article
356 itself and another in Article 365:
• Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation if he is satisfied that a situation
has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the

9
 PREFIT TEST 3
provisions of the Constitution. Notably, the president can act either on a report of the
governor of the state or otherwise too (ie, even without the governor's report).
• Article 365 says that whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction
from the Centre, it will be lawful for the president to hold that a situation has arisen in which
the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the
Constitution.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 16

15. Consider the following statements:

es
1. Emergency proclamation can be revoked by the President without parliamentary approval.

at
2. The President must revoke the emergency proclamation if Lok Sabha pass a resolution

pd
disapproving its continuation.

_u
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

se
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
_c
sc
(c) Both 1 and 2
up

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

e/

EXPLANATION:
t.m

A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent

om

proclamation. Such proclamation does not require parliamentary approval always. So,
statement 1 is correct.
Fr

The president should revoke a national emergency either by the aid and advice of the prime
d
de

minister and his council of ministers or by passing a resolution to revoke it in Lok sabha. So,
oa

statement 2 is correct.
nl

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 16

ow
D

16. Every resolution approving the emergency proclamation or its continuance must be passed by
either house of Parliament by
(a) more than 50% of the members present and voting.
(b) 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50% of the total strength
of the house.
(c) 2/3rd members present and voting.
(d) 2/3rd members of the total strength of the house.
EXPLANATION:
Article 352 states that every resolution approving the emergency proclamation or its continuance
must be passed by either house of Parliament by 2/3rd members present and voting supported

10
 PREFIT TEST 3
by more than 50% of the total strength of the house, every 6 months once. So, option B is
correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 16

17. Consider the following statements:

1. While emergency proclamation is in operation, both the life of Lok Sabha and State
Legislative Assembly may be extended.
2. The proclamation of national emergency can be judicially reviewed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

es
(a) 1 only

at
(b) 2 only

pd
(c) Both 1 and 2

_u
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

se
EXPLANATION:
_c
The proclamation of emergency features provisions relating to the extension of the life of both
sc
Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly, as conducting elections in both centre and state is
up

difficult. So, statement 1 is correct.

e/

44 the constitutional amendment empowered the judiciary to review the imposition of the
t.m

proclamation of emergency. So, statement 2 is correct.

om

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 16

Fr

18. Consider the following statements:

d
de

1. The President can declare different proclamations of national emergency on different grounds
oa

simultaneously.
nl

2. Forty-second Amendment Act replaced the term “internal disturbance” by “armed rebellion”
ow

in respect of national emergency.

D

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The president can impose different national emergencies on different grounds simultaneously in
different parts of the country as per article 352. So, statement 1 is correct.
44th Amendment Act replaced the term “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion” in respect
of national emergency. So, statement 2 is not correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 16

11
 PREFIT TEST 3
19. Consider the following statements:
1. Under Article 358, if an emergency proclamation is made, the fundamental rights under
Article 19 are suspended.
2. Though fundamental rights are suspended, the state cannot make laws or take executive
action abridging the fundamental rights under Article 19, as it will violate the basic structure
of Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

es
(c) Both 1 and 2

at
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

pd
EXPLANATION:

_u
Article 358 suspends article 19 in the principle of entirety during the imposition of a national

se
emergency. So, statement 1 is correct.
_c
There is no restriction for the legislature to enact laws against article 19 during the imposition
sc
of a national emergency. So, statement 2 is not correct.
up

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER – 16

e/
t.m

20. Consider the following statements:

om

1. Article 358 suspends Fundamental rights only under Article 19 whereas Article 359
suspends all Fundamental rights.
Fr

2. The legislative and executive actions taken during the emergency operations under both
d
de

Articles 358 and 359 cannot be challenged in court.

oa

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
nl
ow

(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
D

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:
Article 358 suspends Fundamental rights only under Article 19 whereas Article 359 suspends
all fundamental rights except articles 20 and 21. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The legislative and executive actions; including presidential orders; taken during the emergency
operations under both Articles 358 and 359 can be reviewed judicially. So, statement 2 is not
correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 16

12
 PREFIT TEST 3
21. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament dismisses the state council of Ministers during President’s rule in a state.
2. The President either suspends or dissolves the state legislative assembly during President’s
rule in a state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

es
EXPLANATION:

at
The governor dismisses the state council of Ministers during President’s rule in a state. So,

pd
statement 1 is not correct.

_u
The President either suspends or dissolves the state legislative assembly during President’s rule

se
in a state according to his discretion. So, statement 2 is correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 16
_c
sc
up

22. Who among the following will be acquiring some extraordinary powers during President’s rule in a
e/

state?
t.m

(a) Governor of a state

om

(b) President
(c) Parliament
Fr

(d) High court of a state

d
de

EXPLANATION:
oa

President’s rule in a state will give the extraordinary legislative, executive, and financial powers
nl

of the state to the president of the country. So, option B is correct.

ow

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 16

D

23. Consider the following statements:

1. Under Article 352, If National Emergency is proclaimed, the Parliament can make laws in
state list automatically.
2. National emergency under Article 352 does not affect the fundamental rights of the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13
 PREFIT TEST 3
24. Consider the following statements:
1. The President’s rule in a state has no effect on fundamental rights of the citizens.
2. The national emergency can be extended indefinitely, with Parliamentary approval for every
six months.
3. The President’s rule can be only revoked by the President on his own.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only

es
(d) 1, 2 and 3

at
EXPLANATION:

pd
Out of the three types of emergency, the only proclamation of emergency or national emergency

_u
will suspend the fundamental rights of the citizens. So, statement 1 is correct.

se
There is no maximum cap on the extension of the duration of a national emergency, provided
_c
the parliament gives its approval. So, statement 2 is correct.
sc
The President’s rule can be only revoked by the President on the aid and advice of the council of
up

ministers and also by Lok sabha passing a resolution for doing so.. So, statement 3 is not
e/

correct.
t.m

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 16

om

25. The burden lies on whom to justify the imposition of President’s rule in a state?
Fr

(a) The Centre or Union government

d
de

(b) President
oa

(c) Parliament
nl

(d) Governor
ow

EXPLANATION:
D

In accordance with articles 355 and 365, it is the obligation of the central government to ensure
that the state is administered in line of the constitutional provisions. So, option A is correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER – 16

26. Consider the following statements:

1. During President’s rule, the state legislative assembly can only be dissolved after the
Parliament approved Presidential proclamation.
2. A state government pursuing anti-secular politics is liable to action under Article 356.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

14
 PREFIT TEST 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The presidential proclamation enables the dissolution of state legislative assembly (ensured by
parliamentary approval) during the president's rule. So, statement 1 is correct.
SR Bommai judgement ruled that the state government pursuing anti-secular politics is liable to
action under Article 356. So, statement 2 is correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 16

es
27. The imposition of President’s rule in a state would be improper under which of the following

at
situations?

pd
1. The government willfully refuses to discharge its constitutional obligations.

_u
2. Maladministration in the state.

se
3. Sorting out intra-party problems of ruling party.
4. Hung Assembly situations
_c
sc
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
up

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

e/

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

t.m

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
om

(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:
Fr

The Sarkaria Commission recommendations stated that the situation of the government willfully
d
de

refuses to discharge its constitutional obligations and Hung Assembly situations can be
oa

considered as situations for the imposition of the president's rule. So, statements 1 and 4 are
nl

not correct.
ow

SR Bommai judgement stated that the failure of constitutional machinery is different from the
D

failure of administrative machinery. The situations of maladministration in the state and sorting
out intra-party problems of the ruling party are considered incidents of administrative machinery
failures. So, statements 2 and 3 are correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 16

28. Consider the following statements:

1. Financial emergency proclamation must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within
two months from the issue date.
2. Approval is by means of special majority in both Houses of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

15
 PREFIT TEST 3
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of
Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. So, statement 1 is correct.
A resolution approving the proclamation of Financial Emergency can be passed by either house
of Parliament only by a simple majority, that is a majority of the members of that house present
and voting. So, statement 2 is not correct.

es
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 16

at
pd
29. Consider the following statements:

_u
1. Financial emergency proclamation once approved by Houses of parliament continues

se
indefinitely till it is revoked.
_c
2. A parliamentary approval is required for every six months.
sc
3. Financial emergency proclamation can be revoked by the President.
up

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

e/

(a) 2 and 3 only

t.m

(b) 1 and 2 only

om

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
Fr

EXPLANATION:
d
de

Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a
oa

situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its
nl

territory is threatened. It continues indefinitely and doesn't require frequent approval from
ow

parliament for continuation. So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
D

A proclamation of Financial Emergency may be revoked by the president at any time by a

subsequent proclamation. So, statement 3 is correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 16

30. When financial emergency proclamation is in operation, the President may issue ordrs for
reduction of salaries and allowances of
1. Any class of persons serving the Union and states.
2. Judges of Supreme Court
3. Judges of High Court
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only

16
 PREFIT TEST 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The President may issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of, during a
financial emergency,
• All or any class of persons serving the Union and states; and
• The judges of the Supreme Court and the high court.
So, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

es
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

at
EFFECTS OF FINANCIAL EMERGENCY:

pd
The consequences of the proclamation of a Financial Emergency are as follows:

_u
• The executive authority of the Centre extends

se
(a) to directing any state to observe such can one of financial propriety are specified by it; and
_c
(b) to directions as the President may deem necessary and adequate for the purpose.
sc
• Any such direction may include a provision requiring
up

(a) the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in the
e/

state; and (b) the reservation of all money bills or other financial bills for the consideration of the
t.m

President after they are passed by the legislature of the state.

om

"This Article more or less follows the pattern of what is called the National Recovery Act of the United
States passed in 1933, which gave the president power to make similar provisions in order to remove
Fr

the difficulties, both economical and financial, that had overtaken the American people, as a result of
d
de

the Great Depression."

oa

No Financial Emergency has been declared so far, though there was a financial crisis in 1991.
nl

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 16

ow
D

31. Consider the following statements:

1. All money bills of states even after passed by the legislative assemblies can be reserved for
the consideration of President during financial emergency.
2. In 1991, during BoP crisis, Indian Government has announced financial emergency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17
 PREFIT TEST 3
EXPLANATION:
Article 360 empowers the central government to ask state governments to reserve all money bills
and other related bills (even if passed by the legislature) for consideration of the president. So,
statement 1 is correct.
Even though the central government considered imposing a financial emergency during the BoP
crisis in 1991, a financial emergency has never been imposed in India till date. So, statement 2
is not correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 16

es
32. Consider the following statements:

at
1. The Cauvery water management scheme 2018 provides for Cauvery Water Management

pd
Authority (CWMA) and Cauvery Water Regulation Committee (CWRA).

_u
2. Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA) will be headed by a chairman appointed by

se
the central government with concerned state governments recommendation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
_c
sc
(a) 1 only
up

(b) 2 only
e/

(c) Both 1 and 2

t.m

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

om

EXPLANATION:
the Ministry of Water Resources submitted the draft that 'Cauvery Water Management Scheme,
Fr

2018' to the apex court. The scheme has two components: Cauvery Water Management Authority
d
de

and Cauvery Water Regulation Committee (CWRC). So, statement 1 is correct.

oa

The Cauvery River Authority would consist of the Prime Minister and the Chief Ministers of all
nl

four states (Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Puducherry and Kerala) and was headquartered in New
ow

Delhi. So, statement 2 is not correct.

D

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-does-the-gazette-notification-on-
cauvery-scheme-say/article24309460.ece

33. Consider the following statements:

1. The National Water Development Agency has identified in total of 30 projects for interlinking
of water and river valleys.
2. The Southern India river linking project majorly involves 3 rivers namely Narmada, Godavari
and Krishna rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

18
 PREFIT TEST 3
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Under the National Perspective Plan, the National Water Development Agency (NWDA) has
identified 30 links (16 under Peninsular Component and 14 under Himalayan Component) for
the preparation of Feasibility Reports (FRs). So, statement 1 is correct.
The focus of the peninsular river component is the projects that majorly involve the linking of
the 3 rivers of Narmada, Godavari, and Krishna. So, statement 2 is correct.

es
SOURCE: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1736923

at
pd
34. Consider the following statements:

_u
1. Fundamental rights under Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even during a national

se
emergency.
_c
2. The President can declare a national emergency only on the written recommendation of the
sc
Council of Ministers.
up

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

e/

(a) 1 only
t.m

(b) 2 only
om

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Fr

EXPLANATION:
d
de

The 44 Amendment Act mandates that the President cannot suspend the Fundamental Rights
oa

guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21. So, statement 1 is correct.

nl

The President can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation
ow

from the Cabinet. This means that the emergency can be declared only on the concurrence of
D

the Cabinet and not on the mere advice of the Prime minister and his council of ministers. So,
statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
• Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India
or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
• The President can also issue different proclamations on grounds of war, external aggression,
armed rebellion, or imminent danger thereof, whether or not there is a proclamation already
issued by him and such proclamation is in operation. This provision was added by the 38th
Amendment Act of 1975.

19
 PREFIT TEST 3
• Originally, the Constitution mentioned internal disturbance as the third ground for the
proclamation of a National Emergency, but the expression was too vague and had a wider
connotation.
• The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the declaration of a National Emergency immune
from judicial review. But, this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment
Act of 1978.
• Further, in the Minerva Mills case, (1980), the Supreme Court held that the proclamation of a
national emergency can be challenged in a court on the ground of malafide or that the
declaration was based on wholly extraneous and irrelevant facts or is absurd or perverse.

es
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 16

at
pd
35. Consider the following statements regarding The Inter-State River Water Disputes (Amendment)

_u
Bill, 2019.

se
1. The Central government will be setting up Dispute Resolution Committee (DRC).
_c
2. If a dispute cannot be settled by the DRC, the central government will refer it to the Inter-
sc
State River Water Disputes Tribunal.
up

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

e/

(a) 1 only
t.m

(b) 2 only
om

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Fr

EXPLANATION:
d
de

Under the Bill, a state will put in a request regarding any water dispute to the central
oa

government. The central government will then set up a Disputes Resolution Committee (DRC).
nl

So, statement 1 is correct.

ow

The DRC will seek to resolve the dispute through negotiations, within one year (extended by 6
D

months). It will then submit its report to the central government. If a dispute cannot be settled
by the DRC, the central government will refer it to the Inter-State River Water Disputes Tribunal.
So, statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
The Inter-State River Water Disputes (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was recently introduced in the Lok
Sabha. The Bill amends the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956. The Act provides for the
adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers and river valleys. Under the Act, a state
government may request the central government to refer an inter-state river dispute to a Tribunal for
adjudication. If the central government is of the opinion that it cannot be settled through negotiations,
it sets up a Water Disputes Tribunal within a year of receiving such a complaint. The Bill seeks to

20
 PREFIT TEST 3
replace the above mechanism. The main purpose of the Bill is to make the process of dispute
settlement more efficient and effective. The Bill proposes to set up a permanent tribunal to adjudicate
on all inter-state disputes over sharing of river waters. The replacement of five existing tribunals with
a permanent tribunal is likely to result in a 25% reduction in staff strength and a saving of Rs 4.27
crore per year.
SOURCE: https://prsindia.org/billtrack/the-inter-state-river-water-disputes-amendment-bill-2019

36. Who recommended the formation of the Permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263?
(a) The Constitution

es
(b) The Supreme Court

at
(c) Punchhi Commission

pd
(d) Sarkaria Commission

_u
EXPLANATION:

se
One of the important recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission was for establishing a
_c
permanent Inter-State Council as an independent national forum for consultation with a
sc
mandate well defined in accordance with Article 263 of the Constitution of India. So, option D
up

is correct.
e/

SOURCE: http://interstatecouncil.nic.in/isc-genesis/
t.m
om

37. As per the recent Home Ministry data, which state has most interstate border disputes in India?
(a) Nagaland
Fr

(b) Assam
d
de

(c) Mizoram
oa

(d) Jammu and Kashmir

EXPLANATION:
nl
ow

The recent Home Ministry data highlights the long-standing inter-state boundary issues in the
Northeast, particularly between Assam and the states that were carved out of it. So, option B is
D

correct.
SOURCE: https://www.news18.com/news/india/assam-has-most-inter-state-border-disputes-in-
india-home-ministry-data-shows-4013567.html

38. Which of the following criteria are taken into account by the Fifteenth Finance Commission for
devolution formula calculations?
1. Income distance
2. Population
3. Agricultural output
4. Demographic performance

21
 PREFIT TEST 3
5. Forest and ecology
6. Fiscal efforts
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
EXPLANATION:
The criteria for the distribution of central taxes among states for the 2021-26 period is the same

es
as that for 2020-21. The criteria used by the Commission to determine each state's share in

at
central taxes, and the weight assigned is as follows:

pd
• Income distance - 45%

_u
• Population (2011) - 15%

se
• Area 15%
_c
• Forest and Ecology - 10%
sc
• Demographic performance 12.5%
up

• Tax Effort - 2.5%

e/

So, option C is correct.

t.m
om

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Fr

Income distance:
• Income distance is the distance of a state's income from the state with the highest income.
d
de

• The income of a state has been computed as the average per capita GSDP during the three
oa

years between 2016-17 and 2018-19.

nl

Demographic performance:
ow

• As per its Terms of Reference, the Commission used the population data of 2011 for its
D

recommendations.
• The demographic performance criterion has been used to reward efforts made by states in
controlling their population.
• States with a lower fertility ratio will be scored higher on this criterion.
Forest and ecology:
• This is arrived at by calculating the share of the dense forest of each state in the total dense
forest of all the states.
Tax and fiscal efforts:
• This criterion has been used to reward states with high tax collection efficiency.
• . It is measured as the ratio of the average per capita own tax revenue and the average per
capita state GDP during the 3 years between 2016-17 and 2018-19.

22
 PREFIT TEST 3
SOURCE: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1693868

39. Consider the following statements:

1. The share of states in central taxes for 2021−26 is 42%, same as recommended by the
fourteenth finance commission.
2. The members of finance commission are not eligible for reappointment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

es
(c) Both 1 and 2

at
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

pd
EXPLANATION:

_u
The share of states in the central taxes for the 2021-26 period is recommended to be 41%. This

se
is less than the 42% share recommended by the 14th Finance Commission for the 2015-20
period. So, statement 1 is not correct.
_c
sc
Every member of the Commission shall hold office for such period as may be specified in the
up

order of the President appointing him, but shall be eligible for reappointment. So, statement 2
e/

is not correct.
t.m

SOURCE: https://prsindia.org/policy/report-summaries/report-15th-finance-commission-2021-26
om

40. Who developed Agriculture Marketing and Farmer Friendly Reforms Index highlighting the need to
Fr

take reforms in agriculture?

d
de

(a) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare

oa

(b) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

(c) Centre for sustainable agriculture
nl
ow

(d) NITI Aayog

EXPLANATION:
D

The Agriculture Marketing and Farmer Friendly Reforms Index proposed by the NITI Aayog has
the potential to improve competitiveness, efficiency and transparency in agricultural markets.
So, option D is correct.
SOURCE: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1491611

41. Consider the following statements:

1. ‘Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Capital-Education’ was launched to identify
and build three ‘role model’ States for the school education sector.
2. Jharkhand, Odisha and Madhya Pradesh were chosen for this project.
3. This project is under NITI Aayog.

23
 PREFIT TEST 3
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Capital (SATH) focuses on two main sectors -
Education and Health and to build three 'Role Model' States. The merger is being carried out
under the NITI Aayog's Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Capital in Education (SATH-

es
E) project and has been termed Consolidation and Rationalisation of schools. So, statements 1

at
and 3 are correct.

pd
In 2017, Odisha was among three states, along with Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh, to be

_u
selected by NITI Aayog for the project. So, statement 2 is correct.

se
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
_c
sc
• Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Capital (SATH) - SATH is aimed at initiating
up

transformation in two key social sectors - education and health.

e/

• States are guided towards improving their social sector indicators and are provided technical
t.m

support over three years.

om

• It was launched with a selection of states through a unique challenge method.

•
Fr

Major school consolidation and integration programme initiated with has been over 26,000
schools merged for better efficiencies and utilisation of resources.
d
de

• Uttar Pradesh, Assam, and Karnataka were selected to improve their healthcare delivery and
oa

key health indicators.

nl

• In education, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and Jharkhand were selected.

ow

• It achieves this by means of long-term inter-state engagements through cultural exchanges

D

and education.
SOURCE: https://www.niti.gov.in/project-sath-e

42. Which one of the following statements about Asmi is not correct?
(a) India’s first indigenously developed 9-mm machine pistol.
(b) Asmi is jointly developed by Ordnance factory board.
(c) The 3D printing technology has been used in designing the gun.
(d) The weapon has huge potential in armed forces as a personal weapon.
EXPLANATION:
Asmi is India’s first indigenously developed 9-mm machine pistol and is jointly developed by
ARDE and Indian Army’s Infantry School. So, option B is not correct.

24
 PREFIT TEST 3

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
• Asmi (means pride, self-respect and hard work) is India’s first indigenously developed 9-mm
machine pistol.
• [Machine pistols are primarily self-loading versions of pistols that are either fully automatic
or can also fire bursts of bullets.]
• Asmi is jointly developed by ARDE and the Indian Army’s Infantry School.
• It has an upper receiver made from aircraft-grade aluminium and a lower receiver from
carbon fibre.

es
• The 3D printing technology has been used in designing and prototyping the pistol, including

at
pd
trigger components made by metal 3D printing.
• The weapon has huge potential in armed forces as a personal weapon for heavy weapon

_u
detachments, commanders, counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism operations etc

se
SOURCE: IAS PARLIAMENT – 21 JANUARY 2021 _c
sc
43. Consider the following statements about Bankapur Wildlife sanctuary
up

1. It is first-ever ‘Wolf Sanctuary’ in the drylands of Karnataka.

e/

2. It will also help the conservation of other mammal and reptile population in the region.
t.m

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

om

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Fr

(c) Both 1 and 2

d
de

(d) None of the above

oa

EXPLANATION:
nl

Karnataka State Wildlife Board approved the formation of the first-ever ‘Wolf Sanctuary’ in the
ow

drylands of Bankapur of Koppal district. The region around Bankapur is interspersed with rocky
D

hillocks and thorny vegetation. So, statement 1 is correct.

Besides Indian Grey wolves, the area can also help in the conservation of striped hyena, golden
jackal, Indian fox and other fauna. So, statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Indian Grey Wolf
• It is a subspecies of grey wolf that inhabits semi-arid and arid areas.
• It inhabits the dry grassland regions of the Deccan Plateau in pockets and prey on
blackbucks and other herbivores.
• It lacks the luxuriant winter coat as it lives in warmer conditions.

25
 PREFIT TEST 3
• It has a wide distribution range that extends from Southwest Asia to the Indian
Subcontinent.
• International Union for Conservation of Nature Status - Least Concern
• Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 - Schedule I Part I.
SOURCE: THE HINDU – 21 JANUARY 2021
SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS – 21 JANUARY 2021

44. Shramshakthi portal is associated with

(a) Labour dispute resolution

es
(b) Portal for migrant workers.

at
(c) National Database on Unorganized Workers

pd
(d) Digitisation of Help Groups.

_u
EXPLANATION:

se
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs has launched “ShramShakti”- a National Migration Support Portal,
_c
to smooth the formulation of state and national level programs for migrant workers. So, option
sc
B is correct.
up

SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS – 23 JANUARY 2021

e/
t.m

45. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Smart Anti Airfield Weapon?
om

1. It is developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) in collaboration

with Russia.
Fr

2. It is a high precision guided bomb with range around 1500km.

d
de

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

oa

(a) 1 only
nl

(b) 2 only
ow

(c) Both 1 and 2

D

(d) None of the above

EXPLANATION:
Smart Anti Airfield Weapon was manufactured by DRDO’s Research Centre Imarat (RCI)
Hyderabad in collaboration with Russia. So, statement 1 is correct.
It is a 125-kilogram class smart weapon, capable of engaging ground enemies airfield assets such
as radars, bunkers, taxi tracks, and runways, up to a range of 100 kilometres. So, statement 2
is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
• SAAW is designed to strike ground targets, especially adversary airfield infrastructure or
similar strategically important installations.

26
 PREFIT TEST 3
• This is a 125-kilogram class smart weapon, capable of engaging ground enemies airfield
assets such as radars, bunkers, taxi tracks, and runways, up to a range of 100 kilometres.
• The high precision-guided bomb is lightweight compared to weapon systems of the same
class.
• Other Related Development: The test of SAAW comes months after another weapon system
designed to target enemy radar and communication assets, Rudram, was tested in October
2020.
• Rudram, an air-to-surface missile, has been developed primarily to enhance the Suppression
of Enemy Air Defence (SEAD) capability of the IAF and can detect, track and neutralise the

es
radar, communication assets and other radio frequency sources belonging to the adversary,

at
which are generally their air defence systems.

pd
SOURCE: PIB – 22 JANUARY 2021

_u
se
46. Consider the following statements about Great reset
_c
1. It is based on the premise that the world economy is in deep trouble.
sc
2. It is developed by Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development.
up

3. It emphasizes that the world must act jointly to revamp all aspects of our societies and
e/

economies, from education to social contracts and working conditions.

t.m

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

om

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only
Fr

(c) 2 and 3 only

d
de

(d) 1 and 3 only

oa

EXPLANATION:
nl

The idea of a great reset has been evolving over the years and is based on the premise that the
ow

world economy is in deep trouble. So, statement 1 is correct.

D

The Great Reset initiative has been conceptualised by the founder of the World Economic Forum
(WEF), Klaus Schwab. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The concept says there is a need to revamp all aspects of economies and societies such as
working conditions, education, social contracts, etc by joint action by all stakeholders of the
world. So, statement 3 is correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS – 30 JANUARY 2021

47. Consider the following statements about Climate Adaptation Summit 2021
1. The summit was built on the advances of the UN Climate Action Summit.
2. India has committed to provide the clean cooking fuel to 80 million rural households during
the summit.

27
 PREFIT TEST 3
3. The summit focuses on securing the new investments in order to ensure that millions of
smallholder farmers could adapt to the impact of climate on food production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All the above
EXPLANATION:
The climate adaptation summit was built on the advances of the UN Climate Action Summit.

es
So, statement 1 is correct.

at
India has committed to providing clean cooking fuel to 80 million rural households during the

pd
summit and also committed to connecting the 64 million households with the piped water supply.

_u
So, statement 2 is correct.

se
The summit focuses on securing the new investments to ensure that millions of smallholder
_c
farmers could adapt to the impact of climate on food production in terms of mitigation,
sc
adaptation, and rehabilitation. So, statement 3 is correct.
up

SOURCE: IAS PARLIAMENT – 28 JANUARY 2021

e/
t.m

48. Which of the following statements is/are correct about FIST scheme?
om

1. The scheme was launched to strengthen the Science and Technology (S&T) infrastructure.
2. It is considered as complimentary support for enabling Departments/ Centres/ Schools/
Fr

Colleges to pursue research activities more effectively.

d
de

Select the correct code

oa

(a) 1 only
nl

(b) 2 only
ow

(c) Both 1 and 2

D

(d) None of the above

EXPLANATION:
Fund for Improvement of S&T Infrastructure (FIST) Scheme is an initiative of the Department of
Science & Technology (DST), Government of India. The Scheme is intended to provide basic
infrastructure and enabling facilities for promoting R&D activities in new and emerging areas
and attracting fresh talents in universities & other educational institutions. So, statement 1 is
correct.
This scheme is considered as complementary support for enabling Departments/ Centres/
Schools/ Colleges to pursue research activities more effectively by developing infrastructure at
an upgraded level. So, statement 2 is correct.
SOURCE: PIB – 23 JANUARY 2021

28
 PREFIT TEST 3

49. Consider the statements about Flash droughts

1. It occurs during warm seasons
2. Flash droughts can develop in only a few weeks.
3. Lack of precipitation is a key driver of flash drought.
Select the correct code
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only

es
(d) All the above

at
EXPLANATION:

pd
Flash droughts are those that occur very quickly, with soil moisture depleting rapidly and they

_u
occur typically during warm seasons. So, statement 1 is correct.

se
Normally, developing drought conditions take months, but these happen within a week or in two
weeks. So, statement 2 is correct.
_c
sc
A critical lack of precipitation accompanied by abnormally high temperatures, high winds,
up

and/or changes in radiation can cause a flash drought. So, statement 3 is correct.
e/
t.m

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
om

Flash drought
• Flash drought is the rapid onset or intensification of drought and is set in motion by lower-
Fr

than-normal rates of precipitation, accompanied by abnormally high temperatures, winds,

d
de

and radiation.
oa

• Together, these weather changes can rapidly alter the local climate.
nl

• Flash droughts can either bethe short-lived yet severe event where soil moisture completely
ow

depletes or a multi-week period of rapid intensification toward drought.

D

• Unlike conventional drought, which can happen anywhere and at any time, flash drought
typically occurs during warm seasons.
• Causes - Rapid drought intensification occurs due to two key drivers:
• A critical lack of precipitation accompanied by abnormally high temperatures, high winds,
and/or changes in radiation and
• Increased evaporative demand, which is a measure of the extent to which the environment
‘tries’ to evaporate water. [This is unlike common drought that is caused only by a decline in
precipitation.]
• Geographic differences and climate patterns also impact the development of flash drought.
• In contrast with conventional drought - which occurs throughout the year at any location -
flash drought typically occurs during warm seasons.

29
 PREFIT TEST 3
• Impacts - As flash droughts can develop in only a few weeks, they create impacts on
agriculture that are difficult to prepare for and mitigate.
• Higher temperature increases evapotranspiration and further lowers soil moisture, which
decreases rapidly as drought conditions continue. [Evapo-transpiration is the process by
which water is transferred from the land to the atmosphere by evaporation from the soil and
by transpiration from plants.]
SOURCE: IAS PARLIAMENT – 25 JANUARY 2021

50. What are the likely impacts that can occur due to recent Changes in CSR Rules?

es
1. Private trusts would either have to be converted to registered public trusts, or stop acting as

at
CSR implementing agencies.

pd
2. The list of CSR projects or programmes that are approved to be undertaken in areas or

_u
subjects to be specified in the rules.

se
Select the code
(a) 1 only
_c
sc
(b) 2 only
up

(c) Both 1 and 2

e/

(d) None of the above

t.m

EXPLANATION:
om

The present change in CSR regulations makes the private entities involved in CSR activities need
to be converted into the public trust, otherwise, they would be prevented from implementing CSR
Fr

activities. So, statement 1 is correct.

d
de

CSR amendments rule 2021 states that the list of the approved CSR programmes or projects to
oa

be undertaken in subjects or areas need to be specified as in Schedule VII of the Act. So,
nl

statement 2 is correct.
ow

SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS – 30 JANUARY 2021

D

30