DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C: P-SIA-D-UPGI
PRELIMS FITNESS – 2022
Serial: 737246
TEST 1
F

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

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1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT

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THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,

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ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

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2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. _c
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
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provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
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4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises
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four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
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case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the
best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
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5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
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6. All items carry equal marks.

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7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
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Admission Certificate.
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8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
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concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
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9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that question
will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

 PREFIT TEST 1
1. Which of the following statements is/are 3. Which of the following statements is/are
correct with reference to the reorganization not correct regarding the Government of
of states under the provisions of the India act,1909?
Constitution? 1. A Complete Demarcation of separate
1. No Bill for the purposes can be central and provincial subjects.
introduced except on the recommendation 2. First-time bicameralism was introduced
of the President at the centre and provinces.
2. Parliament can increase the area of any 3. It also abolished ‘Double government’

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state but cannot reduce it system.

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3. A bill for the purpose of reorganization of 4. Satyendra prasad Sinha became the

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states can be introduced only in the Lok first Indian to join the viceroy’s

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Sabha Executive council as per Provisions of

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Select the correct answer using the code this act.
given below.
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Select the correct answer using the code
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(a) 1 only given below:
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(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

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(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only

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(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2, 3, and 4

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(d) 4 only
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2. Consider following statements with

reference to the Schedules of Indian 4. What is an important features that is
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constitution embedded in the Government of India Act

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1. Any provisions of the schedules of the 1935?

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Constitution of India can be amended by (a) First time Ordinance making power
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the simple majority of the Parliament given to Viceroy of India.

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2. One of the first mentions of Schedules (b) First time Indians got included in
was made in the Government of India Act, Viceroy’s Executive council.
1935 (c) First time introduced a system of
Which of the statements given above is/are separate communal Representation for
correct? Sikhs, Anglo-Indians.
(a) 1 only (d) First time it abolished ‘Double rule’ and
(b) 2 only introduced ‘Provincial autonomy’.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

1
 PREFIT TEST 1
5. What are the following statements are 8. The idea of ‘Prerogative writs’ in the Indian
correct regarding ‘Objective Resolution’? Constitution is borrowed from the which of
1. It was moved by Dr. Ambedkar in 1946. the following Constitution?
2. It defined the aims of the constituent (a) Canada
Assembly. (b) US
3. The modified form of it forms present (c) Britain

day Preamble of Indian Constitution. (d) Ireland

4. This resolution encapsulated the

aspirations and values behind the 9. According to the Constituent Assembly,
which among the following statements

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Constitution.
is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code

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1. The idea of a constituent assembly was

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given below:
first proposed in 1934 by M.N. Roy.
(a) 1,2,3 only

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2. The Actual constituent assembly was
(b) 2,3,4 only

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formed in 1946 on the basis of the cabinet
(c) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(d) None of the Above.
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mission plan.
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3. The basis of seats allocation was based
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on the Population.
6. Consider the following statements:
4. All the members are directly elected by
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1. The first Public Service Commission in

the people base on the method of Universal
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India was set up in the year 1926, on

Adult franchise.
the recommendation of the Lee
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Select the correct answer using the code

Commission on the Superior Civil given below:
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Services in India. (a) 1 only

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2. The Government of India Act, 1935, (b) 2 and 3 only

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provided for setting up of public service (c) 1,2,3 only

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commissions at both the federal and (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

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provincial levels.
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Which of the statements given above is/are 10. Which of the following commissions/
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correct? Committee is/are related to states

(a) 1 only reorganization in India?
(b) 2 only 1. Dhar commission
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. JVP commission
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Balwant Rai Mehta committee
4. Fazl Ali commission
7. A constitutional government by definition is Select the correct answer using the code
a given below.
(a) government by legislature (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) popular government (b) 2 and 4 only

(c) multi – party government (c) 2,3 and 4 only

(d) limited government (d) 1,2 and 4 only

2
 PREFIT TEST 1
11. Our Constitution is the Basic law of the 2. Members of the constituent assembly was
Land and it gives the Fundamental Rights elected by the Legislature of Various
and Duties to all but it derives its ultimate provinces.
authority from whom? 3. Muslim league and Princely states never
(a) Parliament of India. accepted the membership in these assembly.
(b) Supreme Court of India.
Select the correct answer using the code
(c) From our Honourable President of India
given below:
(d) People of our Country.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only

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12. Which among the following statements
(c) 1 and 3 only
is/are correct regarding about the

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(d) 1, 2, and 3

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‘Preamble of our Indian constitution’?
1. The preamble our Indian constitution

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has been amended twice till now. 15. Which among the following statements

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2. The ideals of Fraternity in the Preamble is/are not correct regarding ‘Formation of
are borrowed from the Britain constitution
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new state’?
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and Government of India Act,1935. 1. To form a new state, Parliament must
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Select the correct answer using the code pass the concern Bill in both the house of
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given below: parliament with the prior recommendation

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(a) 1 only of Prime minister of India.

(b) 2 only
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2. To form a new state, Parliament shall

(c) Both 1 and 2
have concern state legislature’s approval
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2

with simple majority without concurrence
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of them Bill cannot be pass by parliament.

13. According to which of these Acts, new office
Select the correct answer using the code
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“secretary of state for India” created and it

given below:
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created a 15-member council of India to

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assist him/her and also it officially ended (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
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the company rule and transferred the rule

to Crown? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Government of India Act,1909 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Queen of Britain Proclamation,1857
(c) Government of India Act,1858 16. Which of the following Commission
(d) Charter Act of 1853 accepted the demand for state
reorganisation on linguistic basics?
14. Which of the following statements is/are (a) S.K. Dhar commission
not regarding the composition of the
(b) JVP committee.
Constituent Assembly?
(c) Faizal Ali Committee.
1. Motilal Nehru was the president of the
(d) Nehru Report
constituent Assembly of India.

3
 PREFIT TEST 1
17. Which among the following statements 19. Which of the following statements is/are
is/are recommendations of the Simon not correct regarding
commission report? “Person of Indian Origin”
1. Establishment of federation of British 1. A person of Indian origin (PIO) means a

India and Princely states. foreign citizen (except a national of

2. To provide Dominion status to India. Pakistan, Afghanistan, Bangladesh,

3. Establishment of Federal Court of India. china, Iran, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and

4. Separate Electorate to working women Nepal.

and Muslims. 2. PIO category was merged with OCI

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category in 2015
5. Extension of responsible government in

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Select the correct answer using the code

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Provinces.
given below:

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6. Abolition of dyarchy.
(a) 1 only

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Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only
given below: _c
(c) Both 1 and 2
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(a) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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(b) 1, 2, 5 only
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(c) 1, 5, 6 only
20. which one among the following has the
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(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6
power to regulate the rights of citizenship in
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India and competent authority to prescribe

18. Which of the following statements is/are
conditions as for acquiring citizenship of
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not correct regarding Citizenship?

India?
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1. Indian Citizenship is acquired by birth,

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(a) The president of India

descent, registration only.
(b) Prime minister of India
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2. A person born in India on or after 26th (c) Parliament of India

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January 1950 but before 1st July 1987 is a

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(d) Ministry of Home Affairs

citizen of India by birth irrespective the
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nationality of his parents. 21. which one of the following Amendment

3. The power to grant citizenship lies with referred as the ‘Anti- secession Bill’ and it
the Ministry of Human Resources. imposed restrictions on the fundamental
Select the correct answer the following rights of the citizens with a view to protect
using the code given below: the sovereignty and integrity of India?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 8thconstitutional amendment Act
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 11th constitutional amendment Act
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 16th constitutional amendment Act
(d) 1, 2, and 3 (d) 20th constitutional amendment Act

4
 PREFIT TEST 1
22. which of the following statements is/are 24. Which of the following statements regarding
criticisms of the constituent Assembly and pre-independence governance formulation
is not correct?
constitution of India?
(a) The members of the interim government
1. India is not a representative body
formed in 1946 were members of the
because members of constituent Viceroy's executive council.
assembly cannot be directly elected by (b) Sardar Vallabhai Patel was given the
people of India. portfolio to head the information and

2. Constituent assembly was dominated broadcasting ministry.

(c) The composition of the interim
by the leaders of congress and lawyer

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government didn't contain any
professionals and no single women

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members from the Muslim league.

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participated in constituent assembly. (d) Jawahar Lal Nehru was designated as

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3. Our constitution is so lengthy and the vice president of the council.

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bulky as well as so rigid to amend
25. Consider the following statements:
anything and state legislature shall _c
1. Like the American courts, the Indian
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have prior permission to amend the
courts also follow a double system of
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constitution provisions. courts.

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Select the correct answer using the code 2. Like the British parliament, the Indian
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given below: parliament is also a sovereign body.

Which of the above-given statements is/are
(a) 1 only
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correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
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(c) 3 only (b) 2 only

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(d) None of the above (c) Both 1 and 2

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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23. According to the constitution of India,

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26. Consider the following statements

which of the following procedure is/are
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regarding citizenship:
followed during the period of ‘Cession of
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1. The citizenship act, 1955 was amended

territory of India’ in favour of foreign state 8 times since its commencement.
in matter of border dispute resolution? 2. A person registered as per provisions in
(a) By an amendment to constitution by the Assam accords shall be deemed to be a
citizen of India and enjoy all rights therein,
special majority with half of states
except the right to vote for his entire
consent.
lifetime.
(b) By passing an ordinary law Which of the above-given statements
(c) By an Executive order of president of is/are correct?
India. (a) 1 only

(d) We cannot Cede Indian Teritory to (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2
another country.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5
 PREFIT TEST 1
27. Which of the following statements is/are Which of the above-given statements is/are
correct with regard to the acquisition of correct?
Citizenship in India? (a) 1 only
1. The children of foreign diplomats posted (b) 2 only
in India can acquire Indian citizenship by (c) Both 1 and 2
birth. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. An illegal migrant can acquire the
Citizenship of India by naturalization if he 30. Which of the following schedules of the
is ordinarily resident in India for 12 years. constitution cannot be amended by a

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Select the correct answer using the code simple majority of the parliament?
given below: (a) Fifth schedule

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(a) 1 only (b) Second Schedule
(b) 2 only (c) Sixth Schedule

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(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Seventh Schedule

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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31. Consider the following statements:
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28. Consider the following statements: 1. Delimitation of constituencies
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1. All the Fundamental Rights in part III of 2. Quorum in parliament

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the constitution. 3. Use of official language

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2. Limited power of parliament to amend Which of the above-given statements are

the constitution. provisions that can be amended by a
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3. Free and fair elections. simple majority of the parliament?

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4. Welfare state (socio-economic justice (a) 1 and 2 only

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objective) (b) 1 and 3 only

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Which of the above-given statements is/are (c) 2 and 3 only

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components of basic structure doctrine in (d) 1, 2, and 3

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the constitution?
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(a) 1, 2, and 3 32. Consider the following states:

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(b) 1, 3, and 4 1. Tripura

(c) 2, 3, and 4 2. Goa
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Maharashtra
29. Consider the following statement with Arrange the above-given states in the
reference to Constitutional Amendment: chronological order of their formation of
1. President can send the constitutional statehood:
amendment bill for reconsideration only (a) 4-2-1-3
once. (b) 4-1-2-3
2. The Parliament has unrestricted power (c) 4-3-1-2
to amend any part of the Constitution (d) 4-1-3-2

6
 PREFIT TEST 1
33. Consider the following statements Select the correct answer from the codes
regarding the parliamentary form of given below:
government: (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
1. Parliamentary form of government is
(c) 3 only
dependent on coordination and cooperation (d) All the above
between the legislative and the
executive. 36. Under which one of the following
2. It demands the members of the Constitution Amendment Act, four
government to be members of the languages were added to the languages
under the Eighth Schedule of the
legislature.

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Constitution of India, thereby raising their
3. It emphasizes the doctrine of separation number to 22?

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of power. (a) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment)

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Which of the above-given statements is/are Act

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correct? (b) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment)

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(a) 1 and 2 only Act
(c) Constitution (Ninety-second
(b) 1 and 3 only _c Amendment) Act
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(c) 2 and 3 only (d) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment)
(d) 1, 2, and 3
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Act
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34. Consider the following statements 37. The “Instrument of Instructions” contained
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regarding the Indian federal system: in the Government of India Act 1935 have
been incorporated in the Constitution of
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1. Indian federal system is based on the

India in the year 1950 as
Canadian model and not on the American (a) Fundamental Rights
Fr

model. (b) Directive Principles of State Policy

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2. The United States of America is the (c) Extent of executive power of State
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world's oldest federation while India is the (d) Conduct of business of the Government
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world's largest federation. of India

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Which of the above-given statements is/are

38. Consider the following statements:
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correct? 1. Union territories are not represented in

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(a) 1 only the Rajya Sabah

(b) 2 only 2. It is within the purview of the Chief
(c) Both 1 and 2 Election Commissioner to adjudicate the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 election disputes
3. According to the constitution of India,
parliament consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya
35. Which of the following benefits are provided Sabah only
to the OCI cardholders in India? Which of the statements given above is/are
1. They can apply for a driver's license. correct?
2. They can adopt children as per the (a) Only 1
official policy of the Central Adoption (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
Resource Authority.
(d) None of the above
3. They can buy farm property.

7
 PREFIT TEST 1
39. India’s foreign exchange reserves have risen 42. Which of the following is a major reason
by over $103 billion as of 25 2020. What is behind closure of Antarctic ozone hole
the main contributing factor behind this recently?
huge rise in forex reserves? (a) Strong, stable and cold polar vortex and
(a) Current account surplus has been very cold temperatures.
supplemented by some foreign capital
(b) Strict monitoring of Kyoto protocol.
inflows.
(c) Effective implementation of Kigali
(b) Huge decline in imports.
amendment by developed countries.
(c) Current account balance (exports-
(d) Unstable polar vortex.
imports gap) turning positive during

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2020.
43. Which of the following is/are correct

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(d) Increase in External Commercial

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Borrowings. regarding Spectrum auctions?
1. The airwaves called spectrum, are sold

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40. Consider the following statements about by state government through auctions.

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DeeporBeel 2. The validity lapses after 10 years.
1. DeeporBeel is the Assam’s only Ramsar
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3. Foreign companies are also eligible to
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site. bid for the airwaves.
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2. Lying in a former channel of the Select the correct answer using the codes
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Brahmaputra river, it lies to the south

given below:
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of the main river channel.

(a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 1 and 2 only
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not correct?
(c) 3 only
(a) 1 only
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(d) 2 only
(b) 2 only
d

(c) Both 1 and 2 only

de

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 44. Consider the following statements about

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National Internet Exchange of India

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41. Consider the following statements about 1. It was set up for peering of Internet
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Ammoniacal Nitrogen Service Providers (ISPs) among

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1. Ammoniacal nitrogen is a toxic themselves to route the domestic traffic

pollutant found in landfill leachate and within the country.
in organic waste products. 2. National Internet Exchange of India will
2. It can be used as a measure of the offer free Internationalized Domain
health of water only in man-made water
Name (IDN) in any of the 22 official
reservoirs.
Indian languages.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

(d) None of the above (c) Both 1 and 2 only

(d) None of the above

8
 PREFIT TEST 1
45. Which of the following statement is/are 48. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Asian Water Bird Census? vital features of the Indian councils Acts of
1. The census covers the entire East Asian 1861?
- Australasian Flyway and a large part 1. It provided for establishment of new
of the Central Asian Flyway.
legislative councils for Bengal, North-
2. It helps in implementation of the
western frontier province and Punjab.
Convention on Migratory Species (CMS)
2. The Act empowered the Viceroy of India
and the Convention on Biological
Diversity‘s (CBD). to make any member of his executive
Select the correct code council in-charge of a particular
(a) 1 only department.

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(b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Both 1 and 2 only given below:

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only

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(b) 2 only

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46. Consider the following about The Natural
(c) Both 1 and 2
Capital Accounting and Valuation of

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ecosystem Services project
1. The project seeks to advance the theory _c
49. Consider the following provisions provided
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and practice of environmental and
ecosystem accounting in Brazil, China, in the Indian Council’s Act of 1892.
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India, Mexico, and South Africa. 1. It was Act first time uses the gradual
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2. The participation in the project has introduction Responsible Government

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helped India to commence the in India.

compilation of the Environment 2. This Act came from the accounts of the
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Accounts as per the UN-SEEA System

August Declaration.
of Environmental-Economic Accounting
3. It made a limited and indirect provision
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(SEEA) framework.
for the use of elections in filling up of
Which of the statements given above is/are
d

some Non-official member seats.

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correct?
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code
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(b) 2 only given below:

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(c) Both 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 3 only

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only

(c) 3 only
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47. Consider the following statements about (d) None of the above.
Lightning
1. It is a result of the difference in
50. The basic structure of the Indian
electrical charge between the top and
constitution was formed on the basis of
bottom of a cloud.
2. Incidence of lightning are tracked and which of the following documents?
monitored by Indian Meteorological (a) Fundamental Rights
Organization. (b) Nehru’s objective resolution
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Supreme court judgements
not correct? (d) Government of India Act,1935
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9
 DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C: P-SIA-D-UPGI
PRELIMS FITNESS – 2022
Serial: 737246
TEST 1
F

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

es
at
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT

pd
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,

_u
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

se
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. _c
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
sc
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
up

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises
e/

four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
t.m

case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the
best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
om

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
Fr

6. All items carry equal marks.

ed

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
d
oa

Admission Certificate.
nl

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
ow

concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
D

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that question
will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

 PREFIT TEST 1
1. Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the reorganization of states
under the provisions of the Constitution?
1. No Bill for the purposes can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President
2. Parliament can increase the area of any state but cannot reduce it
3. A bill for the purpose of reorganization of states can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only

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(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:

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Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard: one, a bill can be introduced in the

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Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President; and two, before
recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned

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for expressing its views within a specified period. So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 3 authorises the Parliament to:
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• form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more
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states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state,

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• increase the area of any state,

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• diminish the area of any state,

• alter the boundaries of any state, and
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• alter the name of any state.

Fr

So, statement 2 is not correct.

d

Article 3 authorises the Parliament to introduce the bill only with the prior recommendation
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of the President. Here, the parliament includes both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
oa

So, statement 3 is not correct.

nl
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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
D

• The power of Parliament to form new states includes the power to form a new state or union
territory by uniting a part of any state or union territory to any other state or union territory.
• The President (or Parliament) is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either
accept or reject them, even if the views are received in time. Further, it is not necessary to make a
fresh reference to the state legislature every time an amendment to the bill is moved and accepted
in Parliament. In case of a union territory, no reference need be made to the concerned legislature
to ascertain its views and the Parliament can itself take any action as it deems fit.
• It is thus clear that the Constitution authorises the Parliament to form new states or alter
theareas, boundaries or names of the existing states without their consent.
• In other words, the Parliament can redraw the political map of India according to its will. Hence,
the territorial integrity or continued existence of any state is not guaranteed by the Constitution.
Therefore, India is rightly described as ‘an indestructible union of destructible states’.

1
 PREFIT TEST 1
• The Union government can destroy the states whereas the state governments cannot destroythe
Union. Moreover, the Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that laws made for admissionor
establishment of new states (under Article 2) and formation of new states and alteration ofareas,
boundaries or names of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered asamendments
of the Constitution under Article 368. This means that such laws can be passedby a simplemajority
and by the ordinary legislative process.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 5

2. Consider following statements with reference to the Schedules of Indian constitution

es
1. Any provisions of the schedules of the Constitution of India can be amended by the simple
majority of the Parliament

at
pd
2. One of the first mentions of Schedules was made in the Government of India Act, 1935
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

_u
(a) 1 only

se
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
_c
sc
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
up

EXPLANATION:
e/

The schedules of the constitution consist of many provisions like provisions relating to the
t.m

administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes or provisions relating to the
administration of tribal areas, division of powers between the Union and the States, etc. It may
om

affect a part of or whole of India. Hence, it cannot be amended by the simple majority of the
Fr

Parliament. It may be amended according to the article 368. So, statement 1 is not correct.
d

One of the first mentions of Schedules was made in the Government of India Act, 1935. The Act
de

marked a second milestone towards a completely responsible government in India. It was a

oa

lengthy and detailed document having 321Sections and 10 Schedules. So, statement 2 is
nl

correct.
ow
D

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Government of India Act of 1935
• It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely
states as units. The Act divided the powers between the Centre and units in terms of three lists—
Federal List (for Centre, with 59 items), Provincial List (for provinces, with 54 items) and the
Concurrent List (for both, with 36 items). Residuary powers were given to the Viceroy. However,
the federation never came into being as the princely states did not join it.
• It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place. The
provinces were allowed to act as autonomous units of administration in their defined spheres.
Moreover, the Act introduced responsible governments in provinces, that is, the
governorwasrequired to act with the advice of ministers responsible to the provincial legislature.
This came into effect in 1937 and was discontinued in 1939.

2
 PREFIT TEST 1
• It provided for the adoption of dyarchy at the Centre. Consequently, the federal subjects were
divided into reserved subjects and transferred subjects. However, this provision of the Act did not
come into operational all.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 1

3. Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding the Government of India act,1909?
1. A Complete Demarcation of separate central and provincial subjects.
2. First-time bicameralism was introduced at the centre and provinces.
3. It also abolished ‘Double government’ system.

es
4. Satyendra prasad Sinha became the first Indian to join the viceroy’s Executive council as per
Provisions of this act.

at
pd
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

_u
(b) 1 and 2 only

se
(c) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(d) 4 only
_c
sc
EXPLANATION:
up

The government of India Act 1919, also known as Montague-Chelmsford reforms relaxed the
e/

central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial
t.m

subjects. So, statement 1 is not correct.

First-time bicameralism was introduced at the centre and provinces in the government of India
om

Act 1919. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Fr

Government Of India Act 1935 abolished dyarchy in Provinces. So, statement 3 is not correct.
d

The Provision regarding the appointment ofthe first Indian (Satyendra prasad Sinha) to join the
de

viceroy’s Executive council was featured in the Government of India Act 1909. So, statement 4
oa

is correct.
nl
ow

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
D

 Indian council Act 1909 is also known as Morley-Minto Reforms.

 It considerably increased the size of the legislative councils, both Central and provincial.
 It enlarged the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at both the levels.
 It provided (for the first time) for the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the
Viceroy and Governors.
 Satyendra Prasad Sinha became the first Indian to join the Vice roy's Executive Council. He
was appointed as the law member.
 It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of
separate electorat'.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 1

3
 PREFIT TEST 1
4. What is an important features that is embedded in the Government of India Act 1935?
(a) First time Ordinance making power given to Viceroy of India.
(b) First time Indians got included in Viceroy’s Executive council.
(c) First time introduced a system of separate communal Representation for Sikhs, Anglo-Indians.
(d) First time it abolished ‘Double rule’ and introduced ‘Provincial autonomy’.
EXPLANATION:
Indian council act 1861 empowered the viceroy to issue ordinances without the concurrence of
legislature. So, option A is not correct.
Government of India act 1909 provided for the inclusion of Indians into the Viceroy's executive

es
council. So, option B is not correct.

at
Government of India act 1919 extended the communal representation to Sikhs, Indian

pd
Christians, Anglo Indians and Europeans. So, option C is not correct.

_u
Government of India Act 1935 abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced provincial
autonomy' initsplace. The provinces were allowed to act as autonomous units of administration

se
in their defined spheres. So, option D is correct. _c
sc
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
up

 It provided for the establishment of an All India. Federation consisting of provinces and
e/

princely states as units. The Act divided the powers between the Centre and units in terms of
t.m

three lists-Federal List, Provincial List, and the Concurrent List.

om

 It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and intro duced 'provincial autonomy' in its place.
 It introduced bicameralism in six out of eleven provinces.
Fr

 It further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate elector

d

ates for depressed classes (scheduled castes), women and labour (workers).
de

 It abolished the Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1858.
oa

 It provided for the establishment of not only A Federal Public Service Commission but also a
nl

Provincial Public Service Commission and Joint Public Service Commission for two or Tin
ow

more provinces.
D

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 1

5. What are the following statements are correct regarding ‘Objective Resolution’?
1. It was moved by Dr. Ambedkar in 1946.
2. It defined the aims of the constituent Assembly.
3. The modified form of it forms present day Preamble of Indian Constitution.
4. This resolution encapsulated the aspirations and values behind the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,2,3 only
(b) 2,3,4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(d) None of the Above.
4
 PREFIT TEST 1

EXPLANATION:
The modern-day Preamble of the Indian Constitution is based on the 'Objectives Resolution',
drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. So, statement
1 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.
The preamble contains the source of authority of the constitution, nature, and objectives of the
Indian states. Therefore, defines the aims, aspirations, and values of the constituent assembly
and constitution. So, statements 2 and 4 are correct.

es
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

at
 In 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic Objectives Resolution' in the Assembly. It laid

pd
down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure.

_u
 All power and authority of the Sovereign Independent India, its constituent parts and organs
of Government are derived from the people.

se
 This ancient land attains its rightful and hon oured place in the world and makes its full and
_c
willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and the welfare of mankind."
sc
 This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on January 22, 1947. It
up

influenced the eventual shaping of the constitution through all its subsequent stages. Its
e/

modified version forms the Preamble of the present Constitution.

t.m

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 4

om

6. Consider the following statements:

Fr

1. The first Public Service Commission in India was set up in the year 1926, on the
d

recommendation of the Lee Commission on the Superior Civil Services in India.

de

2. The Government of India Act, 1935, provided for setting up of public service commissions at
oa

both the federal and provincial levels.

nl

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

ow

(a) 1 only
D

(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Lee Commission in 1924 gave recommendations for Establishment of Public Service Commission.
Hence, Central Public Service Commission was set up in 1926 for recruiting civil servants. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
The Government of India Act 1935 provided for establishment of not only a Federal Public Service
Commission but also a provisional Public Service Commission and Joint Public Service
Commission for two or more provinces. So, Statement 2 is correct.

5
 PREFIT TEST 1

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 1

7. A constitutional government by definition is a

(a) government by legislature
(b) popular government
(c) multi – party government
(d) limited government
Explanation:

es
The power of the government is limited by written constitution as it is supreme law of the land. In
India, there is no parliamentary supremacy. All the organs of the democracy maintains a system

at
pd
of check and balances.
Limitation is provided in the from of elaborate provision about administration, fundamental

_u
principles of governance and fundamental rights that are essentially given against state action.

se
The constitutional Government by definition is a limited government. So, Option D is correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 2
_c
sc
up

8. The idea of ‘Prerogative writs’ in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the which of the following
e/

Constitution?
t.m

(a) Canada
(b) US
om

(c) Britain
Fr

(d) Ireland
d

EXPLANATION:
de

The following features have been adopted from British Constitution.

oa

 Parliamentary government,
nl

 Rule of Law,
ow

 legislative procedure,
D

 single citizenship,
 cabinet system,
 Prerogative writs,
 parliamentary privileges and
 bicameralism.
So, option C is correct.

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 3

9. According to the Constituent Assembly, which among the following statements is/are correct?
1. The idea of a constituent assembly was first proposed in 1934 by M.N. Roy.
2. The Actual constituent assembly was formed in 1946 on the basis of the cabinet mission plan.
6
 PREFIT TEST 1
3. The basis of seats allocation was based on the Population.
4. All the members are directly elected by the people base on the method of Universal Adult
franchise.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1,2,3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
EXPLANATION:

es
M.N. Roy, a pioneer of the communist movement in India, first put forth the idea of a constituent

at
assembly for India in the year 1934. So, statement 1 is correct.

pd
The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by

_u
the Cabinet Mission Plan. So, statement 2 is correct.
Each province and princely state (or group of states in case of small states) were to be allotted

se
seats in proportion to their respective population. So, statement 3 is correct.
_c
The representatives from the provinces were elected by members of the legislative assembly and
sc
representatives from princely states were nominated by the head of the princely states. So,
up

statement 4 is not correct.

e/

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 2

t.m

10. Which of the following commissions/Committee is/are related to states reorganization in

om

India?
Fr

1. Dhar commission
d

2. JVP commission
de

3. Balwant Rai Mehta committee

oa

4. Fazl Ali commission

nl

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

ow

(a) 1 and 3 only

D

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 2,3 and 4 only
(d) 1,2 and 4 only
Explanation:
On 17 June 1948, Rajendra Prasad, the President of the Constituent Assembly, set up the
Linguistic Provinces Commission (aka Dhar Commission) to recommend whether the states
should be reorganised on linguistic basis or not.
Dhar commission created much resentment and led to the appointment of another Linguistic
Provinces Committee by the Congress in December 1948 itself to examine the whole question
afresh. It consisted of Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallahbhai Patel and Pattabhi Sitaramayya and hence,
was popularly known as JVP Committee.

7
 PREFIT TEST 1
The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was a committee originally appointed by the Government of
India on 16 January 1957 to examine the working of the Community Development Programme
(2 October 1952) and the National Extension Service (2 October 1953) and to suggest measures
for their better working. The Chairman of this committee was Balwantrai G Mehta. The
committee submitted its report on 24 November 1957 and recommended the establishment of
the scheme of 'democratic decentralisation' which finally came to be known as Panchayati Raj.
The main aim of Panchayat raj system is to settle the local problems locally and to make the
people politically conscious.
The creation of Andhra state intensified the demand from other regions for creation of stateson

es
linguistic basis. This forced the Government of India to appoint (in December 1953) a three-

at
member States Reorganisation Commission under the chairmanship of Fazl Ali to re-examine

pd
the whole question. Its other two members were K M Panikkar and H N Kunzru. So, option

_u
(d) is correct.

se
11. Our Constitution is the Basic law of the Land and it gives the Fundamental Rights and Duties to
all but it derives its ultimate authority from whom?
_c
sc
(a) Parliament of India.
up

(b) Supreme Court of India.

e/

(c) From our Honourable President of India

t.m

(d) People of our Country.

EXPLANATION:
om

The Constitution draws its authority from the people and has been promulgated in the name of
Fr

the people. This is evident from the Preamble which states "We the people of India do hereby
d

adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution. “So, option D is correct.
de

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 4

oa
nl

12. Which among the following statements is/are correct regarding about the ‘Preamble of our Indian
ow

constitution’?
D

1. The preamble our Indian constitution has been amended twice till now.
2. The ideals of Fraternity in the Preamble are borrowed from the Britain constitution and
Government of India Act,1935.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The preamble has been amended once by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which
added three new words-socialist, secular, and integrity. So, statement 1 is not correct.

8
 PREFIT TEST 1
The ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity in the preamble have been borrowed from the French
constitution. So, statement 2 is not correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 3

13. According to which of these Acts, new office “secretary of state for India” created and it created a
15-member council of India to assist him/her and also it officially ended the company rule and
transferred the rule to Crown?
(a) Government of India Act,1909
(b) Queen of Britain Proclamation,1857

es
(c) Government of India Act,1858

at
(d) Charter Act of 1853

pd
EXPLANATION:

_u
The government of India act 1858 had the following provisions:
 It provided that India henceforth was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty. It

se
changed the designation of the Governor-General of India to that of Viceroy of India.
_c
 It created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and
sc
control over Indian administration; and established a 15-member Council of India to assist
up

the secretary of state for India.

e/

So, option C is correct.

t.m
om

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
 This Act was enacted in the wake of the Revolt of 1857-also known as the First War of
Fr

Independence or the 'sepoy mutiny'. The act known as the Act for the Good Government of
d

India.
de

 It provided that India henceforth was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty. It
oa

changed the designation of the Governor General of India to that of Viceroy of India. He (viceroy)
nl

was the direct representative of the British Crown in India.

ow

 It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of
D

Directors.
 It created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and con trol
over Indian administration.
 It established a 15-member Council of India to assist the secretary of state for India. The
council was an advisory body.
 The Act of 1858 was, however, largely confined to the improvement of the administrative
machinery by which the Indian Government was to be super vised and controlled in England.
It did not alter in any substantial way the system of government that prevailed in India.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 1

9
 PREFIT TEST 1
14. Which of the following statements is/are not regarding the composition of the Constituent
Assembly?
1. Motilal Nehru was the president of the constituent Assembly of India.
2. Members of the constituent assembly was elected by the Legislature of Various provinces.
3. Muslim league and Princely states never accepted the membership in these assembly.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only

es
(d) 1, 2, and 3
EXPLANATION:

at
pd
Rajendra Prasad was elected as the president of the constituent assembly. So, statement 1 is

_u
not correct.
The representatives from the provinces were elected by members of the legislative assembly

se
through the method of indirect elections. So, statement 2 is correct.
_c
73 seats were allocated to the Muslim league in the constituent assembly and 93 seats were
sc
allocated to the princely states. However, only princely states decided to stay away from the
up

constituent assembly. So, statement 3 is not correct.

e/

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 2

t.m

15. Which among the following statements is/are not correct regarding ‘Formation of new state’?
om

1. To form a new state, Parliament must pass the concern Bill in both the house of parliament
Fr

with the prior recommendation of Prime minister of India.

d

2. To form a new state, Parliament shall have concern state legislature’s approval with simple
de

majority without concurrence of them Bill cannot be pass by parliament.

oa

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

nl

(a) 1 only
ow

(b) 2 only
D

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The parliament can form a new state by passing a bill in both the houses of parliament, with the
prior recommendation of the president. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The constitution authorizes the parliament to form a new state even without the consent of the
state concerned. So, statement 2 is not correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 5

10
 PREFIT TEST 1
16. Which of the following Commission accepted the demand for state reorganisation on linguistic
basics?
(a) S.K. Dhar commission
(b) JVP committee.
(c) Faizal Ali Committee.
(d) Nehru Report
EXPLANATION:
Fazl Ali Committee submitted its report in September 1955 and broadly accepted language as
the basis of reorganization of states but it rejected the theory of one language one state. So,

es
option C is correct.

at
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 5

pd
_u
17. Which among the following statements is/are recommendations of the Simon commission report?
1. Establishment of federation of British India and Princely states.

se
2. To provide Dominion status to India.
3. Establishment of Federal Court of India.
_c
sc
4. Separate Electorate to working women and Muslims.
up

5. Extension of responsible government in Provinces.

e/

6. Abolition of dyarchy.
t.m

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1,2,4,5,6 only
om

(b) 1,2,5 only

Fr

(c) 1,5,6 only

d

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6
de

EXPLANATION:
oa

Simon commission recommended the abolition of dyarchy, extension of responsible government

nl

in the provinces, establishment of a federation of British India and princely states, and
ow

continuation of the communal electorate. So, Statement 1,5 and 6 are correct.
D

Demand for establishing dominion status to India, a federal court of India, and separate
electorates to working women were recommendations of Nehru report. So, statements 2, 3, and
4 are not correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 1

18. Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding Citizenship?
1. Indian Citizenship is acquired by birth, descent, registration only.
2. A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July 1987 is a citizen of
India by birth irrespective the nationality of his parents.
3. The power to grant citizenship lies with the Ministry of Human Resources.
Select the correct answer the following using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
11
 PREFIT TEST 1
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship, viz, birth, descent,
registration, and naturalization and incorporation of territory. So, statement 1 is not correct.
A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July 1987 is a citizen of
India by birth irrespective of the nationality of his parents. So, statement 2 is correct.
Indian citizenship is granted by the Ministry of Home Affairs under the citizenship act 1955. So,

es
statement 3 is not correct.

at
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 6

pd
_u
19. Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding
“Person of Indian Origin”

se
1. A person of Indian origin (PIO) means a foreign citizen (except a national of Pakistan,
_c
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, china, Iran, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Nepal.
sc
2. PIO category was merged with OCI category in 2015
up

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

e/

(a) 1 only
t.m

(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
om

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Fr

EXPLANATION:
d

PIO is a person of immediate Indian origin and who is not a national of neighboring countries of
de

India (since every national of the Indian neighboring country would have Indian roots). So,
oa

statement 1 is correct.
nl

PIO was merged with Overseas Citizens of India to form a new category called an overseas citizen
ow

of India cardholder in 2015. So, statement 2 is correct.

D

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 6

20. which one among the following has the power to regulate the rights of citizenship in India and
competent authority to prescribe conditions as for acquiring citizenship of India?
(a) The president of India
(b) Prime minister of India
(c) Parliament of India
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs
EXPLANATION:
Article 11 empowers the Indian Parliament to make or regulate Citizenship by law. It was in the
exercise of this power that the Citizenship Act, 1955 was enacted. So, option C is correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 6
12
 PREFIT TEST 1
21. which one of the following Amendment referred as the ‘Anti- secession Bill’ and it imposed
restrictions on the fundamental rights of the citizens with a view to protect the sovereignty and
integrity of India?
(a) 8thconstitutional amendment Act
(b) 11th constitutional amendment Act
(c) 16th constitutional amendment Act
(d) 20th constitutional amendment Act
EXPLANATION:
The Constitution (Sixteenth Amendment) Bill, 1963, proposes to enable the State to place new

es
restrictions in the interest of the integrity of India on the freedom of speech, freedom to assemble

at
peaceably, and freedom of association. With that object, it inserts a clause, 'sovereignty and

pd
integrity of India'. So, option C is correct.

_u
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 4

se
22. which of the following statements is/are criticisms of the constituent Assembly and constitution
of India?
_c
sc
1. India is not a representative body because members of constituent assembly cannot be
up

directly elected by people of India.

e/

2. Constituent assembly was dominated by the leaders of congress and lawyer professionals
t.m

and no single women participated in constituent assembly.

3. Our constitution is so lengthy and bulky as well as so rigid to amend anything and state
om

legislature shall have prior permission to amend the constitution provisions.

Fr

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

d

(a) 1 only
de

(b) 2 only
oa

(c) 3 only
nl

(d) None of the above

ow

EXPLANATION:
D

The criticism of the constituent assembly was that it was not elected directly by people and made
the constituent assembly an unrepresentative body. So, statement 1 is correct.
Out of 389 members of the constituent assembly, 15 of them were women. So, statement 2 is
not correct.
State legislatures cannot amend the constitution. So, statement 3 is not correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 2

23. According to the constitution of India, which of the following procedure is/are followed during the
period of ‘Cession of territory of India’ in favour of foreign state in matter of border dispute
resolution?
(a) By an amendment to constitution by special majority with half of states consent.
(b) By passing an ordinary law
13
 PREFIT TEST 1
(c) By an Executive order of president of India.
(d) We cannot Cede Indian Teritory to another country.
EXPLANATION:
There was no provision for Cessation of Indian Teritory in Indian Constitution.
After the Nehru-Noon agreement was signed between India and Pakistan to divide the territory
of Berubari Union, the Government of West Bengal opposed it. After this Union referred the
matter to SC which held that the power of Parliament to diminish the area of a state (under
Article 3) does not cover cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. Hence, Indian territory
can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368.

es
Consequently, the 9th Constitutional Amendment Act (1960) was enacted.So, option A is

at
correct.

pd
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 5

_u
24. Which of the following statements regarding pre-independence governance formulation is not

se
correct?
_c
(a) The members of the interim government formed in 1946 were members of the Viceroy's
sc
executive council.
up

(b) Sardar Vallabhai Patel was given the portfolio to head the information and broadcasting
e/

ministry.
t.m

(c) The composition of the interim government didn't contain any members from the
Muslim league.
om

(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru was designated as the vice president of the council.
Fr

EXPLANATION:
d

Liaquat Ali Khan and Ibrahim Ismail Chundrigar were cabinet members of the interim
de

government who belonged to the Muslim league. So, option C is not correct.
oa

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 2

nl
ow

25. Consider the following statements:

D

1. Like the American courts, the Indian courts also follow a double system of courts.
2. Like the British parliament, the Indian parliament is also a sovereign body.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Indian courts for a single Integrated system of courts wherein both the high court and the
Supreme Court review the central and state laws. So, statement 1 is not correct.

14
 PREFIT TEST 1
Parliament exercises its power within the limits laid, down by the Constitution. Hence it is not
sovereign in character, in the sense the British Parliament is. So, statement 2 is not correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 3

26. Consider the following statements regarding citizenship:

1. The citizenship act, 1955 was amended 8 times since its commencement.
2. A person registered as per provisions in the Assam accords shall be deemed to be a citizen of
India and enjoy all rights therein, except the right to vote for his entire lifetime.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

es
(a) 1 only

at
(b) 2 only

pd
(c) Both 1 and 2

_u
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

se
EXPLANATION:
_c
The parliament has enacted the citizenship Act, 1955, which has been amended in 1957, 1960,
1985, 1986, 1992, 2003, 2005, 2015, and 2019. So, statement 1 is not correct.
sc

The entrants between 1961 and 1971 were to be denied voting rights for ten years but would
up

enjoy all other rights of citizenship. So, statement 2 is not correct.

e/

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
t.m

The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. However, it contains
om

neither any permanent nor any elaborate provisions in this regard. It only identifies the persons
who became citizens of India at its commencement (i.e., on January 26, 1950). It does not deal
Fr

with the prob lem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement. It
d

empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating
de

to citizenship. Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Citizenship Act, 1955, which has been
oa

amended in 1957, 1960, 1985, 1986, 1992, 2003, 2005, 2015, and 2019.
nl

The other constitutional provisions with respect to the citizenship are as follows:
ow

 No person shall be a citizen of India or be deemed to be a citizen of India, if he has

D

voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign state (Article 9).

 Every person who is or is deemed to be a citizen of India shall continue to be such citizen,
subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament (Article 10).
 Parliament shall have the power make any provision with respect to the acquisition and
termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship (Article 11).
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 6

27. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the acquisition of Citizenship in
India?
1. The children of foreign diplomats posted in India can acquire Indian citizenship by birth.
2. An illegal migrant can acquire the Citizenship of India by naturalization if he is ordinarily
resident in India for 12 years.
15
 PREFIT TEST 1
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The children of foreign diplomats posted in India and enemy aliens cannot acquire Indian
citizenship by birth. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Central Government may, grant a certificate of naturalisation to any person (not being an

es
illegal migrant) if he/she possesses the qualifications in the given Citizenship Act. So, statement

at
2 is not correct.

pd
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 6

_u
28. Consider the following statements:

se
1. All the Fundamental Rights in part III of the constitution.
2. Limited power of parliament to amend the constitution.
_c
sc
3. Free and fair elections.
up

4. Welfare state (socio-economic justice objective)

e/

Which of the above-given statements is/are components of basic structure doctrine in the
t.m

constitution?
(a) 1, 2, and 3
om

(b) 1, 3, and 4
Fr

(c) 2, 3, and 4
d

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
de

EXPLANATION:
oa

Some of the components of basic structure doctrine are:

nl

a. Free and fair elections

ow

b. Welfare state
D

c. Secular character of the constitution

d. Limited power of parliament to amend the constitution
e. Unity and integrity of the nation
f. Independence of Judiciary
Not all the fundamental rights find mention in the basic structure doctrine.
So, option C is correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER – 11

29. Consider the following statement with reference to Constitutional Amendment:

1. President can send the constitutional amendment bill for reconsideration only once.
2. The Parliament has unrestricted power to amend any part of the Constitution
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?
16
 PREFIT TEST 1
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the president to give his
assent to a constitutional amendment Bill. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Article 368 in part XX of the constitution deals with the powers of parliament to amend the
constitution and its procedure. The Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the

es
basic structure of the constitution. So, statement 2 is not correct.

at
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 10

pd
_u
30. Which of the following schedules of the constitution cannot be amended by a simple majority of
the parliament?

se
(a) Fifth schedule _c
(b) Second Schedule
sc
(c) Sixth Schedule
up

(d) Seventh Schedule

e/

EXPLANATION:
t.m

The seventh schedule contains the division of legislative subjects or lists between the state and
om

the central governments. It is the federal provision of the constitution and requires a special
majority along with ratification of half of the state legislatures. So, option D is not correct.
Fr

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 10

d
de

31. Consider the following statements:

oa

1. Delimitation of constituencies
nl

2. Quorum in parliament
ow

3. Use of official language

D

Which of the above-given statements are provisions that can be amended by a simple majority of
the parliament?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
EXPLANATION:
A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two
Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. The provisions are:
a. Quorum in Parliament.
b. Use of official language.

17
 PREFIT TEST 1
c. Citizenship acquisition and termination.
d. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
e. Delimitation of constituencies.
f. Union territories, etc.
So, option D is correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 10

32. Consider the following states:

1. Tripura

es
2. Goa

at
3. Himachal Pradesh

pd
4. Maharashtra

_u
Arrange the above-given states in the chronological order of their formation of statehood:
(a) 4-2-1-3

se
(b) 4-1-2-3
(c) 4-3-1-2
_c
sc
(d) 4-1-3-2
up

EXPLANATION:
e/

Maharashtra -1960
t.m

Himachal Pradesh - 1971

Tripura - 1972
om

Goa - 1987
Fr

So, option C is correct.

d

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 5

de
oa

33. Consider the following statements regarding the parliamentary form of government:
nl

1. Parliamentary form of government is dependent on coordination and cooperation between the

ow

legislative and the executive.

D

2. It demands the members of the government to be members of the legislature.

3. It emphasizes the doctrine of separation of power.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
EXPLANATION:
The parliamentary form of government is the one in which the executive is responsible to the
Legislature for its policies and acts, which explains the dependency on coordination and
cooperation between them. So, statement 1 is correct.

18
 PREFIT TEST 1
It is responsible government as the cabinet is accountable to the parliament and also members
of the government to be the member of the legislature. So, statement 2 is correct.
The doctrine of separation of power is emphasized in the presidential form of government. So,
statement 3 is not correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
The parliamentary government is also known as cabinet government or responsible government or
Westminster model of government and is prevalent in Britain, Japan, Canada, India among others.
The parliamentary government is also known as 'responsible government' as the cabinet (the real
executive) is accountable to the Parliament and stays in office so long as it enjoys the latter's

es
confidence. It is described as 'Westminster model of government' after the location of the British

at
Parliament, where the parliamentary system originated.

pd
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 12

_u
34. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian federal system:

se
1. Indian federal system is based on the Canadian model and not on the American model.
_c
2. The United States of America is the world's oldest federation while India is the world's largest
sc
federation.
up

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

e/

(a) 1 only
t.m

(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
om

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Fr

EXPLANATION:
d

The Indian federal system has been adopted from the Canadian model. It differs fundamentally
de

in its formation, preference for the term 'union', and centralizing tendency. So, statement 1 is
oa

correct.
nl

The US is the first and oldest federation in the world. It was formed in 1787 following the
ow

American revolution. Indian federation is the world's largest due to the larger size of the country
D

in terms of Population and its socio-cultural diversity. So, statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
A federation can be formed in two ways, that is, by way of integration or by way of disintegration.
In the first case, a number of militarily weak or economically backward states (independent) come
together to form a big and a strong union, as for example, the US. In the second case, a big unitary
state is converted into a federation by granting au tonomy to the provinces to promote regional
interest (for example, Canada). The US is the first and the oldest federation in the world. It was
formed in 1787 following the American Revolution (1775-83). It comprises 50 states (originally 13
states) and is taken as the model of federation.
The term 'federation' has no where been used in the Constitution. Instead, Article of the
Constitution describes India as a Union of States According to Dr BR Ambedkar, the phrase 'Union
of States' has been preferred to 'Federation of States' to indicate two things: (i) the Indian federation
19
 PREFIT TEST 1
is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American federation; and (ii) the states
have no right to secede from the federation. The federation is union because it is indestructible.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER - 13

35. Which of the following benefits are provided to the OCI cardholders in India?
1. They can apply for a driver's license.
2. They can adopt children as per the official policy of the Central Adoption Resource Authority.
3. They can buy farm property.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

es
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only

at
pd
(c) 3 only
(d) All the above

_u
EXPLANATION:

se
Some of the advantages provided to Overseas Cardholders of India are:
1. Practice any moral profession.
_c
sc
2. Take up academic and competitive exams in India.
up

3. Apply for a driver's license.

e/

4. Adopt children from India as per CARA policy

t.m

So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

OCI cannot buy property under the classification of agriculture, plantation, or crop area in India.
om

So, statement 3 is not correct.

Fr

SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 6

d
de

36. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Act, four languages were added to the
oa

languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to
nl

22?
ow

(a) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act

D

(b) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act

(c) Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
(d) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act
The Constitution (90th Amendment) Act, 2003 provided for maintaining the erstwhile
representation of the Scheduled Tribes in the Assam legislative assembly from the Bodoland
Territorial Areas District (Article-332 (6). So option A is not correct.
The Constitution (91st Amendment) Act, 2004 restricted the size of the Council of Ministers
(CoM) to 15 percent of legislative members & strengthened the Anti-Defection laws. So, option
B is not correct.

20
 PREFIT TEST 1
The Constitution (92nd Amendment) Act, 2004 inserted Bodo, Dogri, Santali and Maithali as
official languages into the VIII schedule, thereby increasing the languages in the VIII schedule
to 22. So, option C is correct.
The Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act, 2006 provided for 27 percent reservation for other
backward classes in government as well as private higher educational institutions. So, option
D is not correct.

37. The “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been
incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as

es
(a) Fundamental Rights

at
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

pd
(c) Extent of executive power of State

_u
(d) Conduct of business of the Government of India
Explanation:

se
The Directive Principles resemble the Instrument of Instructions enumerated in the Government
_c
of India Act of 1935. It has been included as DPSP in the constitution that came into force from
sc
the year 1950. The only difference between instrument of instruction and DPSP was that DPSP
up

were instructions to legislature while the former was instructions to executive. So, option B is
e/

correct.
t.m

Fundamental rights are derived from objectives resolution of constituent assembly while conduct
of business of government of India have been government of India 1935. So, options A and D
om

are not correct.

Fr

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
d

The Directive Principles resemble the 'Instrutment of Instructions enumerated in the Government
de

of India Act of 1935. In the words of Dr BR Ambedkar, the Directive Principles are like the
oa

instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of
nl

the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935.
ow

The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not legally enforceable by
D

the courts for their violation. Therefore, the government (Central, state and local) cannot be
compelled to implement them. Nevertheless, the Constitution Article 37) itself says that these
principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State
to apply these principles in making laws.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 8

38. Consider the following statements:

1. Union territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabah
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes
3. According to the constitution of India, parliament consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabah only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
21
 PREFIT TEST 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
The union territories with legislatures, namely Puducherry and NCT of Delhi, have
representations in the Rajya sabha. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Adjudication of disputes regarding elections of president and the vice president lies with the
supreme court while that of election of union and state legislatures lie with the high court. So,
statement 2 is not correct.
Constitution considers both Lok Sabha, Rajya sabha, and the President of India as integral parts

es
of the parliament. So, statement 3 is not correct.

at
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 7

pd
_u
39. India’s foreign exchange reserves have risen by over $103 billion as of 25 2020. What is the main
contributing factor behind this huge rise in forex reserves?

se
(a) Current account surplus has been supplemented by some foreign capital inflows.
_c
(b) Huge decline in imports.
sc
(c) Current account balance (exports-imports gap) turning positive during 2020.
up

(d) Increase in External Commercial Borrowings.

e/

Explanation
t.m

India’s foreign exchange reserves have zoomed by over $103 billion in the current fiscal, as of
December 25.
om

 all-time-high increase of $110.5 billion recorded in 2007-08.

Fr

 These inflows were more a result of ‘pull’ factors, having to do with global investors wanting
d

to partake of the India growth story.

de

 The forex reserve accumulation in 2020-21 has been driven mainly by the country’s
oa

current account balance — the gap between exports and imports — turning positive
nl

at $34.7 billion during April-September.

ow

 This surplus has, in turn, been due to imports in April-September 2020 falling by a
D

massive $95.6 billion over April-September 2019. And that is further reflective of low
import demand in a shrinking economy. So, option (c) is correct.

22
 PREFIT TEST 1

es
at
pd
_u


se
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
INDIA’S FOREIGN EXCHANGE RESERVES
_c
sc
 Foreign exchange reserves are assets denominated in a foreign currency that is held by a
up

central bank.
e/

 These may include foreign currencies, bonds, treasury bills, and other government securities.
t.m

 Most foreign exchange reserves are held in U.S. dollars, with China being the largest foreign
currency reserve holder in the world.
om

 Economists suggest that it’s best to hold foreign exchange reserves in a currency that is not
Fr

directly connected to the country’s currency.

d

 Foreign exchange reserves can include banknotes, deposits, bonds, treasury bills, and other
de

government securities.
oa

SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA– Jan 4, 2021

nl
ow

40. Consider the following statements about DeeporBeel

D

1. DeeporBeel is the Assam’s only Ramsar site.

2. Lying in a former channel of the Brahmaputra river, it lies to the south of the main river
channel.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
DeeporBeel is the only Ramsar site in the state of Assam. DeeporBeel was designated a Ramsar
site in 2002 for sustaining a range of aquatic life forms besides 219 species of birds. So,
statement 1 is correct.

23
 PREFIT TEST 1
DeeporBeel is a permanent freshwater lake located southwest of Guwahati city, in the Kamrup
district of Assam. Lying in a former channel of the Brahmaputra river, it lies to the south of the
main river channel. Kamrup district administration has prohibited community fishing at
DeeporBeel. So, statement 2 is correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
RAMSAR SITES
 A Ramsar Site is a wetland designated to be of international importance under the
Convention on Wetlands on February 2, 1971, in the Iranian city of Ramsar on the Caspian
Seashore.

es
 The Convention on Wetlands is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for

at
national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands

pd
and their resources.

_u
 Four more wetlands from India – two from Haryana and two from Gujarat – have been
recognized as the Ramsar site of international importance, taking the number of such sites in

se
the country to 46, covering a total area of 1,083,322 hectares.
_c
 The Convention uses a broad definition of wetlands. It includes all lakes and rivers,
sc
underground aquifers, swamps and marshes, wet grasslands, peatlands, oases, estuaries,
up

deltas, and tidal flats, mangroves, and other coastal areas, coral reefs, and all human-made
e/

sites such as fish ponds, rice paddies, reservoirs, and salt pans.
t.m

 Under the “three pillars” of the Convention, the Contracting Parties commit to:
om

1. work towards the wise use of all their wetlands;

2. designate suitable wetlands for the list of Wetlands of International Importance (the
Fr

“Ramsar List”) and ensure their effective management;

d

3. cooperate internationally on transboundary wetlands, shared wetland systems, and

de

shared species.
oa

SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES and HINDU – Jan 6, 2021

nl
ow

41. Consider the following statements about Ammoniacal Nitrogen

D

1. Ammoniacal nitrogen is a toxic pollutant found in landfill leachate and in organic waste
products.
2. It can be used as a measure of the health of water only in man-made water reservoirs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
(d) None of the above

24
 PREFIT TEST 1
Explanation
Ammoniacal nitrogen (NH3-N) is a measure for the amount of ammonia, a toxic pollutant found
in landfill leachate and waste products, such as sewage, liquid manure, and other liquid organic
waste products. Yamuna river is affected by ammoniacal nitrogen.
Possible reasons for the increasing ammonia levels could be a discharge of untreated sewage
from upstream towns in Haryana, discharge from industrial units, common effluent treatment
plants (CETPs) and sewage treatment plants (STPs), illegal discharge of sewage from unsewered
colonies in outer Delhi through tankers, a lean flow in the river and an anaerobic decomposition
of the sludge accumulated on the riverbed. So, statement 1 is correct.

es
It can be used as a measure of the health of the water in natural bodies such as rivers or

at
lakes, or in man-made water reservoirs.

pd
A study group has been constituted to discuss the issue of increase in Ammonical Nitrogen in

_u
River Yamuna, and short and long term remedial actions required. So, statement 2 is not
correct.

se
SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES - Jan 5, 2021, and IAS PARLIAMENT Jan 8, 2021
_c
sc
42. Which of the following is a major reason behind closure of Antarctic ozone hole recently?
up

(a) Strong, stable and cold polar vortex and very cold temperatures.
e/

(b) Strict monitoring of Kyoto protocol.

t.m

(c) Effective implementation of Kigali amendment by developed countries.

(d) Unstable polar vortex.
om

Explanation
Fr

In 2020 Antarctic ozone hole finally closed at the end of December after an exceptional season
d

due to naturally occurring meteorological conditions and the continued presence of ozone-
de

depleting substances in the atmosphere.

oa

1. The annually occurring ozone hole over the Antarctic had rapidly grown from mid-
nl

August and peaked in early October 2020.

ow

2. The same meteorological factors also contributed to the record 2020 Arctic ozone hole,
D

which has also closed.

 The major reason behind the closure of the Antarctic ozone hole is a strong, stable,
and cold polar vortex kept the temperature of the ozone layer over Antarctica
consistently cold, preventing the mixing of ozone-depleted air above Antarctica
with ozone rich air from higher latitudes.
RESON FOR OZONE DEPLETION
1. Ozone depletion is directly related to the temperature in the stratosphere, which is the
layer of the atmosphere between around 10 km and around 50 km altitude. This is
because polar stratospheric clouds, which have an important role in the chemical
destruction of ozone, only form at temperatures below -78°C.
2. These polar stratospheric clouds contain ice crystals that can turn non-reactive
compounds into reactive ones, which can then rapidly destroy ozone as soon as the
25
 PREFIT TEST 1
light from the sun becomes available to start the chemical reactions. This dependency
on polar stratospheric clouds and solar radiation is the main reason the ozone hole is
only seen in late winter/early spring.
Montreal Protocol
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is the landmark multilateral
environmental agreement that regulates the production and consumption of nearly 100
chemicals referred to as ozone-depleting substances (ODS).
Since the ban on halocarbons, the ozone layer has slowly been recovering and the data clearly
show a trend in decreasing area of the ozone hole – subject to annual variations.

es
So, option (b) is correct.

at
SOURCE: IMO (https://public.wmo.int/en/media/news/record-breaking-2020-ozone-hole-

pd
closes#:~:text=It%20was%20driven%20by%20a,record%202020%20Arctic%20ozone%20hole.)

_u
43. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Spectrum auctions?

se
1. The airwaves called spectrum, are sold by state government through auctions.
2. The validity lapses after 10 years.
_c
sc
3. Foreign companies are also eligible to bid for the airwaves.
up

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

e/

(a) 1 only
t.m

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only
om

(d) 2 only
Fr

Explanation
d

These airwaves are sold by the Central government through auctions for a certain period (20
de

years) after which validity lapses. These airwaves are called spectrum which is subdivided into
oa

bands having varying frequencies &are owned by the union government. So, statement 1 is
nl

not correct.
ow

The validity of the spectrum lapses after 20 years. The last spectrum auction was held in 2016
D

& the government offered 2,354.55 MHz at a reserve price of Rs 5.60 lakh crore. So, statement
2 is not correct.
Apart from these three (Reliance Jio, Bharati Airtel, and VI), new companies, including
foreign companies, are also eligible to bid for the airwaves. Foreign companies, however, will
have to either set up a branch in India and register as an Indian company or tie-up with an
Indian company to be able to retain the airwaves after winning them. Private telecom players-
Reliance Jio Infocomm, Bharti Airtel & Vi -are eligible to buy additional spectrum to support the
users on their network. So, statement 3 is correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
SPECTRUM AUCTIONS

26
 PREFIT TEST 1
 Devices such as cellphones and wireline telephones require signals to connect from one end
to another. These signals are carried on airwaves, which must be sent at designated
frequencies to avoid any kind of interference.
 The Union government owns all the publicly available assets within the geographical
boundaries of the country, which also include airwaves.
 With the expansion in the number of cellphones, wireline telephone, and internet users, the
need to provide more space for the signals arises from time to time.
 The last spectrum auctions were held in 2016 when the government offered 2,354.55 MHz at
a reserve price of Rs 5.60 lakh crore.

es
 Although the government managed to sell only 965 MHz – or about 40 percent of the

at
spectrum that was put up for sale – and the total value of bids received was just Rs 65,789

pd
crore, the need for a new spectrum auction has arisen because the validity of the airwaves

_u
bought by companies is set to expire in 2021.

se
SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS – Jan 7, 2021.

_c
44. Consider the following statements about National Internet Exchange of India
sc
1. It was set up for peering of Internet Service Providers (ISPs) among themselves to route the
up

domestic traffic within the country.

e/

2. National Internet Exchange of India will offer free Internationalized Domain Name (IDN) in
t.m

any of the 22 official Indian languages.

om

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
Fr

(b) 2 only
d

(c) Both 1 and 2 only

de

(d) None of the above

oa

Explanation
nl

NIXI is a not for profit Organization under section 25 of the Companies Act 1956, and was
ow

registered on July, 2003. It was set up for peering of Internet Service Providers (ISPs) among
D

themselves to route the domestic traffic within the country, instead of taking it all the way to
US/Abroad, thereby resulting in better quality of service (reduced latency) and reduced
bandwidth charges for ISPs by saving on International Bandwidth. NIXI is managed and
operated on a Neutral basis, in line with the best practices for such initiatives globally. So,
statement 1 is correct.
The National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI) announced that it will offer a free IDN
(Internationalized Domain Name) in any of their preferred 22 official Indian language along with
every IN domain booked by the registrant. Applicant will also get a free email in local language.
This offer has been created to stimulate the adoption of भारत (IDN) domain name and
proliferation of local language content.So, statement 2 is correct.
SOURCE: PIB, IAS PARLIAMENT -Jan 8, 2021

27
 PREFIT TEST 1

45. Which of the following statement is/are correct about Asian Water Bird Census?
1. The census covers the entire East Asian - Australasian Flyway and a large part of the Central
Asian Flyway.
2. It helps in implementation of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) and the Convention
on Biological Diversity‘s (CBD).
Select the correct code

es
(a) 1 only

at
(b) 2 only

pd
(c) Both 1 and 2 only

_u
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

se
Explanation
The AWC was initiated in 1987 in the Indian subcontinent and since has grown rapidly to cover
_c
major region of Asia, from Afghanistan eastwards to Japan, Southeast Asia and Australasia. The
sc
census, thus covers the entire East Asian – Australasian Flyway and a large part of the
up

Central Asian Flyway. So, statement 1 is correct.

e/

The information collected is available to a wide range of government agencies and non-
t.m

government organizations and contributes to conservation activities from the local to global level,
om

including:
1. raising awareness of waterbirds and waterbird conservation issues;
Fr

2. supporting local conservation activities at wetlands;

d

3. the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands, in identifying and monitoring wetlands of

de

international importance;
oa

4. the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS), by monitoring the status of migratory

nl

waterbirds and their habitats;

ow

5. the Convention on Biological Diversity‘s (CBD) goal in conservation and sustainable

D

use of biodiversity;
6. implementation of the East Asian-Australasian Flyway Partnership Initiative (EAAFP) and
Central Asian Flyway Action Plan through monitoring important and Flyway Network sites;
7. BirdLife International’s Important Bird Area (IBA) Programme;
8. IUCN/BirdLife International’s Global Species Programme (Red List).

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
 The annual waterbird census was conducted in the state of Andhra Pradesh, by the state
forest department.
 The regions included are the Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary, areas near Godavari estuary,
Kolleru Lake, Atapaka Bird Sanctuary, and Krishna Wildlife Sanctuary in Krishna estuary.

28
 PREFIT TEST 1
Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) and Wetland International will provide technical
support.
SOURCE: THE HINDU – Jan 6, 2021, and WETLAND INTERNATIONAL

46. Consider the following about The Natural Capital Accounting and Valuation of Ecosystem Services
project
1. The project seeks to advance the theory and practice of environmental and ecosystem
accounting in Brazil, China, India, Mexico, and South Africa.
2. The participation in the project has helped India to commence the compilation of the

es
Environment Accounts as per the UN-SEEA System of Environmental-Economic Accounting
(SEEA) framework.

at
pd
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

_u
(b) 2 only

se
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
_c
sc
Explanation
up

NCAVES India Forum 2021 is being organized by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme
e/

Implementation (MoSPI).
t.m

The NCAVES Project, funded by the EU, has been jointly implemented by the United Nations
Statistics Division (UNSD), the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), and the
om

Secretariat of the Convention of Biological Diversity (CBD). India is one of the five countries
Fr

taking part in this project - the other countries being Brazil, China, South Africa, and Mexico.
d

So, statement 1 is correct.

de

The participation in the project has helped MOSPI commence the compilation of the Environment
oa

Accounts as per the UN-SEEA framework and release environmental accounts in its publication
nl

“EnviStats India” on an annual basis since 2018. So, statement 2 is correct.

ow

SOURCE: PIB AND ANI - Jan 8, 2021.

D

47. Consider the following statements about Lightning

1. It is a result of the difference in electrical charge between the top and bottom of a cloud.
2. Incidence of lightning are tracked and monitored by Indian Meteorological Organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

29
 PREFIT TEST 1
Lightning is a very rapid and massive discharge of electricity in the atmosphere.
It is a result of the difference in electrical charge between the top and bottom of a cloud.
So, statement 1 is correct.
Incidence of lightning are not tracked and monitored in India. So, statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
 Lightning strikes have caused 1,771 deaths between April 1, 2019 and March 31, 2020,
according to a report on lightning incidents in India.
 This report has been prepared by Climate Resilient Observing Systems Promotion Council
(CROPC).

es
 [CROPC is a non-profit organisation that works to disseminate early lightning forecasts.]

at
 Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Odisha and Jharkhand together accounted for

pd
more than 60% of the deaths.

_u
 A large number of deaths occur as not much awareness has been undertaken.

se
 As per the report, the Government of India and most states have not notified lightning as
a disaster.
_c
sc
SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA Jan 9, 2021, and IAS PARLIAMENT Jan 2, 2021
up
e/

48. Which of the following statements is/are vital features of the Indian councils Acts of 1861?
t.m

1. It provided for establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-western frontier
province and Punjab.
om

2. The Act empowered the Viceroy of India to make any member of his executive council in-charge
Fr

of a particular department.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
d
de

(a) 1 only
oa

(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
nl
ow

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:
D

Indian council Act 1861 provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal,
North-Western Frontier Province (NWEP), and Punjab, which were established in 1862, 1866,
and 1897 respectively. So, statement 1 is correct.
Indian council Act 1861 empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for more convenient
governance in British India. This provision (known as portfolio system) enabled a member of
the Viceroy's council to be made in-charge of one or more departments of the government and
authorised them to issue final orders on behalf of the council on matters of his department(s).
So, statement 2 is correct

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

30
 PREFIT TEST 1
 It made a beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-
making process.
 In 1862, Lord Canning, the then viceroy, nominated three Indians to his legislative
council-the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao.
 It initiated the process of decentralisation by restoring the legislative powers to the
Bombay and Madras Presidencies.
 It also provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-
Western Provinces and Punjab.
 It empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for the more convenient transaction of

es
business in the council. It also gave a recognition to the portfolio' system, introduced by

at
Lord Canning in 1859.

pd
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 1

_u
se
49. Consider the following provisions provided in the Indian Council’s Act of 1892.
1. It was Act first time uses the gradual introduction Responsible Government in India.
_c
2. This Act came from the accounts of the August Declaration.
sc
3. It made a limited and indirect provision for the use of elections in filling up of some Non-official
up

member seats.
e/

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

t.m

(a) 1 and 3 only

om

(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
Fr

(d) None of the above.

d

EXPLANATION:
de

Montagu Declaration of 1917, also known as the August Declaration, declared that the
oa

objective of the government was to gradually introduce a responsible government in India. The
nl

August Declaration gave rise to the Government of India Act 1919. So, statements 1 and 2
ow

are not correct.

D

The act made a limited and indirect provision for the use of election in filling up some of the
non-official seats both in the Central and provincial legislative councils. The word "election"
was, however, not used in the act. So, statement 3 is correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
FEATURES OF INDIAN COUNCIL ACT 1892:
 It increased the number of additional (non official) members in the Central and provincial
legislative councils, but maintained the official mila majority in them.
 It increased the functions of legislative councils and gave them the power of discussing the
budget and addressing questions the executive.
 It provided for the nomination of some non official members of the
(a) Central Legislative Council by the viceroy on the recommendation of the provincial
legislative councils and the Bengal Chamber of Commerce, and
31
 PREFIT TEST 1
(b) that of the Provincial legislative councils by the Governors on the recommendation
of the dis trict boards, municipalities, universities, trade associations, zamindars and
chambers.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 1

50. The basic structure of the Indian constitution was formed on the basis of which of the following
documents?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Nehru’s objective resolution

es
(c) Supreme court judgements
(d) Government of India Act,1935

at
pd
EXPLANATION:

_u
The basis of the basic structure doctrine of the constitution is the various judgments of the
supreme courts to the date. The solid definition of basic structure doctrine is yet to be clarified

se
by the supreme court of India. So, option C is correct.
SOURCE: INDIAN POLITY BY LAXMIKANTH EDITION 5 CHAPTER 11
_c
sc
up
e/
t.m
om
Fr
d
de
oa
nl
ow
D

32