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HAWK 2 2024 Questions & M Schemes

The document is an examination paper for the Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (KCSE) 2024 Pre-Mock 2 in English, consisting of two papers focusing on functional skills, comprehension, literary appreciation, and grammar. It includes various sections such as functional writing, cloze tests, oral skills, comprehension questions, and an excerpt analysis. The examination is designed to assess students' understanding and application of the English language in different contexts.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

289 views570 pages

HAWK 2 2024 Questions & M Schemes

Uploaded by

domilitto245

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

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HAWK

CLUSTER JOINT

HAWK 2 - 2024

QUESTIONS & MARKING

SCHEMES
NAME ADMN NO .........................

CLASS SCHOOL: ……………………………...…………………….

DATE …………………………………………… SIGNATURE ……………………………………………..

HAWK II JOINT EVALUATION 2024

The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 PRE-MOCK 2 EXAMINATION
101/1 ENGLISH Paper 1
(Functional Skills)
June, 2024 Time: 2 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS
1. Answer ALL the questions.
2. All your answers MUST be written in spaces provided.
3. Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all pages are printed as
indicated and no questions are missing.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1 20
2 10
3 30
TOTAL 60

This paper consists of 6 printed pages. Candidate should check to ascertain that all pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.

1
1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20 MARKS)
Imagine you are the interim secretary of the newly started drama club in your school. Your club intends
to have its first meeting next weekend. During the meeting the following issues will be discussed:
a) Registration of new members.
b) Elections of the club’s leaders.
c) The upcoming inter-school drama festivals.
d) Auditioning for the play, The Samaritan.

Write a notification of the meeting to the members of the club informing them about the meeting.
(20mks)

2
3
2. CLOZE TEST (10 MARKS)
Fill in each of the blank spaces in the following passage with the most appropriate word.
When the Covid – 19 pandemic hit the country, the government shut 1 all learning
institutions forcing them to adopt e-learning.

However, internet connectivity 2 a significant challenge. The Kenya Coast National

Polytechnic (KCND) quickly navigated the turbulence 3 technology and currently, the
national polytechnic has embraced blended learning (physical 4 _________ online.)

Through funding 5 East African skills and Transformation and Regional

Integration Program, the national polytechnic developed a Ksh. 8 million on-line learning
management system (LMS), supporting other 6 in the region to embrace on-line
studies.

“We are the centre and pioneer of LMS in the region,” eight institutions have 7 the on-line
studies anchored on our programme. 8 realised many students come from
humble backgrounds and could not 9 smart gadgets, 10
hindered us from fully operating LMS,” said the KCNP Principal.

3. ORAL SKILLS (30 MARKS)

a) Read the narrative below and answer the questions that follow.
Long time ago at the time of creation, God created the hare, man and firewood. None could have
children but when they became old, they did not die, but became young again. Firewood however
wished to have children. Don’t you realize that when living things have several children, they must
die. But firewood said, “Let me see my children and die.” So God granted his wish. When man saw
that, he wanted children as well. God warned him as he had warned firewood that he would die if his
wish was granted. But man said, “Let me see my children then die.”
That is how death and children came into the world. Only hare did not want children and so he never
died.

4
ii. How would you perform the last sentence of the narrative? (2mks)

iii. Suppose you were listening to the performance of the above narrative, list any three things
you would do to benefit most from the listening experience. (3mks)

b) For every word below provide another that is identical in pronunciation. (6mks)
i. Aren’t -
ii. You -
iii. Here -
iv. For -
v. Eight -
vi. Days -

c) Which intonation would you use to say each of the underlined words. (4mks)
Malisu: Omenda, what time is the meeting tomorrow?

Omenda: (Surprised) Tomorrow!

Malisu: You ddin’t forget, did you?

Omenda: I’m afraid I did.

d) Your school has been invited for a debating activity by a neighbouring school. You are one of the
speakers to represent your school.
i. Give two things you will do as preparation for the debate. (2mks)

5
ii. Mention three things you will do during the debate so as to be successful. (3mks)

e) Read the conversation below between Susan, a student, and the secretary, then answer the
questions that follow:
Susan: Hello, Good morning.
Secretary: Who is on the line and what do you want?
Susan: I am Rose, a Form Four yellow student and I have been away from school for three days
now. May I speak to the Principal?
Secretary: The principal is not in the office now.
Susan: Could I please leave a message for him?
Secretary: Oh! Don’t you have his cell phone number?
Susan: No Madam, since it is official kindly take down the…
Secretary: Excuse me, young girl, I’m too busy for this idle chat.
Susan: I am sorry but it is very urgent.
Secretary: (Without a pen and paper) Go ahead and you better be quick.
Susan: Thanks for the attention.

Questions
i. Identify the weaknesses in the secretary’s telephone conversation skills. (3mks)

ii. Suggest three things the Secretary should have done to observe telephone etiquette. (3mks)

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

6
NAME ADM NO .........................

CLASS SCHOOL: ……………………………...…………………….

DATE …………………………………………… SIGNATURE ……………………………………………..

HAWK II JOINT EVALUATION 2024

The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 PRE-MOCK 2 EXAMINATION
101/2 ENGLISH Paper 2
(Comprehension, Literary Appreciation and Grammar)
June, 2024 Time: 2 ½ Hours
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
i. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above. Sign and write the date of the
examination in the spaces provided above.
ii. Answer ALL the questions in this question paper.
iii. All your answers MUST be written in the spaces provided in this question paper.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY.

QUESTION MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S SCORE

SCORE

1 20

2 25

3 20

4 15

TOTAL SCORE 80

This paper consists of 10 printed pages. Candidate should check to ascertain that all pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.

1
1. COMPREHENSION
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow. (20 marks)
Ask any youngster what living with their parents is like and they will most likely tell you it is pure hell.
They hate being told what to do or taking orders or having to explain where they are going or coming
from, especially girls. Young people hate asking for permission to go anywhere and worse being told
they must be back by certain time. They hate having to ask for permission to use something or do
something at home and consider these requirements an infringement on their freedom. So while parents
believe they are inculcating behavior in their children, the youngsters see it as dictatorship.

Another thorny issue is religion, I remember clearly what happened when I decided to attend a church
different from my mother’s. She told me in no uncertain terms that if I wanted to continue going to my
new church, I would have to move out because she would not allow it. I found my parents restrictions
rather stifling and could not wait for the day I would move out of home. I fantasized about going on
outings that were forbidden at home, returning home late, going wherever I wanted and whenever I
wanted, returning from work and just lazing on the couch, leaving my bed unmade or my clothes lying
around with no one to tell me that my room was a mess.

When it came to resources, mum would scold us if we left the door of the jiko open while heating our
bath water or left the food to cook for an unnecessarily long time on the kerosene stove. She would
breathe fire about our wastefulness while reminding us of the high cost of living. She would conclude by
telling us that she would not allow it in her house. My dad would be equally furious if he found the
lights on in a room that was not being used. On several occasions he threatened not to pay the electricity
bill and leave us in darkness for a while so that we could learn to save resources. Sometimes my siblings
would laugh and wonder what our parents were making a fuss about. At other times we would be angry
and grumble that they were stingy and did not want to see us happy, how we longed to get away from
them.

But when the time to leave home finally came, I was apprehensive and wondered what life without my
parents would be like. One moment I would be happy to be free, with no one to order me around, the
next moment I would be having doubts. When you are young, you think you have the freedom to do as
you please but after doing something ‘forbidden’ once or twice, you begin having second thoughts. You
realize that since you never used to go on outings for instance, you won’t miss much by staying indoors
most of the time instead of coming back late.

You now have to pay your bills and realize that you have to cut costs, you remove your bath water from
the stove before it boils and do not allow milk to boil for a second longer than necessary and of course
you switch off lights in any room that’s not being used. Suddenly, you realize that you are now living by
the very rules that you resented in your parent’s home. You are learning to use resources wisely now
that you have to take care of yourself. When you start a family, you impose the same restrictions on your
children. If there is one thing you cannot run away from, it is responsibility. What I have leant is that
when your parents are tough with you, they are only teaching you to be responsible. As the saying goes,
‘only the wearer of the shoe knows where the shoe pinches.’ I now understand why my parents gave me
a tongue lashing whenever I misused resources.

2
Questions
a) Make notes on why youngsters say living with parents is pure hell. (3mks)

____________________________________
b) What would youngsters prefer rather than give in to their parents ‘dictatorship? (2mks)

________________________________________________
c) According to the passage, parents are economical. Validate your answer. (2mks)

________________________________________________
d) In your opinion, are parents out to punish children by setting rules and regulations in the homes?
(2mks)

________________________________________________

e) Explain the writer’s attitude towards leaving home when the time came. (3mks)

f) Comment on the irony in the passage. (2mks)

________________________

3
g) Explain the meaning of the following.
“Only the wearer of the shoe knows where the shoe pinches” (2mks)

____________________________________
h) Mother would breathe fire about our wastefulness while reminding us of the high cost of living.
(Rewrite beginning: Not only…) (1mk)

____________________________________
i) Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the passage. (3mks)
i. Stifling

____________________________________
ii. Stingy

____________________________________
iii. Resented

____________________________________

2. EXCERPT: FATHERS OF NATIONS (25 MARKS)

Read the excerpt below and answer the questions that follow.
“That’s a bad idea, Mr. Longway, I’m a Gambian, Sir”
“All right, so you are a Gambian. Well, I am a South African. Now how has that helped advance world
peace?”
“Sir, are you really a South African?”
“Yes, I am.”
“This is the Gambia, Sir. Since the article you dropped looks valuable, you might never see it again, Sir.
As a Gambian, I ought to know. Still, if you insist, I’ll give it to the woman at the front desk.”
“No, no, no. I’ve changed my mind. I’m coming down for it right away.”
“That’s a good idea, Mr. Longway. You’ll find me standing near the phone booths. I’m wearing white
shoes and a red dress with white polka dots. You will not miss me, Sir. But if you do, I won’t”
“I’ll be there in five minutes.” He was there in three.
She spotted him first. “Sir, it’s me you are looking for,” she said. Mr. Longway, I am Fiona Mckenzie,
the stranger who phoned you.”
4
“Are you? You see, the picture I had formed of you in my mind was not black at all. Wait. That did not
come out right, did it? I meant on the phone you sounded Scottish, white anyway. Goodness, what am I
saying? Forget it I am Tad. Tad Longway.”
“I’m pleased to meet you, Sir, I am Fiona. Fiona Mckenzie “She handed him something.” That’s the
article I was telling you about, “It was a key card to her office at the VOA.
He looked at it. Then he gave it back to her. “Not mine” he said. “The tag says VOA, and I have no ties
with the VOA.”
“Then I interrupted your shower for nothing. Yet I can swear I saw you drop this very key card, Mr.
Longway.”
“Now, now, Ms Mckenzie. Don’t go burn yourself at the stake just for this, okay? Infact, since you’ve
gone to all this trouble for my sake, why don’t you let me buy you a drink? It’s time for my evening
Martini anyway. So what’s your poison?”
She consulted her watch then shook her head. “It’s late,” she said. “Late? That must be a new drink.”
“All right, Mr Longway. May be a Coke, but I must be off soon.”

Questions
1. Place the excerpt in its immediate context. (3mks)

2. “That’s a bad idea, Mr. Longway. “What was Fiona referring to as a bad idea? (2mks)

____________________________________
3. Identify and illustrate three styles used in this excerpt. (6mks)

____________________________________

5
4. Explain one instance of irony in this excerpt. (2mks)

____________________________________
5. Using information from elsewhere in the text, explain why Ms. Mckenzie sounded Scottish.
(2mks)

________________________________________________
6. How has Ms. Mckenzie been brought out in this excerpt? (2mks)

________________________________________________
7. Join the following sentences into one. (Begin: After…) (1mk)
He looked at it. Then he gave it back to her.

____________________________________

8. Who is Mr. Longway and why was Fiona so interested in meeting him? (2mks)

________________________________________________

3. Read the following poem then answer the questions that follow:
NIGHT FALL IN SOWETO
Nightfall comes like
A dreaded disease
Seeping through the pores
Of healthy body
And ravaging it beyond repair.
A murderer’s hand,
Lurking in the shadows,
Clasping the dagger,
Strikes down the helpless victim.
I am the victim.
6
I am slaughtered
Every night in the streets.
I am concerned by the fear
Gnawing at my timid heart:
In my helplessness I languish.

Man has ceased to be man

Man has become beast
Man has become prey.

I am the prey;
I am the quarry to be run down
By the marauding beast
Let loose by cruel nightfall
From the cage of death.
Where is my refuge?
Where am I safe?
Not in my matchbox house
Where I barricade myself against nightfall

I tremble at his crunching footsteps,

I quake at his deafening knock at the door.
“Open up!” he barks like a rabid dog.
Thirsty for my blood.

Nightfall! Nightfall!
You are my mortal enemy.
But why were you ever created?
Why can’t it be daytime?
Daytime forever more?

Questions
a) With a reason, say who the persona in the poem is. (2mks)

____________________________________

7
b) Explain what the poem is about. (4mks)

c) Illustrate any three problems that the victims of nightfall are grappling with. (3mks)

________________________________________________
d) Give and illustrate any three poetic devices used in the poem. (6mks)

____________________________________
e) Describe the mood of the poem. (3mks)

________________________________________________
f) Explain the meanings of the following phrase and line as used in the poem. (2mks)
i) I am the prey

____________________________________
ii) You are my mortal enemy

____________________________________

8
4. GRAMMAR
a) Write the following sentences according to instructions given. (4mks)
i. The child would have drowned were it not for the quick action taken by the life saver.
(Begin: But…)

________________________
ii. Kilimo realized that the boy was drowning. Kilimo quickly lept into the swimming pool to
save him. (Beginning: Realizing…)

________________________
iii. He showed up only once. (Begin: Only…)

________________________
iv. He said that when he saw them, they were playing chess. (Change into direct speech)

________________________
b) Fill in the blanks with correct prepositions. (2mks)
i. When the twins stand __________________ each other, you cannot tell who is who.
ii. Some students were sent home for jumping the perimeter wall.

c) Write the following sentences replacing underlined words with phrasal verbs formed from the
words in brackets.
i. My aunt visited us last month (call)

________________________
ii. My brother fainted after walking for a long distance. (pass)

________________________
iii. After husband deserted her and their three children. (walk)

________________________
d) Correct the gender biasness in the sentences below.
i. The chairman came late for the meeting.

________________________
ii. The foreman coordinated the work well.

________________________

9
e) Explain the meaning of the underlined expressions. (2mks)
i. Abdi will tidy up the room when the pigs begin to fly.

________________________
ii. My mother has green fingers.

________________________

f) State the two different meanings in the following sentences.

The chicken is ready to eat. (2mks)

________________________

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

10
NAME ADM NO .........................

CLASS SCHOOL: ……………………………...…………………….

DATE …………………………………………… SIGNATURE ……………………………………………..

HAWK II JOINT EVALUATION 2024

The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 PRE-MOCK 2 EXAMINATION
101/3 ENGLISH Paper 3
(Creative Composition and Essays Based on Set Texts)

June, 2024 Time: 2 ½ Hours

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Answer three questions only
 Each of your essays must not exceed 450 words
 Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed and no questions
are missing
 Candidates must answer the questions in English

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

1. 20

2. 20

3. 20

TOTAL SCORE 60

1|Page
QUESTION ONE
Imaginative composition (COMPULSORY) (20 marks)

Either

Write a composition ending

(a) ……….. With short wobbly steps, I walked home, unsure of how my parents would take this.

(b) Write a composition on how crime can be controlled in Kenya.

QUESTION TWO

THE COMPULSORY SET TEXT (20 marks)

John Lara, The Samaritan

There is no crime that goes unpunished. By closely referring to John Lara’s, The Samaritan, write an essay
agreeing with the statement above.

QUESTION THREE

The Optional Set Texts (20 marks)

Either
(a) The short story
A Silent Song and Other Stories; Ed Shiundu.
Humans are deceitful and can live in pretence before revealing their true nature. Basing your illustrations on:
“The Truly Married Woman by Abioseh Nicol, write an essay to support this assertion.
(20 marks)
Or
(b) The play
A Parliament of Owls, Adipo Sidang’
Unpopular government has a tendency to oppress its citizens. Using appropriate examples from Adipo Sidang’.
“A Parliament of Owls”, justify this statement.
(20 marks)
Or
(c) The Novel
An Artist of the Floating World, Kizuo Ishiguro.
The memory of the past can lead to change of a lifestyle. With illustrations from “An Artist of the Floating
World”, validate this statement. (20 marks)

2|Page
102/1 (INSHA)
JINA……………………………………………………NAMBARI YA USAJILI…………….

SHULE ……………………………………………………MKONDO …………………………

KISWAHILI KARATASI YA KWANZA

HAWK II-2024

Saa 1 ¾

MAAGIZO
a) Andika insha mbili.
b) Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima
c) Kisha chagua insha nyingine kutoka tatu zilizobakia.
d) Kila insha isipungue maneno 400
e) Kila insha ina alama 20
f) Watahiniwa lazima waangalie kama kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa chapa
sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE

SWALI UPEO ALAMA

1. 20

1|Page
1. Nchi ya Mwangaza imekumbwa na ukosefu wa utangamano na umoja wa kitaifa. Waziri wa
maswala ya kijamii amekuteua kuwa katibu wa jopo kazi litakalochunguza vyanzo vya hali hiyo.
Andaa ripoti ya jopo hilo huku ukitoa mapendezo. (Alama 20)

2. Nchi ya Kenya imeshuhudia janga la mafuriko. Fafanua madhara hali hii. (Alama 20)

3. Andika insha itakayodhihirisha maana ya methali hiii. (Alama 20)

Ukicheza ujanani utalipa uzeeni.

4. Andika kisa kitakachomalizikia kwa maneno haya (Alama 20)

………………waja walitawanyika huku wakilaani kitendo hicho.

2|Page
Jina: …………………………………………………………… Nambari: ……………………..

Shule: ………………………………………… mkondo: ……………………Tarehe: ………..

102 /2
Kiswahili – Lugha
Karatasi 2
Muda : saa 2
2024

MAAGIZO

a) Andika jina lako na nambari yako ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
c) Jibu maswali yote.
d) Majibu yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
e) Majibu yote yaandikwe katika nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTIHANI PEKEE

SWALI UPEO TUZO

1. UFAHAMU 15
2. UFUPISHO 15
3. SARUFI 40
4. ISIMU JAMII 10
JUMLA 80

1|Page
1. UFAHAMU (ALAMA 15)

Soma taarifa ifuatayo kisha ujibu maswali uliyopewa.

Taifa la Kenya limekuwa na tatizo la njaa kwa muda mrefu na hili ni tatizo ambalo
hutokea mwaka baada ya mwaka. Kuna sababu kadhaa ambazo zimelifanya tatizo hili
likithiri. Wananchi wengi hutegema ukulima kujipatia pato pamoja na chakula. Jambo hili
limekuwa shida kubwa kwa vile kilimo hutegemea mvua isiyotabirika. Watabiri wa hali ya
hewa huwashauri wakulima wapande mbegu zitakazohimili jua lakini mvua nayo inakuwa
nyingi na kuharibu mimea.

Bidhaa za ukulima kama mbegu za kupanda, mbolea, dawa za kunyunyizia na zinginezo,

zimekuwa ghali. Kuna sehemu kubwa ya ardhi ambayo ni kame na haiwezi kutumika kwa
kilimo. Mazao yanayotolewa shambani hayahifadhiwi vizuri. Mengine yanaharibikia
shambani na mengine yanavamiwa na wadudu kiasi kwamba hayawezi kutumika.

Tatizo lingine ni vita vya kikabila. Kabila tofauti zinapopigana, watu huhama na kuacha
mashamba ilhali wengine huchoma maghala ya chakula. Wafanyabiashara pamoja na serikali
huwanunulia wakulima mazao yao kwa bei ya chini sana mpaka wanakosa shauku ya
kuyashughulikia mashamba yao. Siku hizi wakulima hawashughuliki tena kuzuia
mmomonyoko wa udongo. Hivyo mvua inaponyesha rotuba yote inachukuliwa. Serikali
haina sera mwafaka za kukabiliana na njaa. Hii ndiyo sababu sehemu zingine kama Turkana
na Marsabit zimekabiliwa na njaa kwa muda mrefu.

Tatizo hili linaweza kutatuliwa ikiwa wakulima wataelimishwa juu ya mbinu bora za
ukulima. Pia wakulima waishio katika sehemu ambazo hazina mvua ya kutosha wapewe
mbegu ambazo zitahimili kiangazi. Ukulima wa kunyunyuzia mimea maji unafaa
kuzingatiwa. Mazao yanayotolewa shambani yahifadhiwe vizuri kwa kuwekwa dawa za
kuwaua wadudu.

Sehemu kubwa za ardhi ambazo hazitumiwi zitolewe kwa kilimo. Ni muhimu wakulima
waelimishwe kuhusu jinsi ya kuzuia mmomonyoko wa udongo na umuhimu wake. Wakulima
wanunuliwe mazao yao kwa bei nafuu ili wajibidiishe katika kazi yao. Serikali inafaa iwe na
sera mwafaka ili iweze kutatua tatizo hilo ambalo limekuwa ni janga kuu.

2|Page
MASWALI

1. Eleza mbinu tano zinazoweza kutumiwa kutatua tatizo kuu linalozungumziwa. (al 5)

2. Fafanua matatizo mbalimbali yanayolikumba Taifa la Kenya. ( al 4)

................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
3. Onyesha ukulima ulivyo uti wa mgongo wa uchumi wa Taifa la Kenya (al 2)
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................
4. Vita vya kikabila husababisha njaa. Dhibitisha kwa mujibu wa kifungu. ( al 2)

i) Kukabiliana
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
Janga

3|Page
2. UFUPISHO (alama 15)

Watu wengine hawawezi kunywa chai au uji bila kutia sukari. Wanatumia sukari kwa hamu na
ghamu bila kutambua kuwa hiyo ni sumu wanayojiongezea mwilini.

Ni ukweli usiopingika kuwa wazee wa jadi waliishi muda mrefu wakiwa na siha njema kuliko sisi.
Hii ni kwa kuwa waliishi katika kipindi ambacho sukari inayotengenezwa viwandani haikuweko.
Iwapo ilikuweko, ilikuwa bidhaa ya wateule waungwana kutengenezea vitu kama keki, mahamri,
vitumbua na kadhalika na akina yakhe hawangeweza kuigharamia.

Watafiti wa masuala ya afya wamegundua kuwa sukari inayotayarishwa viwandani sasa haina
virutubishi vyovyote. Halikadhalika, utaratibu wa viwandani wa kutayarisha sukari ili iwe nyeupe
na kuichuja huharibu virutubishi vinavyoweza kuwa muhimu mwilini. Umuhimu wa sukari
wakausaza kwa kutia ladha tamu tu. Umuhimuhuu hauwezi kulinganishwa na madhara
yanayoletwa na sukari hii. Baada ya kusagika mwilini, sukari hii huacha masalio ya asidi mwilini
yenye sumu inayoathiri siha.

Matumizi ya sukari kwa wingi husababisha madhara mbalimbali mwilini. Kwanza, huchangia
kuoza na kuharibika kwa meno pamoja na matatizo ya meno kuuma. Pili, sukari nyeupe
imehusiwa na ongezeko la madhara ya kisukari, moyo na hipoglisimia au upungufu wa sukari
mwilini. Matumizi holela ya sukari huleta kipandauso au ugonjwa wa gahfla wa kuumwa upande
mmoja wa kichwa unaoambatana na kichefuchefu, kutapika na matatizo ya kuona. Pia sukari
huleta maradhi ya ngozi na figo, pamoja na ongezeko la kemikali iitwayo kolestroli, ambayo ni
ufuta unaonata na ambao unatokana na kutoyeyuka kwa mafuta yote mwilini. Kemikali hii ya
kolestroli inaporundikana moyoni, hufanya mishipa inayotoa damu moyoni na kuisambaza
mwilini kuwa myembamba na sugu. Moyo hulazimika kusukuma damu kwa nguvu na huenda
moyo ukachoka na kukoma kufanya kazi.

Madhara haya ya sukari ndiyo yanayowafanya watu wengi kukiri kuwa sukari, ingawa ni tamu, ni
sumu mwilini. Wataalamu wa lishe wamependekeza ulaji wa vyakula kama nafaka, matunda,
mboga na miwa ambavyo vimejaa sukari asilia. Fauka ya hayo, sukari inayotoka katika asali ni
bora zaidi kwa mwili wa mwanadamu. Asali huwa na sukari asilia, vitamini, madini na amino
asidi. Hivi vyote huwa na manufaa mbalimbali mwilini.

Mathalani, asali huupa mwili nishati inayohitajika kuendesha shughuli za viungo. Licha ya hayo,
asali huuchangamsha mwili. Asali huwa na kemikali ambazo husaidia watoto kukua vizuri.
Huweza kuzidisha kiwango cha himoglobini, hivyo kupunguza uwezekano wa watoto kuwa na
anemia (upungufu wa damu). Halikadhalika asali husaidia katika usagaji wa chakula iwapo
itatumiwa kabla ya mlo. Matumizi ya kijiko kimoja cha asali kila siku husaidia mwili kujikinga
dhidi ya magonjwa ya kukohoa. Asali husaidia pia kuondoa harufu mbaya kinywani.

Asali pia inaweza kutumiwa kujipaka. Inapotumiwa kwa njia hii, hutunza ngozi na kuifanya
ing’are huondoa vipele na ugumu wa ngozi, pamoja na kutibu kule ngozi ilikokatikakatika.
Halikadhalika, asali hutibu vidonda. Viwanda vingi vya vipodozi vilevile hutumia asali kama
malighafi muhimu katika utengenezaji wa bidhaa hizo.

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Maswali.

(a) Kwa kurejelea aya ya tatu na ya nne, dondoa mawazo yote muhimu.
(Maneno 70 (alama 7, 1)
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Fupisha aya ya tano na sita kwa kuzingatia hoja muhimu. (Maneno 50. (alama 6, 1)
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MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (ALAMA 40)

a) i) Eleza maana ya sauti mwambatano. (alama2)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….

ii) Tambua sauti mwambatano katika neno ‘shwari’ (alama 2)

b) ) Unda neno lililo na miuundo ya silabi ifuatayo KIKKKI (Alama 2)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) Ainisha viambishi awali na tamati katika neno lifuatalo. ( alama 2)
Ulijuaje

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d) Weka nomino ‘ua’ katika ngeli mbili sahihi. (alama 2)

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e. Akifisha sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 2)

tafadhali nipe maji ninywe nina kiu mkimbizi alimwambia

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f.Geuza sentensi ifuatayo katika wakati uliopita hali timilifu. (alama 2)

Shule zote zitafungwa uchaguzi ukifanywa

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g.Yakinisha sentensi hii katika nafasi ya pili. ( alama 2)
Wasiposoma kwa bidii hawatapita mtihani.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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h.Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika umoja. (alama 2)
Tukipanda ndizi hizi vyema, vijiji hivi vitakuwa na vyakula vya kutosha.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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g.Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika kauli ya kutendewa. (alama 2)

Gavana alitembelea familia iliyofiwa

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h.Ainisha vitenzi katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 3)

Haji alijaribu kujitetea lakini akashindwa

i.Tunga sentensi mbili sahihi kuonyesha matumizi mawili ya kiambishi ‘li’ (alama 2)

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j.Tambua aina za vielezi katika sentensi ifuatayo: (alama 2)
Kipusa mrembo sana alitembea kitausi shuleni jana.
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k.Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika usemi wa taarifa. (alama 2)

“Wanangu, sote tutaenda mavani kesho.” Baba alisema

-ema (alama 1)

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m.Ainisha vishazi katika sentensi hii. (alama 3)

Mwalimu akiwazawadi wanafunzi walioibuka washindi watazembea darasani.

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n.Ainisha yambwa na chagizo katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 3)

Mutola alimbambulia mziwanda wake muhogo kwa pupa.

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o.Changanua sentensi ifuatayo kwa kielelezo cha mstari. (alama 2)
Zawadi nzuri niliyomtunuku mwanawe ilimpa furaha tele.
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p.Huba ni kwa penzi, heshima ni kwa …………… na ruhusu ni kwa……… (alama 2)
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ISIMUJAMII (ALAMA 10)

Maajuzi “wasee” wa TLB walipiga kambi kwenye “rodi”ya kwetu. Walikuwa pamoja na
“makarao” na “makadigo.”Wacha “wasakanye” “madinga”. Kusikia hivyo ilibidi tupige
“sosa” na
“inga” letu likachania mbugani.
a) Hii ni sajili gani? (Alama 1)

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b) Taja sifa zozote sita za sajili hiyo. (Alama 6)

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c) Toa sababu tatu za kuzuka kwa sajili hiyo. (Alama 3)

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JINA…………………………………………………………USAJILI…………………..

SHULE……………………………………………………….MKONDO………………..

KISWAHILI

MUHULA WA II 2024

MUDA: SAA 2 1/2

MAAGIZO
i) Jibu maswali manne PEKEE
ii) Swali la kwanza ni la LAZIMA
iii) Maswali mengine matatu yachaguliwe kutokasehemu nyinginezo.
iv) Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.

KWA MATUMIZIYA MTAHINI PEKEE

SWALI UPEO ALAMA

1 20

JUMLA 80

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SEHEMU A: FASIHI SIMULIZI
1. LAZIMA
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali.
Hapo zamani za kale paliishi sungura na ndovu.Wanyama hawa waliishi baharini. Mauluna
alikuwa amewatunukia mapenzi si haba. Makazi yao yalikuwa yamepambwa yakapambika.
Walitegemea matunda mbalimbali yaliyokuwa baharini kama mapera, matomoko, matikitimaji
na kadhalika.
Siku moja usiku wa manane, maji yakaanza kupwa. Ndovu aliathirika zaidi. Alijaribu kuinama
majini lakini hakuweza. Alimwita sungura amsaidie lakini sungura alikuwa ametoweka.
Ndovu aliamua kwenda kumtafuta sungura. Alimtafuta hadi msituni lakini hakumpata. Alihofia
kurudi baharini na hadi wa leo yumo msituni.

Maswali
a)Tambua utanzu huu na kipera chake. (alama2)
b)Eleza sifa tano za utanzu wa kipera hiki. (alama3)
c)Eleza umuhimu wa fomyula ya kuhitimisha katika aina hii ya ngano. (alama 3)
d)Wewe ni fanani anayewasilisha kipera hiki kwa hadhira.Taja mambo matatu ambayo utafanya
kuhakikisha umefanikiwa katika uwasilishaji wako. (alama 3)
e)Taja manufaa mawili ya ngano katika jamii. (alama 2)
f)Kipera hiki kinaendelea kudidimia katika jamii yako.Eleza mbinu tano utakazozitumia
kukidumisha katika jamii ya leo. (alama4)
g) Fafanua changamoto tatu zinazoweza kumkabili mwanafasihi mtafiti nyanjani anayetumia
mahojiano kama mbinu ya utafiti ( alama3)

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SEHEMU YA B: TAMTHILIA
Timothy M. Arege: Bembea Ya Maisha
Jibu swali la 2 au la 3
2. Soma dondoo lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali yanayofuata.

“… Hebu fikiria! Umepata ajali mbaya. Inakuacha mahututi. Anapita mtu katika gari
lake. Kwa imani anaguswa. Anakufanyia mpango wa Flying Doctors, ndege inafika
inakupeleka hospitali. Mwenyewe huyo anakulipia kila kitu! Mtu huyo atakosaje kuwa
zawadi kwako?”

(a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo (alama4)

(b) Tambua mbinu nne za kimtindo zilizotumika katika dondoo hili (alama 4)
(c) Eleza umuhimu wa anayerejelewa katika dondoo hili katika kukuza ploti. (alama 4)
(d) Kwa kutoa hoja zozote NANE kutoka tamthilia nzima, eleza ukweli wa kauli iliyopigiwa
mstari katika dondoo (alama8)

3.a) ’’ Maisha ni mabadiliko’’ Thibitisha ukweli wa kauli hii ukirejelea tamthlia ya Bembea ya Maisha.
. (Alama 10)

b.)Fafanua mbinu mbalimbali wanazotumia wahusika kusuluhisha matatizo yanayowakumba

ukirejelea tamthilia ya Bembea ya maisha. (Alama 10)

SEHEMU YA C- RIWAYA
NGUU ZA JADI- prof Clara Momanyi (alama 20)

Jibu swali la 4 au 5

4 ‘’ Nakusihi ukatie kikomo biashara ya dawa za kulevya maana nafahamu unaipenda biashara
hiyo yako kama mboni za macho yako.’’

a) Weka dondoo hili katika muktadha wake . (alama4)

b) Tambua mtindo katika dondoo hili. (alama 4)

c) Eleza umuhimu wa mandhari ya Saturn katika kuendeleza riwaya ya Nguu Za Jadi. (alama 12)

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AU

5. Mangwasha aliisoma tena na tena . Alijua barua hiyo ilitoka kwa mwanamke. Mwanamke
ambaye Kiswahili si lugha yake kutokana na jinsi alivyoandika barua. Mwishowe alishusha
pumzi akasema, ‘’ Nasikia shungo hubeba vyombo, lakini moyo hubeba mambo, tena makubwa.
Mrima amekumbatia chui. Hajui chui si rafiki wa kukumbatiwa ? Mwishowe atafukarishwa
asalie kuguguna vifuu. Hajui dunia ni rangirangile. Acha aendelee kuwabusu nyuki… ikiwa
wanawake aina hii watamwandikia upuzi kama huu inamaanisha nini?

a) Fafanua mtindo katika kifungu hiki. ( alama 6)

b) Eleza sifa za mrima zinazojitokeza katika kifungu hiki. (alama 4)

c) Kwa kutoa mifano kumi kutoka riwayani, fafanua jinsi mwanamke amesawiriwa katika jamii
ya Matuo. (alama 10)

SEHEMU YA D: DIWANI YA MAPAMAZUKO YA MACHWEO NA HADITHI

ZINGINE.

Jibu swali la 6 au 7

6.’’ Siku iliyofuata majira ya magharibi pevu, nilifika pale mzimuni. Kama ilivyo ada yangu,
nilivaa guo jeupe lililonifunika gubigubi kama maiti nikaangalia huku na huko, sikuona mtu.
Hapo nikasogea karibu zaidi na ule mzimu. Nilipofika nikauimba ule wimbo wote. Nilipomaliza
tu nikajitoma kichakani mle bila hofu wala kimeme… nilichokiona humo, sikuamini macho
yangu! Mle ndani ya mzimu mlikuwa na makanda na makasha ya tumbaku, unga wa kilevi na
bangi kwenye marobota. Kulikuwa na mapipa ya chang’aa na tembo ya mnazi. Humo pia
mlikuwa na kitanda cha besera kilichotandikwa vizuri. Juu ya kitanda hicho, palitupiwatupiwa
asumini ya maua ya mlangilangi…’’
a) Eleza aina za taswra katika kifungu hiki. (alama 4)
b) Kando na taswira, changanua mtindo katika kifungu. ( alama 6)
c) Kwa kurejelea hadithi hii fafanua maudhui ya unafiki. ( alama 4 )
d) ‘’ Uvundo ulimtoka mwanamke huyo.’’ Wahusika wengi katika hadithi ya Sabina wamejaa
uvundo. Tetea kauli hii kwa hoja sita. ( alama 6 )

4|Page
7. ‘’Haya dakika kumi uwe hapa tuondoke.’’
a) Weka dondoo hili katika muktadha wake. ( alama 4)
b) Eleza sifa nne za msemaji. (alama 4)
c) Eleza umuhimu wa msemewa katika kuendeleza hadithi ya Toba ya Kalia ( alama 6)
d) Eleza changamoto za mayatima kwa mujibu wa hadithi hii. ( alama 6)

SEHEMU YA D-USHAIRI

Jibu swali la 8 au 9

(8) USHAIRI

. Naikumbuka ,
siku nilipofika kijijini
na kumkuta nyanya kaketi chini ya,
mgunga unaolekeana na machweo,
akisaga ugoro wake
na
kuyaangalia machweo,
akiwasikiliza nyuni waliokuwa,
wakiimba kwa msisimko
kuyaomboleza matanga ya
magharibi.
Naikumbuka kauli yake,
‘itakuwa lini nasi kuomboleza
Kifo cha dhiki?

Naikumbuka sauti ya
mama alipokuwa akiwinga
bundi aliyekuwa akiimba
mbolezi kuucheka umaskini
kuudhihaki uwezo duni wa wanakijiji.
Naikumbuka sauti ya mama
Na swali lake:
‘Lini nasi tutawaimbia watutesao
mbolezi za bundi?

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Naikumbuka siku niliposikika,
kilio alichokilia ndugu;
kidole ki lipokatwa na mashine
ya kutengenezea karatasi
Sauti yake akilalamika,
kutolipwa fidia na chozi,
la kufutwa kazi kwa kutozalisha,kama kabla.
Ndio na swali lake:
‘Lini itakatwa mirija ya
wanyonyaji wafanyao watu mashine?

Naukumbuka ukwenzi,
alioupiga falahi na mkulima,
aliyepokea pesa ukufi kwa,
mazao yaliyomlaza nje na kumvunja,
mgongo akalala hoi,
nayakumbuka machozi yake ,
yaliyotiririka na kumkamua
nguvu akitoa lawama zilizotoka kwa shida
nililisikia swali lake:
‘Lini jasho la upanzi na mavuno
litawafaidi wachomwa na jua?’

(a) “Shairi hili linakatisha tamaa.’’ Thibitisha kauli hii kwa mifano mitatu kutoka kwenye
shairi. (alama 3)
(b) Fafanua umuhimu wa aina mbili za urudiaji zilizotumiwa katika shairi hili . (alama 2)
(c) Bainisha nafsineni katika shairi hili. (alama 2)
(d) Jadili umuhimu wa maswali ya balagha katika shairi hili. (alama 2)
(e) Tambua toni ya shairi hili. (alama 1)
(f) Bainisha na uoneshe umuhimu wa mistari ifuatayo katika shairi hili.
(i) Mistari kifu (alama 2)
(ii) Mistari mishata (alama 2)
(g) Bainisha aina mbili za taswira zinazojitokeza katika shairi hili. (alama 2)
(h) Fafanua muundo wa shairi (alama 4)

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9. USHAIRI

Jicho, tavumiliaje, kwa hayo uyaonayo?

Kicho, utasubiriaje, maonevu yapitayo

Kwacho, lijalo na lije, nimechoka vumilliyo

Naandika!

Moyo, unao timbuka, maudhi tuyasikiayo

Nayo, visa na mauko, wanyonge wayakutayo

Kwayo, sina zuiliko, natoa niyahisiyo

Naandika!

Hawa, wanotulimiya, dhiki wavumiliayo

Hawa, mamiya mamiya, na mali wazalishayo

Hawa, ndo wanaoumiya, na maafa wakutayo

Naandika!

Hawa, sioni wengine, kwao liko angamiyo

Hawa, uwapa unene, watukufu wenye nayo

Hawa, bado ni wavune, kwa shida waikutayo

Naandika!

Bado, wawapo mabwana, wenye pupa na kamiyo

Bado, tofauti sana, kwa pato na mengineyo,

Bado tuling'owe shina, ulaji pia na choyo

Naandika!

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Maswali

a) Shairi hili ni la bahari zipi? Thibitisha (Alama 4)

b) Eleza dhamira ya mshairi (Alama 2)

c) Onyesha mifano miwili ya uhuru wa kishairi uliotumika katika shairi (Alama 2)

d) Andika ubeti wa tatu kwa lugha nathari. (Alama 4)

e) Tambulisha kwa mifano mbinu zozote mbili za sanaa katika shairi (Alama2)

f) Fafanua sifa za kiarudhi zilizotumika katika ubeti wa tano. (Alama 3)

g) Eleza maana ya maneno haya kama yaliyotumiwa katika shairi (Alama 3)

i) zuiliko

ii) wavune

iii) wenye pupa na kamiyo

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HAWK II CLUSTER EXAMINATIONS - 2024
The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 PRE-MOCK II EXAMINATION

121/1 MATHEMATICS Paper 1

JUNE, 2024 Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes

Name…………………………………………………………….ADM NO …..….….…… School………..….……

Stream ………………………………………………………..Candidate’s index number…..……………….....…

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name ,index number, adm number, stream and school in the spaces provided at the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of two sections: section 1 and section ll
3. Answer all questions in section l and any five questions from section ll.
4. Show all relevant steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces below each question.
5. Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
6. Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical table may be used, except where stated otherwise.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

SECTION II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL
GRAND TOTAL

This paper consists of 15 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all
the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
SECTION I (50MKS)

1. Without using a calculator, evaluate (3mks)

3 5 5
2 −16 ÷6
7
2 1 1
2 −1
3 4 7

2. A watch which loses a half a minute every hour was set read the correct time at 0445hr on a Monday.
Determine in twelve hour system the time that the watch will show at 1845hr on Thursday the same week.
(3mks)

3. Solve the following inequalities, hence represent the solution on a number line. ( 3 marks)
3 − 2 < 10 + ≤2+5

4. Complete the figure below to show a rotational symmetry of order 3 about point O.( 3 marks)

2
5. Use the tables of reciprocals and square roots to evaluate. (3mks)
0.1
 0.498
0.0351

6. Equity bank buys and sells foreign currencies as shown in the table below.

Currency Buying (ksh) Selling (ksh)

1 US Dollar 77.43 78.10

1 S.A Rand 9.03 9.51

A tourist arrived in Kenya with 5 600 US Dollars and changed the whole amount to Kenya shillings. While
in Kenya he spent Sh. 201 376 and changed the balance to S.A Rand before leaving to South Africa.
Calculate in SA Rand he received. (3mks)

3
1 o 0 o
7. The interior angles of a polygon are; 2 x o , x,  x  40  ,130o ,1100 ,160o and  x  10  . Find the value of x.
2
(3mrks)

8. Simplify completely (3marks)

#$% &'
9. Solve for x in 2 8! = %() &'
(3marks)

4
10. The angle of elevation of P from B is 300. The angle of elevation of P from A is 600. A and B and the foot of
P are on a straight line. The height of P from the ground is 10m. Determine the length AB
(3mrks)

11. Jane bought 20 bags of oranges and 15 bags of mangoes for a total of sh. 9500. Chumo bought 30 bags
of oranges and 20 bags of mangoes for a total of sh. 13500. If the price of a bag of orange is x and that
of mangoes y
i!. Form two equations to represent the information above 1mk!

ii!. Hence use the matrix A1 above to find the price of one bag of each item 3mk!

12. Given that IJK + 20$ ! = L I 2 + 25! find the value of MNK . (3mrks)

5
13. (a) Complete the table for y=3x2+6x+4 (1mk)
X 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5 4 4.5 5 5.5 6
2
y=3x +6x+4

(b) Using trapezium rule of 11 coordinates, find the area between the curve and the lines x=1 and x=6
(2mks)

14. A point R (2,9) was mapped onto RI (-5,3) under an enlargement with scale factor +2. Determine the co-
ordinates of the center of enlargement.
( 3 marks)

15. A shopkeeper bought a sweater and a long trouser at the same price. She sold the sweater at ksh. 1040,
realizing a profit. On the same day, she sold the long trouser at ksh. 880 and made a loss. If the profit was
three times the loss, calculate the buying price of each item. (3mrks)

16. Town X is 20km in the direction of 060o from Y and Z is 30 km in the direction 150o from Y. Using the scale
1cm rep 5km, find the scale drawing:
a) The bearing of Y from Z. (3mks)

6
b) The distance of X from Z (1mrk)

SECTION B (50MKS)
Answer only FIVE questions from this section

17. The line L1 whose equation is −K + 2Q = 3 passes through the point -3, 1!.
a! Calculate:
i!the value of K 2mks!

7
ii! the acute angle the line makes with x-axis to 2 decimal places 3mks!

iii! the co-ordinates of point Q, the x-intercept of the line L1 2mks!

b! the line L1 is perpendicular to another line L2 at Q. Find the equation of L2 in the form
Q=V +L 3mks!

18. The examination marks in a mathematics test for 60 students were as follows.

60 54 34 83 52 74 61 27 65 22
70 71 47 60 63 59 50 46 39 35
69 42 53 74 92 27 39 43 49 54
25 51 71 59 68 73 90 88 93 85
46 82 58 85 61 69 24 40 88 34
30 26 17 15 80 90 65 55 76 89

Complete the table (3 marks)

8
Class Tally Frequency Class width
10-29
30-39
40-69
70-74
75-89
90-99

From the table:

a) State the modal class (1 mark)

b) Calculate the mean. (3 marks)

9
10
19. The figure below shows a velocity time graph of a journey of a car. The car starts from rest and accelerates at
W
2 V/I for t seconds until it is 22V/I.

Breaks are applied bringing it uniformly to rest. The total journey is 847 m long. Find:
a) The value of t, the acceleration time. ( 3 marks)

b) The distance travelled during the first t seconds. ( 2 marks)

c) The value of x, the deceleration time. ( 3 marks)

d) The rate of deceleration. ( 2 marks)

20. Triangle ABC has the vertices Y −2, −2!, Z −2, −5! and [ −5, −4!. Draw ∆YZ[ on the graph paper
provided. (1 mark)

11
b) ∆Y′Z′[′is the image of ∆YZ[ under reflection in the line + Q = 0. Draw triangle
Y′Z′[′ on the same axes and state its coordinates. (3 mark)

L! ∆Y′Z′[′ is the image of ∆Y′′Z′′[′′ under a negative quarter turn about the origin. Draw ∆Y′′Z′′[′′ on the same axes
and state its coordinates. (2 mark)

^! ∆Y′′′Z′′′[′′′is the image of ∆Y′′Z′′[′′under an enlargement centre (0, 0! and scale factor -1. Draw ∆Y′′′Z′′′[′′′ and
state its coordinates. (2 marks)

e. Describe a transformation which maps ∆Y′′′Z′′′[′′′ onto ABC (2 mark)

21. In the figure below (not drawn to scale) AB = 8cm AC = 6cm, AD = 7 cm, CD = 2.82 cm and angle
CAB = = 50
D

12
2.82cm

7cm C

A B
8cm
Calculate to 2 decimal places
a) The length BC (3mks)

b) Size of angle ABC (2marks)

(c)The size of angle CAD (3marks)

c) The area of angle ACD (2marks)

22. The position vectors of points A and B are OA = _W`and OB = _ ` .

A point M is on AB such that AM = ½ AB and a point N is on OB such that ON: NB = 1:3

a) Find

i) AB (2mks)

13
ii) NM (3mks)

iii) |bc| Correct to 1 decimal place (2mks)

b) A translation vector maps A onto A’ (5 - 1). Find the coordinates of the image of B under the
translation vector. (3mks)

23. An arc is by an angle of 600 at the Centre. The radius of the sector is 14cm.
a) Find;
i) The length of the arc. (1mrk)

ii) The area of the sector (2mrks)

14
b) The arc is folded to form a cone. Find
i) The radius of the cone (2mrks)

ii) The curved surface area of the cone (2mrks)

iii) The volume of the cone (3mrks)

24. The displacement d metres of a particle in motion is given by d = M W − 2M − 4M + 5 where t is time in

seconds Calculate :
a) The displacement when M = 3 second (1mk)

15
b) The initial velocity (3mks)

c) The time when the particle is momentarily at rest (3mks)

d) The displacement during the fourth second (3mks)

16
HAWK II CLUSTER EXAMINATIONS - 2024
The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 PRE-MOCK II EXAMINATION

121/2 MATHEMATICS Paper 2

JUNE, 2024 Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes

Name……………………………………………………………….ADM NO …..….………… School………….…………

Stream …………………………………………………………………..Candidate’s index number…..………………..…

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION I

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

SECTION II

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL
GRAND TOTAL

This paper consists of 15 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the
pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
1
SECTION I
Answer ALL the questions in this section
1. Make X the subject of the formula:
P=√ (3 marks)

2. Solve the equation in:

Log2(x2 – 4) - log2(x+2) = -4. (3 marks)

3. Two grades of tea leaves X and Y cost ksh.120 and Ksh.150 respectively. X and Y are mixed in the
ratio 3:T. if the selling price gives a profit of 20% when sold at Ksh.158.40 per kg. find:
a) The cost price. (1 mark)

b) The value of T. (2 marks)

2
4. Express: in surd form and simplify by rationalizing the denominator
√

(3 marks)

5. in the figure below BT is a tangent to the circle at B. AXCT and BXD are straight lines intersecting
at X.

Given that BT = 40cm, CT =25cm, BX = 12cm and that X divides AC in the ratio 2:1.
a) Calculate the length of AX. (2 marks)

b) calculate to 1 s.f, the length DX. (2 marks)

3
6. The coordinates of the end points of diameter are A(2,4) B(2,6). Find the equation of a circle in
the form ax2 + by2 +cx + dy + e = 0 (3 marks)

7. Given that O is the origin and that OA = 2i + 2j − 4k , OB = 6i + 10j + 2k and point R divides AB
externally in the ratio 3:1, find OR . (3 marks)

8. a) Expand and simplify (1  3 x) 5 up to the term in x3 (1 mark)

b) Hence estimate the value of 0.97 correct to 4 decimal places. (2 marks)

4
9. Object A of the area 10cm2 is mapped onto its image B of area 60cm2 by a transformation whose
4
matrix is given by P = . Find the positive values of x. (3 marks)
3 +3

10. The line MN drawn below is 6cm.

M 6cm N

On the upper side of MN, locate T1 and T2 such that ∠ 1N = ∠ T2N = 800 and the area of
triangle MT1N = triangle MT2N = 10.5cm2. (3 marks)

" "#$
11. Evaluate !% " %
dx (3 marks)

5
12. The price of a new car is shs. 800,000. If it depreciates at a constant rate to shs. 550,000 within 4
years, find the annual rate of depreciation. (3 marks)

13. A carpenter wishes to cut a 1m long piece of wood into 3 equal parts. He approximates the length
of each piece to 0.33m. Calculate the percentage error due to this approximation (3 marks)

$
14. The graph below (not drawn to scale) is a plot for the function & = ( + ) + * where a,b and k
are constants

Determine the values of a,b and k. (3 marks)

6
15. Solve the equation 4+,- $ = 5 − 4+,- 90 − for −180 ≤ ≤ 180 (4 marks)

16. A bag contains 10 balls of which 3 are red, 5 are white and 2 green. Another bag contains 12 balls
of which 4 are red, 3 are white and 5 are green. A bag is chosen at random and a ball picked at
random. Find the probability the ball so chosen is red. (3 marks)

7
SECTION II
Attempt any five questions in this section
17. a) PQRS is a quadrilateral with vertices P(1,4), Q(2,1), R(2,3) and S(6,4). On the grid provided
plot the quadrilateral. (1 mark)

b) Draw 3% 4% 5% 6 % , the image of PQRS under positive quarter turn about the origin and write
down its co-ordinates . (3 marks)

1 0
c) Draw 3%% 4%% 5%% 6 %% the image of 3% 4% 5% 6 % under the transformation whose matrixis 7 9
−2 1
and write down its co-ordinates. ( 3 marks)

d) Determine the matrix T of a single transformation that maps PQRS onto 3%% 4%% 5%% 6 %%
(3marks)

8
18. An aeroplane leaves town A (83°N, 155°W) to town B (40°N, 25°E) using the shortest route at a
speed of 450 knots. (Take ̟ = 3.142 and radius of the earth R = 6370km).
(a) (i) Calculate the distance between A and B in nautical miles. (2 marks)

(ii) Calculate the time taken to travel from town A to B (2 marks)

(b) From B, the plane flies westwards along the latitude to town C (40°N, 13°W). Calculate the
distance BC in kilometers. (3 marks)

(c) From town C, the plane took off at 3:10 pm towards town D (10°N, 13°W), at the same
speed. At what time did the plane land at D? (3 marks)

9
19. The figure below is a phyamid of a rectangular base PQRS of length 12cm and width 9cm. The
slanting edge has a length of 19.5cm

a) Determine the height of the pyramid. (3 marks)

b) The angle POS makes with QOR. (3 marks)

c) The angle PQO makes with QRO. (4 marks)

10
20. The data below shows the heights of students in a class.
Height 130-139 140-149 150-159 160-169 170-179 180-189 190-199
Frequency 8 10 11 18 14 12 7

a) Using assumed mean of 164.5, calculate the mean and standard deviation (5 marks)

b) Draw a cumulative frequency curve on the grid provided and use it to estimate the median.
(5 marks)

11
;
21. (a) Complete the table for the function : = =>? <@, where 00  x  3600 (2 marks)
<
X 00 300 600 900 1200 1500 1800 2100 2400 2700 3000 3300 3600
2x 0 600 1200 1800 2400 3000 3600 4200 4800 5400 6000 6600 7200
BCD <@ 0 0.866 0.866 -0.866
; 0 0.433
=>? <@
<
;
(b) On the grid provided, draw the graph of the function : = < ECD <@ for 00  x 3600 using the scale 1
cm for 300 on the horizontal axis and 4 cm for 1 unit of axis. (3 marks)

;
(c) Use your graph to determine the amplitude and period of the function : = ECD < ECD <@
(2 marks)

(d) Use the graph to solve

%
(i) Sin 2 = 0 (1 mark)
$

%
(ii) $ Sin 2 − 05 = 0 (2 marks)

12
22. Three variables p, q and r are such that p varies directly as q and inversely as the square of r.
When p = 18, q = 24 and r = 4.

(a) Find p when q = 30 and r = 10 (4 marks)

(b) Express q in terms of p and r (1 mark)

(c) If p is increased by 20% and r is decreased by 10%. Find:

(i) A simplified expression for the change in q in terms of p and r. (3 marks)

(ii) The percentage change in q. (2 marks)

13
23. The table below shows income tax rates for a certain year.
Monthly income in Kshs. Tax rates in each
Kshs.
1 – 9400 10%
9401 – 18000 15%
18001 – 26600 20%
26601 – 35600 25%
35601 – and above 30%
A monthly tax relief of Kshs. 1172 was allowed. Opunyi’s taxable income in the last band was
Kshs.3,200 in month. Calculate:
a) His taxable income per month. (2 marks)

b) The amount of tax he paid in a month. (5 marks)

c) Opunyi’s salary included a medical allowance of Kshs.8,000. He contributed 6% of his basic

salary to a sacco. Calculate his net pay. (3 marks)

14
24. a) The first term of Arithmetic Progression (AP) is 2. The sum of the first 8 terms of the
Arithmetic Progression (AP) IS 156.
Find the common difference of the Arithmetic Progression (AP) (2 marks)

c) Given that the sum of the first n terms of the Arithmetic Progression (AP) IS 416, find n.
( 2 marks)

a) The 3rd, 5th and 8th terms of another Arithmetic Progression (AP) from the first three of a
Geometric Progression (GP). If the common difference of the Arithmetic Progression (AP) is 3,
find;
i) The first term of the GP. (4 marks)

ii) The sum of the first 9 terms of the GP, to 4 significant figures. (2 marks)

15
Name:……………………………………………….Index Number…………………………..
Candidate Signature…………………….
School Name:…………………..
Date ……………………………..
July/August 2024
2 Hrs

HAWK 2 JOINT EXAMS

Kenya Certificate Of Secondary Education
Biology
231/1
Paper 1
2 Hours
Instructions To Candidates
(a) Write Your Name And Index Number In The Spaces Provided Above
(b) Sign And Write The Date Of Examination In The Spaces Provided Above
(c) Answer All The Questions In This Question Paper
(d) All Answers Must Be Written In The Spaces Provided
(e) This Paper Consist Of 11 Printed Pages
(f) Candidates Should Answer The Questions In English

For Examiner’s use

Question Number Maximum Score Candidate Score

1-23 80
BIOLOGY PAPER 1 231/1 2024

1. State two guidelines that should be followed when typing scientific names. (2 mks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________

2. An individual is of blood group A positive

(a) Na e the a tige s i the i dividual’s blood (2 mks)
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________

(b) Can the individual receive blood from blood group B donor? Give a reason to support your
answer (2 mks)
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

3. (a) How is a human mouth adapted to:

(i) Chewing? (1 mk)
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________

(ii) Carbohydrate digestion? (1 mk)

___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________

4. Explain why significantly increasing the blood pH slows down the rate of selective reabsorption of
materials in the kidney tubules (2 mks)
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________

5. State two difference between light dependent and Light Independent stages of Photosynthesis
(2 mks)

(b) How is the low power objective lens manipulated to focus a specimen for observation under a
light microscope? (2 mks)

(c)Name the organelles that are responsible for the formation of spindle fibres (1 mk)

___________________________________________________________________________

7. (a) Distinguish between guttation and transpiration (1 mk)

(b)Describe how each of the following factors increase the rate of transpiration
i. Temperature (1 mk)
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________

ii. Humidity (1 mk)

______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________

8. (a) Describe four assumptions of capture-recapture method used in estimation of population of

organisms (4 mks)
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
(b) State two reasons why primary productivity in a pond decreases with depth (2 mks)
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________

9. Study the illustration below

(a) Name the substance responsible for the change illustrated (1 mk)
________________________________________________________________________

(b) Account for the change observed in the illustration (3 mks)

10. How does nutrition as a characteristic of living organisms differ in plants and animals? (2 mks)
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
11. A person met a leopard as he walked along a forest path. His adrenal glands secreted adrenaline to
prepare him to run away. What was the effect of adrenaline on his circulatory system? (4 mks)
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________

12. Small birds like the European Robin puff up (swell up) their feathers during winter. Explain the
significance of this behavioural response (3 mks)
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________

13. Briefly explain how bee stings can cause death. (3 mks)
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________

14. (a) Name the product of glycolysis. (1 mk)

__________________________________________________________________________

(b) What is the role of cristae in a mitochondrion? (1 mk)

__________________________________________________________________________

15. Name one part of the kidney nephron where reabsorption of water takes place (1 mk)
__________________________________________________________________________

16. Treatment of malaria is still a challenge in the world despite the invention of many antimalarial
drugs. Explain (3 mks)
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________

17. The graph below represent growth pattern in a group of organisms

(a) Name the type of growth curve (1 mk)
_______________________________________________________________________

(b) Name the phylum that shows this type of pattern (1 mk)
_______________________________________________________________________

(c) State one disadvantage of this type of pattern (1 mk)

_______________________________________________________________________

18. After four months of pregnancy, the ovaries of a woman can be removed without terminating
pregnancy. Explain these observation (3 mks)
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________

(c) The diagram below represents a flower

i. On the diagram, name two structures where meiosis occurs (2 mks)

__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________

ii. How is the flower adapted to prevent self-pollination? (2 mks)

19. The genetic make-up of a man was found to be XXY

(a) Name the syndrome the individual could be suffering from (1 mk)
_____________________________________________________________________________

(b) Explain how the syndrome occurs (3 mks)

20. Explain how the human nasal cavity is adapted to gaseous exchange ( 3mks)
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________

21. (a) (i) Name the substance produced by the sebaceous gland of the mammalian skin (1 mk)
__________________________________________________________________________

(ii) State two functions of the substance named in 3 (a) (i) (2 mks)
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________

22. (a) State one functional difference between a tendon and a ligament (1 mk)
__________________________________________________________________________

(b) State two types of synovial joints in mammals (2 mks)

__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________

23. How is each of the following adapted to its function in a human ear
i. External auditory meatus (1 mk)
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________

ii. Ear Ossicles (1 mk)

___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
(b) The diagram below represents a section of the human brain

(i) Name the structures labelled P and R (2 mks)

P __________________________________________________________
R __________________________________________________________

(ii) State two functions of the part labelled Q (2 mks)

Candidate Signature……………………. School Name:…………………..

Date ……………………………..

HAWK 1 JOINT EVALUATION 2024

The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 PRE-MOCK 1 EXAMINATION
231/2 Biology Paper 2
June, 2024 Time: 2 hours
Instructions To Candidates
(a) Write Your Name And Index Number In The Spaces Provided Above
(b) Sign And Write The Date Of Examination In The Spaces Provided Above
(c) This Paper consist of Two sections:A & B
(d) Answer all question in section A in the spaces provide
(e) In section B answer question 6 (compulsory) and either question 7 or 8 in the spaces
provided after question 8
(f) This Paper Consist Of 10 Printed Pages
(g) Candidates Should Answer The Questions In
English

1
For Examiner’s use
Section Question Maximum Score Candidate’s score
1 8
A 2 8
3 8
4 8
5 8
6 20
B 7 20
8 20
TOTAL SCORE 80

Section A (40MARKS)
1. The diagram below represents one of the joints in the mammalian body.
(diagram)

z W

a. Name the type of the joint in the diagram. (1 mk)

b. Nam each of the parts labeled Z and U . (2 mks)

U
Z

c. State two functions of the fluid found in W (2 mks)

d. Identify the type of Muscle found attached to above bone Z (1 mk)

2
e. State one difference between the Muscle identified in (d) above and those found in the gut.
(1mk)

f. State one way in which support is brought about in leaf. (1mk)

2. (a). In an investigation equal amounts of water was placed in three test tubes labelled A, B and C .
Pond weeds of equal length were dropped in each test tube. The test tubes were then placed in
identical conditions of light and Carbon (IV) oxide at different temperature for five minutes. After
five minutes, the bubbles produced in each test tube were counted for one minute. The results
were as shown in the table below.
Test tube Temperature Number of bubbles
A 20 28
B 35 42
C 55 10

i. Name one requirement for this process that is not mentioned in the investigation.(1 mk)

ii. Name the gas produced in this investigation(1 mk)

iii. Account for the results in test tubes B and C(2 mks)

b. State two ways in which the human intestinal villus is adapted to its function (4 mks)

3
3. The diagram below represents a transverse section of a young stem.

a) Name the part labelled J and K (2 mks)

b) State the functions of the parts labelled L, M and N (3 mks)

c) How can low blood volume be brought back to normal? (3 mks)

4
4. (a) Colour blindness is a sex linked trait controlled by a recessive gene b. If a mother is a carrier and
the father is normal, what is the chance that their son will be colour blind? Show your working
using a punnet square (4 mks)

b) Explain how geographical distribution of organism is an evidence of organic evolution (4 mks)

5
5. (a) A student used 1m2 quadrat to determine the population of striga weed in a 20m x 20m plot. He
collected the data and recorded it as shown below.

Quadrant (throws) Population of striga weed

1 19
2 12
3 11
4 14
5 16

Using the data above, determine the total population of striga weed(3 mks)

(b) Describe the hazards of air pollution by Sulphur (IV) Oxide.(4 mks)

(c) Name the causal organism of Typhoid disease. (1 mk)

6
SECTION B (40 mks)
Answer question 6 (compulsory) and either question 7 or 8 on the spaces provided after question 8
6. Some students used a model to demonstrate the effect of sweating on human body temperature.
Two boiling tubes K and L were filled with hot water. The temperature of water in the tubes was
taken at the start of the experiment and then at 5 minute intervals. The surface of the tube K was
continuously wiped with a piece of cotton wool soaked in methylated spirit. The results obtained
are shown in the table below.

(a) On the same axes, plot graphs of temperature of water in the space tubes against time (7 mks)

7
(b) At what rate was the water cooling tube K? (2 mks)

(c) Why was tube L included in the set up? (1 mk)

(d) Account for the rate of cooling in tube K (3 mks)

(e) State two processes of heat loss in tube L (2 mks)

8
(f) What would be the expected results if tube K was insulated? (1 mk)

(g) What would the insulation be comparable to in:

i. Bird (1 mk)

ii. Mammals (1 mk)

(h) How does the above experiment apply to an elephant and a rat? Explain. (2 mks)

7. (a) How are respiratory surfaces in mammals adapted to their functions (10 mks)
(b) Explain five importances of plant excretory products (10 mks)
8. How are the structures of the human eye adapted to their functions? (20 mks)

9
10
BIOLOGY PAPER 3 231/3 PRACTICAL
CONFIDENTIAL
-Three test tubes on a rack
-Dilute egg albumen
- (Access to) sodium hydroxide solution with a dropper
- (Access to) dilute hydrochloric acid with a dropper
-Enzyme Trypsin labelled as solution P
-Two droppers
-Three 10ml measuring cylinder
-A stop watch/wall clock
-Access to water bath maintained at 50Oc to 60Oc
Colored photographs
Name: ......................................................................... Index Number…………………

Candidate Signature……………………. School Name:…………………………

Date ……………………………..

231/3 Biology Paper 3

June, 2024 Time: 1 ¾ hours

Instructions of Candidates
a) Write your name & Index no in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination.
c) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
d) You are required to spend the first 15 minutes of the 1 ¾ hours allowed for this paper
reading the whole paper carefully before commencing your work.
e) Additional pages must not be inserted.
f) This paper consists of 1 printed pages.
g) Check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and that
no questions are missing.

For Examiners use only

Questions Maximum score Candidates score

1 13
2 16
3 11

TOTAL 40

1
For Examiner’s use
1. Study the organisms A, B, C, D, E and F below.

(a) Complete and use the key below to identify the organisms. (2mks)
1.(a)Organisms with endoskeleton
------go to 2
(b)
------go to 3

2.(a)Has scales on the body

------go to 4
(b)Has no scales on the body
mammalian

3.(a)Has cephalothorax -
Arachnida
(b)Has no cephalothorax -
go to 5

4.(a) -Pisces
(b)Has no fins
---go to 7

5.(a)Has three pair of legs -

Insects

2
(b)Has more than three pair of legs -
go to 6

6.(a)Two pair of legs per segment

Diploda
(b)One pair of legs per segment -
Chilopoda

7.(a)Has feathers
Aves
(b)Has no feathers
go to 8

8(a)Has a tail
--Reptilia
(b)Has no tail
Amphibian

B. Identify the organisms above using the complete key above.

Specimen Steps followed Identity

A
B
C
D
E
F

c. Name the phylum in which specimen A, C and F belong to. (1 mk)

d. Give three reasons for your answer (c) above. (3mks)

3
e. Name one feature that is common in organisms B, E, and D. (1mk)

2. You are provided with photographs of specimen K, L, M, N, P and Q from plants

Examine them carefully and answer the questions that follows

a. In the table below, name the mode of dispersal and the features that adapt each specimen
to its mode of dispersal. (12mks)

Specimen Mode of dispersal Adaptive features

K
L
M
N
P
Q

(b) Draw a plan diagram of specimen Q and label any two parts on it.(3mks)

4
(c) Name the part labelled S on specimen P (1 mk)

3. You are provided with the following materials and reagents

-Three test tubes on a rack
-Dilute egg albumen
- (Access to) sodium hydroxide solution with a dropper
- (Access to) dilute hydrochloric acid with a dropper
-Enzyme Trypsin labelled as solution P
-Two droppers
-Three 10ml measuring cylinder
-A stop watch/wall clock
-Access to water bath maintained at 50Oc to 60Oc
(i) Label the test tubes as A, B, and C.
(ii) Put 2cm3 of egg albumen into each of the test tubes labelled A, B and C.
(iii) Add 1cm3 of solution P in each of the test tubes
(iv) Into test tube A, add two drops Sodium Hydroxide.
(v) Into test tube B, add two drops of Hydrochloric acid.
(vi) Into test tube C, add two drops of water.
(vii) Place all the three test tubes in the water bath for 10 minutes

(a) (i) State the observations made in test tubes A and B

Test tube A (1 mk)

Test tube B (1 mk)

5
(ii) Account for the observations made in a (i) above.

Test tube A (3 mks)

Test tube B (2 mks)

(b) Explain why the investigation was carried out at the specified temperature range. (1 mk)

(i) With a reason, identify solution P (2 mks)

(ii) Name the likely part of the alimentary canal where the process in the experiment
occurs. (1 mk)

6
HAWK II JOINT EVALUATION 2024
The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 PRE-MOCK II EXAMINATION
(232/1) (PHYSICS) Paper 1
June, 2024 Time: 2 Hours
Name.....................................................................................................................IndexNumber....................../.....

Adm. No…………Class: ……...............Candidate’s Signature............................................Date.......................

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

i) Write your name, admission number and index number in the spaces provided above.
ii) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above
iii) This paper consists of TWO sections A and B
iv) Answer ALL the questions in section A and B in the spaces provided
v) All working MUST be clearly shown
vi) Electronic calculators and mathematical tables may be used.
vii) ALL numerical answers must be expressed in decimal notation.
viii) This paper has 11 pages. It is the responsibility of the candidate to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
ix) Candidates should answer the questions in English.
For Examiners Use Only
Section Question Maximum Candidates’
Score Score
A 1 – 12 25
13 07

B 14 09
15 12
16 11
17 08
18 08

80
Page 1 of 11
© 2024 – HAWK II Joint Evaluation Test 232/1 Physics Turn Over
SECTION A (25 marks)
Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.

1. The water level in a burette is 30.6cm³, 50 drops of water each of volume 0.2cm³ are added to the water in
the burette. What is the final reading of the burette. (2 marks)
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2. Figure 1 shows a graph showing the behaviour of a helical spring.

Fig 1
Determine the spring constant in SI units. (3 marks)
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3. Two forces are acting on a body as shown in figure 2 below.

Fig 2
By use of a vector, draw the body and show the resultant force. (1 mark)
Page 2 of 11
© 2024 – HAWK II Joint Evaluation Test 232/1 Physics Turn Over
4. Two identical beakers A and B containing equal volumes of water are placed on a bench. The water in A is
cold while in B is warm. Identical pieces of potassium permanganate are placed gently at the bottom of each
beaker inside the water. It is observed that the spread of colour in B is faster than in A. Explain this
observation. (2 marks)
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5. Figure 3 below shows a uniform bar of weight 5N and length 1.1m pivoted at a point and in equilibrium
under the action of the forces as shown.

Fig. 3

Determine the value of weight W. (3 marks)

6. State the contribution physics has made to the entertainment industry. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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7. State one limitation of the micrometer screw gauge. (1 mark)

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Fig. 4
State the law represented in figure 4 above. (1 mark)
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Page 3 of 11
© 2024 – HAWK II Joint Evaluation Test 232/1 Physics Turn Over
9. Alcohol was placed in a flask fitted with an air tight cork as shown in figure 5.

Fig. 5

State and explain what would be observed if the flask was cooled. (2 marks)
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10. A boy poured some boiling water into a plastic can and placed in an air-tight cork on its open end. He then
ran some cold water on it for about 20 seconds after which he shook the can vigorously. State and explain
what he observed. (3 marks)
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11. Water flows along a horizontal pipe of cross-sectional area 30cm². The speed of the water is 4m/s but it
reaches 7.5m/s in a constriction in the pipe. Calculate the area of the constriction in m². (3 marks)
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12. To what temperature must 2 000 cm3 of a gas at 27oC be heated at constant pressure in order for its volume
to increase to 25 000cm3? (3 marks)
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Page 4 of 11
© 2024 – HAWK II Joint Evaluation Test 232/1 Physics Turn Over
SECTION B: (55 marks)
Answer ALL questions in this section.
13. a) i.State two conditions necessary for equilibrium of a body acted upon by a number of forces. (2 marks)
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ii. Figure 6 below shows beaker containing a block of ice.

Fig. 6

State and explain the change in stability when the ice melts. (2 marks)
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.....................................................................................................................................................................................

b) Figure 7 below shows a drop of fatty acid on a wire of diameter 1.4mm

Fig. 7

When the drop of the fatty acid was placed on clean water surface it formed a circular patch of diameter 91cm.
i. Estimate the length of the molecule of the fatty acid. (2 marks)
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ii. State the assumption made in part (i) above. (1 mark)
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Page 5 of 11
© 2024 – HAWK II Joint Evaluation Test 232/1 Physics Turn Over
14. a) A balloon seller has cylinder of helium gas which she uses to blow up her balloons. The volume of the
cylinder is 0.10 m3. It contains helium gas at a pressure of 1.0 x.107 Pa. she fills each balloon to a volume of 1.0
x 10-2 m3 and a pressure of 1.2 x 105 Pa.
i. Explain, in terms of molecules how the helium in the cylinder produces a pressure. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii. Calculate the total volume, the helium gas that would occupy at a pressure of 1.2 x 105Pa if the
temperature of the helium gas remains constant. (2 marks)
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iii. Calculate the number of balloons of volume 1.0 x 102 m3 the seller can fill with the helium gas.(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) Figure 8 show a pressure temperature graph for an ideal gas.

From the graph determine the temperature of the gas when the gas pressure is zero. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……................................................................................................................................................................................

Express this temperature in Kelvin. (1 mark)

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Page 6 of 11
© 2024 – HAWK II Joint Evaluation Test 232/1 Physics Turn Over
15. a) Distinguish between latent heat of fusion and specific latent of fusion. (1 mark)
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b) Figure 9 below shows a block of ice. A thin copper wire with two heavy weights hanging from
its ends-passes over the block. The copper wire is observed to pass through the block of ice without cutting it in
a process known as regelation.

Fig. 9
i. Explain this observation, (3 marks)
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ii. What would be the effect of replacing the copper wire with a cotton thread? Explain. (2 marks)
.....................................................................................................................................................................................
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.....................................................................................................................................................................................

Page 7 of 11
© 2024 – HAWK II Joint Evaluation Test 232/1 Physics Turn Over
c) Figure 10 shows one method of measuring the specific latent heat of fusion of ice.
Two funnels A and B, contain crushed ice at 0°C.

Fig. 10
The mass of melted ice from each funnel is measured after 11 minutes. The results are shown below.
Mass of melted ice in A = 24g
Mass of melted ice in B = 63g
i. What is the reason for setting up funnel A? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. Determine the:

I. quantity of heat supplied by the heater. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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II. mass of ice melted by the heater. (1 mark)

III. specific latent heat of fusion of ice. (2 marks)

Page 8 of 11
© 2024 – HAWK II Joint Evaluation Test 232/1 Physics Turn Over
16. (a) Define angular velocity (1 mark)

(b) The diagram below in figure 11 shows an object of mass 2.0kg being whirled in a vertical circle of
radius 0.8, at a uniform speed of 50m/s
A

2.0kg
r=0.8m
Fig. 11

Determine:

i. The centripetal force on the object (2 marks)

(c) The speed of rotation is gradually increased until the string snaps. At what point is the string likely to
snap? Explain (2 marks)

Page 9 of 11
© 2024 – HAWK II Joint Evaluation Test 232/1 Physics Turn Over
17. a) State Archimede's principle. (1 mark)
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b) Figure 12 below shows a buoy, M, of volume 120 litres and mass 60kg. It is held in position in sea water of
density 1.04g/cm³ by a light cable fixed to the bottom so that ¾ of the volume of the buoy is below the
surface of the sea water.

Fig. 12

Determine the tension T in the cable. (3 marks)

b) i. State any one application of hydrometers (1 mark)

ii. A solid displaces 8.5cm3 of a liquid when floating and 11.5cm3 when fully submerged in the liquid. The
density of the solid is 0.8g/cm3. Determine the upthrust on the solid when floating. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Page 10 of 11
© 2024 – HAWK II Joint Evaluation Test 232/1 Physics Turn Over
18. a) A modern car with a strengthened passenger cage has regions at the front and the back which can collapse
in a crash. See figure 13 below.

Fig. 13
Explain how the collapsible regions should reduce passenger injury in a car crash. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) An object of mass 150kg moving at 20m/s collides with a stationary object of mass 90 kg. They
couple after collision.
Determine the:
i. Total momentum before collision. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii. Total momentum after collision. (1 mark)

iii. Their common velocity after collision. (2 marks)

Page 11 of 11
© 2024 – HAWK II Joint Evaluation Test 232/1 Physics Turn Over
HAWK II JOINT EVALUATION 2024
The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 PRE-MOCK II EXAMINATION
(232/2) (PHYSICS) Paper 2
June, 2024 Time: 2 Hours
Name.......................................................................IndexNumber....................../.....

Adm. No………… Candidate’s Signature..................................Date.....................

Instructions to candidates

1. Fill in the spaces provided above with your name, admission number, index number,
streamand date.
2. Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
3. All working must be clearly shown
4. Electronic calculators and mathematical tables may be used.
5. This paper consists of 15 printed pages with 18 questions. Candidates should ensure that
allpages are printed and that no question is missing.
6. Constants are provided after the appropriate questions
For Official Use

Section Questions Maximum Candidates

Score Score
A 1 – 13 25
B 14 11
15 11
16 12
17 11
18 10
TOTAL 80

Page 1 of 15
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/2 PHYSICS
SECTION A (25 Marks)
1. The fig 1 below shows the observation on a graph paper when viewed through a lens

Determine the magnification of the lens. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………..……………………………………………

2. Below is a radioactive decay equation.

→ +

Name the particle represented by X. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. The table below is for electromagnetic radiations

RADIATION DETECTOR USE

Human skin Remote control devices

…………………..
Gamma rays GM Tube
………………………….

Complete the table by filling in the missing parts. (2 marks)

Page 2 of 15
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/2 PHYSICS
4. The fig 2 below shows a suspended magnet closer to a soft iron inside a solenoid circuit.

State the observation when the switch is on. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………….

5. The fig 3 below shows a ray incident to a plain mirror KL.

The mirror is rotated through 10o in the clockwise direction about O. Calculate the new angle of
reflection. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………….……………………………..…………………………………….
6. The figure 4 shows a display of an a.c signal on the CRO screen.

Page 3 of 15
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/2 PHYSICS
Given that the time-base setting is 50mS per cm, determine the frequency of the wave. (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. a) Explain how a transparent glass prism is able to disperse white light in to rainbow. (2 marks)

b) Use a diagram to show the path of a ray of light entering optical fibre. (1mark)

8. The figure 5 below show two capacitors, 2µF and C connected in a circuit.

If the effective capacitance is 1.6µF, find the value of C. (2 marks)

Page 4 of 15
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/2 PHYSICS
9. Figure 6 shows a longitudinal wave that takes 0.5s to move from point A to B and at a speed of 36
m/s.

Figure 6

Calculate the wavelength of the wave. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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10. The figure 7 below shows a flexible wire carrying current in a magnetic field.

Draw to show how the wire curves in the field. (1 mark)

11. The figure 8 below shows magnetization by single stroke method.

Name the end pole X. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
Page 5 of 15
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/2 PHYSICS
12. A concave mirror produces an image 4 bigger when the object is 12.0 cm away. Determine the focal
length of the mirror used. (3 marks)

13. State two disadvantages of using plane mirrors in a periscope. (2 marks)

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Page 6 of 15
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/2 PHYSICS
SECTION B (55 Marks)

14. a) Siting by the side of a pond, John uses a long stick to tap severally on water. The waves produced
can be classified into three categories. Name two. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) He observes the waves move towards the deep part of the pond. Assuming he was taping at
the same rate, describe how the following characteristics of the waves are affected;

Wavelength. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

Velocity. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

c) Fig. 9 below shows light rays from two coherent sources S1 and S2 falling on screen.
Bright and dark fringes are observed between P and Q.

I. What is a coherent source. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………

Page 7 of 15
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/2 PHYSICS
II. State how the following are produced;
Bright fringes. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………

Dark fringes. (1 mark)

c) The fig 10 below shows a ray of light passing into a glass prism ABC of refractive index
1.52.

Determine and mark on the figure the angle of reflection. (4 marks)

Page 8 of 15
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/2 PHYSICS
15. a) Four identical cells and three identical bulbs are arranged as in the fig. 11 below.

If all the bulbs are lit at once, state two observations recorded. (2 marks)

b) A nichrome of length L has a resistance of 10 ohms. State two ways of using the same wire
to produce a resistor of 5 ohms. (2 marks)

c) the fig 12 below shows a circuit of a battery, two resistors R and 2Ω, a switch and a
voltmeter.

The voltmeter reads 3.0V when the switch is open and 2.8V when the switch is closed. If a
current of 0.5A flows when the switch is closed, find;
I. The value of R. (2 marks)
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………………………………………………………………………………………….

Page 9 of 15
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/2 PHYSICS
II. The internal resistance of the battery. (2 marks)

b) The figure 13 below shows a magnet and a solenoid in relative motion.

i) If the current shown was induced current indicate on the diagram using an arrow the
direction of motion of the magnet. (1mark)

ii) State two ways of increasing the amount of induced current (2mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………

16. a) During an experiment to determine the velocity of sound in air, the graph of time with distance
below was plotted.

Page 10 of 15
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/2 PHYSICS
I. State two instruments used in the experiment. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

II. Describe how the experiment was carried out. (3 marks)

III. Use the graph to determine velocity of sound in air. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
b) the fig 14 below shows an X-Ray tube.

Page 11 of 15
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/2 PHYSICS
I. Name the materials used in parts labeled A and B (2 marks)

A:………………………………………………………………………………………
B:…………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………..….

II. State one special property of the oil used. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………

III. State and explain the effect of increasing the anode potential. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………

17. a) The fig 15 below is for room circuiting.

Page 12 of 15
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/2 PHYSICS
I. Name the colour code of Z

Z …………………………….. (1 mark)

II. State the value of S. (1 mark)

S………………………………….

III. A heater rated 1.25kW is used daily for 1 hour 20 minutes to heat water for a month.
If electricity costs Ksh. 12.50, per kilowatt, calculate the cost for running the heater
for a month. (3marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) (i) Define radioactivity (1mark)
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(ii) Figure 16 shows a radium source of radiations subjected to strong magnetic field.
Use
to answer questions that follow

Write the names of radiations P, Q and R (3mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 13 of 15
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/2 PHYSICS
(iii) Figure 17 shows the penetrating power of radioactive radition n various materials,
Use it to answer questions that follow

Which of the radiations indicate?

(i) Gamma radiation (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Alpha radiation (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
a) An object stands between the focal point and the pole of a concave mirror. State two
characteristics of the image formed. (2 marks)

b) It was observed that a student had to sit in the front row to see board writings comfortably.

I. Name the defect the student surfers. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………..

II. Name the lens used to correct the defect. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………….

Page 14 of 15
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/2 PHYSICS
c) I. A metal surface has a threshold wavelength of 5.7 × 10-7 m. taking C=3.0 x 108m/s,
Planck’s constant, h = 6.62 × 10-34 Js, determine.

i) Threshold frequency (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………….………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………..

ii) Its surface work function. (2 marks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………

II. The fig 18 below shows a solar cell circuit.

The switch is put on and then released. State and explain the observation on the ammeter.
(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

Page 15 of 15
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/2 PHYSICS
HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 2024
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (KCSE)
232/3
PHYSICS PAPER 3
CONFIDENTIAL
JUNE 2024

INSTRUCTION TO THE PHYSICS TEACHER:

The physics teacher should plan with school management to ensure availability of the following
apparatus for the learner to carry-out this practical examination.

Each candidate to be provided with the following apparatus:

QUESTION ONE:

 One dry cell (size ‘D’)

 A cell holder
 A volt-meter (0-3V)
 An ammeter (0-1A)
 A switch
 Amounted resistance ‘nichrome’ wire labelled AB (diameter of 0.28mm)
 8 Connecting wires (at least 4 with crocodile clips)

QUESTION TWO
 A candle
 A lens and a lens holder (focal length of lens should be 10 cm)
 A screen
 A metre-rule
 Some plasticine
 A soft-board,
 an equilateral glass prism,
 4 optical pins and 4 drawing pins,
 plain white paper

HAWK II EXAMINATINONS 2024 Page 1 of 1

HAWK II JOINT EVALUATION 2024
The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 PRE-MOCK II EXAMINATION
(232/3) (PHYSICS PRACTICAL) Paper 3
June, 2024 Time: 2½ Hours
Name.......................................................................IndexNumber....................../.....

Adm. No………… Candidate’s Signature..................................Date.....................

INSTRUCTIONS:
 Answer all the questions in this paper
 You are supposed to spend the first 15 minutes of the 2 hours allowed for this paper
reading the whole paper carefully before starting your work.
 Marks are given for clear record of the observations made, their suitability and accuracy
and the use made of them.
 Candidates are advised to record observations as soon as they are made
 Mathematical table and electronic calculators may be used.
 The earth’s gravitational pull, =

For Examiner’s use only:

QUESTION TOTAL MARKS CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1 20

2 20

GRAND 40
TOTAL

This paper consists of 6 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ensure
that all the pages are printed as indicated and no questions are missing.

Page 1 of 6
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/3 PHYSICS
QUESTION 1

You are provided with the following apparatus:

• One dry cell
• A cell holder
• A volt-meter (0-3V)
• An ammeter (0-1A)
• A switch
• Amounted resistance wire labeled AB

a) Set up the apparatus as shown in the circuit below, figure 1

Figure 1

b) While the switch is open, record the voltmeter reading, V0

= ……………. (1 mark)

c) Put on the switch. While the crocodile clip is at A (i.e. L = 100 cm) take the volt-meter
reading (V) and the ammeter reading (I). Record V and I in the table 1 below.

Table 1

Length, (cm) 100 80 60 40 20

Voltage (V)

Current, I (A)

Resistance, R (Ω)

(Ω-1)

(8 marks)
d) Repeat the procedure in (c) above for the lengths shown and complete the table 1 above.

Page 2 of 6
©2024-HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/3 PHYSICS
e) Plot a graph of current (Y-axis) against (X-axis) (5 marks)

f) Determine the slopes, S of the graph (3 marks)

g) The resistance and current are related by the equation: = . Determine the value of z
(2 marks)

h) State the physical quantity that the slope of the graph represent (1 mark)

Page 3 of 6
©2024-HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/3 PHYSICS
QUESTION TWO

PART A
You are provided with the following:
- A candle
- A lens and a lens holder
- A screen
- A metre-rule
- Some plasticine (use it to fix the metre-rule firmly on the bench)

a) Set up the apparatus as shown in figure 2 below (ensure that the candle flame and the lens
are approximately the same height above the bench)

Figure 2
b) Set the position of the lens so that it is 40cm from the candle (U = 40 cm). Adjust the
position of the screen until a sharp image of the candle flame is obtained. Measure the
distance, V between the lens and the screen. Record the value of V

V = ……… cm (1mark)

c) Repeat the procedures in b) above for other values of U in the table b below. (6 marks)

Table 2

U(cm) 45 50 55 60

V(cm)

Magnification (m) =

P=
( )

d) Determine, z the average values of (2 marks)

(! )

Page 4 of 6
©2024-HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/3 PHYSICS
Part B

You are provided with the following apparatus:

 A soft-board,

 an equilateral glass prism,

 4 optical pins and 4 drawing pins,

 plain white paper

Proceed as follows:
e) On a plain white paper draw a line XY and mark its midpoint Q. At Q draw a normal
NQM at right angles to XY. Draw a line PQ such that the angle of incidence, i, (PQN) is
250 (figure below). Fix the paper on the soft-board with the drawing pins.

f) Place the triangular prism vertically with the triangular base down, on the paper such that
the midpoint of the edge CA of the prism coincides with the midpoint, Q, of the line XY,
as shown. Draw the outline CAB of the prism.

(The plain paper to be collected with the answer sheet) (3 marks)

g) Stick two pins, O1 and O2 (object pins), on the line PQ vertically into the soft-board,
about 5cm apart. View from the side AB of the prism and look for the images of the pins
O1 and O2, as shown in the figure. Keeping the eye along the plane of the paper, fix two
pins S1 and S2 (search pins), one after the other between your eye and the prism so that S1
and S2 and the images of O1 and O2, seen through the prism, appear one behind the other
in a straight line. Mark the positions of the four pins and remove the pins, the prism and
the paper.
h) Draw a line joining the points S1 and S2 to meet the line AB at R. Draw the line QR.
Measure the angle of refraction, r (MQR). Record the values of the angles i and r in the
table below.

Page 5 of 6
©2024-HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/3 PHYSICS
i) Repeat the experiment for the other values of # and entre your results in the table 2 below.
Complete the table. (6 marks)

i ( 0) r ( 0) Sin i Sin r $%& '

$%& (

)*+
j) Determine, k the average value of: (2 marks)
)*+

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

Page 6 of 6
©2024-HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 232/3 PHYSICS
NAME…………………………………………………CLASS………

INDEX NO………………………......SCHOOL………………………

SIGN…………………………………………..DATE………………….
FORM FOUR CHEMISTRY
HAWK JOINT EXAM
CHEMISTRY PAPER 1
(THEORY)
233/1
JUNE/JULY, 2021
TIME: 2HRS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
d) Non –programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may
be used.
e) All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
f) This paper consists of 12 pages
g) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing
h) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINERS’ USE ONLY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 GRAND
TOTAL

1|Page
1. The element X has an electronic configuration 2.8.2:
(i) Give the valency of the element. (1mark)

......................................................................................................................................................

2. The diagram below shows an incomplete set up used in preparation and collection
dry sulphur (VI) oxide gas. Use it to answer the questions that follow.

(a).Complete the set up by showing the collection of the gas. (2 marks)

2|Page
(b) Name;
i) Liquid L (1mark)
......................................................................................................................................................
ii) Solid X (1mark)
......................................................................................................................................................

3. The flow chart below shows stages involved in obtaining nitrogen gas from air

AIR

Filter and purifiers

Sodium hydroxide solution

Cooling to -250C

Cooling to -2000C

Fractional distillation

Oxygen Argon

State the use of the,

a)Filters (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Sodium hydroxide solution (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Cooling to -200oC. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Name the following compounds using the IUPAC system. (3 marks)

(i) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 C = CH

Br CH3

..........................................................................................................................................................
3|Page
(ii) CH3CH2OH

.........................................................................................................................................................

CH3

(iii) CH3CHCHCHCH3
Cl Cl

..........................................................................................................................................................

5. Below is a structure of an element X. Use it to answer the questions that follow.

+ + +

(a) Name the chemical family to which element X belongs. Give a reason. (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………......................

(b) (i) Define covalent bond. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Using dots ( ) of cross ( x ) diagram, show bonding in Carbon (II) Oxide. (1 mark)

6. A colourless liquid was suspected to be water. State two ways to confirm.

(i) Purity of the water. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) That the liquid was water. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………….……
………………………………………………………………………………………………

4|Page
7. (i) Name the process used for large scale production of Sodium Carbonate using brine as
raw material. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Write the overall chemical equation for the reaction in the carbonator. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Name two gases recycled in the above process (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. 20cm3 of a dibasic acid (H2A) required 25cm3 of 0.1M Sodium hydroxide for complete
neutralization.
a) How many moles of sodium hydroxide are contained in 25cm3? (1mark)

b) Calculate the molarity of the acid. (2marks)

9. (a) What is meant by dynamic equilibrium? (1mark)

A cell was set up as shown below.

Mg(s) / Mg2+(aq) // Ca2+(aq) / Ca(s);

(i) Calculate the e.m.f of the cell. (2 marks)

5|Page
(ii) What conclusion can you draw from the e.m.f value in (i) above? (1 mark)
.....................................................................................................................................................
11. (a) State Charles law. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) A gas occupies 450cm3 at 270C. What volume would the gas occupy at 1770C if its
pressure remains constant? (2 marks)

12. Describe how you would prepare crystals of potassium sulphate starting with 100cm3 of
0.5M potassium hydroxide. (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. The diagram below shows how chlorine reacts with metals in the laboratory. Study it and
answer the questions that follow

Fe R
P
Dry
Cl2 gas Q
Heat

Dilute NaOH(aq)

(a) Name substance Q. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6|Page
(b) Give a reason why substance Q is not collected in the combustion tube P. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c)Write chemical equation for the reaction that occurs in the conical flask containing Sodium
hydroxide. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. Use the information below to answer the questions that follow:

Equation Enthalpy of formation

(i) H2(g) + ½ O2(g) H2O(l) ∆H1= -286kJmol-1

(ii) C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g) ∆H2= -394kJmol-1

(iii) 2C(s) + 3H2(g) + ½ O2(g) C2H5OH(l) ∆H3= -277kJmol-

Given that;

C2H5OH (l) + 3O2 (g) 2CO2 (g) + 3H2O (l)

Use an energy cycle diagram to calculate the enthalpy of combustion of ethanol. (3marks)

15. The pH values of some solutions labeled E to I are given in the table below. Use the
information to answer the questions that follow.
PH 14.0 1.0 9.0 6.5 5.0
Solution E F G H I
(a) Identify the solution with the highest concentration of hydroxide ions. Explain (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Which solution can be used as a remedy for acid indigestion in the stomach? Explain (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

7|Page
16. a) Distinguish between ionization energy and electron affinity (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
b) The table below shows first ionization energies of metals represented by letters A, B, C
and D. The metals are in the same group of the periodic table.

Metal A B C D

1st ionization energy (kJ/mole 402 496 520 419

Which of the metals has the smallest atomic radius? Explain. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
17. When 1.305 of a compound that contains the elements C,H and O only was burnt in air,
2.494g of carbon(VI) oxide and 1.529g of water were produced. Determine the empirical
formula of thecompound. (3 marks)

18. (a) Water sample is found to contain Mg2+,Cl-, SO42- , and Ca2+. Identify the type of water
hardness (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Which type of detergent is more suitable with the water sample above? Give a reason.
(2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

8|Page
19. Aluminium is extracted from its ore by electrolysis. Use the diagram below to answer
questions that follow.

a) Give the chief ore of aluminium. (1mark)

..........................................................................................................................................

b) Aluminium oxide has a melting point of 20150 C but the electrolysis of its molten

form occurs at a temperature of 8000 C. Explain. (1mark)

..........................................................................................................................................
c) Explain why electrode E has to be replaced periodically. (1mark)
.............................................................................................................................................
20. (a) Define the term solubility. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) The following were the results obtained in an experiment to determine solubility of

potassium nitrate at room temperature.
Mass of evaporating dish = 14.32 g
Mass of evaporating dish + saturated solution = 35.70 g
Mass of evaporating dish + salt (residue) = 18.60 g
Calculate the solubility of potassium nitrate from the above results. (2 marks)

9|Page
21. Study the set-up below and answer the questions that follow;

Heat

a) State and explain the observations made at the electrodes when the circuit is completed.
(2 marks)
Anode
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Cathode
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) What precaution should be taken when performing this experiment? Give a reason (l mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
22. The curve below represent the changes in the concentrations of substance E and F with time
in the reaction. E (g) F(g)
Concentration
mole / dm3

Curve I

Curve II

t Time (sec)
a) Which curve represents the changes in the concentration of substance F? Give a reason.

(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10 | P a g e
b) Give a reason for the shapes of the curves after time (t) seconds. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
23. (a)Complete the nuclear equation below (1mark)

ℎ +
(b) Copper -64 has half-life of 12.8 days. What mass of copper -64 will remain after 51.2 days
starting with 20g of the isotope (2 marks)

24. i) A solution of aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to a gas jar of nitrogen (IV) oxide and
shaken. State and explain the observation made (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction above (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
25. Bond energies for some bonds are tabulated below: -

BOND BOND ENERGY KJ/mol

H–H 436

C=C 610

C- H 410

C–C 345

Use the bond energies to estimate the enthalpy for the reaction. (3marks)

C2H4(g) + H2(g) C2H6(g)

11 | P a g e
26. When a current of 2.5 amperes was passed through a cell containing X2+ ions of a metal for
25minutes, the mass of the solid deposited at the cathode weighed 0.36g. ( 1 Faraday = 96500
coulombs)
Determine the relative atomic mass of element N. (3marks)

27. The chromatogram below shows the constituents of ink sample M using methylated spirit as
solvent.

(a) Describe how you would obtain a solid sample of the yellow pigment from the
chromatogram above. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

12 | P a g e
NAME ……………………………..………...………………..….. INDEX NO………….….…

CLASS ……………ADM…………….…SCHOOL……………………………………………

CANDIDATE’S SIGNATURE ……..………….………….DATE……………………………

233/2
CHEMISTRY
PAPER 2
(THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

a) Write your name and the Index Number in the spaces provided above.
b) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided after each question.
c) Use of Mathematical sets and electronic calculators may be used.
d) All working should be clearly shown.

FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY

QUESTIONS EXPECTED SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

1 11
2 12
3 11
4 13
5 12
6 09
7 12
TOTAL 80
1. The grid below is part of the periodic table. Use it to answer the questions that follow.
(The letters are not the actual symbol of the elements)

a) Which is the most reactive metallic element shown in the table? Explain. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) i) Write the formula of the compound formed when element Q reacts with element V.
(1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Name the type of bond in the compound formed between element T and W. (1mark)

…………………………….………………………………………………………………
c) i) What is the name given to the group of elements where P, Q and R belong?(1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Write an ionic equation for the reaction that occurs when element R in solid form react
with an aqueous solution containing ions of element P. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………..…………………………
d) J is an element that belongs to the 4th period of the periodic table and is a member of the
halogen family of elements. Show the position of J in the grid. (1 mark)

e) M forms two oxides. Write the formula of each of the two oxides. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………....
f) Give one use of element Y. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
g) i) Write the symbol of the most stable ion of element V. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Using dots(●) and crosses(×) to represent electrons show the bonding in the compound
formed between M and W. (1 mark)
2. In order to determine the molar heat of neutralization of sodium hydroxide, 100cm3 of 1M
sodium hydroxide and 100cm3 of 1 M hydrochloric acid both at the same initial temperature
were mixed and stirred continuously with a thermometer. The temperature of the resulting
solution was recorded after every 30 seconds until the highest temperature of the solution was
attained. Thereafter the temperature of the solution was recorded for a further two minutes.

(a) (i) Why was it necessary to stir the mixture of the two minutes? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)Write an ionic equation for the reaction which took place. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) The sketch below was obtained when the temperatures of the mixture
were plotted against time. Study and answer the questions that follow.

I. What is the significance of point Y2? (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………
II. Explain why there is a temperature change between points (2 marks)
Y1 and Y2
………………………………………………………………………………
Y2 and Y3
………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) If the initial temperature for both solutions was 24.50C and the highest
temperature attained by the mixture was 30.90C
Calculate the:
I. heat change for the reaction (2marks)
(specific heat capacity of the solution = 4.2Jg -1K-1 and the density of the
solution = 1.0g/cm3)
II. Molar heat of neutralization of sodium hydroxide. (2 marks)

(v) Explain how the value of the molar heat of neutralization obtained in this experiment
would compare with the one that would be obtained if the experiment was repeated using
100cm3 of 1M methanoic acid instead of hydrochloric acid. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) On the grid provided below, draw an energy level diagram for the reaction
between hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide. (1 mark)

Energy
kJmol-1

Reaction path
3. The diagram below illustrates the contact process for the manufacture of sulphuric (VI)
acid. Study it and answer the questions that follow.
Air CLEAN
SO2,
Air SO2, Air
Burner Purifier
Solid A Drier

Conc. Sulphuric acid Dry

SO2, Air
SO3
Cooler Heat exchanger
Absorption tower
SO3
SO2
Oleum Air

Concentrated Catalytic
Diluter
sulphuric (VI)
converter
acid
(a) Name two possible identities of solid A. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) (i) Name two impurities removed by the purifier. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)Why is it necessary to remove the impurities? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c). Write down the equation for the reaction that takes place in the converter. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
d) (i) Name the two catalysts that can be used in the converter. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………...
…………………………………………………………………………………………...........
(ii) Which of the two catalysts is most commonly used and why? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………...
(e) Why is sulphur (VI) oxide not absorbed directly into water? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(f) Give the equation for the reaction that takes place in the absorption tower. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(g) State two ways of controlling polluton in the contact process. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
4. a) The set up below was used during the electrolysis of 6M hydrochloric acid using inert
electrodes.

Electrode A
Electrode B
6M hydrochloric acid
(i) Identify the anions and cations present in the solution.
Anions:………………………………………………………………………….(1 mark)
Cations:…………………………………………………………………………(1 mark)
(ii) When the electrolysis is done over a period of time, a mixture of gases is obtained at
electrode B. Identifying the gases, and explain this observation. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) During the electrolysis, a current of 2 amperes was passed through the solution for 3
hours, 20 minutes. Calculate the volume of the gas produced at electrode A (1 Faraday =
96500 Coulombs and molar gas volume at room temperature is 24000 cm3) (3 marks)

b) State any two applications of electrolysis (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
c) Use the information below on standard electrode potentials to answer the questions
that follow:

E volts
Cu2+(aq) + 2e- Cu(s) + 0.34
Fe2+(aq) + 2e- Fe(s) - 0.44
Na+(aq) + e- Na(s) - 2.92
Mg2+(aq) + 2e- Mg(s) - 2.71
Pb2+(aq) + 2e- Pb(s) - 0.14
½ F2(g) + e- F-(aq) + 2.87
½ Br2(g) + e- Br-(aq) + 1.09
H+(aq) + e- ½ H2(g) 0.00
i) From the list select:
I. The strongest reducing agent. Give a reason (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
II. The strongest oxidizing agent. Give a reason (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Calculate the e.m.f. of the cell constructed in (i) above (1 mark)

5. In a reaction to determine the rate of a reaction between magnesium ribbon and dilute
hydrochloric acid 2g of magnesium ribbon were reacted with excess 2M hydrochloric
acid. The volume of hydrogen gas evolved was recorded at regular intervals of one
minute for eight minutes. The results are as shown in the table below.

Time (minutes) 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0 6.0 7.0 8.0
Volume of Hydrogen gas (cm3) 95 160 210 237.5 260 272.5 275 275
(i) Plot the graph of time in minutes on the horizontal axis against volume of hydrogen
gas on the vertical axis. (3 marks)

(ii) Name the factor that was investigated in this experiment. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Use the graph to determine the volume of hydrogen gas that was produced between
2¾ minute and 5.0 minutes. (2 marks)

(iv) Explain the shape of the graph between minutes 7.0 and 8.0. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Hydrogen gas reacts with chlorine gas to form hydrogen chloride gas as shown in the
equation below.
H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) 2HCl (g)
(i) Explain the effect on the yield of HCl(g) by lowering the pressure for this reaction.
(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Using a well labeled diagram, describe how a solution of hydrogen chloride can be
prepared in the laboratory. (2 marks)

6. (a) Describe how a pure dry sample of calcium sulphate crystals can be prepared in the
laboratory using the following reagents; (3 marks)
Calcium carbonate
Sodium sulphate solid
Dilute nitric (V) acid
Distilled water

Mixture Z

Step I Add distilled water

Filter

Solid P Solution V
Step II Heat
Step VI Add BaCl2(aq)
Yellow solid Y which on cooling
and filter
turns white and gas which forms
white precipitate with lime White solid R Solution S
water.
Step III Dil. Nitric acid
Heat
White solid, brown gas
Colourless solution Q and gas which relights
glowing splint.
Step V Step IV

Excess Excess
ammonia NaOH
solution solution

……………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) Write an ionic equation for the reaction in step VI. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………
(e) State and explain the observation in Step (V) and (IV). (2 marks)

Step (V)……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
Step (VI)…………………………………………………………………………………...
………………………………………………………………………………………
(f) Write an equation showing the effect of heating a sample of anhydrous copper (II)
suphate in a test tube. (1 mark)

.................................................................................................................................

7. (a) Name the following organic compounds.

i) CH3COOCH2CH3 (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) CH3CH2CHCCHCH2CH3 (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Study the flow diagram below and use it to answer the questions that follow.
(i) Name the compounds;
U…………………………………………………………………………..(1 mark)
Gas X……………………………………………………………………….(1 mark)
Intermediate Y……………………………………………………………..(1 mark)
(ii) Name the process which leads to the formation of substance Z from the intermediate
Y.
…………………………………………………………………………………(1 mark)

(iii) Identify the reagent and the condition for step 1

Reagent…………………………………………………………………………………….(1 mark)
Condition…………………………………………………................................................(1 mark)
iv) State one disadvantage for the continued use of items made from compound formed in step 3.
…………………………………………………………………………………......(1 mark)
v) Write a balanced equation for the reaction taking place in step 2. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Below are structures of two cleaning agents
R – COO-Na+ …………A

i)Identify the cleaning agent suitable to be used in water containing calcium chloride. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) State one advantage of using cleaning agent A. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
THE HAWK II EVALUATION TEST
233/3 CHEMISTRY PRACTICAL
JUNE 2024
CONFIDENTIAL
INSTRUCTIONS TO SCHOOLS
The information contained in this paper is meant for the head of school and chemistry teacher.
This is to enable the school to prepare adequately for the chemistry practical.
Each candidate should have following addition to the common apparatus found in the laboratory

Each student requires;

 50 ml burette
 25 ml pipette
 A thermometer (-10 – 1100C)
 2 conical flask
 2 boiling tubes
 Test tube holder
 250ml volumetric flask
 Litmus papers
 Wooden splint
 Spatula
 Filter funnel
 Filter paper
 150cm3 of solution B, 0.06M acidified KMnO4
 4.5g of solid A
 2g of solid D
 10ml liquid P in a boiling tube
 White Tile
 250 ml volumetric flask
 Spatula
 6 test tubes in a test tube rack
 About 500ml of distilled water in a wash bottle
 10ml measuring cylinder.
 One filter paper
 One small label.
 Filter funnel
 Watch glass

Access to:
 2M sodium hydroxide
 2M aqueous ammonia
 0.5M lead (II) nitrate solution
 2M nitric (V) acid.
 2M hydrochloric acid
 Source of heat
 Tripod stand and wire gauze
 Acidified potassium dichromate (VI)
 Acidified potassium manganite (VII)

NOTES
 Solid A is oxalic acid
 Solid D is a mixture of ZnCO3 and ZnCl2, ratio 1:1
 Liquid P is absolute ethanol.
 Solution B, 0.06M acidified potassium manganite (VII) is prepared by dissolvind 9.48g
of KMnO4 crystals in 400cm3 of 2M H2SO4 and dilute with distilled water to 1 litre.
 Acidified potassium dichromate (VI) is prepared by dissolving 5g of solid K2Cr2O7 in
500cm3 of 1M H2SO4 and make up to 1 litre.
NAME …………………………………………………… ADM. NO …………………………….
SCHOOL …………………………………………………. SIGNATURE ………………………….
INDEX NO……………………………………… DATE ……………………………………………..
233/3CHEMISTRY
PRACTICALS
PAPER 3
TIME: 2¼ HOURS
JUNE/JULY, 2024
HAWK-2 FORM FOUR JOINT EXAMINATION, 2024
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided.
(c) This paper consists of 8 printed pages. Candidates should check carefully to ascertain that
all the pages are printed as indicated and no questions are missing.
(d) You are NOT allowed to start working with the apparatus for the first 15minutes of the 2
hours allowed for this paper. This time will enable you read through the question paper and
make sure you have all the chemicals and apparatus required.
(e) Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.
(f) All working must be clearly shown where necessary.

FOR EXAMINERS’ USE ONLY:

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

1 20

2 12

3 08

TOTAL SCORES 40

1|Page
1. You are provided with;
- 4.5g of solid A in a boiling tube.
- Solution B, 0.06M acidified potassium manganate (VII)
You are required to determine: -
- The solubility of solid A at different temperatures.
- The number of moles of water of crystallization in solid A
Procedure
a) Using a burette, add 4cm3 of distilled water to solid A in the boiling tube. Heat the mixture while
stirring with the thermometer to about 70ºC. When all the solid has dissolved allow the solution to cool
while stirring with the thermometer. Note the temperature at which crystals of solid A first appear.
Record this temperature in table 1.
b) Using the burette, add 2.0cm3 of distilled water to the contents of the boiling tube. Warm the mixture
while stirring with the thermometer until all the solid dissolves. Allow the mixture to cool while stirring.
Note and record the temperature at which crystals of solid A first appear.
c) Repeat the procedure (b) two more times and record the temperature in the table 1. Retain the contents
of the boiling tube for use in procedure (e)
d) i) Complete table 1 by calculating the solubility of solid A at different temperatures. The solubility of a
substance is the mass of that substance that dissolves in 100cm3(100g) or water at a particular
temperature.
Table 1 (6mks)
Volume of water in the Temperature at which crystals Solubility of solid A
boiling tube (cm3) of solid A first appear. (g/100g H2O)

2|Page
ii) On the grid provided plot a graph of solubility of solid A against temperature (3 marks)

3|Page
iii) Using your graph;
I) Determine the temperature at which 100g of solid A would dissolve in 100cm3 of water. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II) Calculate the mass of solid A that will crystallize out when a hot solution at 60ºC is cooled to 40ºC
(1 mark)

e) i) Transfer the contents of the boiling tube into 250ml volumetric flask, rinse both the boiling tube and
the thermometer with distilled water and add to the volumetric flask. Add more distilled water to
make up to the mark. Label this solution A. Fill the burette with solution B. Using a pipette place
25cm3 of solution A into a conical flask. Warm the mixture to about 60ºC. Titrate the hot solution A
with solution B until a permanent pink colour persists. Record your reading in table 2. Repeat the
titration two more times and complete table 2.
Table 2 (3 marks)

I II III

Final burette reading

Initial burette reading

Volume of solution B used cm3

Calculate,
i) Average volume of solution B used (1 mark)

ii) Number of moles of potassium manganate (VII) used. (1 mark)

4|Page
iii) Number of moles of A in 25cm3 of solution A given that 2 moles of potassium manganate (VII)
react completely with 5 moles of A (1 mark)

iv) Relative formula mass of A (1 marks)

v) The formula of A has the form D. xH2O. Determine the value of X in the formula given that the
relative formula mass of D is 90 and atomic mass of oxygen and hydrogen are 16.0g and 1.0g
respectively. (2 marks)

2. (a) You are provided with solid D. Carry out the tests below and record your observations and
inferences in the space below. Test for any gas produced using blue and red litmus paper.

(i) Place half spatula endful of solid B in a test tube and heat gently then strongly.

Observation Inferences

(1 ½ mark) (1 ½ mark)

(ii) Place a spatula endful of solid D into a boiling tube, and add about 10cm³ of distilled water.
Shake well and filter the mixture, retain the residue. Divide the filtrate into three portions.

Observation Inferences

5|Page
(1 mark) (1 mark)

iii) To the 1st portion, add NaOH(aq) dropwise until in excess.

Observation Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

(iv) To the second portion add aqueous ammonia dropwise until in excess.

Observation Inferences

(1 mark) (1/2 mark)

(v) To the 3rd portion add 3 drops of HNO3(aq) followed by 2-3, drops of lead (II) nitrate and
warm gently.

Observation Inferences

(1/2 mark) (1/2 mark)

(vi) Place the residue obtained in (ii) above into a boiling tube and add about 5cm³ of dilute
hydrochloric acid and retain the resulting mixture.

Observation Inferences

(1 mark) (1/2 mark)

6|Page
(vi) To the resulting mixture in (vi) above, add aqueous ammonia dropwise until in excess.

Observation Inferences

(1 mark) (1/2 mark)

3. You are provided with liquid P. Carry out the tests below and record your observations and
inferences in the spaces provided.

a) Place three drops of liquid P on a watch glass and ignite using a burning wooden splint.

Observation Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

b) To about 2cm3 of liquid P in a test tube, add 2cm3 of distilled water and shake.

Observation Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

c) To about 2 cm3of liquid P, add 2 drops of acidified potassium manganate (VII) solution.

Observation Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

7|Page
d) To about 2 cm3of liquid P, add 2 drops of acidified potassium dichromate (VI) solution.

Observation Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

8|Page
THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

9|Page
HAWK II JOINT EVALUATION 2024
The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

2024 PRE-MOCK II EXAMINATION

(311/1) (HISTORY & GOVERNMENT) Paper 1
June, 2024 Time: 2 Hours

Name................................................................................IndexNumber....................../.....

School…………………………………..……..Class: ……............... Date.......................

Candidate’s Signature............................................

Instructions to Candidates.
 This paper consists of THREE sections A, B and C.
 Answer ALL the questions in the separate answer sheet provided.
 Answer ALL questions in section A, Three in Section B and Two in section C.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION A B C

QUESTION 1 - 17

SCORE

TOTAL

Page 1 of 3
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 311/1 HISTORY & GOVERNMENT
SECTION A (25 MARKS)
1. Identify two aspect of life which are studied in social history. (2mark)
2. Give the main reason why the Mijikenda migrated from shungwaya in the pro-colonial period.
(1mark)
3. Identify two age-grades of elders among the Akamba during pre-colonial period. (2mark)
4. Outline one reason for the coming of Arabs. (1mark)
5. Identify one contribution of DR Ludwig krapht in the spread of Christianity in Kenya. (1mark)
6. Give the main reason why Kenyan citizens should obey law.
(1mark)
7. State two national days celebrated in Kenya. (2mark)
8. Name the last stage in the constitution making process in Kenya. (1mark)
9. Give two categories of child’s right in Kenya. (2mark)
10. Mention one way through which African communities in Kenya responded to British
colonization (1mark)
11. Give two reasons why British Preferred Indian coolies during the construction of Uganda
railway (2mark)
12. Give one main reason why Ronald Ngala advocated for majimbo system of government. (1mark)
13. Identify the highest court in Kenya. (1mark)
14. Give two members of the cabinet in Kenya. (2mark)
15. Give one pillar of nyayoism in Kenya. (1mark)
16. Identify two committee of parliament that monitor expenditure of public funds in Kenya.
(2mark)
17. Highlight two categories of the members of the county assembly in Kenya. (2mark)

SECTION B (45 MARKS)

(Answer any three questions)
18.) a) State five reason for the Luo migration into Kenya during the pre-colonial period. (5marks)
b) Explain five results of the Nandi migrations and settlement into Kenya during pre-colonial
period. (10marks)
19.) a) State five reasons for the coming of the Portuguese to Kenyan coast. (5marks)

b) Explain five challenges faced by early Christian missionaries in their work in Kenya.
(10marks)

Page 2 of 3
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 311/1 HISTORY & GOVERNMENT
20.) a) State five reasons which led urbanization during colonial period in Kenya. (5marks)
b) Discuss five challenges faced by settler farmers in Kenya. (10 marks)
21.) a) Outline five objective of African socialism as a national philosophy in Kenya. (5marks)
b) Explain five contributed of Harambee in nation development since independence. (10marks)

SECTION C (30MARKS)
(Answer any two questions)

22. a) Mention three peaceful method of conflict resolution. (3marks)

b) Explain six feature of the independence constitution. (12marks)
23. a) Give three national security organs in Kenya. (3marks)

b) Explain six function of the national assembly in Kenya. (12marks)

24. a). Give five sources of revenue for the county government in Kenya. (3marks)

b). Explain five function of county government. (12marks)

Page 3 of 3
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 311/1 HISTORY & GOVERNMENT
HAWK II JOINT EVALUATION 2024
The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

2024 PRE-MOCK II EXAMINATION

(311/2) (HISTORY & GOVERNMENT) Paper 2
June, 2024 Time: 2 Hours

Name................................................................................IndexNumber....................../.....

School…………………………………..……..Class: ……............... Date.......................

Candidate’s Signature............................................

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section A B C

Question 1 - 17

Score

TOTAL

Page 1 of 3
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 311/2 HISTORY & GOVERNMENT
SECTION A (25 MARKS)
1. Identify two forms of government. (2marks)
2. Identify one source of the creation theory. (1marks)
3. Mention two rivers which provided water used for irrigation by the early Sumerian
famers. (2marks)
4. State one method of trade. (1mark)
5. Identify two vehicles without wheels used in ancient times. (2marks)
6. Name the first European nation to be industrialized. (1mark)
7. Give two functions of ancient town of kilwa. (2mark)
8. Identify the capital of the Asante Empire. (1mark)
9. Who convene the berlin conference in (1884-1885)?. (1mark)
10. Name two communes in Senegal where assimilation policy was applied. (2marks)
11. State two methods used by the nationalist in Ghana during the struggle for independence.
(2mark)
12. Identify the immediate cause of world war 1. (1mark)
13. Give the main reason why the league of nation was formed in 1919. (1mark)
14. Identify two weapons which were used during cold war. (2marks)
15. Identify the legislative organ of the east Africa community. (1mark)
16. Highlight two education reforms introduced in Tanzania by President Julius Nyerere. (2marks)
17. Identify one level of government in United States of America (U.S.A). (1mark)

SECTION B (45MKS)
ANSWER ANY THREE QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION
18.(a) state three uses of stone tools by early humans. (3marks)
(b) Describe six aspect of the culture of the early humans during the Old Stone Age period.
(12mks)
19.(a) state three factors that undermined the trans-Saharan trade. (3marks)
(b) Explain six economic results of the trans-Saharan trade. (12marks)
20.(a) Give five reason why the British used indirect rule in northern Nigeria. (5marks)

Page 2 of 3
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 311/2 HISTORY & GOVERNMENT
(b) Explain five differences between the British indirect rule and the French policy of
assimilation. (10marks)
21.(a) State five reason why lewanika collaborated with the British. (5marks)
(b) Explain five results of chimurunga war. (10marks)

SECTION C (30MKS)
ANSWER ANY TWO QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION.
22. (a) State three reason why United State of America did not want to join the first world war until
1917. (3marks)
(b) Explain six effects of cold war. (12marks)
23(a) Name three organs of commonwealth. (3marks)
(b) Explain six economic challenges faced by democratic republic of Congo. (12marks)
24(a) Identify three political parties in India. (3marks)
(b) Explain six functions of the president of the United States of America. (12marks)

Page 3 of 3
©2024 HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 311/2 HISTORY & GOVERNMENT
NAME……………………….…………………………CLASS……….ADM:.............................

DATE…………………………………………………. SIGNATURE………………………......

312/1
GEOGRAPHY Paper 1
JUNE 2024
Time: 2¾ hours

312/1 - GEOGRAPHY – PAPER 1

HAWK two JOINT EVALUATION – 2024

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 This paper has two sections: A and B
 Answer ALL the questions in section A.
 In section B, answer questions 6 and any other TWO questions.
 All the answers must be written on the foolscaps provided after page 4.
 Candidates must answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section Questions Maximum Candidate’s

Score Score
A 1-5 25
6 25
B
25
25
Total Score

Page | 1
SECTION A (25 marks)

1. a) Name one major latitude on the earth. (1mark)

b) The figures below show two effects of revolution of the earth and the moon. Use them to
answer the questions that follow.

i) Name the effects labeled C and D. (2marks)

ii) Describe the occurrence of effect labeled C. (2marks)
2. i) Define the term folding. (2marks)
ii) Name three types of folds. (3marks)
3. i) . Give two factors that influence relative humidity. (2marks)
ii) Outline the steps followed when measuring humidity using a hygrometer. (3marks)

4. i) State three ways in which rocks can be classified. (3marks)

ii) Give two types of mechanically formed sedimentary rocks. (2marks)

5. i) The diagram below represents zones of natural vegetation on a mountain. Use it answer the
question below.

Name the zones marked X,Y AND Z. (2marks)

ii) State two reasons why some mountain tops have no vegetation. (2marks)

Page | 2
SECTION B (75 marks)

6. a) i) What type of map is Mumias map? (1mark)

ii) Give the six figure grid reference of other Trigonometrical station in the northern part of the
area covered by the map. (2 marks)

b) i) Name two districts which River Nzoia passes through. (2 marks)

ii) Calculate the area of Nyanza province in the area covered by the map in km2 (2 marks)

c) Citing evidence, identify two social activities carried out in the area covered by the map.

(4marks)

d) Draw a square measuring 12cm by 12cm to represent the area enclosed by Eastings 55 and 58
and Northings 30 and 33. (1mark)

i) On it, mark and name;

i. Riverine trees (1mark)

ii. R. Nzoia (1mark)
iii. Regional boundary (1mark)

ii) Calculate the new scale. (1mark)

e) i) Describe the distribution of natural vegetation in the area covered by the map.

(5marks)

ii) Explain how relief has influenced the distribution of settlements in the area covered by the
map. (4 marks)

Page | 3
7. The diagram below shows intrusive volcanic features.

i) Identify the features marked Q, R and S. (3marks)

ii) Describe how a sill is formed. (4marks)

b) Explain four ways in which volcanic mountains positively influence human activities

(8marks)

c) Form four Geography students of Usenge High School carried out a field study on volcanic
rocks in the Rift Valley.

i) Name three extrusive volcanic features the students identified other than a volcanic mountain.
(3marks)

ii) State three reasons why the class carried out reconnaissance. (3marks)

iii) Give two reasons why it was necessary to collect rock samples during such a study. (2marks)

iv) Identify two problems the students faced during the study. (2marks)

8. a) i) Differentiate between a watershed and a confluence. (2marks)

ii) Describe two processes though which a river erodes its channel. (4marks)

Page | 4
b) The diagram below shows a water fall. Use it to answer question b (i)

i. Name the parts marked Q, R and S. (3marks)

ii. Explain two causes of river rejuvenation. (4marks)

iii. Name two features resulting from river rejuvenation. (2marks)

c) Using well –labeled diagrams, describe how an ox-bow lake is formed. (6marks)

d) Your Geography class intends to carry out a field study on an ox-bow lake a long river Tana.

i). Give two reasons for dividing the class into groups. (2marks)

ii). Give two reasons for preparing a work schedule. (2marks)

9. a) i) What is a karst scenery? (2 marks)

ii) State five characteristics of karst landscapes. (5 marks)

b) Give four sources of ground water. (4 marks)

c) Explain how the following factors influence the occurrence of ground water:

i. Nature of rocks. (2 marks)

ii. Slope of land. (2 marks)
iii. Vegetation cover. (2 marks)

Page | 5
d) Explain four conditions that favour the development of an artesian well. (8 marks)

10. a) i) Distinguish between oceans and seas. (2marks)

ii) State three characteristics of ocean water. (3marks)

b) Explain how the following factors cause vertical movement of ocean water.

 Salinity (2marks)
 Convergence of ocean currents. (2marks)

c) The diagram below shows a breaking sea wave.

i) Name the parts labeled H and K. (2marks)

ii) Describe how ocean waves occur. (4marks)

d) i) Give two conditions necessary for the formation of a beach. (2marks)

ii) With the aid of well labeled diagrams, describe the process through which a stack is formed.
(8marks)

Page | 6
NAME……………………….………………………CLASS…………….…..ADM:.................

DATE…………………………….SIGNATURE…………………...

312/2
GEOGRAPHY Paper 2
JUNE 2024
Time: 2¾ hours

312/2 - GEOGRAPHY – PAPER 2

HAWK TWO JOINT EVALUATION – 2024
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 This paper has two sections: A and B
 Answer ALL the questions in section A.
 In section B, answer questions 6 and any other TWO questions.
 All the answers must be written on the foolscaps provided after page 4.
 Candidates must answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section Questions Maximum Candidate’s

Score Score

A 1-5 25

6 25
B
25

Total Score

Page 1 of 6
SECTION A
1 a) What is Agroforestry? (2 marks)
b) Outline three exotic softwood tree species grown in Kenya. (3 marks)
2. State five physical factors favouring tea growing in Kenyan highlands (5mks)
3. (a) State three factors necessary for a land to be reclaimed (3mks)

(b) Give two uses of polder land in Netherlands (2mks)

4. Name two endangered species of wild animals in Kenya (2marks)

ii) State three effects of drought on wildlife in Kenya (3mks)

5) Study the map of the Ruhr industrial region and use it to answer the questions that follow.

Dortmund - Ems
Canal

R. Rhine
R. Wupper

(i) Name the River marked X. (1 mark)

(ii) Name the Canal marked Y. (1 mark)
(iii) Apart from iron and steel industries, name one other industries in the Ruhr region.
(1 marks)
(b) State two characteristics of Jua Kali industries in Kenya (2 marks)

Page 2 of 6
SECTION B
6. Study the table below and use it to answer questions (a) and (b)

Value of leading imports to Kenya from 2015 to 2019 (Ksh million)

MPORT 2016 2017 2018 2019
253,500 238,400 252,400 257,600
Industrial machinery
183,800 234,900 295,100 307,500
Petroleum products
Iron and Steel 75,500 83,600 97,700 104,100

(a) (i) What is the difference between the value of petroleum products imports
between year 2018 and year 2016? (2 marks)

(ii) Calculate the percentage increase between the value of industrial

machinery imported between year 2017 and the year 2019. (2
marks)

(ii) Using a vertical scale of 1cm to represent Ksh 30 Billion, draw a

comparative bar graph to present the data in the table. Use the graph paper provided. (9mrks)

(c) State three advantages of using comparative bar graphs to present statistical data.
(3 marks)
(c) Apart from cattle and goats , name two animals kept by pastoral communities in Kenya
(2marks)
(d) (i) Give two challenges facing nomadic pastoralism in Kenya. (2 marks)

(ii) Explain two measures the government of Kenya is taking to improve dairy farming
(4marks).

(iii) Name three beef cattle breeds reared in commercial ranches of Argentina (3marks)

7 a i) What is agroforestry? (2marks)

ii) Give three Ecological reasons why it is important to manage and conserve forests.
(3marks)

b) Explain three differences between natural and exotic forests in Kenya (6marks)

Page 3 of 6
c i) State two problems that affect forestry in Canada. (2 marks)

ii) Explain three reasons why Canada exports more softwood forest products than Kenya (6mks)

d) Differentiate between softwood forests in Kenya and Canada under the following sub headings;

 Logging (4 marks)
 Transport (2 marks)

8. The pyramids below represent the population structure of Kenya and Sweden in the year
2009.Use them to answer question(a).
POPULATION PYRAMIDS 2009

(a)Describe the characteristics of population of the two countries as represented by the

pyramids. (6 marks)

Page 4 of 6
(b) (i) What is fertility rate? (2 marks)

(ii) Explain three factors that have contributed to the reduction in fertility rate in Kenya.
(6 marks)

(d) Explain four causes of rural-rural migration in Kenya. (8 marks)

9. Use the map of East Africa to answer questions a(i) and (ii)

(a)(i) Name the minerals mined at the following marked areas S, P, and Q (3mks)

Page 5 of 6
(ii) State three types of minerals. (3mks)

(b) Describe how alluvial placer method of mining is carried out. (4mks)

(c)(i) Mention two ports through which some of the minerals mined in East Africa are
exported (2mks)

(ii) Explain three ways in which mining derelicts can be reclaimed (6mks)

(d) Students of Uwezo School carried a field study on mining of Diatomite in Nakuru
County.

(i) Give two reasons why they carried out a reconnaissance visit before actual
study. (2mks)

(ii) Give three reasons why they tabulated a work scheduled (3mks)

(iii) Give two hypothesis they could have formulated. (2mks)

.
10. a i) Apart from water and air pollution, name two other types of pollution (2mks)

(ii) Identify three ways through which water is polluted. (3mrks)

(iii) Explain three effects of air pollution on the environment

(6mrks)

(b) (i) Explain three factors that lead to frequent flooding in the lake region of Kenya.
(6marks)

(ii) Explain two ways through which floods are controlled in the lake region of Kenya.(4marks)

(c) State four effects of wind as an environmental hazard in Kenya. (4 marks)

Page 6 of 6
NAME ………………………………………………………………… ADM. NO ………………………

SCHOOL …………………………………………………………….INDEX NO………………………

STREAM…………………….CANDIDATE’S SIGNATURE…………………… DATE …………….

313/1

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION

PAPER ONE

TERM TWO, June 2024

TIME: 2 HOURS 30 MINUTES

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

 This paper consists of two printed pages, ensure both pages are printed.
 Write your name, name of your school, stream, Adm. No.,Index no., date and sign in the paces
provided.
 This paper consists of six questions.
 Answer any five questions in the answer sheet provided.
 All answers must be written in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL

CANDIDATE’S
SCORE

CRE PAPRER ONE HAWK 2 2024 1

1. a). Explain how the learning of Christian Religious Education in Kenyan secondary schools
promotes the goal of national unity. (6marks)

b). State the similarities between the first and second accounts of creation. (7 marks)

c). Mention occasions when Christians use the Bible. (7 marks)

2. a). Describe the call of Moses. (Exodus 3: 1-22) (8marks)

b). Explain the significance of the events that took place on the night of the Passover.

(7marks)

c). Identify the challenges that Christians face while practicing their faith in Kenya today.

(5 marks)

3. a). Outline the failures of King Saul as the King of Israel. (6marks)

b). Describe the incident in which King Ahab took Naboth’s vineyard. (1 kings 21:2-16)

(7marks)

c). Identify seven life skills learnt from Elijah that Christians can apply in their lives today.

(7marks)

4. a). Explain the vision of the basket of summer fruits shown to prophet Amos by God. (Amos 8:1-
3). (6marks)

b). Outline seven teachings of prophet Amos on the day of the Lord. (7marks)

c). Give ways in which church leaders are put to test today. (7marks)

5. a). Outline the content of Jeremiah’s letter to the exiles. (Jeremiah 29). (7marks)

b). List seven vows made by the Israelites during the time of the renewal of the covenant.
(Nehemiah 10:28-39). (7 marks)

c). What is the importance of prayer in the life of a Christian? (6marks)

6. a). Explain seven roles of elders in traditional African communities. (7marks)

b). What changes have taken place in the rite of initiation in Kenya today? (7marks)

c). Give reasons why death is feared in traditional African communities. (6 marks)

CRE PAPRER ONE HAWK 2 2024 2

NAME………………………………………………………………..ADM.NO…………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………………………INDEX NO…………………………………………………….
STREAM …………………CANDIDATE’S SIGNATURE……………….DATE…………………………………………….
313/2
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
Paper 2

HAWK 2 TERM 2 2024

KENYA CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION

CRE
21/2HOUR
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDADATES.
 Write your NAME, NAME OF YOUR SCHOOL, STREAM, ADM.NO, DATE
AND ANSWERS in the spaces provided.
 This paper consists of SIX questions.
 Answer FIVE questions.
 All questions carry equal marks.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
QUESTIONS 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL
MARKS

CANDATES
SCORE
1. a) State the psalmist prophecies concerning the messiah psalms 41.6,110: 1-2 (7mks)
b) What ways Angel Gabriel message about John the Baptist to Zechariah in Luke 1: 13-17
(6mks)
c) Identify seven lessons from the annunciation of the birth of John the Baptist (7mks)

2. a) Give reasons why Jesus faced opposition from the Pharisees and the scribes in Galilee
(7mks)
b) Describe the healing of the woman with the flow of blood by Jesus Luke 18: 42b-48
(7mks)
c) Give reasons why some Christian finds it difficult to help the sick (5mks)
3. a) Describe the parable of the good Samaritan Luke 10:29-37 (8mks)
b) State five teachings of Jesus about a committed follower in reference to the parable of the
Good Samaritan (5mks)
c) Identify lessons Christians learn from the parable of the Good Samaritan (7mks)

4. a) How did the holy spirit manifest himself on the day of Pentecost (7mks)
b) Explain how unity of believers is expressed in the symbol of body of Christ
(1st Corinthian 12:27) (7mks)
c) State how church disciplines those who cause disunity in the church today (7mks)

5. a)Outline the importance of professional code of ethics (6mks)

(7mks)
b) Explain four factors that has led to increase of intermarriages among Kenyan
Communities (8mks)
c) Give reasons why some Christians break their marriages vows (6mks)

6. a) Identify ways in which wealth is acquired in Traditional African Community (8mks)

b) Explain ways in which science and technology has negatively affected human life
(6mks)
c) State six reasons why Christians are against Euthanasia (6mks)
NAME………………………………………………… INDEX NO………………

SCHOOL…………………………………………………. ADM NO………

STREAM………………………….

HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATIONS 2024

The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 MOCK EXAMINATION
HOME SCIENCE PAPER 1
441/1
HAWK 2 June 2024
Time: 2½ Hours

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your details in the spaces provided above.
b) This paper consists of 12 printed pages, and 3 sections. Answer ALL questions in both
section A and B and any TWO from section C
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY
SECTION QUESTION MAX SCORE CANDIDATE’S
SCORE
A 1-20 40 MARKS
B 21 20 MARKS
C 22 20 MARKS
23 20 MARKS
24 20 MARKS
TOTAL SCORE 1OO MARKS

1
SECTION A (40 marks)
1. Explain two reasons why dump dusting is better than dry dusting in a sick room. (2
marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. State two disadvantages of concealed drainage system. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………...………………………………………………
…
3. State two nutritional disorders associated with lifestyle. ( 2 marks)
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4. State two qualities of a good soup.(2 marks)
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5. Give two areas in a garment where top stitching is done.(2 marks)
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6. Mention two advantages of blending cotton and nylon fibres.(2 marks)
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7. Give two methods of credit buying. (2 marks)
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8. Give two ways in which a mother can infect her new born baby with HIV/AIDS virus. (2
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10. Give the difference between food spoilage and food poisoning. (2 marks)
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11. State two factors to consider when choosing an ironing board. (2 marks)
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12. Mention two positive effects of advertisements to a consumer. (2 marks)
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13. Give two factors determining the choice of color in a sitting room. (2 marks)
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14. Identify two dangers of weaning the baby when it is too late (2 marks)
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15. State two disadvantages of using charcoal when cooking. (2 marks)
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16. Give two advantages of staying in an employer’s house. (2 marks)
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17. State two points to consider when choosing flowers for flower arrangement (2 marks)
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18. List two ways of enhancing personal appearance (2 marks)
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19. Suggest two measures to take immediately nose bleeding occurs (2 marks)
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20. List two improvised abrasives in the home (2 marks)
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SECTION B (20 marks)
21. You are doing personal cleaning at school. Describe how you will;
a) Clean your cotton blood stained bed sheet. (8 marks)
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b) Clean your white pair of Bata slippers. (6 marks)
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c) Clean your wooden locker (6 marks)
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SECTION C (40 marks)

There are three questions in this section. Answer any two.

22. a) State six ways of helping a child play and learn properly. (6 marks)
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b) Give four ways in which a lactating mother would improve supply of breast milk to
her baby. (4 marks)
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c) Identify four functions of the Kenya consumer association. (4 marks)
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d) Using well illustrated diagrams, describe how to make an overlaid seam. (6 marks)

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23. a) Give five reasons for preserving food. (5 marks)
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b) Discuss five laundry processes that are harmful to woolen fibres. (5 marks)
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c) State four qualities that make aluminum popular for making kitchen utensils. (4 marks)

d) Name and draw any six pattern symbols and markings. (6 marks)
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24. a) State five factors that determine the efficiency of a detergent. (5 marks)
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b) List five methods of finishing the edges of sleeves other than using a cuff. (5 marks)
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c) List four ways of disposing refuse in the home. (4 marks)
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d) State six points to consider when working out stitches. (6 marks)

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END

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NAME………………………………………………… INDEX NO…………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… ADM NO………………...
STREAM…………

HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATIONS 2024

The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 MOCK EXAMINATION
HOME SCIENCE PAPER 2
441/2 (CLOTHING CONSTRUCTION)
PRACTICAL
HAWK 2 June 2024
Time: 2½ Hours

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
a) Candidate MUST use machine stitches appropriately in the construction of the garment.
Hand stitches used instead of machine stitches will not be marked.
b) Hand stitches will only be allowed for the making of hemming stitches.
c) This paper consists of 3 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to
ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and no questions are missing.

1
BOY’S SHIRT
A pattern of a boy’s shirt is provided. You are advised to study the sketches, instructions, and
layout carefully before you begin the test.
MATERIALS PROVIDED.
1. Patterns provided.
A- Shirt front.
B- Shirt back.
C- Collar
D- Pocket.
E- Back neck facing.
F- Cut interfacing using the collar pattern.
2. Plain light weight cotton fabric measuring 60 cm long by 90 cm wide.
3. Sewing thread to match the fabric.
4. One large envelope (A4 size).
THE TEST
Using the materials provided, cut out and make the right half of the BOY’S SHIRT to show the
following processes;
a) Cutting out. (6 marks)
b) Making of the dart on the back shirt (6 ½ marks).
c) Making the side seam using an open seam. (3 ½ marks)
d) Prepare an interfaced collar. (6 marks)
e) The joining and neatening of front shirt facing and back neck facing. (2 marks )
f) Joining of the shoulder seam using machine fell seam. (5 ½ marks)
g) Attaching the collar using the facings. (3 ½ marks)
h) Preparation and attachment of the pocket. (7 ½ marks)
i) Presentation. (4 marks)

At the end of the examination, firmly sew on your work a label bearing your name and index
number. Remove needles and pins from your work. Then fold your work neatly and place it in
the envelope provided. Don’t put scraps of fabric in the envelope.

2
NAME………………………………………………………. INDEX NO…………

SCHOOL…………………………………………………… ADM NO……………

STREAM………………………

HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATIONS 2024

The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 MOCK EXAMINATION
HOME SCIENCE PAPER 3
441/3 (FOOD NUTRITION)
PRACTICAL
HAWK 2 June 2024
Time: 1¾ Hours
PLANNING SESSION- 30MINUTES

PRACTICAL SESSION- 1¼ Hours

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

a) Use a separate sheet of paper for each task. Use carbon paper to make
duplicate copies.

1
THE TEST

You are going for games in a neighboring school. Using THE ingredients listed
below, prepare, cook and pack two tea items. Include a beverage.

Ingredients

Baking flour

Eggs

Cooking fat/oil /margarine

Sweet potatoes/arrow roots

Cucumber/tomatoes

Tea leaves/cocoa

Sugar

Milk

Salt

PLANNING SESSION- 30MINUTES

Use a separate sheet of paper for each task listed below. Use carbon paper to make
duplicate copies.

1. Identify the dishes and write down their recipes

2. Write down your order of work
3. Make a list of foodstuff and equipment you will require

2
NAME ………………………………………………………….…INDEX NO ……..........

SCHOOL: ……………………………………STREAM…………DATE ………………

HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATION 2024

The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 PRE-MOCK 2 EXAMINATION
(443/1) (Agriculture) Paper 1
JUNE, 2024 Time: 2 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

a) Write your name and index No. in the spaces provided.

b) This paper consists of THREE SECTIONS A, B, and C.
c) Answer ALL questions in section A and B and ANY TWO in section C.
d) All your answers must be written in the spaces provided.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

A 1-20 30

B 20

C 20

TOTAL 90

This paper consists of 14 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all pages
are printed as indicated and no questions are missing.

1
SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. State 3 practices that are carried out in organic farming. (1 ½ mks)

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2. Give two types of labour records a farmer may require. (1mk)

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3. Give three disadvantages of surface irrigation in crop growth. (1 ½ mks)

4. Mention Three reasons for carrying out crop rotation (11/2mk)

5. Give a weed for each case, which has the following effects on cattle:

(a) Poisoning.
(1mark)
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(b)Tainting milk when eaten before milking (1mark)

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6. Name any four methods of harvesting agroforestry trees . (2mks)

7. Give THREE factors that affect the quality of farm yard manure. (1mk)

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8. Name four methods of treating seeds before planting. (2mks)

9. State four symptoms of viral disease attack in crops. (2mks)

10. State three factors that determine the stage at which a crop is harvested. (1 ½ mks)

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11 Give Three factors to consider when siting a nursery bed. (1 ½ mks)

12 Name three reasons for carrying out primary cultivation. (1 ½ mks)

13 Give three sources of capital in agriculture. (1 ½ mks)

14 State three characteristics of a good rootstock for grafting. (1 ½ mks)

15 State two benefits of a good soil structure in crop production. (1mk)

16 Differentiate between fertilizer grade and fertilizer ratio as used in fertilizer chemistry. 1mk

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17 Give two functions of calcium in plant growth. (1mk)

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18 State four factors that contribute to competitive ability of weeds. (2mks)

19 Name two ways of classifying pesticides. (1mk)

20 (a) What is meant by the term joint product as used in production economic? (1 mk)
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(b) List two joint-products in crop production. (1mk)
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SECTION B (20MARKS)

21 Study the illustration given below representing crop pest and answer the questions that follow.
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i) Identify the pest represented by A,C,D and E. (2mks)

A - ………………………………….

C – ………………………………….

D – ………………………………….

E – …………………………………..

ii) Name a crop disease that is spread by pest labeled B. (1mk)

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iii) Name two damages caused by pest E. (lmk)

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iv) Give two control measures for the pest labelled D. (lmk)

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22 i) The following is a farm record Mr. Makau had kept as at 30th June 2011. Study it carefully and
prepare a balance sheet for the farm. (4 marks)
Equity loan 180,000
Equity overdraft 24,000
Working tools 30,000
Cash at hand 15,000
Cash in bank 50,000
Buildings 60,000
Debtors 18,000
Goats 48,000
Land 70,000
Creditors 49,000
Ox plough 20,000
ii) Is Mr. Makau business solvent or insolvent? Explain (1 marks)
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23.A farmer is prepared to top dress 10 ha of Napier grass using Sulphate of Ammonia 20% N at the rate of
150kgs/ha.

Calculate the amount of nitrogen applied per hector. (3mks)

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Calculate the amount of Sulphate of Ammonia the farmer will need to apply in 10 ha of land. (2mks)

24. Study the diagram below of a method of compost making and answer the questions that
follow;

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(a) Identify the methods of compost making (1 mark)

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(b) State four factors to consider when sitting the structure (2 marks)

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(b) What is the function of the following materials in preparation of compost manure:

(i) Top soil (1 mark)

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(ii) Wood ash (1 mark)

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25. The diagram below illustrates a field practice study it carefully and answer the questions that

follow.

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a) Name the practice. ( ½ mk)

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b) Give three reasons for carrying out the practices named in (a) above. 3mks

SECTION C (40 MARKS)

Answer any two questions from this section in the spaces provided

23 a) Explain five factors considered in designing a crop rotational programme. ( 5mks)

b) Outline seven advantages of land consolidation in land tenure reforms. (7mks)

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c) Describe the practices that a farmer should carry out to ensure uniform germination of seeds.
(4mks)

d) Give four reasons why burning is not recommended as a method of land clearing. (4mks)

24 a) List eight benefits of using organic matter for mulching. (8mks)

b) Describe the establishment of cabbage under the following subheadings.

a) Nursery establishment and management (5 mks)
b) Land preparation (4 mks)
c) Transplanting (3 mks)
28. a) Explain ways in which a farmer can improve soil fertility. (10mks)

b) Discuss various methods which a farmer can use to prevent water pollution. (5mks)

c) Describe ways of improving labour efficiency. (5 marks)

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Name:……………………………………………….Index Number…………………………..

Candidate Signature…………………….

School Name:…………………..

Date ……………………………..

June, 2024

2 Hrs

HAWK 1 JOINT EVALUATION 2024

The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 PRE-MOCK 1 EXAMINATION
231/1 Biology Paper1
June, 2024 Time: 2:hours
Instructions To Candidates

(a) Write Your Name And Index Number In The Spaces Provided Above
(b) Sign And Write The Date Of Examination In The Spaces Provided Above
(c) Answer All The Questions In This Question Paper
(d) All Answers Must Be Written In The Spaces Provided
(e) This Paper Consist Of 11 Printed Pages
(f) Candidates Should Answer The Questions In English

For Examiner’s use

Question Number Maximum Score Candidate Score
14
1-23 80
BIOLOGY PAPER 1 231/1 2024

1. State two guidelines that should be followed when typing scientific names. (2 mks)

2. An individual is of blood group A positive

(a) Name the antigens in the i dividual’s lood (2 mks)

(b) Can the individual receive blood from blood group B donor? Give a reason to support your
answer (2 mks)

3. (a) How is a human mouth adapted to:

(i) Chewing? (1 mk)

(ii) Carbohydrate digestion? (1 mk)

4. Explain why significantly increasing the blood pH slows down the rate of selective reabsorption of
materials in the kidney tubules (2 mks)

5. State two difference between light dependent and Light Independent stages of Photosynthesis
(2 mks)

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6. (a) A student was viewing a slide preparation of a cheek cell under a high power of microscope. The
features of the cell were blurred. Name the part of the microscope that the student needs to use to
obtain a sharper outline of the features (1 mk)

(b) How is the low power objective lens manipulated to focus a specimen for observation under a
light microscope? (2 mks)

(c)Name the organelles that are responsible for the formation of spindle fibres (1 mk)

7. (a) Distinguish between guttation and transpiration (1 mk)

(b) Describe how each of the following factors increase the rate of transpiration
i. Temperature (1 mk)

ii. Humidity (1 mk)

8. (a) Describe four assumptions of capture-recapture method used in estimation of population of

organisms (4 mks)

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(b) State two reasons why primary productivity in a pond decreases with depth (2 mks)

9. Study the illustration below

(a) Name the substance responsible for the change illustrated (1 mk)

(b) Account for the change observed in the illustration (3 mks)

10. How does nutrition as a characteristic of living organisms differ in plants and animals? (2 mks)

17
11. A person met a leopard as he walked along a forest path. His adrenal glands secreted adrenaline to
prepare him to run away. What was the effect of adrenaline on his circulatory system? (4 mks)

12. Small birds like the European Robin puff up (swell up) their feathers during winter. Explain the
significance of this behavioural response (3 mks)

13. Briefly explain how bee stings can cause death. (3 mks)

14. (a) Name the product of glycolysis. (1 mk)

(b) What is the role of cristae in a mitochondrion? (1 mk)

15. Name one part of the kidney nephron where reabsorption of water takes place (1 mk)

16. Treatment of malaria is still a challenge in the world despite the invention of many antimalarial
drugs. Explain (3 mks)

18
17. The graph below represent growth pattern in a group of organisms
(a) Name the type of growth curve (1 mk)

(b) Name the phylum that shows this type of pattern (1 mk)

(c) State one disadvantage of this type of pattern (1 mk)

18. After four months of pregnancy, the ovaries of a woman can be removed without terminating
pregnancy. Explain these observation (3 mks)

(c) The diagram below represents a flower

i. On the diagram, name two structures where meiosis occurs (2 mks)

ii. How is the flower adapted to prevent self-pollination? (2 mks)

19. The genetic make-up of a man was found to be XXY

(a) Name the syndrome the individual could be suffering from (1 mk)

19
(b) Explain how the syndrome occurs (3 mks)

20. Explain how the human nasal cavity is adapted to gaseous exchange ( 3mks)

21. (a) (i) Name the substance produced by the sebaceous gland of the mammalian skin (1 mk)

(ii) State two functions of the substance named in 3 (a) (i) (2 mks)

22. (a) State one functional difference between a tendon and a ligament (1 mk)

(b) State two types of synovial joints in mammals (2 mks)

23. How is each of the following adapted to its function in a human ear
i. External auditory meatus (1 mk)

ii. Ear Ossicles (1 mk)

20
(b) The diagram below represents a section of the human brain

(i) Name the structures labelled P and R (2 mks)P

(ii) State two functions of the part labelled Q (2 mks)

Name: .........................................................................Index Number……………………

Candidate Signature……………………. School Name:…………………..

Date ……………………………..

HAWK 1 JOINT EVALUATION 2024

The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 PRE-MOCK 1 EXAMINATION
231/2 Biology Paper 2
June, 2024 Time: 2 hours
Instructions To Candidates

(a) Write Your Name And Index Number In The Spaces Provided Above
(b) Sign And Write The Date Of Examination In The Spaces Provided Above
(c) This Paper consist of Two sections:A & B
(d) Answer all question in section A in the spaces provide
(e) In section B answer question 6 (compulsory) and either question 7 or 8 in the spaces
provided after question 8
(f) This Paper Consist Of 10 Printed Pages
(g) Candidates Should Answer The Questions In
English
For Examiner’s use
Section Question Maximum Score Candidate’s score
1 8
A 2 8
3 8
4 8
5 8

6 20
B 7 20
8 20
TOTAL SCORE 80

Section A (40MARKS)

1. The diagram below represents one of the joints in the mammalian body.
(diagram)

z W

a. Name the type of the joint in the diagram. (1 mk)

b. Nam each of the parts labeled Z and U . (2 mks)

U
Z
c. State two functions of the fluid found in W (2 mks)

d. Identify the type of Muscle found attached to above bone Z (1 mk)

e. State one difference between the Muscle identified in (d) above and those found in the gut.
(1mk)

f. State one way in which support is brought about in leaf. (1mk)

i. Name one requirement for this process that is not mentioned in the investigation.(1 mk)

ii. Name the gas produced in this investigation(1 mk)

iii. Account for the results in test tubes B and C(2 mks)
b. State two ways in which the human intestinal villus is adapted to its function (4 mks)

3. The diagram below represents a transverse section of a young stem.

a) Name the part labelled J and K (2 mks)

b) State the functions of the parts labelled L, M and N (3 mks)

M
N

c) How can low blood volume be brought back to normal? (3 mks)

4. (a) Colour blindness is a sex linked trait controlled by a recessive gene b. If a mother is a carrier and
the father is normal, what is the chance that their son will be colour blind? Show your working
using a punnet square (4 mks)

b) Explain how geographical distribution of organism is an evidence of organic evolution (4 mks)

5. (a) A student used 1m2 quadrat to determine the population of striga weed in a 20m x 20m plot. He
collected the data and recorded it as shown below.

Quadrant (throws) Population of striga weed

1 19
2 12
3 11
4 14
5 16

Using the data above, determine the total population of striga weed(3 mks)

(b) Describe the hazards of air pollution by Sulphur (IV) Oxide.(4 mks)

(c) Name the causal organism of Typhoid disease. (1 mk)

SECTION B (40 mks)

Answer question 6 (compulsory) and either question 7 or 8 on the spaces provided after question 8

6. Some students used a model to demonstrate the effect of sweating on human body temperature.
Two boiling tubes K and L were filled with hot water. The temperature of water in the tubes was
taken at the start of the experiment and then at 5 minute intervals. The surface of the tube K was
continuously wiped with a piece of cotton wool soaked in methylated spirit. The results obtained
are shown in the table below.

(a) On the same axes, plot graphs of temperature of water in the space tubes against time (7 mks)
(b) At what rate was the water cooling tube K? (2 mks)

(c) Why was tube L included in the set up? (1 mk)

(d) Account for the rate of cooling in tube K (3 mks)

(e) State two processes of heat loss in tube L (2 mks)

(f) What would be the expected results if tube K was insulated? (1 mk)

(g) What would the insulation be comparable to in:

i. Bird (1 mk)

ii. Mammals (1 mk)

(h) How does the above experiment apply to an elephant and a rat? Explain. (2 mks)

7. (a) How are respiratory surfaces in mammals adapted to their functions (10 mks)
(b) Explain five importances of plant excretory products (10 mks)

8. How are the structures of the human eye adapted to their functions? (20 mks)
32
Name: ...................................................................... I de Nu er…………………

Ca didate Sig ature……………………. S hool Na e:…………………………

Date ……………………………..

231/3 Biology Paper 3

June, 2024 Time: 1 ¾ hours

Instructions of Candidates

a) Write your name & Index no in the spaces provided above.

b) Sign and write the date of examination.
c) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
d) You are required to spend the first 15 minutes of the 1 ¾ hours allowed for this
paperreading the whole paper carefully before commencing your work.
e) Additional pages must not be inserted.
f) This paper consists of 1 printed pages.
g) Check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and
thatno questions are missing.

For Examiners use only

Questions Maximum score Candidates score

33
1 13
2 16
3 11

TOTAL 40

For E a i er’s use

1. Study the organisms A, B, C, D, E and F below.

(a) Complete and use the key below to identify the organisms. (2mks)
1.(a)Organisms with endoskeleton
------go to 2
(b)
------go to 3

2.(a)Has scales on the body

------go to 4
(b)Has no scales on the body
mammalian

3.(a)Has cephalothorax -
Arachnida
(b)Has no cephalothorax -
go to 5

4.(a) -Pisces
(b)Has no fins

34
---go to 7

5.(a)Has three pair of legs -

Insects
(b)Has more than three pair of legs -
go to 6

6.(a)Two pair of legs per segment

Diploda
(b)One pair of legs per segment -
Chilopoda

7.(a)Has feathers
Aves
(b)Has no feathers
go to 8

8(a)Has a tail
--Reptilia
(b)Has no tail
Amphibian

B. Identify the organisms above using the complete key above.

Specimen Steps followed Identity

A
B
C
D
E
F

c. Name the phylum in which specimen A, C and F belong to. (1 mk)

d. Give three reasons for your answer (c) above. (3mks)

35
e. Name one feature that is common in organisms B, E, and D. (1mk)

2. You are provided with photographs of specimen K, L, M, N, P and Q from plants

Examine them carefully and answer the questions that follows

a. In the table below, name the mode of dispersal and the features that adapt each specimento its
mode of dispersal. (12mks)

Specimen Mode of dispersal Adaptive features

K
L
M
N
P
Q

(b) Draw a plan diagram of specimen Q and label any two parts on it.(3mks)

36
(c) Name the part labelled S on specimen P (1 mk)

3. You are provided with the following materials and reagents

-Three test tubes on a rack

-Dilute egg albumen

- (Access to) sodium hydroxide solution with a dropper

- (Access to) dilute hydrochloric acid with a dropper
-Enzyme Trypsin labelled as solution P

-Two droppers

-Three 10ml measuring cylinder

-A stop watch/wall clock

-Access to water bath maintained at 50Oc to 60Oc

(i) Label the test tubes as A, B, and C.

(ii) Put 2cm3 of egg albumen into each of the test tubes labelled A, B and C.
(iii) Add 1cm3 of solution P in each of the test tubes
(iv) Into test tube A, add two drops Sodium Hydroxide.
(v) Into test tube B, add two drops of Hydrochloric acid.
(vi) Into test tube C, add two drops of water.
(vii) Place all the three test tubes in the water bath for 10 minutes

(a) (i) State the observations made in test tubes A and B

Test tube A (1 mk)

37
Test tube B (1 mk)

(ii) Account for the observations made in a (i) above.

Test tube A (3 mks)

Test tube B (2 mks)

(b) Explain why the investigation was carried out at the specified temperature range. (1 mk)

(i) With a reason, identify solution P (2 mks)

(ii) Name the likely part of the alimentary canal where the process in the
experimentoccurs. (1
mk)

38
BIOLOGY PAPER 3 231/3 PRACTICALCONFIDENTIAL

-Three test tubes on a rack

-Dilute egg albumen

- (Access to) sodium hydroxide solution with a dropper

- (Access to) dilute hydrochloric acid with a dropper
-Enzyme Trypsin labelled as solution P

-Two droppers

-Three 10ml measuring cylinder

-A stop watch/wall clock

-Access to water bath maintained at 50Oc to 60OcColored

photographs

39
HAWK 2 JOINT EXAMS TERM 2 2024

443/1

AGRICULTURE

MARKING SCHEME

1. Practices in organic farming

-mulching
-crop rotation
-use of organic manure
-cover cropping

2. Types of labour records.

- Master roll
- Labour utilization/analysis.(2x ½ = 1mk)
3. Disadvantages of surface irrigation.
- Causes soil erosion.
- Wastes a lot of water.
- Require leveling of land.
- Uneven distribution of water.
- Causes salinization of soil. (Any 3x ½ =1½)

4. Reasons for crop rotation

-maximum utilization of nutrients
-control of soil borne pests and disease build up
-control of weeds
-improvement of soil fertility
-improvement of soil structure
-controls soil erosion

5. a) Thorn apple.

40
b) Mexican marigold.

6. Methods of harvesting agroforestry trees

-pruning
-pollarding
-coppicing
-lopping

7. Factors affecting the quality of a farmyard manure.

- Type of animal used
- Type of food eaten
- Type of litter used
- Method of storage
- Age of farmyard manure

8. Methods treating seed before planting

- Seed inoculation
- Seed dressing
- Chitting
- Breaking of dormancy (4 x ½ = 2mks)

9. Symptoms of viral diseases.

41
- Sandy loam soil
- Accessible
- Secured place
-
- . (3 x ½ = 1 ½ mks)
12. Reasons for carrying out primary cultivation
- Facilitate water infiltration.
- Kill weeds
- Burying organic matter to decompose
- Increase soil aeration.
- Destroy soil bone pests by exposing them to the predators.
- Make planting easy. (1st 3 x ½ = 1 ½ mks)
13. Sources of capital.
- Savings from farmer.
- Credit facilities/borrowing.
- Grants from individuals/NGOs. (Any 3 x ½ = 1 ½ mks)
14. Characteristics of a rootstock for grafting.
- Healthy/pest free and diseases.
- Compatible with different scions.
- Resistant/tolerant to soil borne pest and diseases
- Adaptable to different soil condition. (1st 3 x ½ = 1 ½ mks)
15. Benefit of a good soil structure. .
- Influences water-holding capacity
- Determine soil aeration and drainage
- Influence root penetration and microbial activities
16. a) Fertilizer grade-Is the guarantee minimum content of nutrients in a fertilizer expressed
as a Percentage.

b) Fertilizer ratio-Is the relative percentage expresses as a ratio of N.P.K.

17. Functions of calcium.

- Promote formation of soil aggregates thus improve aeration.
- Play a role in nitrification by raising soil PH
- Formation of middle layer and raising protein content.
- For protein synthesis.
18. Factors that contribute to competitive ability of weeds
- Produce large quantities of seeds
- Some remain viable for long.
- Easily dispersed.
- Propagate vegetation.
- Well develop root system.
- Survive in limited nutrient supply.
42
- Shoot life cy1e.
19. Pesticide classification.
- Formulation
- Target pest
- Mode of action
20. (a) This is a situation whereby a farmer aims at producing one product, but automatically ends in
getting another products. (1 x 1 = 1mk)
(b) - Cotton lint and cotton seed.
- Maize grain and maize stover. (2 x ½ = 1mk)

SECTION B

21. i) A-Squirel
C-Army worms
D-Sudan duich/Quelea birds.
E-Commen rat. (4 x ½ mk = 2mks)

ii) Maize streak

iii) Damages - Eating and contaminating the grains with excreter

- Making holes in container

- Harbor fleas which transmit bubonic plague to human (Any 2 x ½ = 1mk)
iv) Control for Quelea birds
- Poisoning breeding places.
- - Use of explosives. (2x ½ = lmk)

22. i)
MAKAU’S FARM
Balance sheet
As at 30th June 2011
Liabilities Sh Cts Assets Sh Cts

43
Current liabilities Current assets
Creditors 49,000 00 Cash at hand 15,000 00
Equity overdraft 24,000 00 Cash in bank 50,000 00
Debtors 18,000 00
Goats 48,000 00
Long term liabilities Fixed assets
Loan: Equity Oxplough 20,000 00
Total liabilities 180,000 00 Working tools 15,000 00
253,000 00 Land 70,000 00

Networth 17,000 00

Total 253,000 00 253,000 00

ii) Its insolvent, the value of liabilities exceeds assets value, the business can’t meet all that it owes
other firms. (2x1/2= 1mk)
23.
20-------->100kg
?--------150kg
= 150×20
100
=30kg N

b) 30×10
=300kg/SA

24. a) Heap/Stack method

b) - Well drained place

-away from windward side

-center of the land

-accessible

c) i) Top soil-introduces microorganism that assist in decomposition

ii)Wood Ash-adds the level of potassium and phosphorus

44
25. a) Propping.
b) Reasons - To prevent stem breaking/falling.
- For easy management practices like pruning.
- Proper development of bench.

SECTION C

26. a) Factors considered in designing a crop rotational programme.

i. Crop root depth/deep rooted crops should be alternated with shallow rooted.
ii. Crop nutrients requirement; Heavy feeders should be planted first in newly ploughed
land.
iii. Weed control; Crops attacked by similar weeds should not follow each other.
iv. Pest control; Crops susceptible to pest should not follow each other.
v. Disease control; Crops attacked by the same diseases should not follow each other.
vi. Soil fertility; Induce leguminous crops to improve soil fertility.
vii. Soil structure/plant grass hay at end of programme.
b) Advantages of land consolidation.
i. Proper supervision of land.
ii. Economic use of time/save transport cost.
iii. Get agricultural advice by extension officer.
iv. Proper planning and adoption of crop rotation programme.
v. Soil conservation and land improvement.
vi. Constructive of permanent structures of fencing/building.
vii. Registered land with title deed gives farmers access to loans.
viii. Weed, pest and disease control is enhanced. (Any 7x1 = 7mks)
c) Practices that ensure uniform germination of seeds.
- Select seeds of the same size/variety.
- Plant seeds which are free from pests/diseases.
- Select seeds of the same age.
- Prepare whole field to required uniform tilth.
- Plant at uniform right moisture content/irrigate uniformly.
- Treat seeds against soil borne pest/diseases.
- Break seed dormancy
- Plant at same depth.
- Plant seeds at same time.’ (Any 4xl=4mks)

45
d) Reasons why burning is not recommended as a method of land clearing.
- Destroy beneficial soil organism.
- Destroy organic matter.
- Result in soil erosion.
- Destroy soil structure.
- Loss of soil nutrients/Fertility.
27. a) Benefit of organic matter for mulching.
- Improve soil aeration upon decomposition.
- Reduce toxicity of plant poison upon decomposition.
- Reduce soil erosion.
- Improves soil structure upon decomposition.
- Modifies the soil temperature.
- Add nutrients on decomposition.
- Improve water infiltration
- Increase microbial activity.
- Control weeds.
- Reduce evaporation of water.
- Buffer soil PH upon decomposition. (Any 7x1=7mks)
b) Establishment of cabbage under the following subheadings
a) Nursery establishment and management
 Select a suitable site where members of the Brassica family have not been grown for the last three years.
 Dig the site deeply to remove all perennial weeds and stones
 Harrow the site to a fine filth
 Make shallow drills, 10 cm apart. The drills should be made evenly on the nursery bed.
 Place he seeds in the drills and cover them with light soil.
 Apply mulch material evenly on the nursery bed and water
 Remove the mulch after the seeds have germinated, then erect a shade over the nursery bed.
 Water the seedlings regularly
 Harden off before transplanting. (5 x 1 = 5 mks)
b) Land preparation
 Prepare the land early enough when the weather conditions are dry. This allows enough time for the
weeds to die
 Clean all vegetation and remove any tree stumps
 Plough deeply to remove all perennial weeds
 Harrow the land to a fine filth
 Make holes 10cm deep at a spacing of 90 cm x 60cm depending on the variety. (4 x 1 = 4 mks)
c) Transplanting
 Cabbage can be sown directly into the field or first established in a nursery bed.
 Transplant the seedlings at the age of three to four weeks.
 Transplant during a cloudy or cool day
 Water the nursery bed thoroughly before transplanting
 Lift the seedlings with a ball of soil to avoid damaging the roots
 Water he field well before transplanting
 Apply handful of farmyard manure or one tablespoonful of double superphosphate to each hole.
 Apply suitable insecticides to control soil borne pests.
 Plant seedlings at the same depth as they were in the nursery.
46
 Firm the soil well around the base of the seedlings. (4 x 1 = 4 mks)

28. a) Ways of improving soil fertility.

- Controlling soil erosion.
- Practice crop rotation
- Controlling soil PH/limimg.
- Ensure proper drainage.
- Weed control.
- Practice Intercropping,
- Minimum tillage
- Use of organic manure.
- Use of inorganic fertilizer. Any 5x2=l0mks.
b) Methods of preventing water pollution.
- Soil conservation to reduce soil loss/terracing/ploughing along the contours.
- Fencing of water sources to minimize pollution by livestock or human.
- River banks should be vegetated/plant grass to minimize siltation.
- Enforce by-law/use of non-chemical methods of test and weed control.
- Employ adequate storm water control methods and disposal system.
(5 points x 1 = 5rnks

c).

 Training-Formally or informally-formally in colleges/schools. Improved through farmers training

centres, field days, agricultural shows, demonstration farms.
 Farm mechanisation-Incorporating machinery in farm’s operation
 Giving incentives and improving terms and conditions of services
 Labour supervision-keeping proper and up to date records on the time work commences and ends, type
of work and amount done, records of absenteeism, malingering, theft/robbery. Etc.
 Assigning specific task-governed by labour skills, one clearly knows clearly their duties (any
5x1=5mks)

47
HAWK 1 JOINT EVALUATION 2024
AGRIC PP2 MARKING SCHEME
1. Notifiable dieases in livestock
-anthrax
-foot and mouth disease
-rinderpest

2. Gizzard

3. –produces high quality carcas

-high prolific

-Grows faster and matures faster

-better adapted to hot weather

4-overgrown hooves

-filthy environment

-sharp objects in grazing field

-presence of wound in the hoof

5-easy to load and offload

-spacious

-vermin proof.

-free from pests

-well ventilated

-leak proof

48
6. a) Flushing is the giving of highly nutritious feed/ high plane of nutrition to female animals 3-4
weeks to and after mating while steaming up is giving of extra nutrients feed to an animal 4-8
weeks to parturition

b)absconding is the swarming of bees due to unfavourable conditions within the hive while Nuptial
flight is the first flightof bees when mating takes place.

7. - Immunity it produces should be as good as natural immunity.

-should have a long keeping live that is its shelf life should be longer.

-should be easy to administer

-should have no side effect when inoculated.

-should be compatible with the other vaccines given to the animal

-single dose should produce life long immunity

8.-Water

-pollen

-propolis

-nectar

9- a)Spillway-allows excess water to flow out of the pond/prevents water from overflowing the
dykes

b) outlet- allows the used water to flow out of the pond/prevent fish from swimming out of the
pond

10-upgrading

-crossbreeding

11-one point hitch

-three point hitch

-PTO

12. -High fibre content

– low protein content

49
-High moisture content – high carbohydrate content

13.-a)many eggs can be hatched at a time

-a farmer can plan when to hatch.

-chicks may not suffer from parasites and diseases

-incubator is normally ready when required

b)- to prevent termite attack

-to prevent moisture from rising up the wall

14. i) Cold chisel…………Ball pein hammer

ii)Screw driver………Screw

iii)Trocar………………Canula

15-provides energy during stervation

-used in the synthesis of products such as milk,meat and eggs

-excess are converted into fats and stored

16. -does not eradicate other stages of the developing parasites

-does not destroy the parasite in the intermediate hosts

-does not destroy the parasite in the pasture,water and forage

17. -Anus

-Ears

-Mouth

-Eyes

-Reproductive organs

-Skin

-Mammary glands

18 a) Iron

b) Zinc
50
19.-Act as a disinfectant against nematodes

-Neutralizes acidity in the pond water

-Makes silt to settle at the bottom of the pond

20.Between 26th-28th October

SECTION B

21.

a) Identify the implement 1mk

Stir up pump
b) Name the parts label 4mks

B Hand lance

C Trigger
D Handle
c) What maintenance practice would be required in the part label A 1MK
Cleaning an unblocking

22.-a)Trial and error method

-Linear programming

-use of computers

Maize 7% 16 parts of maize huasks

18%

51
Sunflowe seed 34% 11parts of simsim seedcake

Total parts 27

Maize husks=16/27 *200 =118.5kg

Simsim seedcake 11/27 *200 =81.5kgs

23. a) K - Swarm net

L – Roof

M – Kenya top bar hive

N – Catcher box/ Syrup/sucrose container

(b - Method of extraction

11. Type of flowers from which the nectar was collected

12. Season of the year . Honey formed over dry season tends of lower quality.
13. Maturity age of the honey. Mature honey is of good quality.

(c)-Ants

-Wax moth

-Bee houses

-Honey badgens

24.
a) Name the parts label 4mks

A Lactiferous duct

B Gland cistern

b) Where does lacto genesis take place 1mk

Udder

c) Name the hormone that is involved in lacto genesis 1mk

Prolactin
52
d) State two factors that influence milk let down
Taking the cow into the milking shed
Rattling sound of of buckets
Sight of calf
Sucking by calf
Washing of udder with warm water

SECTION C

26. b) Training a calf how to feed from the bucket.

-Well measured milk is put in a clean bucket

-Insert index finger into the mouth of the calf.

-Lower the head of the calf slowly into the bucket until the calf starts to drink the milk

-Withdraw the finger slowly as the calf continues to drink from the bucket.

-The procedure is repeated until the calf learns how to drink from the bucket

- 27. Discuss anthrax disease under the following sub headings

a) Animal attacked
cattle
b)Causal organism
Bacillus anthracis
c)Signs and symptoms
High fever
Dificulty in breathing
Loss of appetite
Sudden death
Blood stains on feaces
Carcas lack rigor mortis Blood oozes out of all openings
d)Control measures
Quarantine
Burry carcass 6 feet deep
Avoid eating meet from dead animals
Avoid opening infected carcass
Vaccination Isolate sick animals from healthy ones

ii) Parts of a plunge dip.

-Animal holding yard; holding animals before dipping

53
-Footbath; washing the feet of animals/ contain chemical for controlling footrot disease

-The Jump; allow animals to jump singly into the dip tank

-Dip tank; holds the dip wash

-Draining race;allows the chemical from the body of the animal to drain back into the dip tank

-Silt trap outlet

-Drying yard

-water tank

iii) )- Used to demarcate the farm land from that of neighbours

--Used to keep off wild animals and other initiative from outside the farm.

-Used to separate crop fields from pasture facilitating mixed farming.

-Used to divide pasture fields into paddocks facilitating rotational grazing.

-Control movement of animals and people preventing formation of unnecessary paths.

-Help to control the spread of parasites and diseases by keeping off wild and stray animals.

-Help to isolate sick animals from the rest of the herd to prevent diseases spread.

-Enable farmer to control breeding by rearing different animals in different paddocks

-Provide security to the homestead and farm animals.

BIOLOGY PAPER 1 MARKING SCHEME

231/1 JUNE/JULY 2024

1. The genus name starts with a capital letter while species name is written in small letters;
-The two names are (typed) in italics/underlined separately; (2 mks)

2. (a) (Antigen) A; Rej. a

-Rhesus factor/antigen Rej. Small d.
Rej. Rhesus positive Antigen
(b) Cannot receive blood from B

54
Reason - Antibody b in blood plasma of the recipient will correspond with Antigen B in thedo or’s
blood; hence agglutination occurs /antigen antibody reaction will occur;

3. (a) Chewing
Has teeth (of different types) for mastication/breaking down food into smaller particles/mechanical
digestion;

(b) Carbohydrate digestion

Has salivary amylase/ptyalin to digest starch to maltose;

4. Selective reabsorption of materials in the kidney tubules is energy dependent/require energy;

synthesized through the process of respiration/action of respiratory enzymes; whose working is
affected by changes in pH /are denatured at high pH/pH affects the working/permeability of the
(kidney tubule cell) membranes;

Summary of above:
- Energy requirement
- Respiration
- Effect of pH on enzymes
- Effects of pH on permeability

5.
Light dependent stage Light independent stage
Occurs in presence of light Occurs any time;
Occurs in grana Occurs in stroma;
Produce hydrogen atoms and oxygen gas Produce glucose;
Mark first two

6. (a) Fine adjustment knob; (1 mk)

(b) Click the low power objective lens into position;

With eyes on the eyepiece lenses and using the coarse adjustment knob, gradually raise/lower low
power objective lens to bring the specimen into focus; OWTTE
(must be procedural)

55
(c) centrioles;

7. (a) Transpiration is the process by which plants lose (excess) water in form of water
vapour/moisture through stomata in leaves accept lenticels on the stem
while guttation is the loss of (excess) water through their leaves in form of droplets through
hydathodes
(b) How each of the following factors increase the rate of transpiration:
i. Temperature
High temperature increases the rate of evaporation from leaf surface/stem; thus more
water vapour in the leaves cells due to increased diffusion gradient;

ii. Humidity
Low humidity is due to the atmosphere being less saturated with water vapour which leads
to more water vapour to move from leaf air spaces/stem due to increased diffusion
gradient; leading to increased rate of evaporation;

8. (a) Assumptions of capture-recapture method

 No migration during the period of survey
 No deaths/variations/reproduction in population during the period of study
 Method of marking does not affect the animal behavior
 Mark released animals will freely mix with others in ponds
 Marked released animals will have enough time to mix with others.
 There is uniform/random distribution of animals in the pond
Max. (4 mks)

(b) Primary productivity decreases with depth

 Decrease in light intensity as depth increases; accept light penetration decrease

 Decrease in temperature as depth increases;

9. (a) Water molecules; (1 mk)

(b) Solution B is hypertonic (compared to A); water moves from A to B by osmosis;

Increasing the volume of B; (3 mks)

10. Plants make their own food from carbon (IV) oxide and water in the presence of
light/photosynthesize/autotrophic; while animals eat ready made food (from plants and
animals)/heterotrophic; NB: If photosynthesis is described, all raw materials must be mentioned.
Carbon (IV) oxide must be bracketed

56
12. To reduce heat loss; since feathers trap more air; that acts as an insulator against heat loss/that is a
poor conductor of heat;

13. The bodies of some people react to allergens like bee stings by over producing antibodies;

An antigen – antibody reaction occurs causing cells to burst to release histamine; which causes blood
vessels to be dilated lowering pressure, inflammation is increased permeability of epithelialcells which
causes swelling and inflammation; OWTTE

14. (a) Pyruvic acid/pyruvate;

(b) Cristae increase surface area for attachment of respiratory enzymes;

(c) Glucose;
Reason – soluble hence easily transported to respiratory sites;
-Requires less oxygen to oxidize;
(any one reason)

15. Descending limb of the loop of henle; Distal convoluted tubule; (mark 1st one)

16. The parasites have a gene/mutate to acquire the gene for resistance to the drugs used; (the ones
without the gene are wiped by the drug). The ones with the resistant gene survive to maturity and
their offspring inherit the genes; A new population of resistant parasites is developed; OWTTE

17. a) Intermittent;
b) Arthropoda;
c) Hardened exoskeleton limits growth/size of the organism;

18. (a) Placenta (takes over as a gland); to secrete hormone progesterone; which maintains pregnancy;

(b) (i) Labels on the diagram either:

Anther;
Ovary; accept ovules
(ii) The anthers are below the stigma;
(to minimize self pollination)
-Petals are large/conspicuous for insects to land on/attract insects; (encouraging cross
pollination)
Accept stigma is above the anthers (to minimize self pollination)

57
19. a kli efelter’s syndrome;

(b) Explain how the syndrome occurs

Chromosomal mutation/abnormalities; result in addition of a whole chromosome; It occurs
during meiotic division/meiosis where the homologous chromosomes/sister chromatids fail to
segregate; and so move to the same gamete cell; the XX fuses with the Y to form XXY;
Max. 3 mks

20. Nasal cavity

Lined with hair; to trap dust particles/foreign materials/purify the air;Has
mucus; to moisten/warm the (incoming) air;
To trap dust from incoming air/inhaled air;

21. (a) (i) Sebum; Rej. Description

(ii) Keep the skin moist/supple/soft;
√ A ts as) an antiseptic accept kills bacteria
√ make skin/hair water proof;

22. (a) Ligament holds bones together (at a joint) while tendons attach muscles to bones; (1 mk)
(b) Ball and socket;
Hinge joint; mark first one

23. (a) Adaptation of:

(i) External auditory meatus.
Lined with hair/secrete wax to trap foreign bodies; Rej. Wax alone
Hollow/tubular/tube to direct sound waves to ear drum.

(ii) Ear ossicles.

Solid/bony/hard/small/form lever system to amplify (sound) vibrations;
Are linked/loosely attached to transmit (sound) vibrations;

b (i) P – cerebral hemisphere/cerebrum; Accept cerebral cortex (2 mks)

R – Medulla Oblongata;
(ii) Functions of Q (2 mks)
 Muscular co-ordination;
 Maintain body balance/posture;
 Manual motor dexterity;
 Fine adjustment movement/skill and ease using hands;

58
MARKING SCHEME 1 PAPER 2

SECTION A (40 mks)

1. (a) Hip joint;

(b) Z – Femur;
U – cartilage; Accept Articular cartilage

(c) Function of fluid found in W.

-Absorb shock;
- Reduce friction (during movement);

(d) Type of muscle attached to bone Z

- Ball and socket joint;

(e) Difference between above muscle and gut muscle

 Skeletal muscles Gut muscles

Striated Unstriated
Multinucleated Uninucleated;
Long fibred Short fibred;
Cylindrical Spindle shaped;

(f) The (rigid) midrib holds leaf (out away) from the stem;
√ (veins/network of veins) have lignified xylem;
√ Turgidity in spongy mesophyll and palisade cells; (support the leaf to remain open)
(mark 1st one)

2. (a) (i) Chlorophyll;

(ii) Oxygen; Rej. Symbol
(iii) Test tube B is at optimum temperature for enzyme activity; (hence more bubbles)
√Test tube C
- Most enzymes have been denatured by the high temperature; (hence few bubbles)

(b) How human intestinal villus is adapted to its function:

√ Has thin epithelium; for faste diffusion of dissolved/digested food substances/nutrient;

√ The (epithelium) has goblet cells; which secrete mucus which lubricates food getting its
passage/prevent digestion of gut wall by (its own proteolytic) enzymes;

√ They have microvilli; which (further) increase their surface area for absorption of
absorbed/digested/dissolved/soluble food/glucose/vitamins/amino acids;

√ Has lacteal; for absorption of fatty acid and glycerol/transportation of lipids;

59
√ Highl vascularized/dense network of capillaries; for absorption/transportation of
absorbed/dissolved/soluble nutrients/vitamins/amino acids;

√ has paneth cells; to produce lysozymes which are antibacterial;

√ Has crypts of luberkuhn; which produces intestinal juice which contain digestive enzymes;

3. (a) J – Epidermis;
K- Pith; (2 mks)

(b) Functions of
L- Transport mineral salts/minerals;
M – Translocation/Transport manufactured food;
N – Produces new cells/divide to give new cells; Accept secondary
thickening/growth/produces phloem and xylem;

(c) How to bring back low blood volume

√ (Blood) transfusion
√ Eating iron rich food stuff;
√ Taki g iron tablets;

4. (a) Mother X Father

Parental
Genotype XBXb x XBY; (must start from parental genotype)

XB Y
X B
XBXB XBY
Xb XB Xb XbY

25% / ¼ / 0.25 chance that a son will be colour blind; max. 4

(b) Geographical distribution.

√ Continents existed as one large land mass/Pangea/Laurasian and Gandwana land;
√ Present continents drifted from it leading to isolation of organisms;
√ Organisms in each continent evolved along different lines; These led to emergence of new
species/speciation;
(4 mks)
Accept comparison of organisms such as:
√ Liamas of South America related to camels of Africa since they have same embryonic origin
before continental drift
√ Marsupials of Australia related to opossum of South America
Accept example for isolation of organisms only

60
5. (a) Population of striga weed

Population = throw 1 + throw 2 + throw 3 + throw 4 + throw 5

19 + 12 + 11 + 14 + 16; = 72
5 5
= 14.4
1 m2 = 14 plants
Therefore 400 m2 = (400 x 14); = 5,600 plants
1
(b) Hazards of air pollution by Sulphur (IV) Oxide. Sulphur (IV) Oxide in air causes respiratory
diseases; poisons plants; forms acid rain; which lower soil pH/increases soil acidity;
Acid rain corrodes metals/buildings/machines/sculptures/statues/stones;
Acid rain poisons/damages/kills plants/kills animals/kills aquatic animals;
Acid rain causes leading of magnesium/calcium ions/aluminium ions; High concentration of
Sulphur (IV) Oxide gas can kill humans/animals/damage plants;

6. (a) Graph paper space (within)

Scale – 2
Axes – 1
Plotting – 2
Curve – 1
Identity – 1
07

(b) 80 – 18 = 62; 2.48Oc/min;

2.5 25

(c) Control experiment; Rej. Controlling experiment

(d) Rate was faster in tube K; because the film of methylated spirit evaporated ; removing heat
from the tube; ( 3mks)

(e) Convection;
Radiation; (2 mks)

(f) Lower rate of heat loss;

(g) (i) Birds – feathers; (1 mk)

(ii) Mammals – Fur; (1 mk)
-subcutaneous fat/Adipose tissue;

61
(h) A rat has a larger surface area to volume ratio compared to an elephant; making the rat to
lose heat at a faster rate than an elephant; (2 mks)

7. (a) Adaptation of respiratory surfaces in mammals to their functions.

√ Many numerous alveoli; provides large surface area; across which large amounts of gases
diffuse;
√ Moist surfaces; to dissolve (respiratory) gases; so s to diffuse
√ Made of a thin membrane/epithelium/one celled thick wall; to reduce diffusion distance;
√ Highly vascularized/many dense network of blood capillaries; to carry away oxygen; to bring in
carbon (IV) oxide; creating a steep diffusion gradient;
Function mk tied to correct adaptive feature
- Accept respiratory gases and award 1 mk only. Two marks for specific gases
11 points
10 max

(b) Importance of excretory products of plants.

Quinine; treatment of malaria;
Tannins; treatment of leather
Decoration of pots;
Caffeine; mild stimulant/increases mental activity and reduces fatigue;
Cannabis; manufacture narcotic drugs;
Manufacture insecticides/cigarretes;
Rubber; make shoes/chewing gum/tires
Colchicine; breeding research and in cancer therapy
Gum Arabica; food processing industries and printing industries;
Khat; mild stimulant;
Papain; meat tenderizer;

8. How structures of human eye are adapted to perform their functions

Part of the eye Adaptation Function

Conjunctiva An epithelium; Protects eye ball;
Colourless;
Cornea Curved; -Refracts light;
Transparent; -Allow light to enter the eye;
Aqueous Transparent; -Allow light to pass through;
humor Hydrostatic pressure; -Maintain shape of eye;
Contain nutrients; -Nourishes the eye;
Iris Contractive & opaque; -Regulate amount of light entering
Contain radial and circular muscles; the eye;
-Controls curvature of lens;
-Secretes humor;
Suspensory Fibrous; Holds lens in position;
ligaments
Lens Transparent; - To allow light to go through;

62
Biconvex; -To allow refraction/focus light;
Cones Contain pigment iodopsin; -For bright light/vision;
-Colour vision/high light intensity
vision;
Retina Contain light sensitive cells; -where an image is formed which
perceives light;
Rods Contain pigment rhodopsin; -For low light intensity vision;
Fovea centralis Has high concentration of cones; -For accurate vision;
(yellow spot)
Choroid Has blood vessels; -For nourishment of eye;
Pigmented; -To reduce light reflection and to
absorb stray light;
Sclera/scleroid Tough, non-elastic/fibrous; -Gives eye shape;
-Protects the eye;
Optic nerve contain nerves; Transmit impulses from retina to
contain sensory neurons; the brain;

External Contractile; move eye ball (within the socket);

eye
muscle

Accept other parts eye brows, eye lids, and eye lashes with the correct adaptations and functions
NAME ………………………………………………………….…INDEX NO ……..........

SCHOOL: ……………………………………STREAM…………DATE ………………

HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATION 2024

The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 PRE-MOCK 2 EXAMINATION
(443/2) (Agriculture) Paper 2
JUNE, 2024 Time: 2h 15 min.
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
 Write your name, index number,school, classand admission number in the spaces provided.
 Sign and write the date in the spaces provided above.
 Answer all the questions in section A and B
 Answer any two questions in section C.
For Examiner’s Use Only:

SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

A 1-20 30

B 21-24 20

C 20

TOTAL 90

This paper consists of 11printed pages. Candidates should check to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing.
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@hawk2024 pp2 agriculture

SECTION A (30MARKS)
1. Name four notifiable diseases of livestock in livestock production (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
2. Name the part of the digestive system of poultry where insoluble grit is found .( )
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
3. Give two reasons why doper breed of sheep is good in mutton production. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
4. State four pre-disposing factors of foot rot diseases in cattle (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
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5. State four features of a good maize granary (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
6. Differentiate between each of the following terms as used in livestock production (2mks)

a)Differentiate between “Flushing” and “Steaming up” in livestock management. (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………..……
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

b) Absconding and nuptial flight (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
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7. Give four characteristics of a good vaccine. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
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8. Name four materials that are collected by bees. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
9. Give the function of each of the following parts of a fish pond.
a) Spillway ( )
……………………………………………………………………………………………....
b) Outlet ( )
………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. Name two breeding systems that can increase the frequency of high milk production genes in
indigenous cattle. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
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11. Name any two methods of attachment of tractor drawn implements. (1 )
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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12. Give three characteristics of succulent roughage. (1 )
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
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13. a) State four advantages of artificial incubation in comparison to natural incubation as a
method of hatching chicks. (1 )
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
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b.) Give two reasons of spreading a PVC on the slab of farm buildings during (1 mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. Name the tool used together with the tool named below. 2mks)

Cold chisel………………………………………………………………………………………..

Screwdriver………………………………………………………………………………………..

Trocar………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. State four functions of carbohydrates in livestock. (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
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16. Give three reasons why drenching alone is not an effective method of controlling intestinal
parasites in livestock. (1 )
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
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17. Give four routes through which pathogens can enter the body of the animal. (2 )
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
18. Give the mineral whose deficiency causes the following disorders in livestock.
a) Anaemia
………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Parakeratosis
………………………………………………………………………………………………
19. Give three reasons why liming is done in fish ponds .(1 )
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
………………………………………………………………………………………………..…
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20. If records show that a rabbit was served on 27th September 2020.Which date did it give birth.
1
2
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (20 MARKS)

21. The diagram below shows a farm equipment, study it and answer the questions that follow

i. Identify the implement (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. Name the parts label (3mks)

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B……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

C……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

D…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
iii. What maintenance practice would be required in the part label A (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
……..…………………………………………………………………………………
………………..………………………………………………………………………

22 a)Other than Pearson square method, give other two methods used to compute ration.(2m
….………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
b)A ration containing 18% protein is to be made from maize and sunflower cake. Given that
maize contains 7% protein, and sunflower seed cake 34% protein. Use pearson square
method to calculate the value of feedstuffs to be used to prepare 200Kgs of the feed.
(3mrks)

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23.Below is an illustration of a bee keeping structure?

(a)Name the parts labeled K, L,NandM. (2mks)

K……………………………………………………………………………………

L……………………………………………………………………………………

N……………………………………………………………………………………

M……………………………………………………………………………………

(b)Give two factors that affect the quality of honey. (2mks)

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24.The following is a diagram of the udder , use it to answer the questions that follow

a) Name the parts label. (2mks)

A………………………………………………………………………………………………

B………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Where does lacto genesis take place (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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c) Name the hormone that is involved in lacto genesis (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………
d) State two factors that influence milk let down. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION C (40MARKS)

25.a) Describe how four stroke cycle engine works (14 mrks)

b)Explain six mechanical methods of controlling ticks. (6mks)

26 a) Explain four factors that affect the digestibility of a feed material. (4mks)
b) Eplain the procedure of training a dairy calf to feed from the bucket in artificial feeding(6mks)

c) State and explain Five factors that affect milk production. (10 mrks)

27.Describe Anthrax disease under the following sub- headings.

a)Animals attacked (1mk)

b)Causal organism (1mk)

c)Symptoms (2mks)
d)Control measures (2mks)

c) State the functions of any Six parts of a plunge dip. (6mks)

d)Outline eight uses of fences in the farn. (8mks)

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…………………………………………..…………………………………………………………
……………………………………..………………………………………………………………

Page | 14

@hawk2024 pp2 agriculture

SECTION A(40 MARKS) Answer All Questions
1. List THREE functions of a computer. (3 marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
2. Mention four types of registers used as special purpose memory. (2 marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
3. A keyboard is an input device that is used to enter data to the computer. List two types of cables that
are used to connect the keyboard to the motherboard. (1 mark)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
4. Give two advantages of using hard disk over compact disk. (2 marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
5. Database model refers to the way a database is structured and organised. With the aid of a diagram
explain hierarchical database models (2 marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
6. Differentiate between installation and configuration in relation to operating system. (2 marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
7. State three differences between TFT monitor and CRT monitor (3 marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________

1|Page
8. Crashing of the hard disk is regarded as a threat to data security. Give three measures you can take to
protect the hard disk from crashing. (3 marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
9. Mr. Abongo, the principal of Usenge high school wanted to buy a computer. He was informed by
the teacher of Computer Studies that he should consider cost of the laptop, processor speed, and
portability of the computer. Mention four factors that determine the cost of the computer (4 marks).
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
10. List three devices under the control of operating system. (2 marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
11. State three benefits of using folders to organize information in a computer system (3 marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
12. The table below was created using MS-Word use it to answer the questions that follow:
Product Name Quantity Unit Cost Total
Maize 80 10 800
Millet 60 20 1200
Grand Total 2000
(i) Identify the formula used to get:
Total (1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
Grand Total (1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
(ii) List four types of alignment used in word processor (2 mark
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
2|Page
13. Explain two reasons why its important to draw a flowchart of a program during development
(4 marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________

14. In relation to DTP, explain the meaning of: (2 marks)

i. Pasteboard
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
ii. Master page
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

15. The operating system is a system software that manages the computer hardware. Explain three ways
in which the operating system manages the primary memory. (3 marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________

3|Page
SECTION B (60 MARKS)
Answer Question 16 And Any Other Three Questions In This Section
16. Define the following terms as used in programming. (2 marks)
i. Assembler
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
ii. Pseudocode
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
b. With the aid of a flowchart segments, highlight the difference between the
REPEAT…UNTIL and WHILE …DO constructs. (4 marks)

c. Study the pseudocode below and then answer the questions that follow.
START
Deposit = 1000
Interest Rate = 20%
Year =1
REPEAT
Interest = Deposit *interest rate
Deposit = Deposit + interest
Print Deposit
Year = Year + 1
UNTIL
Year = 4
STOP
i. Write down all the expected outcomes (prints) from the above pseudocode. (4marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
4|Page
ii. Draw a programme flowchart for the above pseudocode. (5 marks)

5|Page
17.
d. Convert 142.18 to Decimal (2 marks)

e. State two advantages of Twos compliment over Ones compliment. (2 marks)

f. Subtract using Ones compliment. (4 marks)

3110-1710

g. (i) List the last three stages of system development. (3 marks)

______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
(ii) List two methods that can be used to train users about usage of a system (1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(iii) Explain any TWO causes of a system maintenance. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(iv) Name two content of a feasibility report. (1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

18. (a) distinguished between the following terms as used in data communication (6 marks)
i. Guided transmission and unguided transmission
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________

6|Page
ii. Multiplexing and demultiplexing
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
iii. Simplex and duplex
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
(b) Below is a diagram of a network topology.

i. Name the above topology (1 mark)

_______________________________________________________________________________
ii. State ONE advantages and ONE disadvantage of using the topology named above (2 marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
(c) Define the following terms as used in data communication (3 marks)
I. Attenuation
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
II. Noise
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
III. Impendence
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
7|Page
(d) State three duties performed by database administrator (3 marks)
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
19.
a) There are four stages in data processing cycle. Describe the stages of data collection (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
b) Describe the following arithmetic errors that may occur during computerised data processing
(2 marks)
i. Truncation
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
ii. Overflow
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
c) Define data integrity as used in data processing (1 mark)
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
d) File organization method refers to the way in which records are arranged in a file. list four types of
file organization methods . (2 marks)
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
e) A school uses computer system which operates batch processing mode and real-time mode. State a
task in a school that would use: (2 marks)
i. Batch processing
__________________________________________________________________________

8|Page
ii. Real-time processing
__________________________________________________________________________

f) Explain the impact of information technology on organization in each of the following areas
a. Competition (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
b. Pace of growth (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
20.
a. Define the term automatic recalculation (1 mark)
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
b. Name and explain any two types of data types used in excel (2 marks)
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
c. Below is a an excel sheet, study and use it to answer questions that follow.

A B C D E
1 NAMES MATH ENG KISW TOTAL
2 JAMES 67 76 25
3 OMWOYO 45 45 45
4 JAEL 24 67 68
5 JOHN 78 87 46
i. Write a function that can be put in cell A6 to count names that begin with letter J. (3 marks)

ii. Joseph, a form two student wanted to obtain the grade of James using the following criteria, if
total marks is greater than 70, A; if total marks is greater than 60, B; if total marks is greater
than 50, C; and less than 40 the output should be fail. He typed the following formula in cell
F2: IF(E2>=70,”A”, IF(E2>=60,”B”, IF(E2>=50,”C” ,IF(E2<40”FAIL”))

a) Identify three errors in the formula above and write it correctly (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
9|Page
b) Give the output after correcting, if the value in cell E2 is 40 (1 mark)
______________________________________________________________________

d. Name two negative effects of internet (2 mark)

e. Give the functions of the following features in an e-mail. (3 marks)

i. Forward
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
ii. Send
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
iii. Compose
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________

10 | P a g e
HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATION 2024
The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 PRE-MOCK 1 EXAMINATION
(451/2) (COMPUTER STUDIES) Paper 2
JUNE, 2024 Time:2 ½ HOURS

NAME ___________________________ADM NO_ SCHOOL _______

INDEX NO________SIGN DATE_

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

(a) Indicate your name and Admission number at the top right-hand corner of each printout.
(b) Write your name and admission number on the CD/Removable storage medium provided.
(c) Write the name and version of the software used for each question attempted in the answer
sheet provided.
(d) Answer all thequestions.
(e) All questions carry equal marks.
(f) Passwords should not be used while saving in the CD/Removable storage medium.
(g) All answers must be saved in your CD/Removable storage medium.
(h) Make a printout of the answers on the answer sheet.
(i) Arrange your printouts and tie/staple them together.
(j) Hand in all the printouts and the CD/Removable storage medium used.
(k) This paper consists of 4 printed pages.
(l) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
Candidates should answer the questions in English.

1
1. The following table contains data extracted from an employees’ payroll file maintained by
a certain company.
EMPNO NAME BASIC PAY DEPARTMENT AGE STATUS

E100 Marren 16000.00 Computer 34 Single

E101 Wezo 17000.00 Computer 44 Married

E102 Dave 19000.00 Finance 33 Divorced

E103 Charles 21000.00 Research 33 Single

E104 Davy 23000.00 Research 25 Single

E105 Thomas 25000.00 Computer 26 Married

E106 Ann 27000.00 Finance 28 Married

E107 Susan 29000.00 Finance 29 Divorced

E108 Tina 31000.00 Research 24 Divorced

E109 Andrew 33000.00 Computer 40 Single

E110 Hardy 35000.00 Finance 20 Married

E111 Selly 37000.00 Finance 43 Single

E112 Kimani 10000.00 Research 15 Single

E113 Chep 15000.00 Finance 35 Divorced

E114 Eddie 35000.00 Computer 25 Married

E115 Moses 59000.00 Research 33 Single

E116 Miriam 70000.00 Finance 56 Divorced

E117 Maurice 32876.00 Computer 70 Divorced

E118 Alphine 43876.00 Research 65 Divorced

E119 Cazy 48098.00 Research 32 Single

E120 Langat 6500.00 Computer 12 Single

E121 Phenny 29000.00 Finance 70 Single

E122 Hilda 32000.00 Computer 13 Married

(a) (i) Create a database file and save as Company. (1 mark)

(ii) Create a table named Workers containing the fields shown in the table above. (3½ marks)

2
(iii) Choose and set an appropriate field as a primary key. (½ mark)
(b) (i) Create a form named Workers Form to be used to enter the data above in the Worker stable to
appear as shown below. (7 marks )

WORKERS DETAILS CAPTURE SCREEN

EMPNO: NAME:

AGE : STATUS:

DEPARTMENT :

BASIC PAY:

(ii) Use the Workers Form to enter the data above into the Worker stable. (5 marks)
(c) Create queries to determine:
(i) Number of people with basic salary greater than 32,000/= .Save the query as Basic (3 marks)
(ii) Number of people with basic salary less than 45,000/= and come from computer department. Save the
query as Computer. (5 marks)
(iii)Those whose name begin with letter ‘M’ or end in letter ‘S’. Save the query as Names (3 marks)

(d) (i) Create a query to determine those employees who will earn more than 50,000/= if there is an
increment of basic pay by 10%. Save the query as Salary Increment. (4 marks)
(ii) Create a query to determine the year of birth of each employee from the current year. Save as Year
Of
Birth. (3 marks)

(e) (i) Create a report from Workerstable to display all the data in the table. Save as Workers Report. (3
marks)
(ii)Modify the WorkersReport in (e)(i) above as follows:

I. Add the “EMPLOYEE SALARY DETAILS”as the report title. Use font size 19 pts, bold,
underline and centre it across the columns containing data. (3 marks)
II. Display the employees records according to their department and show the total amount the
company spend on each department as salary and the total amount spend on paying all the
employees. Save as WorkersReport_2. (6 marks)

(f) Print: (3 marks)

(i) Workers
table;
(ii) YearOfBirth
query
(a) WorkersReport2

3
2. (a) Use a DTP software to design the following publication as it is with the following
settings:

(i) paper size = A4

(ii) orientation = Landscape
(iii) page margins = 0.25 inches all around
(i) Guides: Column 1 Width = 5.2”
Space between Columns = 0.75”
Column 2 Width = 5.2”
(ii) File name = ExcellenceBook (6 marks)

(b) Design the publication as it appears on the following page on the page you have
created and fit all the items within the page. (38 marks)

(d) Print the publication. (2 marks)

4
5
1

NAME ………………………………………………………….…INDEX NO ……..........

SCHOOL: ……………………………………STREAM…………DATE ………………

HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATION 2024

The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 PRE-MOCK 2 EXAMINATION
(501/1) (French) Paper 1
JUNE, 2024 Time: 2h 15 min.

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education 2024

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

 Answer all the questions in the spaces provided

SECTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

I 15

II 05

III 15

TOTAL SCORE 35

HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATION, 2024 FRENCH 501/1

SECTION I: LISTENING COMPREHENSION (15 MKS)

PASSAGE 1

1. (a) Les sports sont terminés _ dernière le ___ (1mk)

(b) Combien d’écoles y ont participé? ________________________ (1/2 mk)

(c) Qui était le gagnant ? __________________________ (1/2mk)

(d) Les joueurs de l’école Mandela était très bien ______________________

(1/2mk)

(e) Quel sport s’agit-il dans ce texte (1/2mk)

_______________________________________

PASSAGE 2

(a) Dans ce texte on parle de la _ d’une __ (1mk)

(b) Qui sont affectés ? (i)……………………………………. (1/2mk)

(ii) ………………………………… (1/2mk)

(iii) …………………………………. (1/2mk)

(c) Donnez les trois caractéristiques de l’eau selon ce texte (11/2mks)

i. _____________________
ii. _____________________
iii. _____________________

HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATION, 2024 FRENCH 501/1

PASSAGE 3

a) Le produit dans ce texte s’appelle ………………………………. (1/2mk)

b) Il est utilisé par les …………………. et les ………………………… (1mk)
c) Le produit est la solution des cheveux …………………. (1/2mk)
d) Le produit est disponible aux ……………………. et ………………………. (1mk)

PASSAGE 4

Permis (fruits +) Interdit

………………………….

Le Matin
……………………… Le pain
…………………………….
Midi ………………………….. L`ugali
du riz

…………. aux légumes

Le soir ………………………….
Des patates

(3mks)

PASSAGE 5

(a) Le paquet contient ………………………. (1/2mk)

(b) Dans quel pays sont ils ? ……………………………… (1/2mk)

(c) Quel est la nationalité de la dame ? (1/2mk)

………………………………………

(d) Le prix d’envoyer le paquet est ……………………. (1/2mk)

HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATION, 2024 FRENCH 501/1

SECTION II: DICTÉE (05 MKS)

Write the dictation passage in the spaces provided below

HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATION, 2024 FRENCH 501/1

SECTION III: CREATIVE WRITING (15 MKS)

In between 150 -180 words, write in French on EITHER-

Beginning as follows;

a) Mes parents rentrent à la maison comme d’habitude vers six heures du soir mais ce jour-
là, il était déjà huit heures …………………………….. (15 mks)
OR

Ending as follows ;

b) ………….. Ce jour-là, j’ai appris que tout est bien qui finit bien. (15 mks)

HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATION, 2024 FRENCH 501/1

NAME ………………………………………………………….…INDEX NO ……..........

SCHOOL: ……………………………………STREAM…………DATE ………………

HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATION 2024

The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 PRE-MOCK 2 EXAMINATION
(501/2) (French) Paper 2
JUNE, 2024 Time: 2h 15 min.

FRENCH PAPER 2: READING COMPREHENSION, GRAMMAR& FUNCTIONAL WRITING

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

 Answer all the questions in the spaces provided

SECTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

I 15

II 15

III 10
TOTAL SCORE 40

FRENCH PAPER 2 501/2 HAWK 2 2024

SECTION I : READING COMPREHENSION(15 MARKS)

PASSAGE I
Imob- Kenya vous propose une villa qui vous plaira. Elle est située sur une colline, á quatre kilomètres du
centre-ville, dans un quartier tranquille et sécurisant.
Il y a une piscine, un garage pour quatre voitures et une clôtureélectrique.
Au rez-de-chaussée, il y a le salon, la salle á manger, une grande cuisine et deux chambres en suite, avec
toilette et salle de bains. Au premier étage, il y a 3 chambres, toutes en suite et une bibliothèque.
Le loyer n’est pas très élevé : pour une telle habitation de grande classe, 150,000 shillings par mois, c’est
très raisonnable ! En plus, c’est négociable !

a) Donnez les avantages du lieu décrit dans le texte :

i) ………………………………… ii) …………………………. (1/2 point)
ii) ………………………………….. iv)………………………….(1/2point)
b) De combien de pièces s’agit-il ? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………

c) Trouvez dans le passage les synonymes de :

i) Calme …………………….. (1/2point)
ii) Salle de séjour ……………………………… (1/2point)
iii) Location ……………………………. (1/2point)
iv) Résidence ……………………………. (1/2point)

FRENCH PAPER 2 501/2 HAWK 2 2024

PASSAGE II

FRENCH PAPER 2 501/2 HAWK 2 2024

PASSAGE III

SWISSGARDE
COMPAGNIE INTERNATIONALE
CHERCHE
Chef d’achats
Diplôme requise
[email protected]

QUESTIONS
1. Il s’agit de quelle companie? (1 mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Que doit- on avoir comme qualification ? (1 mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………...
3. Comment est-ce qu’on les contacte ? (1 mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

PASSAGE IV

FRENCH PAPER 2 501/2 HAWK 2 2024

QUESTIONS

a) Les deux activités possibles a travers le téléphone portable sont ? (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
b) Selon le texte pourquoi est ce qu’il y a beaucoup d’accidents? (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Identifier deux effets des accidents routiers aux victimes. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) Écrivez des verbes à partir des noms suivants:
i) emploi: ……………………………………. (1/2 mk)
ii) hospitalisation : …………………………… (1/2 mk)

SECTION II : GRAMMAIRE (15 MARKS)

I. Beginning as indicated, complete the sentences below making any necessary changes. Avoid
unnecessary repetitions.
EXEMPLE : Tu as mon livre ?
- Oui,……………………………………………………………………..
- Oui, je l’ai.
1) Mais … tu ne vas pas te loger ici ?
-Si, je …………………………………………................................................... (1mk)
2) J’ai entendu l’histoire. Elle était très triste.
- L’histoire ……………………………………………………………………… (1mk)
3) As- tu envoyé quelque chose á ta mère ?
-Non, ………………………………………...................................................... (1 pt)

FRENCH PAPER 2 501/2 HAWK 2 2024

4) Tu as pris un café puis tu t'es couché?

-Bien sûr, avant ………………………………………………………………………………(1mk)
5) Le directeur dit à I'éléve, "Sois à 1'heure!"
Qu'est-ce qu'il lui demande?
-II lui demande……………………………………………………………………………….. (1mk)
6) Est-il nécessaire de s’habiller correctement les weekends ?
- Mais absolument, il faut qu’on …………………………………………………………….. (1 mk)
7) Paul sortait de la banque quand il a vu le bandit.
- C’est en……………………………………………………………………………………… (1mk)

II. Fill in the blanks with ONE WORD only. (5 mks)

i) ____________2002, Ami Aimé, Président (ii) ____________ la République de Wananchi proclame une
éducation gratuite à tout (iii) _____________ monde. Les citoyens (iv) ______________ ce pays ont reçu
une bourse de la Pologne, L’Allemagne, La Suisse, La France et le Canada. Les étudiants choisis vont
aller (v)__________ Madagascar (vi)_______________ un programme élaboré d’échange. Ils visiteront
(vii) ___________ sites touristiques dans cette île magnifique. Ce programme d’échange (viii) _________
terminerait en 2012. De (ix)_________ retour, ils auront biensûr beaucoup (x)__________ raconteur aux
autres.

III. Write in French what you would say in the the following situations (3 points)
(a) Votre ami.e est malade à l’hôpital. Qu’est-ce que vous lui dites ? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Vous arrivez à Paris pour la première fois. Qu’est-ce que vous dites en voyant la tour Eiffel pour
exprimer votre admiration? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Vous remerciez quelqu’un qui vous donne un cadeau. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

FRENCH PAPER 2 501/2 HAWK 2 2024

SECTION III : FUNCTIONAL WRITING (10 MKS)

In between 120- 150 words, write in French on-
EITHER ;
a). Vous êtes secrétaire du club français et votre école organisera un journée française au mois de
juillet. Rédigez une lettre d’invitation aux écoles voisines. (10 mks)

OR
b). Vous êtes secrétaire du club de français et votre école organisera une journée française au mois de
juillet. Rédigez un programme pour l’événement. (10 mks)
 Indicate clearly whether you’re answering question (a) or (b) on the answer sheet.

FRENCH PAPER 2 501/2 HAWK 2 2024

Name: . ………………………………………………… Class:…………………………

Adm No. ………………………………………………

501/3FRENCH PAPER 3
2024

TERM 2, 2024
FORM 4 HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATION
FRENCH ORALS

EXPOSÉ

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. You will talk on the topic given overleaf.
2. You will have ten minutes to prepare for the task.
3. You will have two minutes to talk on the topic.

EXPOSÉ: CARD A

Parlez de vos projets après les études secondaires.

Name: . ………………………………………………… Class:…………………………

Adm No. ………………………………………………

501/3
FRENCH PAPER 3
2024

TERM 2, 2024
FORM 4 HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATION
FRENCH ORALS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. You will talk on the topic given overleaf.
2. You will have ten minutes to prepare for the task.
3. You will have two minutes to talk on the topic.

EXPOSÉ: CARD B

La punition corporelle c’est nécessaire pour avoir la discipline aux écoles.

Name: . ………………………………………………… Class:…………………………

Adm No. ………………………………………………

501/3
FRENCH PAPER 3
2024

TERM 2, 2024
FORM 4 HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATION
FRENCH ORALS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. You will talk on the topic given overleaf.
2. You will have ten minutes to prepare for the task.
3. You will have two minutes to talk on the topic.

EXPOSÉ: CARD C

Comment avez- vous passé vos vacances de Noël?

..
Name: . ………………………………………………… Class:…………………………

Adm No. ………………………………………………

501/3
FRENCH PAPER 3
2024

TERM 2, 2024
FORM 4 HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATION
FRENCH ORALS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. You will talk on the topic given overleaf.
2. You will have ten minutes to prepare for the task.
3. You will have two minutes to talk on the topic.

EXPOSÉ: CARD D

Imaginez que vous avez gagné deux millions au lotto. Que feriez- vous?
Name: . ………………………………………………… Class:…………………………

Adm No. ………………………………………………

501/3
FRENCH PAPER 3
2024

TERM 2, 2024
FORM 4 HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATION
FRENCH ORALS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. You will talk on the topic given overleaf.
2. You will have ten minutes to prepare for the task.
3. You will have two minutes to talk on the topic.

SECTION I
Reading Aloud

CARD A

La Sierra Léone est un des principaux producteurs au monde de diamants.

Les autres réssources minérales du pays sont aussi importantes (Chrome, bauxite, fer) mais aujourd’
hui inexploitables à cause de la guerre civile. Les combats empêchent également la reprise de l’activité
agricole, qui concerne 65% de la population.
Ancienne colonie anglaise, elle est devenue indépendante en 1961. Sans l’aide humanitaire
internationale, les habitants du pays ne pourraient survivre.
Name: . ………………………………………………… Class:…………………………

Adm No. ………………………………………………

501/3
FRENCH PAPER 3
2024

TERM 2, 2024
FORM 4 HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATION
FRENCH ORALS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. You will talk on the topic given overleaf.
2. You will have ten minutes to prepare for the task.
3. You will have two minutes to talk on the topic.

SECTION I
Reading Aloud

CARD B
À certaines époques, le Sahara était peuplé d’hommes et d’animaux. Aujourd’hui c’est un désert de
huit millions de kilomètres carré.
Il y a 150 millions d’années, toutes sortes d’animaux vivaient parmi les palmiers dans le Sahara.
On le sait parce qu’on a retrouvé des os et de belles peintures au milieu du désert. A cette époque, il y
a une seule terre qui se sépare en cinq continents. Le Sahara remonte vers le nord où il fait plus sec.
On peu limiter la désertification si on plante de nouveaux arbres. Mais quand le désert avance, c’est
difficile de l’arrêter.
HAWK CLUSTER EXAMINATIONS – 2024
HAWK II EXAMINATIONS
FORM FOUR – JUNE, 2024
BUSINESS STUDIES PAPER ONE ( 565/1)
NAME…………………………………………………..ADM………………….CLASS………..
SCHOOL……………………………………………….SIGN……………DATE………………..
Instructions
a) Write your name and registration number in the spaces provided above
b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided
d) Do not remove any pages from this booklet
For examiners use only
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
TOTAL

HAWK 2 TERM TWO BUSINESS STUDIES Page 1 of 6

1. State four benefits of business studies to the society. (4marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
i)………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv)……………………………………………………………………………………………....
2. Highlight four sources of a business idea. (4marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
i)………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv)……………………………………………………………………………………………....
3. List four advantages of an open office layout to an organization. (4marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
i)………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv)……………………………………………………………………………………………....
4. Outline four difficulties faced in the satisfaction of human wants (4marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
i)………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv)……………………………………………………………………………………………....
5. Highlight four measures that have been put in place by the government to bring order and
sanity in the public transport sub-sector. (4marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
i)………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv)……………………………………………………………………………………………....
6. Highlight four ways in which the economic environment may positively influence the
activities of a business. (4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
i)………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv)……………………………………………………………………………………………....
7. Name the types of warehouses associated with each of the statements given below. (4marks)

Statement Type of warehouse

Specialized goods are stored
Individuals can hire storage facilities.
Goods are stored from several manufacturers
Goods can be stored before payment of custom
duty.

HAWK 2 TERM TWO BUSINESS STUDIES Page 2 of 6

8. In the spaces provided below, indicate the types of utility created by each of the following
commercial activities. (4marks)

Commercial activity Types of utility

Rendering medical care to students
Transporting relief food to kakuma camp
Storekeeping
Making desks.

9. Outline four circumstances under which cash with order (C.W.O) is appropriate. (4marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
i)………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv)……………………………………………………………………………………………....

10. The figure below shows a shift in supply curve from SoSo to S1s1
S1
S0
Price in (Ksh)

S1
S0
Quantity supplied in (Kg)

State four possible factors that might have led to this situation.
(4marks)

11. Highlight four factors that may a trader may consider when deciding on the types of business
to venture in. (4marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
i)………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv)……………………………………………………………………………………………....

HAWK 2 TERM TWO BUSINESS STUDIES Page 3 of 6

12. Outline four challenges that may be encountered by a country when several firms are located
in one town. (4marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
i)………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv)……………………………………………………………………………………………....
13. State four reason why diagonal communication should be encouraged in an organization.
(4 marks)

i)………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv)……………………………………………………………………………………………....

14. The following is a table of Assets, Liabilities and Capital. Determine the missing figures.
(4marks)

Assets Liabilities Capital

755,700 a 223,300
b 315,800 455,200
537,750 c 269,450
478,900 602,500 d

15. Outline four features of perfect competition market structure. (4 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………..
i)………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv)……………………………………………………………………………………………....
16. Outline four differences between Assurance policies and Insurance policies (4 marks)

Assurance Policies Insurance policies

ii)

iii)

iv)

HAWK 2 TERM TWO BUSINESS STUDIES Page 4 of 6

17. Given the transactions in the table below, indicate the effects on the balance sheet totals as
either increase, decrease or no effect. (4marks)

Statement Effect on balance sheet

totals
i) Received cash donation of shs, 5000
from the owner.
ii) Paid a creditor shs, 1000 by cheque
iii) A debtor settled his account shs 500 in
cash.
iv) A decrease in liability.

18. Mention any four modern trends in product promotion. (4marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………..
i)………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv)……………………………………………………………………………………………....
19. Give four assumptions of the circular flow of income in a two sector economy. (4marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
i)………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv)……………………………………………………………………………………………....
20. Highlight four ways in which an organization will safeguard its properties. (4marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
i)………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv)……………………………………………………………………………………………....
21. For each of the following transactions, name the account to be debited and the one to be
credited. (4marks)

Transaction. A/C A/C Credited

Debited
Cash introduced to expand business
Tenants pay rent by claque
A cheque drawn to buy sons toy
Sh. 500 cash deposited into the bank
account.

HAWK 2 TERM TWO BUSINESS STUDIES Page 5 of 6

22. State four requirements for opening a current account with a commercial bank in Kenya.
(4marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
i)………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv)……………………………………………………………………………………………....
23. State four features of an underdeveloped country. (4marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
i)………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv)……………………………………………………………………………………………....

24. State the book of original entry used to record information from the following source
documents (4marks)

.
Source Document Book of Original entry
a) Received invoice

b) Copy of credit note

c) Payment voucher

d) Issued invoice

25. Highlight four benefits that maybe realized when several firms merge. (4marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
i)………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv)……………………………………………………………………………………………....

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

HAWK 2 TERM TWO BUSINESS STUDIES Page 6 of 6

HAWK CLUSTER EXAMINATIONS – 2024
HAWK II EXAMINATIONS
FORM FOUR – JUNE, 2024
BUSINESS STUDIES PAPER TWO ( 565/2)
NAME…………………………………………………..ADM………………….CLASS………..
SCHOOL……………………………………………….SIGN……………DATE………………
Instructions.
a) Write your name and registration number in the spaces provided above
b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer ANY FIVE questions in the spaces provided
d) Do not remove any pages from this booklet
For examiners use only
question score
1
2
3
4
5
6
TOTAL

HAWK II TERM TWO 2024 1

1. a) Explain five importance of entrepreneurship in an economy (10 marks)
b) Explain five measures that government may institute to solve unemployment. (10 marks)
2 a) Explain five factors that a firm may consider when choosing a method of product
Promotion. (10
marks)
b) The following information was extracted from the books of Jawabu Traders for the month of
June 2021.

June 1. Started business with capital sh.40,000 cash and sh.150,000 bank overdraft.
June 2. KCB loan received by cheque Sh. 250,000
June 4. Cash taking for the day amounted to Sh. 30,000.
June 6. Bought stock worth Sh. 70,000 and paid by cheque less 8% discount.
June 7. Bought goods worth 1,500 on credit from Jamii Bora Enterprises.

June 9. Received sh. 24,500 from Mr. Lonyangapuo a debtor by cheque after allowing
2% cash discount.

June 10. The proprietor took Sh.10, 000 cash for his son’s birthday party.
June 11. Returned damaged goods worth shs. 500 to Jamii Bora Enterprises.
June 12. Withdrew Sh.48, 000 from the bank for office use.
June 13: Settled Jamii Bora Enterprises account by cheque less 10% cash discount.

June 15. Murgor settled his account of shs. 45,000 by cheque.

June 18. Paid wages Sh.10, 000 Cash.
June 20. Murgor’s cheque was dishonored. The bank charged him shs. 1,000.
June 27. Sold goods worth Sh. 68,000 receiving Sh.28, 000 cash and the rest by cheque.
June 30. Transferred all cash to the bank Except Sh.8, 000.

Required: Prepare a duly balanced three column cashbook. (10marks)

3. a) Using a diagram, explain the effect on the decrease in supply on equilibrium price and quantity
while demand is constant. (10 marks)
b) Explain five sources of finance available to Kenyan government. (10 marks)

HAWK II TERM TWO 2024 2

4. a) State four Differences between public limited company and partnership. (8 marks)
b) The following trial balance was extracted from the Ledgers of Lencer
Entertainment business on 30th April 2018.

Lencer Electronics
Trial Balance
As at 30th April 2018

TITLE OF ACCOUNT DEBIT CREDIT(Cr)

(Dr) SHS.
SHS.
Equipment 90,000
Motor vehicle 250,000
Sales 320,000
Returns Inwards 12,000
Purchases 160,000
Returns outwards 34,500
Stock (1/5/2018) 86,400
Electricity 12,900
Rent 18,300
Discount received 19,300
Salaries 36,000
Insurance 14,500
Cash at bank 34,500
Debtors 63,000
Capital 374,400
Creditors 29,400
TOTAL 777,600 777,600

Stock on 30th April 2018 was valued at shs. 77,000.

Prepare:
(i) A trading profit and Loss account for the year ended 30th April 2018. (8 marks)
(ii) A balance sheet as a 30th April 2018. (4 marks)

5. a) Explain five Features of a good filling system. (10 marks)

b) Outline five ways a country may control her imports so as to correct her balance of payment
disequilibrium.
6. a) Explain five trends in transport. (10 marks)
b) Outline the channels of distribution for locally manufactured goods. (10 marks)

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

HAWK II TERM TWO 2024 3

MARKING
SCHEMES
HAWK II EXAMINATION - 2024

MARKING SCHEME

(CONFIDENTIAL)

101/1
ENGLISH
PAPER 1
(FUNCTIONAL SKILLS)

1
1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20 MARKS)
Imagine you are the interim secretary of the newly started drama club in your school. Your club intends to
have its first meeting next weekend. During the meeting the following issues will be discussed:
a) Registration of new members.
b) Elections of the club’s leaders.
c) The upcoming inter-school drama festivals.
d) Auditioning for the play, The Samaritan.

Write a notification of the meeting to the members of the club informing them about the meeting.
(20mks)

FORMAT (4MKS)

Tittle: Notification / Notice of a meeting F1

Name of the group / institution.
Nature of the meeting “First meeting F1
Date F1
Valediction F1
Signature
Name of the Writer F1
Designation

Body (8mks)
- Notification to group members. (1mk)
- Date (1mk)
- Time (1mk)
- Venue (1mk)
- Agenda ( ) each x4 = 2
- Additional instruction. (1mk)
- Closing remark . (1mk)
LANGUAGE (8MKS)

F4
B8
L8
TOTAL = 20

2
2. CLOZE TEST (10 MARKS)
Fill in each of the blank spaces in the following passage with the most appropriate word.
When the Covid – 19 pandemic hit the country, the government shut 1 down all learning
institutions forcing them to adopt e-learning.

However, internet connectivity 2 was a significant challenge. The Kenya Coast National
Polytechnic (KCND) quickly navigated the turbulence 3 through technology and
currently, the national polytechnic has embraced blended learning (physical 4 ___and______ online.)

Through funding 5 from East African skills and Transformation and Regional
Integration Program, the national polytechnic developed a Ksh. 8 million on-line learning management
system (LMS), supporting other 6 institutions in the region to embrace on-line studies.

“We are the centre and pioneer of LMS in the region,” eight institutions have 7 embraced the on-
line studies anchored on our programme. 8 We realised many students come from
humble backgrounds and could not 9 afford smart gadgets, 10 which hindered
us from fully operating LMS,” said the KCNP Principal.

3. ORAL SKILLS (30 MARKS)

a) Read the narrative below and answer the questions that follow.
Long time ago at the time of creation, God created the hare, man and firewood. None could have
children but when they became old, they did not die, but became young again. Firewood however
wished to have children. Don’t you realize that when living things have several children, they must die.
But firewood said, “Let me see my children and die.” So God granted his wish. When man saw that, he
wanted children as well. God warned him as he had warned firewood that he would die if his wish was
granted. But man said, “Let me see my children then die.”
That is how death and children came into the world. Only hare did not want children and so he never
died.

Questions
i. Your friend has been appointed to narrate the story before an audience. He has come to you for
advice on how to prepare for the narration. What four things would you tell him to consider?
(4mks)
- Consider verbal and non-verbal cues to make the narration interesting.
- Age of the audience.
- Culture of the audience
- Costume to use.
- Rehearsing before a mock audience.
- Accept any other plausible response.

3
ii. How would you perform the last sentence of the narrative? (2mks)
- Use a falling intonation to show finality.
- Stress only, have , want , children, never and died to put emphasis.
- Shake my index finger while saying never.
- Frawn while saying “have did not want children” to express sadness.
NB: Outcome must be clearly captured.
iii. Suppose you were listening to the performance of the above narrative, list any three things you
would do to benefit most from the listening experience. (3mks)
b) For every word below provide another that is identical in pronunciation. (6mks)
i. Aren’t - Aunt
ii. You - ewe
iii. Here - hear
iv. For - Four / fore
v. Eight - ate
vi. Days - daze
c) Which intonation would you use to say each of the underlined words. (4mks)
Malisu: Omenda, what time is the meeting tomorrow?

Falling intonation
Omenda: (Surprised) Tomorrow!

Rising intonation
Malisu: You ddin’t forget, did you?

Rising intonation
Omenda: I’m afraid I did.

Falling intonation
d) Your school has been invited for a debating activity by a neighbouring school. You are one of the
speakers to represent your school.
i. Give two things you will do as preparation for the debate. (2mks)
- Do research and get facts about the motion.
- Ensure I am audible enough / project my voice.
- Present my points to a mock audience.
- Arrange my point in a logical sequence
ii. Mention three things you will do during the debate so as to be successful. (3mks)
- Maintain meaningful eye contact with the audience.
- Ensure I am audible.
- Pronounce words correctly.
- Make good use of pauses.

4
e) Read the conversation below between Susan, a student, and the secretary, then answer the
questions that follow:
Susan: Hello, Good morning.
Secretary: Who is on the line and what do you want?
Susan: I am Rose, a Form Four yellow student and I have been away from school for three days now.
May I speak to the Principal?
Secretary: The principal is not in the office now.
Susan: Could I please leave a message for him?
Secretary: Oh! Don’t you have his cell phone number?
Susan: No Madam, since it is official kindly take down the…
Secretary: Excuse me, young girl, I’m too busy for this idle chat.
Susan: I am sorry but it is very urgent.
Secretary: (Without a pen and paper) Go ahead and you better be quick.
Susan: Thanks for the attention.

Questions
i. Identify the weaknesses in the secretary’s telephone conversation skills. (3mks)
- She fails to respond to greetings.
- She responds rudely. “What do you want?”
- Fails to offer assistance claiming to be too busy for the caller.
- Fails to observe turn taking skills.
ii. Suggest three things the Secretary should have done to observe telephone ettiquatte. (3mks)
- She should have responded to greetings.
- Should have had a pen and paper to note down the message.
- Should have employed proper turn taking skills.

NB: Accept any plausible response.

5
HAWK II EXAMINATION - 2024

MARKING SCHEME

(CONFIDENTIAL)

101/2
ENGLISH
PAPER 2
(COMPREHENSION, LITERARY APPRECIATION AND GRAMMAR)

1
1. COMPREHENSION
Questions
a) (3mks)
- Youngsters hate being told what to do.
- They hate taking orders.
- They do not like having to explain where they are going or coming from.
- They hate asking for permission to go anywhere.
- They do not like being told they must be back by certain time.

Should be in not form, if not deduct 50% at each point made.

b)
- They prefer to have their freedom as they see their parents as an
infringement on their freedom. (2mks)
c)
- Parents are economical because when it came to resources, the author’s mum
would scold them if they left the door of the jiko opens while heating their
bath water or left the food to cook for an unnecessary long time on the
kerosene stove, she would breathe fire about their wastefulness.
- Their dad would be furious if he found the light on in a room that was not
being used.
d) (2mks)
- No, parent are not out to punish but to teach children how to be responsible.
e) (3mks)
- The writer was apprehensive / uncertain / doubtful.
- At one point she would be happy to be free but at times she would wonder
how life would be without her parents.
f) (2mks)
- It is ironical that what the writer resented as a child is what she actually
embraces as a grown up.
g) (2mks)
- It means that the writer now pays her own bills and therefore understands
why her parents were emphasizing on being economical or responsible.
1. (1mk)
- Not only would mo0ther breathe fire about out wastefulness but also remind
us of the high cost of living.
h) (3mks)
i. Stifling - Harsh / cruel
ii. Stingy - mean
iii. Resented - Hated/detested/disliked.

2
2. EXCERPT: FATHERS OF NATIONS (25 MARKS)
Questions
1. (3mks)
- Before the excerpt, Fiona dials Longway’s room he had dropped downstairs
- In the excerpt, Longway suggests that she should give it to the woman at the
front desk but Fiona says it is a bad idea. Longway goes downstairs to pick
the item but it is not his. He invites Fiona for a drink. After the excerpt,
Fiona goes to Dr Afolabi’s room.
2. (2mks)
- Longway had told Fiona to give the article he had supposedly dropped to the
woman at the front office.
3. (6mks)
- Dialogue – dialogue between Ms Mackenzie and Longway.
- Sarcasm – now how has that helped advance world peace?
- Idiomatic expression – don’t go burn yourself at the stake.
- Humour – “”it’s late,” she said, “Late? That must be a new drink.”
- Irony – explained below.
4. (2mks)
- It is ironical that Mr. Longway thinks Fiona had gone for all the trouble for
his sake yet Fiona had her own interest to meet Longway.
5. (2mks)
- She was adopted by Scotish missionaries, Ian and Elspeth Mckenzie when
she was less than a year old.
6. (2mks)
- Deceitful – she lies to Longway that she had seen him drop the VOA key
card.
- Persuasive – she is able to persuade Longway to go downstairs to pick the
article.
7. (1mk)
- After looking at it, he then gave it back to her.
8. (2mks)
- He is the director of special projects at Agency for Governance and
Development in Africa. (AGDA)
- Ms Mckenzie thought he was the guide Nick was talking about at VOA.

3
3. Read the following poem then answer the questions that follow:
Questions
a) (2mks)
- A man who is very fearful of nightfall as it comes with a state of insecurity. “I
tremble at his crunching footstop.
b) (4mks)
- The poem is about Insecurity. (Thematic Approach).
- The poem is about someone who is living in fear because of the dire state of
insecurity that comes with nightfallas murders attack at night and he is not
even safe in his house. Night fall nightfall you are my mortal enemy.”
c) (3mks)
i. Fear / Anxiety …I quake at his
ii. Lawlessness – A murderer’s hand clasping the dagger.
iii. Hopelessness / Disponsing – In my helplessness.
iv. Poverty – “…my matchbox house.
d) (6mks)
Metaphor – My matchbox house …Boast “ The prey
Rhetorical Questions…But why were you over created?
Repetition…Nightfall Nightfall
Hyperbole…”at his deafening knock at the door”
Contrast…Daytime nightfall.
e) (3mks)
Tense / Anxiuous / Apprehensive / Fearful.
I trembled at his cinching footsteps.
f) (2mks)
i)
- The persona is the victim.
ii)
- A deadly adversary.
- The persona sees the assailants as the source of his death.

4
4. GRAMMAR
a) Write the following sentences according to instructions given. (4mks)
i.
- But for the quick action taken by the life saver, the child would have
drowned.
ii.
- Realizing that the boy was drowning, he quickly leapt into the swimming
pool to save him.
iii.
- Only once did he show up.
iv.
- He said, “When I saw them, they were playing chess.”

b) (2mks)
i. When the twins stand beside each other, you cannot tell who is who.
ii. Some students were sent home for jumping over the perimeter wall.
c)
i. My aunt visited us last month (call)
- Called on
ii. My brother fainted after walking for a long distance. (pass)
- Passed out
iii. After husband deserted her and their three children. (walk)
- Walked out on
d) Correct the Gender bias in the sentences below.
i. The chairman came late for the meeting.
- Chair / Chairperson
ii. The foreman coordinated the work well.
- Supervisor
e) Explain the meaning of the underlined expressions. (2mks)
i. Abdi will tidy up the room when the pigs begin to fly.
- He will never clean the room.
ii. My mother has green fingers.
- Has a natural ability in growing plants.
iii. State the two different meanings in the following sentences
The chicken is ready to eat. (2mks)
i. The chicken is ready to be eaten.
ii. The chicken is ready to be fed.

5
HAWK II EXAMINATION - 2024

MARKING SCHEME

(CONFIDENTIAL)

101/3
ENGLISH
PAPER 3
(CREATIVE COMPOSITION AND ESSAYS BASED ON SET TEXTS)

1|Page
PAPER 3

MARKING SCHEME

1. Imaginative composition. (Compulsory).

Either
a) Write a composition ending.
... with Short wobbly steps, I walked home, unsure of how my parents would take this. (20 marks)

- Must be a story if not deduct 4 marks.

- Should bring out the mistake of a character who in the end has to break the news to the parents.
- Must end in the guided statement, if not deduct – 2AD
- The linguistic competence of the candidate bears the marks.

Or
b) Write a composition on how crime can be controlled in Kenya.

- Must be expository, if not deduct - 4AD

- Should give ways on

- The composition should bring out different ways of controlling crime

- It is the linguistic competence that carries the marks but not the number of points presented.

2. The Compulsory Set Text

(20 marks)
John Lares, the Samaritan
There is no crime that goes unpunished. By closely referring to John Lara’s, the Samaritan, write an
essay agreeing with the statement above:

Introduction
People who engage in wrongdoing cannot escape from the consequences of their actions.

Body
Major Mossi - Accused of state capture (page 3)
- Refuses to launch App when he realizes it will expose him and the other officials (pg 15)
- Instructs Nicole and Ms. Narine to halt any activities concerning the App to conceal illegal
activities of the leaders (pg 16)
- Convenes an emergency meeting to plot how to counter the App. (pg 20)
- Instructs Harvester to buy all Newspapers from the vendors to conceal exposure from the headlines
(pg. 41)
- Plans to use the press to fight allegations against him (pg 43)
2|Page
- Admits taking part in unethical deeds (pg60) but downplays it by blaming the other officials. (68 –
69).
- Wants Nicole to eliminate negative information around him and offers a bribe to Nicole. (60-61)
- This is to lure Nicole by offering her a job ((pg 133-134)
- He is arrested by Tayu, an Anti-corruption chief pg (138)
Ramdaye – He is a notorious swindler, sells public land to Bembe that belongs to
Maracas Municipality.
- Gives instruction tenders to his families, together with them, they
misappropriate funds by doing a shoddy job (pg63)
- Prints fake title and sells to tea different people. ((pg 63)
- He is arrested by Taju for his deeds.
Justice Jaden – He is a corrupt judge. He says you can fly into the enemy territory and get
away with it provided you do it below the radar.
- He thinks because he is educated and strategic, he can beat the system
and escape scot free. (pg29)
- His relatives are involved in doing business with municipal council.
(pg69)
- His company prime orchad farm is involved in fraud case (The grain
scandal) (pg 102)
- Fraudulently awarded a contract for killing rats and other rodents
ravaging vice and corn fields. (pg 106)
- Rules in favour of prime orchard form and the company is sued for being
the source of destructive rodents (107 – 108)
- Makes rulings in favour of friends. He suggests a ban on the app.
- His attempt to lure Nicole to the job offer proves futile and he is arrested
by Taju.
Seymour – He is the municipal secretary in charge of planning and development but is
accused of supplying air. (pg24)
- When he learns of his exposure on the Samaritan app, he declares war on
those behind allegations. (pg 25)
- Suggests reallocation of the budget to fight the cases (pg 33) to take care
of investigators, lawyers, persecutors and judges. (32-33)
- Accused of delays in awarding of building approvals and one to part with
dollars to get building plans. (pg 66)
- The inspectorate unit under him approves improper buildings.
- His law degree was printed downtown. (pg 66)
- He leads murderous Black swan Gang responsible shooting, violence and
disappearance of people.
- Takes part in selling Narcotics which has ruined the lives of many. (pg)
- He is finally arrested by Tajo.
Honourable Ted – He pirates Peoples music and causes noise pollution.

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- Ensures companies associated to with his relatives and friends get
tenders.
- Conspires with them and steals all the money allocated for the projects
and ends up putting site offices resembling cowsheds. (pg 64)
- Citizens suffer because of theft (pg 91)
- Together with Symour, they are accused of supplying air.
- Supports Seymour’s call to reallocate the budged to fight cases against
them.
- Responsible for irresponsible waste disposal with garbage strewn all
over posing serious health hazard. (pg 33)
- He is arrested at the end.
Bembe – Accused of corruption and violation of human rights and extortion. (Pg 39)
- Whom he learns of his exposure, suggests threatening of journalists.
(pg 22)
- Owns a big hotel, Madings Golf club that is built on public resources. (pg28)
- Suggests burning of the App. (pg 27)
- Also acquired public land, belonging to Maracas University.
- He is a member of a shadowry Gang, Gheto Boys that robs people. This Hotel is
called Mototrist Highway Hotel since it was built from bribes from motorists.
- He has converted the municipal fine into a personal out fit for collecting bribes collected
from the innocent and guilty alike.
- Orders arrest of Nicole on fabricated charges of stealing the generator and disobeying
authorities. (pg 100)
- He is finally arrested.

Mark 3:3:3:3

Conclusion – In conclusion, when one engages in unethical acts, they cannot escape
punishment.

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3. a) Short story – A Silent Song
“Humans are deceitful in nature and can live in pretence before revealing their true nature.” Basing
your illustrations on “The Truly Married Woman” by Abioseh Nicole, write a composition to
support this assertion.
To begin with, Ayo’s true nature on sex is revealed. Ajayi and his wife, Ayo, have had a sexually
active life. They have been together for twelve years although they are not married. Ajayi would
explain to his close friends that Ayo was not really a wife, but a mistress. A good one for that case.
Ayo had already given him three children and was now pregnant with another. Though she had
come to him against her parent’ wishes, the three children she had already given him and the other
who was on the way indicate a sexually active partnership between Ajayi and Ayo. However, things
upside down as soon as the two agree to have a wedding. They discussed the wedding that night.
They agreed that Ayo would wear a grey wedding dress. Ayo particularly wanted a corset because
she did not want to look too huge. Both had to compromise on a thing but agreed on a church
wedding. That evening, Ajayi excited by the idea and the talk about the wedding, pulled Ayo to him
as they lay in bed. Ayo resisted. She shyly said, “No”, pushing him back gently. She told him that
he must not have sex with her and he had to wait until after their marriage. Surprised, Ajayi
wondered why but was obedient, meaning he chose to retreat. Ayo told him that because it would
not be right, just that.

Secondly, Ajayi sister’s envy is revealed. When her father heard of the coming marriage, he made
Ayo move herself and everything she owned back to his house. The children were to Ayo’s married
sister. Most of Ajayi’s family welcomed the idea, except his sister, who was worried that Ayo
would become more important in the family than she was. She advised Ajayi to ask a soothsayer to
look into future. As Ayo heard this from friends in the market, she saw the soothsayer first and
fixed things. When Ajayi and his sister called at night to see him, the soothsayer looked into Ajayi’s
future and saw a happy marriage, but avoided the sister’s eye. She smiled bitterly and accepted the
defeat.

Thirdly, Omo’s envy is revealed. Omo is Ayo’s neighbor. She has always lent Ayo her wedding
bring when Ayo needed one in a hurry. For example, when Olsen and his team from World Gospel
Crusading Alliance visit Ajayi at his work place and Ayo is informed that they are visiting them at
home, she quickly borrows a wedding ring from Omo, her neighbor. This means that their
relationship was good only and only when she borrowed the wedding ring. So Omo felt good when
Ayo borrowed a wedding ring but as soon as she heard about Ayo’s wedding, she became envious.
She suddenly turned cold, particularly when Ayo showed her the wedding presents Ajayi was going
to give her. Omo’s face turned both jealous and angry as she touched the silky, see-through
material. She was surprised that Ayo was going to wear a material and when Ayo told her that it
was so, she protested that Ayo should be embarrassed to put on like that. She said that should she
have an accident, all those doctors who lifted her clothes would see everything. Ayo on her part told
her that Ajayi told her that all the Hollywood cinema women wear like that. Defeated, Omo termed
such dresses as awful for they hide nothing and that Ayo should be ashamed to wear them. Angrily,
she pushed them back over the wall to Ayo.

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In addition, Ayo’s secret attendance of women group meeting is revealed. After he had finished
taking breakfast, he beat his eldest son, a ten-year-old boy, for wetting his sleeping-mat in the night.
Ayo came after the boy had run screaming out of the door. She complained that Ajayi beat Oju too
much but Ajayi responded saying that the boy should stop wetting the sleeping-mat since he was
now a big boy. Arrogantly, Ajayi told Ayo that no one should tell him how to bring up a son. Ayo
protested that the boy was hers as well. She told him that Oju had not stopped wetting although he
beat him every time he did. In fact, she said that the boy was doing it more and more now. She
advised him that perhaps things would get better if Ajayi stopped beating Oju. Ajayi wondered how
stopping to beat the boy would make him stop wetting his sleeping-mat. This prompted Ayo to
reveal that she had been attending women’s group meeting. She told Ajayi that their own
countrywoman Bimbola, who has studied nursing in England and America, told them in women’s
group meeting that it was wrong to punish children for such. Ajayi had been oblivious that Ayo
attended women group meetings. This made him to reflect about this all day at the office. He
wondered that so Ayo had been attending women’s meetings. That was a surprise. Always looking
quiet and then telling him about the modern ideas of overseas doctors. He smiled. Yes, Ayo was
certainly a woman to be proud of. Perhaps it was wrong to beat the boy. He decided not to do it
again.

Finally, Ayo’s pretence on preparing a cup of tea is revealed. Ayo wakes up very early in the
morning to prepare tea for Ajayi. Ajayi sat up and looked at the cheap alarm clock on the chair by
his bedside. It was six fifteen and light outside already. By then, Ayo has already woken up and
prepared tea for him. Then he went and tasted his cup of tea. It was as he liked it, weak and sugary,
without milk. He got up and walked to the window and took six deep breaths. Doing this daily, he
believed, would prevent diseases of the chest. Then he took a quick bath, taking water from a
bucket with a metal cup. By then Ayo had laid his breakfast. Ironically, Ayo changes as soon as the
wedding is over. They visit various relations on both sides of the family and go back home. Ayo
seemed different in Ajayi’s eyes. He had never really looked at her carefully before for the twelve
years they had lived together. Now he saw her proud head, her long neck and her handsome
shoulders. The next morning, when his alarm went off, he reached for his morning cup of tea and it
was not there. He sat up quickly and looked but there was nothing. Ayo was not in the kitchen. She
was still in bed. She then rudely asks Ajayi if something is wrong with his legs. She tells him that
now she is a truly married woman and that he must behave towards her with a little more respect.
Then she tells him that he is no longer a lover but a husband and that he should get up and make
himself breakfast.

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3(b) The Play – A Parliament of Owls, Adipo Sidang’

“Unpopular government has a tendency to oppress its citizens.” Using appropriate examples from Adipo
Sidang’s play Parliament of Owls, write an essay to illustrate this statement.

Expectations of the question

 Show that the leadership led by the Royal Owls is unpopular;
 Identify and give details the various ways in which Parliament of Owls is oppressive in nature/what
it does to ensure it consolidates power;
 Show how the citizens react to such oppressive leadership. The resistance;

Note: Oppression without citizens’ resistance to such oppression scores a thin.

Introduction
They say a legitimate government should be by the people and for the people. It is common in Africa for
governments which have failed to honour their election pledges to turn dictatorial in order to silence voices
of dissent. Such governments will do anything to hold onto power at the expense of the electorate. In Adipo
Sidang’s Play, Parliament of Owls, the Owls minority leadership does all it takes; including killing the apex
of resistance in order to remain in power; however, it fails to silence the majority.

(Accept any other relevant introduction – 2mks)

Body
Oi – Draconian laws
To hang onto power, the Royal Owl leadership uses parliament to pass punitive laws. The laws are not for
the good of the Birds Kingdom but for self-gratification. In fact, the laws target certain individuals who are
perceived as enemies of the state in order to curtail their freedom of expression and movement. For
instance, those targeted by such laws are Osogo and other birds which do not hoot.

 When Osogo plays his flute in protest against, the Moonlight Bills, a curfew is imposed to ensure
that all birds sleep at sunset. The laws according to the Red String, restricts birds flying from one
tree to another and cannot twit past 6.00 pm according Arum Tidi, the Hornbill is in agreement with
Red String that pollution law should be sneaked into the Moonlight Bill to stop weaver birds from
hammering at the trees. Any bird found violating this law will be forced to pay noise pollution fee.
The Parliament of Owls feels uneasy by the way Osogo and other birds sing and hammer at the
trees. They feel such information amounts to incitement of the birds.
 Money bags drafts a bill that ensures owls have more fried rats, baked mice, homey, a bowl of
grasshopper every night and mayonnaise. The bill also ensures that the Royal Owl eats a lizard
every last one hour of the night while other birds cannot even find water and food. They have to fly
kilometres looking for water. Straight owls alleges that the Moonlight Bill undermines the right of
birds that twitter and omnivores that hunt at night, the law will again introduce illegal tax while
birds are already faced with imminent hunger. Iron Lady complains that the laws are a ploy by the
Money Bags to harness funds from the coffers and channel them into private investments deep into
the forests. The laws are a selfish scheme to loot and by passing such laws the members of
parliament have inaugurated theft and robbery with violence. She vows to lead birds in protesting at
parliament grounds. The protests will be led by Feathered Beak, Black String and Oyundi. Black
String tells Red Strings night birds are planning demonstrations. She complains the parliament only
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serves owls. Birds are coming to take over parliament that enacted oppressive laws. Oyundi vows
that the Moonlight Bill even if passed will not see the light of the day. The fried frogs law for the
owls and the law which created Royal Trees leading to grabbing of trees shall all be declared null
and void.
 Money Bags use the snakes to raid birds’ nests to create insecurity then introduce Birds Protection
Law. Fortunately Oyundi manages to kick all the snakes out of the birds’ nests using ants. The law
gives Royal Trees the power to search nests without warrant. Money bags uses Olik Tiga to effect
this law but it all fail. After the Moonlight Bill is hurriedly passed in parliament by minority, Money
Bags says:
“There’s nothing like freedom. It is just an idea. A little bird once said that birds are born free but
everywhere they are in chains”. This statement indicates the rights of ordinary birds have been
violated by the state.

Oii – Abuse of Office

Money Bags enjoys the trappings of power which he abuses. He serves the interests of his master The
Royal Owl. As a parliament officer, he runs intelligent system, chairs security committee, makes
diplomatic ties with other kingdoms, signs partnership deals with reptiles and sits in the highest decision-
making organ of the kingdom. Money bags uses such powers bestowed upon him by the Royal owl to
undermine the rights of other birds in the kingdom.

 Money bags bribes Tel Tel so that she spreads propaganda on behalf of the parliament. Tel Tel is
tasked with ensuring that the Moonlight bill passes in parliament. When Tel Tel tries to turn down
the offer, Money Bags promises to donate the bribe to woo her into accepting the deal. This is abuse
of power.
 Money bags abuses office when he leads MPs into hurriedly passing the Moonlight Bill into law in
parliament. He does not allow the motion to be debated on and declares the ayes have carried the
day. He is so dictatorial such that he kicks out members of the parliament such as Iron Lady; who
opposes the bill on the floor of the house. He is behind the unpopular bill that awards MPs each
three fried rats a day, frog’s soup and mayonnaise in order to woo them into supporting the bill in
parliament. When the opposition MPs lose the motion, Money Bags advises them to seek legal
redress in court. The highest court is led by the Vultures who are appointees of the Royal Owls.
Definitely, opposition will lose the case; in fact, feathered Beak alleges that Money Bags controls
the courts and appointed the vultures who are least qualified to hold such public office. When Iron
lady attacks Money Bags for being drunk with power, he orders she be kicked out of the house.
 Money bags ordered the arrest of Oyundi for leading demonstrations against the government. This
goes against the spirit of the constitution where every bird has the right to picket.
 Money Bags uses his position to sponsor state terrorism. He sends snake to raid nests and steal eggs.
Oyundi says that they shall kick Money Bags and all mercenaries from the parliament and kingdom.
Every bird shall perch in parliament to stop the looting and hooting.
 The Socialite owl is in parliament because she is Money Bag’s girlfriend. While in parliament, the
socialite shall undermine the oppositions by suggesting they be thrown out of the house for being
critical of the government. She also sponsors bills that are aimed at benefitting her. The King owl is
also said to have a lot of mistresses whom he awards government tenders.

Oiii – Punitive Taxes

The parliament has come up with a lot of taxes which do not improve the lives of birds. When money
collected from such taxes reach the state, it is embezzled. It is ironical that with such taxes in place, birds

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still cannot find essential need such as water and food. With a corrupt regime, money collected from taxes
end in the pockets of a few individuals majorly Money Bag and his cronies.

 All birds are supposed to pay daily moonlight tax to enable the great parliament perform its
functions. Members of parliament have enacted laws that ensure they have increased allowance for
themselves. They have baptized the taxes as ‘Tithe’ which is paid to the gods. This is to fool the tax
payers. In fact, Money Bags openly says that the tax collected will go to the Royal Trees who needs
more money. To avoid public speculation, Money Bags lies the taxes will be used to feed the sick
and the old birds. He threatens Tel Tel when she refuses to spread propaganda about the purpose of
the taxes. According to Straight Owl, the Moonlight Bill introduces and illegal tax when the birds
are faced with an imminent hunger. The bill is aimed at getting funds to gag the rebel owls and
other birds and bury the truth to never see the light of the day.

Oiv – Intolerance
When unpopular government faces stiff opposition, it resorts to blackmail or intimidation in order to instill
fear among the people. The parliament of owls faces stiff opposition lead by Oyundi, Iron Lady and Osogo.
It threatens the three with death and imprisonment if they don’t stop undermining the kingdom. Many birds
are murdered for being critical of the owls’ bad leadership.

 When Tel Tel criticizes the parliament of owls of the murders within the kingdom, Red string
threatens to charge her with treason. She is for sure arrested and charged for treason. Tel Tel refuses
to spread propaganda and Red String threatens to expose her as someone who takes bribes. She is
not allowed to hammer trees to alert other birds. Arum Tidi proposes a law to ban hammering. She
is dismissed and replaced with Oyundi. She is declared a wanted bird after stealing the golden bead.
Arum Tidi complains of renegade owls who have decided not to loot and hoot. Red String promises
to deal with Feathered Beak and his colleagues.
 Money Bags asks the speaker to expel opposition MPs for referring to the owls as dictators and
agents of backwardness. Socialite owl asks the speaker to throw Iron Lady out of the house for
accusing the speaker of unfairness. She is not allowed to vote. All rebel owls are kicked out of the
parliament.
 Straight Eyed complains of a scheme to kill birds including him for being critical of the
government. When Money Bags learns Oyundi is behind the demonstrations, he declares her a
wanted bird; dead or alive; they feel Oyundi is embarrassing the King Royal. He orders Black
String to deal with all renegade owls. Oyundi is perceived a criminal for leading the birds in
removing Owls from power. She is accused of working with the enemies of the state and for kicking
snakes out of the birds’ nests. She is arrested and forced to plead for amnesty. She is forced into the
parliament to silence her.
 Royal Owls threaten Osogo: “The weaver is laying his flute again…. How I hate it. Go and tell him
to stop or I will snuff out that which keeps him alive” Pg 58
 Money Bags employs ten vultures to watch over Arum Tidi’s grave to avert any protests.
 Veteran P. claims that he has been arrested several times and he survived. This is gagging of the
media.

Ov – Assassinations
The parliament of owls is responsible for the murder of Arum Tidi and members of Osogo’s family. Money
Bags hatches a plan to kill Arum Tidi because he has outlived his usefulness. Members of Osogo’s family
are killed because of Osogo’s opposition in the parliament of owls. However, the rest of opposition vows to

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revenge the death and disappearance of birds from the kingdom once they take over power. Political
assassinations are meant to send fear among the citizens.

 Birds that oppose the parliament are thrown into the python cave to be eaten alive by the snake.
Royal owl orders Oyundi be arrested and sent to the python’s land. Tel Tel complains that thirty-
three members of Osogo’s family were executed in order to gag him. He reminds Red String that
they have formed a coalition of birds to remove the oppressive government from power. Oyundi
vows to prosecute the owls once they get to power. She will appoint Osogo as the presiding judge.
She accuses the owls of murdering members of Osogo’s family and dancing on their graves. Osogo
laments: “You killed my people. Be ready to face music when the flute blows right in the middle of
Royal Trees” Pg. 52.
 Money bags fears that Arum Tidi knows a lot of state secrets and murders him. Arum Tidi’s body
is found floating on water according to Veteran P. Money Bags claims that Arum Tidi was playing
with his own reflection in water and ended up drowning which is not true. Before his murder,
Arum Tidi has been the most loyal foot soldier, steadfast and committed towards having a better
kingdom. His killing is thus a betrayal of the birds who believed in him. Money Bags alleges that
Arum Tidi leaked confidential information to the birds about the secret activities of the Kingdom.
 In addition, Money Bags and his operatives have conspired to kill Oyundi once the Unity Pact is
signed. They have planned to abduct and kill her then blame it on political violence. They are not
aware that she has better plans to counter this.

Ovi – Favoritism
Sycophancy thrives in the parliament of owls. Those who support government agenda benefit from state
appointments and other material benefits. This goes against the spirit of the constitution which calls for
equal sharing of national resources. For instance when Oyundi pleads for amnesty and vows to support the
government, she is appointed a member of parliament and the chief whip of the Parliament of Owls. Arum
Tidi is promised a rat served with delicious soup should he sell the Moonlight Bill to other birds. He will
dine with the king for the next seven nights. Pg. 18.
Money Bags and Red String enjoy state benefits because they are close to the king. We are told that Royal
owls has kitchen cabinet that benefits from his leadership. Money Bags was a mere cook before his was
appointed to the high office. Red String is a puppet of Money Bags and works as an advisor to the king.
Iron Lady dismisses Red String: “Apart from being a close relative to Money Bags, what have you; single-
handedly achieved in life?” Due to his closeness to the Royal King, Money Bags gets all the tenders. He
wins the tender to provide tender care to all birds. He later awards the security tender to Olik Tiga and
denies vultures and crows the same tender. Olik Tiga is behind the state terror meted on innocent birds.
State awards are done in violation of the constitution. Those who receive state commendations are close
allies of the Royal Owl. For instance; Red String gets the most prestigious awards as Order of The Most
Digital Eyes while Black String gets Elder of The Most Significant Hoot. Iron Lady laughs off such
political awards. Pg. 72.

Ovii – Discrimination
 The parliament is dominated by owls and their political allies. It is a no go zone for certain species
of birds. For instance, when birds are not allowed in parliament. This means the parliament only
serves the interests of the owls. When the veteran comes to parliament to report the loss of golden
bead and the death of Arum Tidi, money bags demands he produces grains from the police owl.
Oyundi vows to change all bad laws and come up with ones that ensure equal representation of all.
Socialite owl opposes the appointment of Oyundi to the parliament of owls. She is the first female
bird to be appointed Member of Parliament. Money Bags says the revered Royal Trees is for the

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chosen few. Owls live in opulence and other birds amidst plunder and hunger.(pages 44,50-51,
60,82,92,102,104)

Oviii – Exploitation
Money Bags is behind all the exploitation in the kingdom. He has perfected the politics of use and dump.
He uses Arum Tidi and Tel Tel for his own selfish ends and later abandons them. Red String says this about
Arum Tidi: “This is what we plan to do with Arum Tidi once he accomplishes our mission. We will not pay
him even a single cent.” Pg. 38.
Money Bags confesses that Hornbills are paid peanuts for the services they offer to the state. He uses Arum
Tidi to popularize the Moonlight Bill and later dismisses and kills him. He threatens to deal with night birds
accordingly. They will turn them into canned meat for their breakfast. They will swallow their eggs and
wipe them out overnight.pg.45 once Money Bag gets the tender, he will be in position to keep the data on
number of births and deaths and the eggs that hatched in the kingdom.by doing this, he would be able to
seize their minds. Using this law, he sends snakes to raid bird’s nests in broad daylight and steal their eggs.
All birds are required to register their eggs with Olik Tiga, who is not the citizen of the birds’ kingdom.
Black Strings says is they short changed the vultures and the crows by grabbing the sacred trees from them
and converting them into surveillance towers. They displaced ten families of the cross. Pgs 38,45,46,49,62-
64,66

Oxi – Violation of the Constitution

An oppressive government OBVIOUSLY violates the constitution for selfish reasons. The Royal Owl and
Money Bags on several occasions violates the constitution of the kingdom especially the strike deals with
partners. For instance, Royal Owl buys the opposition by appointing Oyundi to parliament. This was aimed
at dividing the opposition to ensure the parliament of Owls is not kept in check. Olik Tiga, an animal with
teeth was contracted to provide security to the parliament and the entire kingdom. Oyundi calls this a taboo.
Black Strings presents a bill in a parliament to give Olik Tiga citizenship so as to carry the above role.
According to the iron lady, he remains a mercenary in the government.
Pages 59,76,79,112,113,121

MARK 4 WELL ILLUSTRATED POINTS 3X3X3X3=12

CONCLUSION
When governments turn oppressive, the citizens have no option other than rising against it. Keeping silent
when your rights are being violated does not help. The resistance led by fearless Oyundi, Osogo, Tel Tel
and the Iron Lady managed to remove the Parliament of Owls from power and installs a democratic one.
This is the way to go in Africa if we have to defend Democracy.

MARK ANY OTHER RELEVANT CONCLUSION. (2MARKS)

3 (c) The Novel – An Artist of the Floating World, Kizuo Ishiguro.

“The memory of the past can lead to change of a lifestyle.” With illustrations from “The Artist of the
Floating World” validate the above statement.

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Introduction
The diversive narrative in The Artist of the Floating World has enhanced the notion that memory serves as
a medium to assimilate past into the future.

A(i) Ono feels guilt for his past misdeeds. His use of an unspecified second person ‘you’ as though he is
addressing someone who is listening suggests that he does not want to acknowledge the doubt he feels
about his own past. By addressing himself to another person, he acts as thought he is explaining events that
he understands well and avoids admitting that he feels a great deal of ambivalence about the past.

The most important omissions in the novel are those that relate to Ono’s relationship with his pupil Kuroda.
Through a series of hints, readers learn that Ono had a break with the student, likely because Kuroda had
decided to employ on autistic technique that Ono did not approve. After parting ways, Ono gave Kuroda’s
name to the committee of unpatriotic activities which led to Kuroda being jailed and tortured. But instead
of revealing how this come to pass, Ono focuses his deception and analysis on his relationship with his
teacher Morisan with whom he had a similar break. Ono hopes to alleviate his guilt by suggesting that his
treatment of Kuroda is similar to Mon-Sari’s treatment of himself. But, of course, this entirely fails to
address the very different consequences the two teachers’ treatment of their pupils had for those pupils.
Ono avoids recounting the actual harm he has done others, which reveals the lie on his frequent
pronouncements about his willingness to own up to his war time mistakes. Instead, he seems only to be
feigning honesty, which actually hiding from the most difficult truths. Ono avoids describing certain
pivotal events in his life which he cannot force himself to face. By refusing to describe those incidents, he
gives away that these are the moments in his life about which he feels most guilty. One often casts doubt on
the accuracy of his account, reporting that others do not see events the way he does. This final strategy
opens up the possibility that one is not only hiding from feeling of guilt but is either mistaken or lying
about his life.

A(ii) Ono’s life is full of grief and anger. He therefore avoids describing the decisions to leave his
parent’s home to become a painter presumably, having cut off all contact with family afterwards. He also
avoids discussing the deaths of his wife and son, mentioning their deaths only in passing, or while
recounting what someone else said to him in confrontation.

A(iii) Regret is yet another aspect of the novel. Ono is haunted by ghost of days gone by – of his own
and his peer’s actions which steadily but surely contributed to Japan’s to march militaries. He feels much
remorseful for his role in the war, as well as for how he mistreated his family. For example, Ono reflects on
his previous actions and mistakes.

A(iv) Ono is about to be redeemed from his past mistakes. Laced with could haves and should haves,
the novel moves onwards to the realm of “should have” and touch upon the redemption for his past actions
as well as some way to reconcile with his past. He rekindles his relationship with his daughter, Noriko, and
his former apprentice, Ichiro and finds solace in his memories. For example Ono finds redemption after
reflecting on his past mistakes and actions.

Conclusion
Ono’s memories are used to investigate how our memories can be selective and change over time. His
reflection on his past, as well as his regret and zeal for redemption are central to the Novel.

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MWONGOZO KARATASI YA 1

1. Hii ni insha ya kiuamilifu

a) Kichwa

 Kichwa kitaje ripoti na kiini chake.

b) Utangulizi

 Kuwe na masimulizi mafupi kuhusu jambo linaloandikiwa ripoti,aliyeagiza ripoti na malengo ya utafiti.

c) Mbinu za kukusanya data

 Mbinu za ukusanyaji data zitajwe kama vile Hojaji, mahojiano,kushiriki n.k

d) Mwili

Maudhui/Hoja

 Ufisadi
 Ukabila
 Chuki/uchochezi
 Mafunzo hasi ya kidini
 Ukosefu wa ajira
 Utabaka
 Ubaguzi wa kimaeneo
 Ukimbizi wa ndani kwa ndani
 Mashambulizi ya kigaidi
 Migogoro ya ardhi
 Kupanda kwa gharama ya maisha

1
Mapendekezo/Suluhu

 Lugha ya taifa kuhimizwa

 Kukabiliana na ufisadi
 Usawa katika ugawaji wa raslimali
 Kuelimisha kuhusu umoja wa kitaifa
 Tamasha za kitamaduni
 Kutalii sehemu zingine za nchi
 Ndoa za makabila tofauti
 Serikali ya muungano
 Viongozi wachochezi kuchukuliwqa hatua za kisheria
 Dini ihubiri utangamano wa kitaifa na amani
 Ajira kwa watu wa makabila mbalimbali ili watangamanishwe
 Vyombo vya habari kama vile redio na runinga vitumiwe kueneza utangamano wa kitaifa.

e) Thibitisho

Tanbihi: Mwanafunzi azingatie pande mbili(mandhari na suluhu)

2. Madhara ya mafuriko

 Kuharibiwa kwa barabara

 Kubomoka kwa madaraja
 Uozaji wa mimea
 Kuharibiwa kwa majumba au majengo
 Kukwamiza shughuli za riziki
 Kisingizio cha wengine kuzembea kazi
 Chanzo cha magonjwa
 Kiwango cha uchumi kuzorota
 Kuzidisha umaskini
 Vifo vya watu, ndege na wanyama
 Uvamizi wa watu kutoka kwa wanyama wanaosombwa na wanyama


2
3. Andika insha itakayodhihirisha maana ya methali hii

Ukicheza ujanani utalipa uzeeni.

MATUMIZI

Hutumiwa kuwahimiza watu wajitahidi kujitengenezea maisha yao ya kesho/mustakabali wao wakiwa wangali
na uwezo wa kufanya hivyo.

TANBIHI

a) Mtahiniwa sharti aandike kisa kitakachodhihirisha maana ya methali

b) Kichwa kionyeshe pande mbili za methali:
-kucheza ujanani
-kulipa uzeeni

c)Mtahiniwa atakayerejelea upande mmoja atakuwa amepungukiwa kimaudhui. Insha yake isizidi alama 10

d)Atakayeandika kisa kisichohusiana na methali hii atakuwa amepotoka kimaudhui. Atuzwe alama 03.

e) Atakayejitungia swali na kulijibu atuzwe BK 01

Dhana ya kulipa uzeeni ijitokeze hata kama ni kwa aya chache/sentensi chache

4. Andika kisa kitakachomalizikia kwa maneno yafuatayo.

………………waja walitawanyika huku wakilaani kitendo hicho.

MAJIBU

- Hii ni insha ya mdokezo

-kiwe ni kisa au kuhuzunisha.

Mwanafunzi adhhirishe wazi kisa chenye kitendo cha kukosa utu na kuingiwa na uhayawani au kinachoenda
kinyume na maadili ya jamii

Baadhi ya visa ni;

a) Kitendo cha mtu kutekeleza mauaji

b) Kitendo cha unajisi au ulawiti
c) Mtu kukosa kuwajibikia majukumu yake
Kutekeleza/ kuhusika katika vitendo vya kulewa na matumizi ya dawa za kulevya n.k

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102 /2
Kiswahili – Lugha
Karatasi 2
MWONGOZO 2024

1. UFAHAMU (ALAMA 15)

MAJIBU
1. Eleza mbinu tano zinazoweza kutumiwa kutatua tatizo kuu linalozungumziwa.
(al 5)
i) Kuwaelimisha wakulima kuhusu mbinu bora za ukulima
ii) Kuwapa wakulima mbegu zitakazohimili kiangazi
iii) Kuzingatia ukulima wa kunyunyuzia maji
iv) Uhifadhi mzuri wa mazao
v) Ardhi itolewe kwa kilimo
vi) Wakulima waelimishwe kuhusu umuhimu wa kuzuia mmomonyoko wa
udongo
vii) Mazao yanunuliwe kwa bei nafuu
viii) Sera iwe na sera mwafaka za kukabiliana na tatizo hili la njaa
(1x5) Hoja za kwanza tano
2. Fafanua matatizo mbalimbali yanayolikumba Taifa la Kenya.
( al 4)
i) Tatizo la njaa kwa sababu ya kutegema mvua isiyotabirika
ii) Tatizo la bidhaa za ukulima kuwa ghali
iii) Tatizo la vita vya kikabila
iv) Tatizo la bei duni ya mazao
(1x4) hoja zozote nne
3. Onyesha ukulima ulivyo uti wa mgongo wa uchumi wa Taifa la Kenya
(al 2)
Ukulima hutegemewa na wananchi wengi kujipatia pato pamoja na chakula. (2x1)
4. Vita vya kikabila husababisha njaa. Thibitisha kwa mujibu wa kifungu.
( al 2)
Vita vinapotokea watu huhama na kuacha mashamba.
Kuchomwa na maghala ya chakula. (1x2)
5. Eleza maana ya maneno haya kama yaliyotumika katika kifungu.
(al 2)
i) Kukabiliana – Jitihada ya kutatua tatizo fulani
ii) Janga - maafa/taabu/balaa

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iii) UFUPISHO
iv) (a) Hoja muhimu.
v) 1. Watafiti wa afya wamegundua sukari ya viwandani haina virutubishi.
vi) 2. Utaratibu wa kuitayarisha iwe nyeupe huharibu virutubishi vinavyofaa mwili.
vii) 3. Sukari imesazwakwa kutiwa ladha tamu tu.
viii) 4. Sukari ina madhara. Inaposagika mwilini masalioya asidi yenye sumu.
ix) 5. Ikiwa nyingi hudhuru kwa kuozesha na kuharibu meno.
x) 6. Huongeza maradhi ya kisukari.
xi) 7. Huleta ugonjwa wa kuumwa na kichwa ghafla,kutapika na kutoona ikitumiwa kiholela.
xii) 8. Huongeza kolestroli ambayo ikirundikana moyoni hufanya mishipa nyembamba.
xiii) Hoja 7 x 1 utiritiko 1
= al 8
xiv) (b) - Madhara ya sukari inaonyesha sukari ni sumu.
xv) - Wataalamu wa lishe wanapendekeza ulaji wa chakula chenye sukari asilia, hasa
xvi) inayotoka kwenye asali.
xvii) - Sukari ya asali ina virutubishi vingi vyenye manufaa mwilini.
xviii) - Hupatia mwili nishati na kuuchangamsha.
xix) - Ina kemikali zinazosaidia mtoto kuwa na anaemia.
xx) - Husaidia usagaji wa chakula ikitumiwa kabla ya kula.
xxi) - Huondoa harufu mbaya mdomoni.
xxii) - Inaweza kujipakwa hutunza ngozi na kuing’arisha.
xxiii) - Huondoa vipele na ugumu wa ngozi.
xxiv) - Hutibu vidonda.
xxv) - Viwanda vya vipodozi huitumia kama malighafi.Hoja 6 x 1 utiririko al
1 = al 7

1. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (ALAMA 40)

a) i) Eleza maana ya sauti mwambatano. (alama2)
Ni mfuatano wa konsonanti mbili kuunda sauti moja
ii) Tambua sauti mwambatano katika neno ‘shwari’ (alama 2)
‘shwa + ri’
KKKI
b. Neno lenye silsbi KIKKKI: kumbwa (al.2)

c) Ainisha viambishi awali na gtamati katika neno lifuatalo.

( al 2)
Ulijuaje
U-li-ju-a-je
U viambishi awali
li
ju – mzizi
a viambishi tamati

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d. Ainisha vitenzi katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 3)

Haji alijaribu kujitetea lakini akashindwa.

Alijaribu – TS (kisaidizi)
Kujitetea – T (kikuu)
Akashindwa – T (halisi)

e. Akifisha sentensi ifuatayo. (al 2)

tafadhali nipe maji ninywe nina kiu mkimbizi alimwambia
“Tafadhali nipe maji ninywe. Nina kiu.” Mkimbizi alimwambia.
f. Geuza sentensi ifuatayo katika wakati uliopita hali timilifu. (alama 1)
Shule zote zitafungwa uchaguzi ukifanywa
Shule zote zilikuwa zimefungwa uchaguzi ulipofanywa/ulipofanyika

g. Yakinisha sentensi hii katika nafasi ya pili.

( al 2)
Wasiposoma kwa bidii hawatapita mtihani.

Ukisoma kwa bidii utapita mtihani

h. Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika umoja. (al 2)
Tukipanda ndizi hizi vyema, vijiji hivi vitakuwa na vyakula vya kutosha.

Nikipanda ndizi hili vyema, kijiji hiki kitakuwa na chakula cha kutosha
i. Geuza sentensi ifuatayo katika wakati uliopita hali timilifu. (alama 1)
Shule zote zitafungwa uchaguzi ukifanywa
Shule zote zilikuwa zimefungwa uchaguzi ulipofanywa/ulipofanyika

j.Tunga sentensi mbili sahihi kuonyesha matumizi mawili ya kiambishi ‘li’ (alama 2)
Matumizi ya ‘li’
Wakati uliopita
Kiwakilishi cha ngeli ya LI-YA
kuonyesha wingi
kitenzi kishikishi kipungufu

k.Ainisha vishazi katika sentensi hii. (alama 3)

Mwalimu akiwazawadi wanafunzi walioibuka washindi watazembea darasani.
Mwalimu akiwazawadi – tegemezi
Wanafunzi walioibuka washindi – tegemezi
Watazembea darasani – huru

l.Tambua aina za vielezi katika sentensi ifuatayo:

(al 2)

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Kipusa mrembo sana alitembea kitausi shuleni jana.

Sana - kielezi cha namna halisi

Kitausi – kielezi cha namna mfanano
Shuleni – kielezi cha mahali
Jana – kielezi cha wakati

m.Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika usemi wa taarifa. (alama 2)

“Wanangu, sote tutaenda mavani kesho.” Baba alisema
Baba aliwaambia wanawe/Watoto wake kuwa wote wangeenda mavani siku ambayo ingefuata

n.Andika nomino kutokana na kivumishi

-ema (alama 1)
Wema

o.Ainisha yambwa na chagizo katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 3)

Mutola alimbambulia mziwanda wake muhogo kwa pupa.
mziwanda wake – kitondo
muhogo – kipozi
kwa pupa – chagizo

p.KN(N+V+S)+KT(T+N+V)

q.Huba ni kwa penzi, heshima ni kwa adabu na ruhusu ni kwa udhuru (al 1)

4. ISIMU JAMII (ALAMA 10)

majibu

a) Sheng/mtaani/ya vijana Alama 1 s

b) i) Kuehanganyandimi
ii) Lugha sanifu haiturniki
iii) Matumizi ya misirnu
iv) Msamiati maalurnu
v) Silabi chache/sentensi fupi fupi
vi) Mazungumzo ya haraka haraka
vii) Kuna kukatana kali/kalima
viii) Hujikita katika mazingira rnaalumu Zozote
6×1=Alama 6
c) i) Kuficha siri
ii) Kutomudu lugha zote k.m Kiswahili au Kiingereza
iii) Kujiweka katika kiwango chao(vijana)
iv) Athari ya ukoloni/sabau za kihistoria.

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SEHEMU YA A: FASIHI SIMULIZI

1).i Utanzu-Hadithi

ii Kipera –Hurafa / ngano ya usuli (1x2=2)

b i Hadithi huwa na wahusika wa aina mbalimbali.

ii Hadithi hueleza matukio kwa mpangilio wa moja kwa moja kuanzia tukio la mwanzo hadi la mwisho.

iii Hutumia lugha ya kimaelezo au nathari.

iv Hadithi huwa na mtendaji au fanani.

v Hadithi husimulia matukio ya kweli au ya kubuni yenye maadili.

vii Kwa kawaida hadithi hutambwa jioni baada ya shughuli za mchana.

viii Hadithi huwasilishwa kwa hadhira.

ix Huwa na mahali maalum pa kutambiwa.

x Huwa na fomyula maalum za ufunguzi na za kumalizia.

Hoja za kwanza tano (5x1=5)

c) i Huashiria mwisho wa hadithi.

ii Huangaza funzo kwa wasikilizaji.

iii Baadhi ya viishio huwapa wasikilizaji changamoto ya kuwa watambaji mashuhuri wa ngano.

iv Humpisha mtambaji anayefuata.

v Huitoa hadhira kutoka ulimwengu wa ubunifu na kuiashiria kuwa imerudishwa katika ulimwengu halisi
sasa.

vi Hupisha shughuli inayofuata ikiwa kipindi cha utambaji kimekwisha.

vii Ni kitulizo kwa hadhira ambayo sasa huacha kwa makini.

zozote tatu(3x1=3)

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d) i Kuwa mkakamavu wa kuweza kuzungumza hadharani.

ii Kuelewa utamaduni wa hadhira usiwasilishe kinyume na itikadi za jamii.

iii Aweze kuifahamu lugha vizuri ili aweze kuitumia kwa uhodari na kuwasilisha kwa wepesi.

iv Kuwa mchangamfu mcheshi ili kunasa makini ya hadhira na kuzuia ukinai.

v Kushirikisha hadhira kama vile kuimba,maswali ya balagha ili isikinai.

vi Kudramatisha ili kuonyesha picha fulani kama vile kuiga toni,sauti na kiimbo kulingana na swala
analowasilisha.

vii Ufasaha wa lugha ili kuwasilisha mawazo kwa njia mwafaka na inayovutia.
za kwanza tatu (3x1=3)

e) i Huburudisha jioni baadaa ya kazi.

ii Kukuza ubunifu kwa wale wanaosimulia na wale wanazitunga.

iii Kuleta umoja na ushirikiano kitaka jamii kwa kuleta watu pamoja wakati zinatengwa.

iii Huelimisha wanajamii.

iv Huonya walio na mienendo hasi katika jamii.

za kwanza mbili (2x1=2)

f) i Kukifanyia utafiti ili kubainisha sifa za uwasilishaji wazo na kuzihifadhi.

ii kuzihifadhi kwenye vitabu.

iii Kuzifunza shuleni na kuzitamba mara kwa mara.

iv Kuzihifadhi kwenye video ile kuhifadhi sifa za uwasilishaji kama vile sauti/kidatu,na miondoka.

v Kutafiti vyanzo vya kudidimia kwazo ili kuvidhibiti/kuvitatua.

vi Kuandaa mashindano ya utambaji wa ngano ili kurithisha utambaji wazo na kuvidhiti/kuvitatua.

vii Kufadhili utafiti kuhusu ngano.

viii Kuaanda vipindi vya redio au runinga na kuwaalika mafanani stadi kutamba ili kuwa vielelezo.

ix Wizara ya elimu kuweka sera zinazohimiza na kulinda utambaji na uhifadhi wa ngano.

x Kuelimisha jamii kuhusu umuhimu wake. za kwanza tano (4x1=4)

g) Fafanua changamoto tatu zinazoweza kumkabili mwanafasihi mtafiti nyanjani anayetumia

mahojiano kama mbinu ya utafiti ( alama3)
i. Gharama ya utafiti
ii. Mtazamo hasi wa wanajamii
iii. Wanajamii wengi huweza kumshuku mhoji kwamba anawapeleleza
iv. Huenda wahojiwa wakadai kulipwa kabla ya kutoa habari

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v. Vizingiti vya kidini .
vi. Vikwazo kutoka kwa watawala.
vii. Ukosefu wa muda wa kutosha wa kuwahoji watu wengi.
viii. Ukosefu wa usalama.
Za kwanza (3x1=3)

SEHEMU YA B: TAMTHILIA
Timothy M. Arege.: Bembea ya Maisha

2. Soma dondoo lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali yanayofuata.

“… Hebu fikiria! Umepata ajali mbaya. Inakuacha mahututi. Anapita mtu katika gari lake. Kwa
imani anaguswa. Anakufanyia mpango wa Flying Doctors, ndege inafika inakupeleka hospitali.
Mwenyewe huyo anakulipia kila kitu! Mtu huyo atakosaje kuwa zawadi kwako?”

a.)Eleza muktadha wa dondoo (alama4)

Uzungumzi nafsi wa Neema akiwa nyumbani kwake.Alikuwa katika hali ya kumshukuru
mumewe Bunju kwa wema aliotendewa./maneno ya Neema akijizungumzia..

b)Tambua mbinu nne za kimtindo zilizotumika katika dondoo hili (alama 4)

i) Utohozi-hospitali
ii) Uzungumzi nafsi/monolojia-Kauli yote/muktadha
iii) Kuchanganya ndimi-mpango wa flying doctors
iv) Nidaa-!
v) Mdokezo-…
vi) Swali balagha-…atakosaje kuwa zawadi kwako?

(atoe mfano wa kila mbinu la sivyo asituzwe)

c) Eleza umuhimu wa anayerejelewa katika dondoo hili katika kukuza ploti.

(alama 4)
Mrejelewa ni Bunju

i) Alimwitia Neema flying doctors alipohusika katika ajali mbaya ya barabarani.

ii)Alimwoa Neema na kuwapata watoto wawili,Mona na Lemi.
iii)Bunju alimsaidia Neema kuwajengea wazazai wake nyumba.
iv)Alimnunulia mkewe Neema gari.
v)Alimsomesha Salome na Asna hadi chuo kikuu.

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vi)Alikataa kuwa mwenyeji wa mama mkwe Sara kwa msingi wa ktamaduni
vii)Alikataa awali kumpiga jeki Neema katika matibabu ya mama yake lakini
baadaye anaridhia kwa mashaerti ya kupata pesa.

d)Kwa kutoa hoja zozote NANE kutoka tamthilia nzima, eleza ukweli wa kauli
iliyopigiwa mstari katika dondoo
(alama8)
i))kumlipia Salome karo shuleni hadi chou kikuu uk28
ii) Alimsaidia Neema kuwajengea akina Yona nyumba kule kijijini
iii)Alimnunulia Neema gari kwa hivyo ya Neema ilikuwa tu kuweka mafuta
iv )Alimfanyia Neemaq hisani kwa kumpeleka hospitalini
v )Kuikimu familia yake kwa kununua chakula uk39
vi)Alimsaidia Neema kuwalipia watoto karo
vii)Alimsaisdia Neema kugharimia matibabu yao
viii) Kusimamia gharama za nyumba.
(kila hoja alama moja

3a) MABADILIKO
(i) Yona hakuwa mnywaji wa pombe ila sasa ni mpenzim wa maji
(ii) Sara angenungunika baada ya kusengenywa lakini sas hayatii machungu moyoni.
(iii)Kitambo sara angekatiwa tikiti ya usafiri lakini sas anafuatwa na gari la Neema
(iv) Bela anasema kuwa watu wengi hawafuati tena mila
(v) Neema anasema kuwa wapo wazazi wanaoishi na watoto wao nyumba moja.
(vi) Awali neema alikuwa mwenye heshima kwa mujibu wa bunju.
(vii) Bunju anasema kuwa kuna mabadiliko makubwa katika michezo.
(viii) Watoto wa dina walikuwa maskini zamani lakini sa sa wana afadhali.
(ix) Luka anasema kuwa zamani mila hazikuruhusu watoto wa kike kuenda skuli au kurithi
kitu.
(x) Sara anasema kuna mabadiliko ya usafiri
(Zozote 10x1=10

3. b.)Fafanua mbinu mbalimbali wanazotumia wahusika kusuluhisha matatizo

yanayowakumba ukirejelea tamthilia ya Bembea ya maisha.
i. Kutafuta matibabu-Sara anaenda kupokea matibabu katika hospitali za mjini.
ii. Kuvumilia-Sara na Yona wanavumilia katika ndoa baadaye wanapokea baraka ya watoto.
iii. Kutafuta kazi mbadala-Yona alipofutwa kazi, Sara alitafuta njia mbadala kama vile
maziwa na kuuza bidhaa walizozalisha.
iv. Mashauriano-Bunju kusema kuwa lazima watu washauriane,kwamba maisha ni Zaidi ya
pesa.

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v. Maelewano-Japo Bunju anakataa mwanzoni kumsaidia Neema kwa matibabu ya
sara,baadaye anakubali kumpiga jeki.
vi. Ushirikiano-Bunju na Neema wanatekeleza majukumu yao kila mmoja katika familia
yao.Aidha Bunju anamwachia Neema mshahara wake ili ashughulikie familia yake.
vii. Kuelimisha watoto-Yona na sara wanahakikisha watoto wao wamesoma.
viii. Kutafuta kazi-Asna anaamua kutafuta kazi ili kujikimu.
ix. Ushauri nasaha-kila mara Sara huwashauri Asna na Neema
x. Kutafuta usaidizi kwa majirani-Sara anamwita Dina ili amsaidie kupika.
xi. Kukutana na marafiki-Yona anakutana na wazee wenzake ili kupitisha muda.
xii. Kutumia gari-Bunju anamnunulia Neema gari ili usafiri urahisishwe.
xiii. Kuambaa ndoa-Asna anakataa kuolewa ili kuepuka changamoto katika ndoa.
xiv. Barabara za kisasa-Sara anasema kuwa zamani kusafiri mjini ilikuwa taabu lakini sasa ni
afadhali.
xv. Ulevi-Yona anamalizia kuwa mlevi ili kupunguza makali ya masimango ya majirani kuhusu
kukosa watoto.
Kuamua kubadilisha mienendo-Yona anaamua kubadilisha na kuacha ulevi.
(i) Vina vinatofautiana katika kila mshororo.
(ii) Mizani inatofautiana katika kila mshororo
(iii) Kila kiishio kimekamilika kwa swali la balagha Zozote 4 mara moja

NGUU ZA JADI

a)Msemaji:Lonare

Msemewa:Ngoswe

Mahali:Hospitalini

Kiini:Baada ya Lonare kupata nafuu na kuanza kuwatambua watu walikuwa pale ,Ngoswe
akiwemo.Anamshauri Ngoswe kuachwa biashara ya dawa za kulevya. (4x1=4)

b)Nahau-Tia kikomo

Tashbihi-Unaipenda biashara hiyo kama mboni za macho yako (2x2=4)

c)Mandhari ya Saturn

yanakuza maudhui ya usaliti-sagilu anamsaliti mwanawe mashauri kwa kumwendea kinyume na mpenzi
wake Cheiya.

(i) Yanakuza maudhui ya uzinzi- Sagilu anhusiana kimapenzi na Cheiya

(ii) Yanakuza maudhui ya anasa –Saturn inasheheni anasa.
(iii) Yanakuza maudhui ya mgogoro – mgogoro kati ya sagilu na mashauri.

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(iv) Kuchimuza sifa za wahusika – Sagilu ni mzinzi.
(v) Kuendeleza ploti kwani ndiko mahali walipofumaniwa Sagilu na Cheiya.
(vi) Kuchimuza mgogoro kati sagilu na mashauri.
(vii) Kuchimuza toni ya hasira ya mashauri.
(viii) Kutambulisha wahusika wapya – wahudumu wa hoteli
(ix) Kuonyesha dhamira ya mwandishi (uzinifu na madhara yake.)
(x) Kuonyesha fani ya kinaya, taswira , na dayolojia
(xi) Kuonyesha mbinu ishi ambazo wahusika hutumia – Cheiya anatoroka baada kufumaniwa na
sagilu ( 12x 1=12)

5.a)
(i) Takriri – tena na tena
(ii) Nahau – shusha pumzi.
(iii) Msemo – shingo hubeba vyombo , lakini moyo hubeba…
(iv) Jazanda - Chui, nyuki, vifuu
(v) Swali balagha - …chui si rafiki wa kukumbatiwa?
(vi) Taswira - kumbatia chui.
(vii) Methali – Dunia ni rangirangile.
(viii) Tashbihi – upuzi kama huu. ( 6x1=6)

b.)

(i) Ni msaliti
(ii) Ni mzinifu
(iii) Ni mjinga
(iv) Ni msiri
(v) Ni mwenye mapuuza

Tanbihi – mwanafunzi atoe ithibati kutoka kwa kifungu.(4x1=4)

c.)

. i)Maudhui ya nafasi ya mwanamke yanajitokeza kupitia kwa Mangwasha anayejitambulisha kama

mtetezi na mpiganiaji wa haki za watoto, vijana na wanaodhulumiwa katika jamii. Mwanamke huyu
akishirikiana na wengine kama Mbungulu anafaulu kuwanasua watoto wa kike waliokuwa wamenaswa
katika mtego wa Sihaba aliyetaka kujitajirisha kupitia kwao.

ii)Maudhui ya nafasi ya mwanamke pia yanaendelezwa kupitia kwa Mbungulu anayejitokeza kama
mhafidhina wa utamaduni wa jamii yake na majukumu ya mwanamke katika utamaduni huu.
Anaendeleza uhifadhi wa mila zilizowekwa na jamii yake hasa pale anapomshauri Mangwasha kuhusu
mafunzo aliyofunzwa na jamii yake.

iii)Maudhui haya pia yanajitokeza kupitia kwa Mrima anayezingatia masharti ya jamii yake iliyosheheni
ubabedume unaomdhalilisha mwanamke kiasi cha kutomsikiliza mkewe.

6|Page
iv)Mangwasha anasimama kidete na kutimiza wajibu wake katika ndoa licha ya kwamba mumewe
anamtupa. Tunamwona jinsi anavyojizatiti kuwatunza wanawe pale mumewe alipomtoroka kutokana na
anasa za ulevi.

v)Maudhui haya pia yanaonyesha kwamba mwanamke hathaminiwi kama kiumbe sawa na mwanamume .

vi) Maudhui ya nafasi ya mwanamke kama asiyeheshimiwa yanajitokeza kupitia kwa Sagilu ambaye
anamchukua mwanamke kama pambo tu na anayeweza kushawishiwa kwa urahisi kwa kutumia pesa.

vii)Kwa upande mwingine, maudhui haya yanabainisha nafasi ya mwanamke kama katili, mzinzi na
mwenye ubinafsi.

viii)Kupitia kwa Sihaba, mwanamke anajitokeza kama kielelezo kibaya kwa jamii hasa anapofananishwa
na mabaya yote yanayokumba ulimwengu (taz. kisasili kinachosimuliwa na Sauni.

ix)Taswira mbaya ya mwanamke inaonekana pia kupitia kwa wahusika wa kike kama vile Mbwashu,
Nanzia na Cheiya ambao wanajitokeza kama vitegemezi vya wanaume.

x) Mbwashu anashirikiana na wanaume kama Mtemi Lesulia kujinufaisha kiuchumi ilhali Nanzia anaishi
chini ya mbawa za mumewe ili kujiimarisha kiuchumi na kimaisha. (10x1=10)

6.)

(i) Taswira oni – kuangalia huku nahuko.

(ii) Taswira mguso – funika gubigubi
(iii) Taswira sikivu – kuimba ule wimbo wote.
(iv) Taswira mnuso. – harufu ya vileo (4x1=4)

(i) Takriri – mlikuwa

(ii) Nidaa – totoro !
(iii) Tashbihi – nilivaa guo jeupe lililonifunika gubigubi kama maiti.
(iv) Kinaya – alichokiona hakuamini macho yake. (3x2=6)

(i) Salihina aliwacharaza watu walioonekana karibu na mzimu ilhali yeye ndiye anayeendeleza uovu
huo.
(ii) Salihina anaendeleza usambazaji wa dawa za kulevya .
(iii) Salihina anaendeleza uasherati na wake za watu.
(iv) Salihina aliwacharaza wavulana walioonekana wakizungumza na wasichana ilhali yeye anafanya
uzinzi na Bishoo (4x1=4)

(i) Janadume kumkataa nyaboke mchana kweupe

7|Page
(ii) Janadune kumtunga nyaboke mimba akiwa bado shuleni
(iii) Ombati kupanga kumwoza sabina akiwa bado motto.
(iv) Yunuke kumzimia Sabina taa ili asisome.
(v) Ombati kuwa na unafiki wa kujifanya kuwa anamsaidia Sabina .
(vi) Yunuke kumpa Sabina kazi nyingi.
(vii) Yunuke kumsingizia Sabina mambo ya wanaume.
(viii) Ombati kushughulikia masomo ya Mike sana kuliko Sabina.
(ix) Yunuke kumpiga Sabina (za kwanza 6x1= 6)

(i) Msemaji ni Bw. Kalia

(ii) Msemewa ni Jack
(iii) Ni ujumbe anaopokea Jack akiwa nyumbani kwake

( iv) Bwana kalia alimtaka wafike kituoni kwani Siri alitarajiwa kuwa hewani kwenye runinga ya
Kikwetu. (4x1=4)

b.)

(i) Ni mwenye hila – alibadilisha uamuzi wa kamati kuhusu ushindi wa Jack.

(ii) Ni fisadi - alitumia cheo chake kubatilisha uamuzi
(iii) Mwenye toba – alimwomba Jack msamaha.
(iv) Mwenye majuto – anajutia kumtendea hila Jack (4x1=4)

c) Msemewa ni Jack

(i) anawakilisha vijana wenye talanta

(ii) Kupitia kwake tunajifunza wa msamaha.
(iii) Anawakilisha vijana wenye bidii.
(iv) Anaonyesha sifa za bwana kalia kama mwenye hila.
(v) Anaendeleza maudhui ya bidii.
(vi) Ni kielelezo cha mayatima wanaodhulumiwa katika jamii. (6x1=6)

(i) Kunyimwa haki za masomo

(ii) Wanadhulumiwa kimaisha- Jack analazimika kuwapa bwana kalia nusu ya faida.
(iii) Wanakosa kuendelea na masomo.
(iv) Wanakosa watetezi wa haki zao.

8|Page
(v) Wanatatizika kisaikolojia.
(vi) Hukumbwa na changamoto za fedha. (6x1=6)

8. a) “Shairi hili linakatisha tamaa.’’Thibitisha kauli hii kwa mifano kutoka kwenye shairi.
(alama 3)

(i) Nyanyake nafsineni ameteseka hadi anatamani kukiombolezea kifo cha dhiki.
(ii) Umaskini-mama yake nafsineni pamoja na wanakijiji ni maskini
(iii)Kuteswa-wanyonge kama mama yake nafsineni wanateswa.
(iv)Kuumia kazini-kidole cha nduguye nafsineni kinakatwa na mashini akiwa kazini.
(v)Kutolipwa fidia-nduguye nafsineni anakatika kidole akiwa kazini,lakini kampuni inamnyima
fidia.
(vi)Kufutwa kazi-nduguye nafsineni analia kwa kufutwa kazi kwa kutozalisha kama awali.
(vii)Wakulima kulipwa pesa duni za mazao yao-falahi/mkulima analia kwa kulipwa pesa ukufi
kwa mazao yaliyomlaza nje na kumvunja mgongo.

(a) Fafanua umuhimu wa aina mbili za urudiaji zilizotumiwa katika shairi hili.(alama 2)
(i) Urudiaji wa neno-Neno ‘naikumbuka ‘ limerudiwa mwanzo ni mwa kila ubeti.
Umuhimu :kutilia mkazo linalozungumziwa.
(ii) Urudiaji wa mbinu ya lugha-swali la balagha limerudiwa mwishoni mwa kila ubeti.
Umuhimu:kuonyesha toni ya shairi -toni ya uchungu.

(b) Bainisha nafsineni katika shairi hili. (alama 2)

Mtu aliyeshuhudia masaibu waliyoyapitia watu wa familia yake-nyanyaye,mamaye na
nduguye.

(c) Jadili umuhimu wa maswali ya balagha katika shairi hili. (alama 2)

(i) Kuonyesha jinsi nyanya yake nafsineni alivyochoshwa na dhiki-’itakuwa lini nasi
kuomboleza kifo cha dhiki? ‘’
(ii) Kuibua toni ya shairi -toni ya uchungu-kwa mfano,’’itakuwa lini nasi kuomboleza kifo cha
dhiki?’’
(iii) Kudadisi hali/kutaka kufahamu zaidi-’’lini nasi tutawaimbia watutesao mbolezi za bundi?’’
Kuonyesha mshangao wa nafsineni kuhusu unyanyasaji unaoendelezwa dhidi ya wanyonge-’’lini
itakuwa mirija ya wanyonyaji wafanyao watu mashine

9|Page
9. MWONGOZO WA USHAIRI

a)Msuko-kibwagizo kimefupishwa

Ukara-Vina vya nje vinatiririka katika beti zote ilhali vya ndani havitiririki

Ukawafi-Mishororo ina vipande vitatu,isipokuwa wa mwisho ulio na kipande kimoja

Tarbia-Kila ubeti una mishororo minne

Kikwamba-Karika beti 3-5 neno moja ndilo linaanza Kila mishororo

b)Kuwahimiza watu(hasa wanyonge) wainuke na kupinga maovu na maonevu wanayofanyiwa na matajiri

wenye uwezo

c)Inkisari;Vumiliyo badala ya kuvumilia

Mazida;Angamiyo badala ya angamia

Tabdila;Mamiya badala ya mamia

d)Hawa wanaotulimia wanavumilia dhiki.Wao ni wengi na ndio huzalisha Mali.Wao ndio wanaoumia na
kupata mateso/taabu wanyokumbana nayo.Ninaandika/Ninasema.

e)Takriri-hawa,bado,Mamiya

Balagha-uyaonaje?

Nidaa-Naandika!

f)Kuna mishororo minne

kuna vipande vitatu katika mishororo ya kwanza mitatu isipokuwa wa mwisho

Vina vinatiririka

Mizani;

2-6-8

g)Cha kunizuia/Kizuizi/kizingiti/Uoga/hofu/Pingamizi

Wachovu/Dhaifu/Hafifu

Walio na tamaa kubwa/walafi/mabwanyenye

10 | P a g e
11 | P a g e
BIOLOGY PAPER 1 MARKING SCHEME

231/1 JUNE/JULY 2024

1. The genus name starts with a capital letter while species name is written in small letters;
-The two names are (typed) in italics/underlined separately; (2 mks)

2. (a) (Antigen) A; Rej. a

-Rhesus factor/antigen Rej. Small d.
Rej. Rhesus positive Antigen
(b) Cannot receive blood from B
Reason - Antibody b in blood plasma of the recipient will correspond with Antigen B in the
do or’s blood; hence agglutination occurs /antigen antibody reaction will occur;

3. (a) Chewing
Has teeth (of different types) for mastication/breaking down food into smaller particles/mechanical
digestion;

(b) Carbohydrate digestion

Has salivary amylase/ptyalin to digest starch to maltose;

4. Selective reabsorption of materials in the kidney tubules is energy dependent/require energy;

Summary of above:
- Energy requirement
- Respiration
- Effect of pH on enzymes
- Effects of pH on permeability

5.
Light dependent stage Light independent stage
Occurs in presence of light Occurs any time;
Occurs in grana Occurs in stroma;
Produce hydrogen atoms and oxygen gas Produce glucose;
Mark first two

6. (a) Fine adjustment knob; (1 mk)

(b) Click the low power objective lens into position;

With eyes on the eyepiece lenses and using the coarse adjustment knob, gradually raise/lower low
power objective lens to bring the specimen into focus; OWTTE
(must be procedural)
(c) centrioles;

8. (a) Assumptions of capture-recapture method

(b) Primary productivity decreases with depth

 Decrease in light intensity as depth increases; accept light penetration decrease

 Decrease in temperature as depth increases;

9. (a) Water molecules; (1 mk)

(b) Solution B is hypertonic (compared to A); water moves from A to B by osmosis;

Increasing the volume of B; (3 mks)

11. Heart beat/pulse rate/pumping of heart increased blood vessels dilate; and more blood is supplied
to tissues (body); to deliver more oxygen and nutrients (glucose) and remove metabolic waste
products (CO2)
12. To reduce heat loss; since feathers trap more air; that acts as an insulator against heat loss/that is a
poor conductor of heat;

13. The bodies of some people react to allergens like bee stings by over producing antibodies;

An antigen – antibody reaction occurs causing cells to burst to release histamine; which causes
blood vessels to be dilated lowering pressure, inflammation is increased permeability of epithelial
cells which causes swelling and inflammation; OWTTE

14. (a) Pyruvic acid/pyruvate;

(b) Cristae increase surface area for attachment of respiratory enzymes;

(c) Glucose;
Reason – soluble hence easily transported to respiratory sites;
-Requires less oxygen to oxidize;
(any one reason)

15. Descending limb of the loop of henle; Distal convoluted tubule; (mark 1st one)

17. a) Intermittent;
b) Arthropoda;
c) Hardened exoskeleton limits growth/size of the organism;

18. (a) Placenta (takes over as a gland); to secrete hormone progesterone; which maintains pregnancy;

(b) (i) Labels on the diagram either:

(b) Explain how the syndrome occurs

20. Nasal cavity

Lined with hair; to trap dust particles/foreign materials/purify the air;
Has mucus; to moisten/warm the (incoming) air;
To trap dust from incoming air/inhaled air;

21. (a) (i) Sebum; Rej. Description

(ii) Keep the skin moist/supple/soft;
√ (Acts as) an antiseptic accept kills bacteria
√ make skin/hair water proof;

22. (a) Ligament holds bones together (at a joint) while tendons attach muscles to bones; (1 mk)
(b) Ball and socket;
Hinge joint; mark first one

23. (a) Adaptation of:

(i) External auditory meatus.
Lined with hair/secrete wax to trap foreign bodies; Rej. Wax alone
Hollow/tubular/tube to direct sound waves to ear drum.

(ii) Ear ossicles.

Solid/bony/hard/small/form lever system to amplify (sound) vibrations;
Are linked/loosely attached to transmit (sound) vibrations;

b (i) P – cerebral hemisphere/cerebrum; Accept cerebral cortex (2 mks)

1. (a) No colour change in Bicarbonate indicator/red colour of Bicarbonate indicator is retained;

(b) Account for boiling tube A.
Red bicarbonate indicator turns yellow; Carbon (IV) Oxide is released during gaseous
exchange; which lowers the pH (increase acidity);
(c) Describe the mechanism of inhalation in a human being (4
mks)
The external intercostal muscles contract while internal intercostal muscles relax; The
ribcage is pulled upwards and outwards; the diaphgram muscles contracts and diaphgram
flattens; the volume of the thoracic cavity increases and the pressure decreases; (Atmospheric
pressure being higher than that of thoracic cavity) air rushes into the lungs (through the
mouth and nose);
2. (a) Alveolus; Rej. Alveoli (plural)
Y-Oxygen
Z-Carbon (IV) Oxide accept symbol
Rej.If bracket is missing
Oxygen concentration is lower in the blood capillary than in the alveolius;Oxygen
diffuses;through the epithelium and capillary wall/endothelium; (Plasma into red blood cells
where it combines with haemoglobin)
Rej.Epithelium for capillary wall
Cigarettes/tabacco contains tar.tar contains carcinogenic substances; (Which trigger cancer)
E-Stomach
F-Mouth
G-Duodenum; (3mks)
E-Proteins
G-Proteins/Lipids/carbohydrates; (2mks)
Pancreas;rej wrong spelling
Temperature;
Substrate concentration;
Enzyme inhibitors ;
Enzyme concentration;
Male x female
Parental Genotype XH Y x XH Xh ;
XH Y
;

XH XH XH; XH Y
;
Xh XH Xh Xh Y

Cause-The normal red blood cell haemoglobin A is replaced by an abnormal from called
haemoglobin s; (1mk)
Female (Sickle cell trait) X Male (Sickle cell)
Parental genotype HbAHbS X HbSHbS ;

Gametes

HbA HbS HbS HbS

Fertilization

Offsprings HbAHbS HbAHbS HbSHbS HbSHbS

Genotypes Trait Trait Sickle Celled Sickle

Celled

Ecosystem-is a natural unit in which abiotic and biotic factors interact freely/Naturally leading to
a self-sustaining system;

S-Emergent ;

P-Submerged;

Q- Floating

Have numerous chloroplast to absorb light to photosythesis’

Chloroplast are sensitive to low light intensities thus photosynthesis.

The leaves are deeply dissected into threadlike straws to increase the surface area for absorption
of light have a large air spaces/aerenchym tissues for storage of air required for gaseous
exchange/provided buoyancy;

The leaf lack cuticle to facilitate epidemic They have poorly developed roots that lack root hairs
to reduce absorption of water.

SECTION B M.SCHEME

Scale-2mks

Axis-1mk

Plotting-2 mks

Curve-1mk

Identitiy-1 mk

Total 7 mks

Between 0-1 hrs

Blood sugar level in hepatic portal vein is lower than that in hepatic vein;

Its lower in hepatic portal vein because no absorption of glucose that was present in blood has
used up by cells for respiration.

Its higher in hepatic vein due to regulation/effect of glucagon in the liver by breakdown of
glycogen to glucose; breakdown of fats to glucose.

BETWEEN 2-4 HRS

Very high level in hepatic portal vein due to absorption of glucose in the ileum;

Level lower in hepatic vein due to regulation/effect of insulin hormone in the liver by oxidative
breakdown of glucose to release energy.

Conversion of glucose to fats glycogen; for storage;

Inhibit breakdown of fats/non carbohydrates sources to glucose;

C i.Protein digestion takes longer time;

Absortion of proteins by active transport required energy that takes longer

ii,Its higher in hepatic portal vein due to absorption of amino acid in the ileum;

its lower in hepatic vein due to deamination in the liver

d.Lipase

7.Simple reflex action example is withdrawal of a finger from a sharp objet/hot

object/kneejerk/blinking of the eye when a foreign object passes near it;

Definition – A simple reflex is an automatic response to a specific stimuli;

When the finger touches a sharp object/hot object, pain receptors/thermoreceptors in the skin are
stimulated; and triggers of a nerve impulse; The nerve impulse is transmitted via the sensory
neuron; to the grey matter of the spinal cord/CNS/brain; The impulse is then triggered off via a
synapse; to the relay neuron; and then through another synapse; to the motor neuron; the impulse
is then transmitted to the effector muscles in the hand; the effector muscles /biceps contract; and
the finger is withdrawn from the hot object;

Conditioned reflex action

Example: salivation of dog/human being/student in response to sound, Accept any other relevant
example

Definition: conditioned reflex action is an automatic response evoked from an animal by

unrelated stimulus; substituted for the one which normally elicit the response;

It develops from past experience; and involves modification of behavior/learning; It weakens

with time; and must be reinforced by repeating the original stimulus;

Dog/student salivate when the bell rings because they have learned to associate the ringing of the
bell (at meal time) with food every time it rings, they are offered food;

Total marks 23

Max 20 mks

Accept use of any other relevant example

8. (a) Follicle stimulating hormone;

Secreted by the (anterior lobe of) Pituitary Gland;

Stimulates development of Graafian follicle;

Stimulates ovary wall to secret oestrogen ;

Oestrogen;secreted by the ovary;

Stimulates healing of endometrium;

In its high concentration stimulates the pituitary gland to secret luteinizing hormone;

Luteinising hormone;

Secreted by Pituitary gland;

Stimulates maturation of Graafian follicle;

Stimulates ovulation;

Stimulates remains of the Graafian follicle to change into corpus luteum;

Stimulates corpus luteum/ovary to secret progesterone;

Progesterone hormone

Secreted by the ovary;

Stimulates thickening of the endometrium/increase blood supply into the endometrium;

Inhibits follicle stimulating hormone;

Inhibits luteinizing hormone; Total-19 Points

Max-15 marks

(b)Adaptation of cardiac muscles

Has coronary artery; to nourish the muscle/supply oxygen/nutrients to the muscle;

Has coronary vein; to remove meteabolic waste/carbon(IV) oxide from the muscle; Has
numerous mitochondria; to generate energy for the muscular contraction; The muscles contract
and relax continuously/without fatigue; are myogenic; The muscles are interconnected/ a
syncytium/form a network of fibre; to rapidly and uniformly spread the contractions;
M.SCHEME PAPER 3 BIOLOGY 23/3

A. (b.) Organisms with exoskeleton; accept without endoskeleton ; (1mk)

4(a)-Has fins; (1mk)

B.
Specimen Steps followed Identity;
A. 1b, 3a Arachnida;
B. 1a, 2a, 4a Pisces;
C. 1b ,3b ,5b, 6b Chilopoda;
D. 1a, 2a ,4b ,7b, 8a Reptilia;
E. 1a, 2a ,4b ,7a Aves;
F. 1b, 3b, 5a insects;

Steps followed tied with identity to score max. (6mks)

(c).Arthropoda;
(d).Have exoskeleton;

Have jointed appendages; Rej. Jointed Limbs;

A. Have segmented body.; Reason (tied to C)
(3mks)
(e) D and E- all have scales; (on their bodies)

2.(a.)

Specimen Mode of dispersal Adaptive features

K Animalia Presence of hooks;
L Animal Brightly colored epicarp; succulent mesocarp;
M Wind Light; winged hairy;
N Wind Winged/papery extensions; Light;
P Animal Fleshy mesocarp/ Brightly colored epicarp;
Q Self-Disposal Lines of weakness/sutures;

Accept indigestible seed for specimen L

(b.)

D1- Continuous outline with all structures

Including seeds
-No shading
D2- At least two seeds drawn
-Placenta double line
(c.) S- seed;Rej. Seeds

Q3 (a) i) Contents of test tube B are clearer/Colourless/Form a solution; (1 mk)

Content of test tube A are cloudy/turbid/form a white

precipitate/suspension/milk/colloidal suspension; (1mk)

ii) NaoH provided an alkaline medium/Condition/Unsuitable/unfavourable (In test tube

B);Unssuitable For Action/Working of enzyme P(on egg albumen) hence did not digest
egg albumen/protein;(content of test tube B remained cloudy) (2mks)

In test Tube A, Hydrochloric acid provided suitable acidic/favourable medium;for the

working ofenzyme P; hence there was break down/digestion of albumen occurred;(3
mks)

(b) To provide suitable/Optimum/Favourable/Best temperature for the working/action of

enzyme P; (1 mk)

(c) (i)Solution P is an an enzyme/Pepsin; Protein digesting enzyme/in the egg albumen in

the acidic medium; (2mks)

(ii) In the stomach; (1 mk)

Name …………… M/Scheme………………… ADM …………………… Index ……………..……

School ………………………… Stream ………………………………… Date ……………………………

232/2

PHYSICS

JUNE 2024

HAWK EXAMINATIONS

Instructions to candidates
1. Fill in the spaces provided above with your name, admission number, index number, stream
and date.
2. Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
3. All working must be clearly shown
4. Electronic calculators and mathematical tables may be used.
5. This paper consists of 16 printed pages with 18 questions. Candidates should ensure that all
pages are printed and that no question is missing.
6. Constants are provided after the appropriate questions.
For Official Use
Section Questions Maximum Candidates
Score Score
A 1 – 13 25
B 14 11
15 11
16 12
17 11
18 10
TOTAL 80

Page 1 of 15
Section A (25 Marks)

1. The fig 1 below shows the observation on a graph paper when viewed through a lens

Determine the magnification of the lens. (2 marks)

3 1.5
√ 1.5 / √
2 1

2. Below is a radioactive decay equation.

→

Name the particle represented by X. (1 mark)

- Alpha

3. The table below is for electromagnetic radiations

RADIATION DETECTOR USE

Infrared √ Human skin Remote control devices

…………………..
Gamma rays GM Tube Sterilizing √
………………………………….

Complete the table by filling in the missing parts. (2 marks)

Page 2 of 15
4. The fig 2 below shows a suspended magnet closer to a soft iron inside a solenoid circuit.

State the observation when the switch is on. (1 mark)

- The magnet is repelled√

5. The fig 3 below shows a ray incident to a plain mirror KL.

The mirror is rotated through 10o in the clockwise direction about O. Calculate the new angle of
reflection. (2 marks)

90! − 50! 40! √

$ $ 40! (10! &2) 60! √

6. The figure 4 shows a display of an a.c signal on the CRO screen.

Page 3 of 15
Given that the time-base setting is 50mS per cm. Determine the frequency of the input. (3marks)

*+ , -
) 0.3 √ . √
+++ /

. +.0
. 3.3312√

7. a) Explain how a transparent glass prism is able to disperse white light in to rainbow. (2 marks)

- Different colours have different velocities and wavelengths at glass- water boundary;
- Red has highest velocity hence is dispersed least through glass/ Violet is dispersed
most;

b) Use a diagram to show the path of a ray of light entering optical fibre. (1mark)

8. The figure 5 below show two capacitors, 2µF and C connected in a circuit.

If the effective capacitance is 1.6µF, find the value of C. (2 marks)

1 1 1
√
1.6 2 3
3 8µ6 √

Page 4 of 15
9. The figure 6 below shows two conductors neutrally charged contacting one another on insulating
stands with a negatively charged rod brought closer.

Show the charge distribution on the conductors after they were separated. (2 marks)

10. The figure 7 below shows a flexible wire carrying current in a magnetic field.

Draw to show how the wire curves in the field. (1 mark)

11. The figure 8 below shows magnetization by single stroke method.

Name the end pole X. (1mark)

- North √
-

Page 5 of 15
12. A concave mirror produces an image 4 times bigger when the object is 12.0 cm away. Determine
the focal length of the mirror used. (3 marks)

7
8
1 √ 48
9 .
4−1
4 712 48 :;
4 1 16< √
. 0
48 √

13. State two disadvantages of using plane mirrors in a periscope. (2 marks)

- Images are not clearer due to multiple reflection / scattering;

- Silvering of the mirrors may peel off;

Page 6 of 15
SECTION B (55 Marks)
14. a) Siting by the side of a pond, John uses a long stick to tap severally on water. The waves
produced can be classified into three categories. Name two. (2 marks)
- Transverse √
- Mechanical √
- Progressive

b) He observes the waves move towards the deep part of the pond. Assuming he was taping at
the same rate, describe how the following characteristics of the waves are affected;

Wavelength. (1 mark)
- Increases / becomes longer √

Velocity. (1 mark)
- Increases √

c) Fig. 9 below shows light rays from two coherent sources S1 and S2 falling on screen.
Bright and dark fringes are observed between P and Q.

I. What is a coherent source. (1 mark)

- Produces light/waves of same frequency √

Page 7 of 15
II. State how the following are produced;

Bright fringes. (1 mark)

- Constructive interference occurs/crest meets a crest/ trough meets a trough √

Dark fringes. (1 mark)

- Destructive interference occurs/ crest meets a trough √

c) The fig 10 below shows a ray of light passing into a glass prism ABC of refractive index
1.52.

Determine and mark on the figure the angle of reflection. (4 marks)

1
=3 √ 0.6579
1.52
? =@ 3 41.14A √ ( > 3, ℎ EF EGGF = =EGGF .G < H)
90! − {180! − (90! 60! )} 60! √

Page 8 of 15
15. a) Four identical cells and three identical bulbs are arranged as in the fig. 11 below.

If all the bulbs are lit at once, state two observations recorded. (2 marks)
- B1 and B2 light with equal brightness √
- B3 lights brightest √
- B3 lights longest

b) A nichrome of length L has a resistance of 10 ohms. State two ways of using the same wire to
produce a resistor of 5 ohms. (2 marks)
- Using half of the wire/half L √
- Folding the wire twice then twisting it / twice area √

c) the fig 12 below shows a circuit of a battery, two resistors R and 2Ω, a switch and a
voltmeter.

The voltmeter reads 3.0V when the switch is open and 2.8V when the switch is closed. If a
current of 0.5A flows when the switch is closed, find;
I. The value of R. (2 marks)

KL √
2.8 0.5(2 L)
L 3.6Ω √

Page 9 of 15
II. The internal resistance of the battery. (2 marks)

N K √
3.0 2.8 (0.5 )
0.4Ω √

d) The figure 13 below shows a magnet and a solenoid in relative motion.

i) If shown was induced current indicate the direction of motion of the magnet.
(1mark)
- To the right √

ii) State two ways of increasing the amount of induced current (2mark)
- Moving the magnet faster √
- Increasing the number of coils √
- Using a stronger magnet

Page 10 of 15
16. a) During an experiment to determine the velocity of sound in air, the graph of time with
distance below was plotted.

I. State two instruments used in the experiment. (2 marks)

- Stop watch √
- Tape measure √

II. Describe how the experiment was carried out. (4 marks)

- Use tape to measure 100m. √ Clap once (accept any means of producing sound) and
start the timer simultaneously.
- Stop the clock when echo is heard and record the time t = 0.3s. √ Double the distance,
2d=200m.
- Repeat with distances 200m and 300m. √
- Do a table of time, t against distance, 2d and plot a graph. √

III. Use the graph to determine velocity of sound in air. (2 marks)

0.6 − 0.3
?G O 0.003 √
400 − 200
2H 1 1
G < F
?G O 0.003
333.3 / √

Page 11 of 15
b) The fig 14 below shows an X-Ray tube.

I. Name the materials used in parts labelled A and B (2 marks)

A- Tungsten √
B- Copper √

II. State one special property of the oil used. (1 mark)

- High specific heat capacity to absorb more heat √

III. State and explain the effect of increasing the anode potential. (2 marks)
- Hard X- Rays / X-Rays of higher penetration power is produced. √
- Electrons of higher acceleration/KE are produced. √

Page 12 of 15
17. a) The fig 15 below is for room circuiting.

I. Name the colour codes for Y and Z

Y………Black √ (1 mark)

Z ………Green √ (1 mark)

II. State the value of S, (1 mark)

S 15A √

III. A heater rated 1.25kW is used daily for 1 hour 20 minutes to heat water for a
month. If electricity costs Ksh. 12.50, per kilowatt hour, calculate the cost for
running the heater for a month of 30days. (3marks)
80
PQℎ 1.25 & &30 50PQℎ √
60
3 R ℎ. 12.50&50 √
R ℎ. 625.00 √

Page 13 of 15
b) (i) Define radioactivity. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(ii) Figure 16 shows a radium source of radiations subjected to strong magnetic field. Use to
answer questions that follow Write the names of radiations P, Q and R. (3mks)

Alpha, Gamma and Beta particle/radiation respectively

………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii)Figure 17 shows the penetrating power of radioactive radiation of various materials, Use it to
answer questions that follow. Which of the radiations indicate?
(i)Gamma radiation (1mark)
……Z………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Alpha radiation (1mark)
……X………………………………………………………………………………………

18. a) An object stands between the focal point and the pole of a concave mirror. State two
characteristics of the image formed. (2 marks)
- Magnified, Erect, Virtual √

b) It was observed that a student had to sit in the front row to see board writings
comfortably.
I. Name the defect the student surfers. (1 mark)

- Myopia / Short sightedness √

II. Name the lens used to correct the defect. (1 mark)

- Biconcave / Diverging lens √

c) I. A metal surface has a threshold wavelength of 5.7 × 10-7 m. taking C=3.0 x 108
m/s, Planck’s constant, h = 6.62 × 10-34 Js, determine.
i) Threshold frequency (2 marks)

.!
S
√ 6.0 & 10 : 1V √
TU

Page 14 of 15
0.+ , +W
*.+ , +X

ii) Its surface work function. (2 marks)

Q P .Y=< = ℎ.! √ 3.972 & 10@ Z [ √

6.62&10@0: & 6.0 & 10 :

II. The fig 17 below shows a solar cell circuit.

State and explain the observation on the ammeter when the switch is put on and
then released. (2 marks)
- No observation / no deflection √
- Very small/ negligible current is produced to deflect the ammeter/ pointer. √

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Page 15 of 15
HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 2024
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (KCSE)
PHYSICS PAPER 3
MARKING SCHEME
JUNE 2024
QUESTION 1
You are provided with the following apparatus:
• One dry cell
• A cell holder
• A volt-meter (0-3V)
• An ammeter (0-1A)
• A switch
• Amounted resistance wire labelled AB

a) Set up the apparatus as shown in the circuit below, figure 1

Figure 1

b) While the switch is open, record the voltmeter reading, V0

1.5 V (1 mark)
c) Put on the switch. While the crocodile clip is at A (i.e. L = 100 cm) take the volt-meter reading
(V) and the ammeter reading (I). Record V and I in the table 1 below.
Table 1
Length, (cm) 100 80 60 40 20

Voltage (V) 1.5 1.45 1.45 1.40 1.30

Current, I (A) 0.04 0.06 0.08 0.10 0.12

Resistance, R (Ω) 37.5 24.17 18.13 14.00 10.83

(Ω-1) 0.02667 0.04137 0.05516 0.07143 0.09234

(8 marks)
1
d) Repeat the procedure in (c) above for the lengths shown and complete the table 1 above.

e) Plot a graph of current (Y-axis) against (X-axis) (5 marks)

f) Determine the slopes, S of the graph (3 marks)

∆ . !" # $

∆ %&!& # '

. & $(
)
g) The resistance and current are related by the equation: *. Determine the value of z
(2 marks)
Z = gradient ;

= 1.412V ;

Page 2 of 5
h) State the physical quantity that the slope of the graph represent (1 mark)

Voltage or potential difference ;

QUESTION TWO

PART A
You are provided with the following:
- A candle
- A lens and a lens holder
- A screen
- A metre-rule
- Some plasticine

a) Set up the apparatus as shown in figure 2 below (ensure that the candle flame and the lens are
approximately the same height above the bench)

Figure 2

b) Set the position of the lens so that it is 40cm from the candle (U = 40 cm). Adjust the position of
the screen until a sharp image of the candle flame is obtained. Measure the distance, V between
the lens and the screen. Record the value of V

V = 13.3 cm (1mark)

c) Repeat the procedures in b) above for other values of U in the table b below. (6 marks)

Table 2

U(cm) 45 50 55 60

V(cm) 12.7 12.5 12.2 11.9

+
Magnification (m) 0.2822 0.2500 0.2218 0.1983
+
P= 9.905 10 9.985 9.931
,-

Page 3 of 5
.
d) Determine, z the average values of (2 marks)
/-

0.0 1- -0.0 1-0.0'

) 0. 011
&

Part B

You are provided with the following apparatus:

 A soft-board,

 an equilateral glass prism,

 4 optical pins and 4 drawing pins,

 plain white paper

Proceed as follows:
e) On a plain white paper draw a line XY and mark its midpoint Q. At Q draw a normal NQM at
right angles to XY. Draw a line PQ such that the angle of incidence, i, (PQN) is 250 (figure
below). Fix the paper on the soft-board with the drawing pins.

f) Place the triangular prism vertically with the triangular base down, on the paper such that the
midpoint of the edge CA of the prism coincides with the midpoint, Q, of the line XY, as shown.
Draw the outline CAB of the prism.

(The plain paper to be collected with the answer sheet) (3 marks)

g) Stick two pins, O1 and O2 (object pins), on the line PQ vertically into the soft-board, about 5cm
apart. View from the side AB of the prism and look for the images of the pins O1 and O2, as
shown in the figure. Keeping the eye along the plane of the paper, fix two pins S1 and S2 (search
pins), one after the other between your eye and the prism so that S1 and S2 and the images of O1
and O2, seen through the prism, appear one behind the other in a straight line. Mark the positions
of the four pins and remove the pins, the prism and the paper.
Page 4 of 5
h) Draw a line joining the points S1 and S2 to meet the line AB at R. Draw the line QR. Measure
the angle of refraction, r (MQR). Record the values of the angles i and r in the table below.

i) Repeat the experiment for the other values of 3 and entre your results in the table 2 below.
Complete the table. (6 marks)

Table 3:

i ( 0) r ( 0) Sin i Sin r 456

456

25 23 0.4226 0.3907 1.082

30 28 0.5000 0.4694 1.065

35 29 0.5735 0.4848 1.183

40 30 0.6427 0.5000 1.285

45 34 0.7071 0.5592 1.264

789
j) Determine, k the average value of: (2 marks)
789

. ;<- . =>- . ;?- .<;>- .<=@

: ; 1.1758;
>

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Page 5 of 5
HAWK-2 FORM FOUR JOINT EXAMINATION, 2024
233/3 CHEMISTRY
PAPER 3
PRACTICAL
MARKING SCHEME
1. Table 1
Volume of H2O in the boiling Temp at which crystals of solid Solubility of A (g/100g H2O)
tube appear
4 112.5
6 75.0
8 56.25
10 45.0
Column 1 = (4 marks)
i) C.T = 2 marks
C.T with 4 readings = 2 marks
C.T with 3 readings = 11/2 marks
C.T with 2 readings = 1 mark
C.T With 1 reading = 0 mark
ii) Use of decimals – 1mk (Tied to temp at which crystals appear)
iii)Trend 1 mark
Award 1 mark for a continuous drop in temp of otherwise penalise fully.

Column II = 2marks
Award ½ marks for values correctly calculated.
ii) graph (3 marks)
i) Labelling of axes( ½ mark)
ii) Scale ( ½ mark)
iii) Plotting 1 mark
iv) Curve 1 mark
iii) I (1 mark)
Accept correct reading with or without showing on the graph
II (1 marks)
Solubility at 60C = correct reading
Solubility at 40C = correct reading
Mass of crystals = correct Ans (1 mark)
e) Table 2 (3 marks)
I II III
Final burette reading
Initial burette reading 0.0 0.0 0.0
Volume of solution B used

1|Page
Complete table = (1 mark)
i) C.T with 3 titres = 1mark
ii) C.T with 2 titres = ½
iii)Incomplete table with 1 titre = 0 mark
Decimals = (1 mark) should be consistent otherwise penalise fully
Accuracy = (1 mark)
± 0.1 (1 mark) of the school value
± 0.2 ½ mark of the school value
Not within ± 0.2 (0 mark)
Principle of averaging = (1 mark) on condition that the values average are consistent. (± 0.2)
i) 1/2
= Ans1/2
. ×
ii) moles of KMnO4 = 1/2
= Ans1/2
×
iii) Moles of A in 25cm3 = 1/2
= Ans 1/2
iv) RFM of A
×
Moles in 250cm3 =
= Ans 1/2
/
RFM = ! "#
=Ans1/2
v) Value of X
RFM of H2O = 181/2
18x = ans in iv − 90
,- , . /0
x= 1/2
= Ans1
Conditions
Accept correct even if the Ans not correct
Penalise fully for storage values

2. (a) (i) OBSERVATION INFERENCES

Blue turns red and red remains - Acidic gas ½
red ½
Yellow residue when hot and white - ZnO ½
when cold ½
Colourless liquid on cooler parts of
test tube ½ - Hydrated salt ½
(ii) -Dissolve partially ½ to form a - Mixture of soluble and insoluble
colourless filtrate and a white salt. ½
residue ½ - Fe2+, Fe3+, Cu2+absent ½
(iii) White ppt ½ soluble in excess. ½ Al3+, Pb2+, Zn2+ present ¹

(iv) White ppt ½ soluble in excess ½ Zn2+ present ½

(v) White ppt formed ½ dissolves on Cl- present ½

warming ½

2|Page
(vi) Bubbles produced ½ CO 2 3 present ½

(vii) White ppt ½ soluble in excess ½ Zn2+ present ½

3.
Observation Inferences
a Burns with a blue non sooty
flame. 1 C=C - C ≡C – Absent 1

b Miscible liquids 1 Liquid P is polar 1

c Potassium manganate (VII) R – OH, Present 1
decolourises/ changes from
purple to colourless. 1
d K2Cr2O7 changes from orange to R – OH, Present 1
green1

3|Page
HAWK II EXAMINATIONS 2024
HISTORY PAPER ONE MARKING SCHEME
1) Identify two aspects of life which are studied in social history (2mks)
 Traditions
 Values
 Cultural practices
2) Give the main reason why the Mijikenda migrated from Shungwaya in the precolonial
period
 Attack by Oromo/Galla
3) Identify two age grades of elders among the Akamba
 Junior elders/ Anake
 Medium elders/ Nthele
 Full elders/ Atumia ma Kivalo
 First full Elders/Atumia ma Kisuka
 Second full elder/Atumia Ma Nzama
 Third full elder/Atumia ma Ithembo
4)Outline one reason for the coming of the Arabs (1mk)
 To trade
 To explore
 To spread their religion
 Due to religious persecution in Arabia
 To establish settlement along the coast
5) Identify one contribution of Dr Ludwig Kraft in the spread of Christianity(1mk)
 Translation of the Bible into Kiswahili
 Wrote the first Kiswahili dictionary
 Built the first church at Rabai
6)Give the main reason why Kenyan citizens should obey the law
 To maintain peace
7)State the National days celebrated in Kenya(2mks)
 Jamhuri
 Madaraka
 Mashujaa
8)Name the last stage in the constitution making process(1mk)
 Promulgation

1
9)Give two categories of child rights in Kenya (2mks)
 Survival rights
 Development rights
 Participation rights
10)Mention one way through which the African communities in Kenya responded to British
colonization
 Resistance
 Collaboration
 Mixed reaction
11)Give two reasons why the British Preferred Indian coolies during the construction of the
Uganda railway
 They had experience in Railway building
 They were cheaper
 Africans were not willing to provide labor
 Africans lacked the technical skills in Railway building
12)Give the main reason why Ronald Ngala advocated for Majimboism(1mk)
 To safeguard the interest of the minority communities
13)Identify the highest court in Kenya (1mk)
 Supreme court
14)Give the members of the cabinet in Kenya (2mks)
 President
 Deputy President
 Attorney General
 Cabinet secretaries
15)Give one pillar of Nyayoism (1mk)
 Peace
 Love
 Unity
16) Identify two committees of parliament which monitors expenditure of public funds in
Kenya(1mk)
 Public Accounts Committee
 Public Investment Committee

2
17) Categories of members of the County Assembly
Elected members
Nominated members
SECTION B(45mks)
18a) Reasons for the migration of the Luo into Kenya during precolonial time(5mks)
 Search for water and pasture
 External attacks
 Internal feuds
 Population pressure
 Spirit of adventure
 Due to epidemics and diseases
 Due to natural calamities
b) Explain five results of Nandi migration (10mks)
 Expansion of trade with neighboring communities
 Spread of ironworking technology
 Population increased in areas where they settled
 Increase in inter community conflict
 Cultural interaction between communities
 Assimilation of neighboring communities
 Population redistribution in the regions they settled
 Displacement of some communities
 Intermarriage with neighboring communities
19a) State five reasons for the coming of the Portuguese in the Kenyan Coast(5mks)
 To spread Christianity
 To trade
 To explore
 To revenge against the Arabs
 To seek for sea route to India
 To make contact with the Legendary Christian King Prester John
b) Explain five challenges faced by early Christian missionaries in Kenya(10mks)
 Language barrier
 Tropical diseases
 Hostile communities
 Poor transport network
 Hostility from slave raiders
 Shortage of personnel
 Inadequate funds

3
 Cultural conflict
 Sometimes the guides deserted them
 Opposition from the Muslims
 Lack of basic needs
20a) Five reasons which led to urbanization(5mks)
 The construction of the Kenya Uganda Railway
 Setting up of shops by the Indians which grew into urban centers
 Some administrative centers turned into urban centers
 Some mining centers turned into towns
 Towns grew along feeder roads
 Areas around Agro based industries developed into towns
b) Five challenges faced by settler farmers in Kenya (10mks)
 Hostility from the Africans
 Lack of labor
 Lack of experience in farming
 Lack of funds
 Poor transport network
 Marketing problems
 Crop and animal diseases
 Unfavorable and varied climate
21a) Outline Five objectives of African Socialism (5mks)
 To promote democracy by allowing people of Kenya to freely elect their leaders
 To promote social justice by enhancing equality before the law
 To eradicate diseases and ignorance by fighting poverty, providing medicine and
promoting literacy
 To promote equal economic opportunities and enhancing equal access to economic
opportunities
 To ensure high and growing income by promoting the economy
 To promote equitable distribution of wealth to all regions of the country
 To promote freedom of conscience of human dignity by enforcing the bill of rights
b) Discuss Five contributions of Harambee in National Development (10mks)
 Development of education through construction of schools
 Building of health centers, dispensaries and wards
 Enabled setting up of public projects such as soil conservation
 Facilitated personal projects by pooling resources together
 Enabled the pooling of resources together to assist the needy
 It has enabled Kenyans to be self- reliant and hard working
 It has encouraged national integration through mutual social understanding that goes
beyond tribal and ethnic boundaries

4
 It has contributed to the redistribution of resources among the Kenyan people

SECTION C (30mks)
22a) Mention three peaceful methods of solving conflict (3mks)
 Arbitration
 Mediation
 Negotiation
 Litigation
 Legislation
 Peace keeping missions
 Policing
 Collaboration
 Religious Action
 Council of elders
b) Six features of Independence Constitution (12mks)
 Provided for multiparty democracy in Kenya
 Provided for Majimboism/Regional government
 Provided for a bicameral national assembly
 It contains the Bill of Rights
 Stipulated conditions necessary for acquisition of Citizenship
 In created Independent Electoral Commission to be in charge of elections
 It created a central land board to deal with land issues
 It provided for the setting up of the Police service
 It provided for amendment of the constitution
23 a) Mention three National Security Organs
 The National Police
 The National Intelligence Service
 The Kenya Defense Forces
b) Six functions of the National Assembly in Kenya (12mks)
 Represents people of constituencies and special interest groups
 Deliberates on and resolve issues of concern to the people
 Makes and amends laws
 Determines the allocation of National revenue between National and County
Governments
 Approves government expenditure
 Supervises National revenue and expenditure
 Reviews the conduct in office of the President, deputy president and state officers
 Approves declaration of war and extension of state of emergency

5
 Supervises the operations of state organs
24a) Five sources of revenue to the county government (5mks)
 Allocation from National Government
 Loans
 Grants
 Sale of trade licenses
 Charges of services offered by the county
 Property rates
 Profits from county investment
 Taxes
b) Functions of County Government(10mks)
Development of Agriculture in their areas
Provision of health care services
Promotion of public health through waste removal
Environmental management through control of pollution
Provision of recreational facilities such as sports stadia
Regulation of cultural activities
Regulation of trading activities through sale of licenses
Development of County transport through construction of roads
Provision of pre-primary and vocational education

6
HAWK II EXAMINATIONS- 2024
HISTORY MARKING SCHEME PP2
SECTION A (25 MARKS)
1. Identify two forms of government.
(2marks)
 Democratic
 Aristocratic
 Monarchial
 Dictatorial

2. State one sources of creation theory.

(1marks)

 Bible
 koran/quran
3. Mention two rivers which provided water used for irrigation by the early Sumerian
famers. (2marks)
 river Euphrates.
 River tigris
4. State one method of trade.
(1marks)
 Barter trade.
 currency trade
5. Identify two vehicles without wheels used in ancient times.
(2marks)
 Sadden chair
 The sleigh (sledge)
 The travois.

6. Name the first European nation to be industrialize.

(1marks)
 britain
7. Give two functions of ancient town of kilwa.
(2mark)
 It was a defensive center.
 Trading center
 Administrative center

1
 Religious center
8. Identify the capital of the Asante empire.
(1marks)
 kumasi

9. Who convene the berlin conference in (1884-1885)?.

(1mark)
 Otto von bismark
10. Name two communes in Senegal where assimilation policy was applied.
(2marks)
 Dakar
 Goree
 St. louis
 rufisque
11. State two methods used by the nationalist in Ghana during the struggle for
independence. (2mark)
 They formed political parties. E.g UGCC,CPP
 They used boycotts/demonstration/strike/go-slow
 They organize political rally
 They used newspaper e.g Acrra evening news
 They used trade union
 They used international plartform

12. Identify the immediate cause of world war 1.

(1mark)
 Assassination of archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria in Sarajevo.
13. Give the main reason why the league of nation was formed in 1919.
(1mark)
 It was formed to prevent the occurrences of another world war.
14. Identify two weapons which were used during cold war.
(2marks)
 Propaganda/war of words
 Economic sanction
 Military assistance
 Financial/technical aid.
15. Identify the legislative organ of the east Africa community.
(1mark)
 The east African legislative assembly.

2
16. Highlight two education reforms introduced in Tanzania by president Julius Nyerere
.(2mark)
 Establishment of more schools/colleges/universities
 Introduction of free and universal primary education.
 Use of Kiswahili as a language to be used in teaching.

17. Identify one level of government in USA.

(1mark)
 Federal government.
 state government.
SECTION B (45MKS)
ANSWER ANY THREE QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION.

18.(a) state three uses of stone tools by early humans. (3mks)

 To protect /defend themselves.

 To make containers
 To cut/chop meat and vegetables.
 To hunt /kill wild animals
 To skin the wild animals.
 To scrap animal’s skins.
 To dig roots.
 To grid seeds/grains
 To sharpen other tools.

(3x1=3mks)

(b) Describe six aspect of the culture of the early humans during the old stone age period.
(12mks)

 Man made simple stone tools known as oldwan tools for domestic use.
 Man lived in small groups in order to assist each other/ security.
 Man obtain its food mainly through hunting and gathering activites.
 Man usd simple hunting methods such as laying traps and chasing the
wild animals
 Man eat raw food because fire had not been discovered to cook food.
 Man had no cloth but developed hairy body to protect himself from cold.
 Man had no permanent shelter but climbed on trees to escape from
predators.

3
 Man had no spoken language but communicated through guesture,
whistling, and growling.
 Man lived near rivers and lakes.

19.(a) state three factors that undermined the trans-Saharan trade. (3mks)

 The mine fields got exhausted e.g. gold.

 Political instability in the region brought by anarchy, insecurity.
 Tuaregs started attacking and robbing traders
 Morocco invaded western Sudan causing insecurity
 Invasion of northern Africa by the Turks created insecurity along the trade
routes.
 Development of trans-Atlantic trade undermined it.
 Decline of Mali and Songhai kingdom left a leadership vacuum in trade.
 Colonization of the west Africa by Europeans who took over resources in west
Africa.
(3x1=3mks)

(b) Explain six economic results of the trans-Saharan trade. (12mks)

 The people of west Africa were able to get essential commodities like cloths.
 Towns develop along the trade routes.
 It led to expansion of local trade.
 It brought a lot of wealth to those who participated.
 Led to development of empires e.g. mali from the wealth acquired
 Development of transport e.g. trade routes and use of camels.
 There was over-exploitation of natural resources in West Africa e.g. gold
 A variety of new types of goods from North Africa were introduced in West Africa
( 6x2=12)

20.(a) Give five reasons why the British used Indirect rule in Northern Nigeria(5mks)

 Existence of elaborate system of administration before the coming of the British

 To avoid resistance
 Lack of adequate finances to pay for administration
 Shortage of European administrative officers

4
 Communication barrier between the British and the locals
 Poor transport made it difficult to reach all parts of the territory
 The area was too vast/large

b) Explain Five differences between the British Indirect rule and the French policy of
assimilation (10mks)

 The French used military officers while the British used professional administrators
 The British rule did not interfere with the African culture while assimilation replaced
African culture
 Assimilated Africans were granted French citizenship with full rights while those in
British were regarded as subjects
 Assimilated Africans in French enjoyed privileges while the elites in British colonies
were subjected to the same harsh rule as the rest.
 The British granted African chiefs a lot of powers while the French undermined the
traditional African rulers
 The laws in French colonies were legislated in France while in British colonies laws were
made in Legco
 The French colonies elected their representatives to the chambers of deputies in Paris
while the British colonies were not represented in the British Parliament.
 France considered her colonies as overseas provinces while in Britain the colonies were
ruled together

21a) Give Five reasons why Lewanika collaborated with the British (5mks)

 Lewanika wanted protection against his external enemies such as the Ndembele
 He wanted to safeguard his position as the king of the Lozi
 He saw futility in resistance due to the might of the British
 He wanted protection against his internal enemies such as chiefs that wanted to be
independent
 Lewanika wanted the British to help him against the Portuguese and the Boers
who were interfering their interest in trade
 He was influenced by Colliard, a missionary who convinced him to seek British
protection
 He wanted his people to gain from Western civilization in the form of education

5
 He wanted to promote trade with the British so that he could get fire arms
 He was influenced by his friend, Khama of the Ngwato who had earlier sought
British protection
(b) Explain five results of Chimurenga war (10mks)

 The Ndembele and the Shona were defeated by the British

 Many people lost their lives as the Shona and Ndembele were killed by BSAC
guns.
 The Shona and Ndembele lost cattle which were confiscated by BSACO
 The Africans lost their independence as colonial rule was established in
Matabeleland and Mashonaland
 A lot of property was destroyed since BSACO used scorched earth policy against
the Shona and Ndembele
 The Africans lost their land which was alienated to create room for settlers. The
Africans were pushed into reserves.
 The colonial office in London blamed BSACO for poor administration which led
to the uprising.

SECTION C (30 MKS)

ANSWER ANY TWO QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION

22a) State three reasons why USA did not join the First World War until 1917 (3mks)
 Monroe Doctrine barred USA from involving herself in European affairs
 She did not want the war to be fought on her soil
 USA had commercial relations with both parties
 The war had not interfered with her interest before 1917
b) Explain Six effects of cold war(12mks)
 Led to actual war in some countries like Korea and Vietnam
 Led to the spread of Capitalism and Communism in different parts of the world
 It led to formation of military alliances by the two superpowers increasing rivalry
between them
 It led to the creation of economic alliances by the two super powers
 Led to development of science and technology which encouraged space race
 It undermined international peace and security as the two super powers struggled to
dominate the world
 It created hostility and mistrust which divided the world into two opposing power blocs

6
 It led to economic stagnation due to heavy military spending
 It led to the formation of Afro-Asian bloc which adopted the policy of non-alignment
23a) Name three organs of Commonwealth (3mks)
 Heads of states summit
 Ministerial Meetings
 Commonwealth Secretariat
b) Explain Six Economic Challenges facing Democratic Republic of Congo (12mks)
 The profits from minerals are repatriated by foreign companies which have a monopoly
in the mining sector.
 The country has huge foreign debt to pay as a result of over reliance on loans from
foreign countries.
 Lack of appropriate trade policies has led to illegal trading activities like smuggling
 High level of corruption in government has denied the country money required for
development
 Poor infrastructure such as roads and railways have undermined economic growth
 Political instability in the region have undermined DRCs international trade
 Mobutu’s financial policies of printing paper money resulted into high rates
 Of inflation
 Mobutu’s inconsistent national policies of nationalization led to economic decline
 Recurrence of civil wars has created a hostile environment for investment scared away
investors
 Over reliance on minerals and a largely under developed agricultural sector has
undermined economic development
24a) Identify three political parties in India (3mks)
 Congress Party
 Bharatiya Janata Party
 Communist Party of India
b) Six functions of the President of USA (12mks)
 He is the commander in chief of the armed forces
 Ensures that laws are fairly executed
 Welcomes foreign dignitaries
 He is the head of the party
 He is the National voice of the people
 He is the promoter of peace
 He is a legislator who can initiate bills in congress
 He keeps the congress informed of international development

7
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (KCSE)

312/1
GEOGRAPHY
Paper 1
June 2024

Marking Scheme

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GEOGRAPHY PP1 HAWK II MARKING SCHEME JUNE 2024
SECTION A (25 MARKS)
1. a) Name one major latitude on the earth (1mark)
 Equator (00)
 Tropic of Cancer (23½0 North)
 Tropic of Capricorn (23½0 South)
 Arctic Circle (66½0 South)
 Antarctic Circle (66½0 North)
b) The figures below show two effects of revolution of the earth and the moon. Use them to
answer the questions that follow.

i) Name the effects labeled C and D. (2marks)

 C – Solar eclipse
 D – Lunar eclipse/eclipse of the moon
ii) Describe the occurrence of effect labeled C. (2marks)
 It occurs due to revolution of the moon around the earth.
 The moon lies between the earth and the sun in a straight line, casting a shadow of
the moon onto the earth
2. i) Define the term folding. (2 marks)
 Folding is the process through which crustal rocks bend upwards or downwards due to
compression force. / Crumpling of young sedimentary rocks due to compressional forces
ii) Name three types of folds. (3 marks)
 Symmetrical
 Asymmetrical
 Overfold
 Overthrust/Nappe
 Recumbent
 Isoclinal
 Anticlinorium – Synclinorium complex
3. i) . Give two factors that influence relative humidity. (2marks)
 Temperature.
 Air pressure.
 Altitude.
 Distance from large water bodies/seas.

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GEOGRAPHY PP1 HAWK II MARKING SCHEME JUNE 2024
 Latitude.
 Seasons.
 Natural vegetation/forests.
ii) Outline the steps followed when measuring humidity using a hygrometer. (3marks)

 Read and record temperature of wet bulb thermometer.

 Read and record temperature of dry bulb thermometer.
 Calculate the difference in temperature of wet and dry bulb thermometers.
 Use conversion scale to determine humidity/interpretation of temperature difference.

4. i) State three ways in which rocks can be classified. (3marks)

 By mode of formation or origin.
 By appearance (physical and chemical characteristics)
 By age
ii) Give two types of mechanically formed sedimentary rocks. (2marks)
 Arenaceous rocks e.g. sandstone and Grit
 Argillaceous rocks e.g. shale, mudstone, claystone, siltstone
 Rudaceous rocks e.g. breccia, conglomerate, boulder clay
5. i) The diagram below represents zones of natural vegetation on a mountain. Use it
answer the question below.

Name the zones marked X,Y AND Z. (2marks)

 X – Rainforest
 Y – Bamboo forest

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GEOGRAPHY PP1 HAWK II MARKING SCHEME JUNE 2024
 Z – Health and moorland
ii) State two reasons why some mountain tops have no vegetation. (2marks)
 The temperatures are too low to support plant growth
 There is no soil to support plants/ bare rock
 Water is always in a frozen state.

SECTION B (75 MARKS)

6. a) i) What type of map is Mumias map? (1mark)
 Topographical map.

ii) Give the six figure grid reference of other Trigonometrical station in the northern part
of the area covered by the map. (2 marks)
 533433

b) i) Name two districts which River Nzoia passes through. (2 marks)

ii) Calculate the area of Nyanza province in the area covered by the map in km2 (2 marks)
Area = 44 + 32/2
= 44 + 16
= 60 km2
c) Citing evidence, identify two social activities carried out in the area covered by the map.
(4marks)
d) Draw a square measuring 12cm by 12cm to represent the area enclosed by Eastings 55
and 58 and Northings 30 and 33.
(1mark)
i) On it, mark and name;
i. Riverine trees (1mark)
ii. R. Nzoia (1mark)
iii. Regional boundary (1mark)
ii) Calculate the new scale. (1mark)
e) i) Describe the distribution of natural vegetation in the area covered by the map.
(5marks)

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GEOGRAPHY PP1 HAWK II MARKING SCHEME JUNE 2024
 There are riverine trees along river Akanyo/Namalasire/Irana/Lairi.
 There is papyrus vegetation found in the Northern part of SHINAMWENYULI/North
East corner of the area covered.
 There are scattered trees South West of Samanzi market in the area/North West corner of
the area.
 There is a thicket at grid square 6630.
 There is a woodland at grid square 6437.

ii) Explain how relief has influenced the distribution of settlements in the area covered by
the map. (4 marks)
 There are no/ few settlements on the hills.
 There are clustered/ nucleated settlements on the undulating land/ gentle sloping areas.
 There few settlements on the steep sloping areas.
 There are few/ no settlements along river valleys.

7. The diagram below shows intrusive volcanic features.

i) Identify the features marked Q, R and S. (3marks)

 Q - Dyke
 R - Batholith
 S - Lopolith

ii) Describe how a sill is formed. (4marks)

 Earth movements cause formation of horizontal cracks/fissures below the earth’s surface.
 Magma forces its way and fills the horizontal cracks between the rock layers.
 The magma then cools and solidifies.

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GEOGRAPHY PP1 HAWK II MARKING SCHEME JUNE 2024
 This results to the formation of an igneous intrusion which lies along the bedding plane
of a rock strata called a sill.

b) Explain four ways in which volcanic mountains positively influence human activities
(8marks)
 Volcanic highlands or mountains are sources of rivers which provide water for domestic
or agricultural or industrial use.
 Volcanic rocks weather down to form fertile volcanic soils which support agriculture
 Volcanic rocks are important building materials in the construction industry.
 Volcanic features are tourist attractions which promote tourism.
 Volcanic mountains or highlands influence formation of relief rainfall which encourages
agricultural activities.
 Volcanic highlands influence formation of relief rainfall which encourages agricultural
activities.
 Volcanic highlands or mountains modify temperatures making them attractive to human
settlements.
 Volcanic features such as steam jets and geysers provide suitable sites for geothermal
power generation.

c) Form four Geography students of Usenge High School carried out a field study on
volcanic rocks in the Rift Valley.
i) Name three extrusive volcanic features the students identified other than a volcanic
mountain. (3marks)
ii) State three reasons why the class carried out reconnaissance. (3marks)
 Helps in designing the research methods to be used during the study.
 Helps formulate relevant hypothesis for the study.
 Helps in working out a programmed or schedule for the field study.
 Helps in identifying the appropriate equipment or instruments to be used in the study.
 Helps in identifying the features and their location before the study tour.
 Helps in identifying the features and their location before the study tour.
 Helps get contacts/guides for the study.
 Identifies problems likely to be encountered.

iii) Give two reasons why it was necessary to collect rock samples during such a study.
(2marks)
 There is no field laboratory where the rock samples can be analyzed.
 Students do not have adequate skills to analyze the samples so there is need for expert
opinion.
 There is no adequate time in the field

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GEOGRAPHY PP1 HAWK II MARKING SCHEME JUNE 2024
 To enable them build a collection of rock samples /future studies
 It would expose more students to their findings through display of their findings.
 To create interest / motivation and to deepen the understanding of the subject.

iv) Identify two problems the students faced during the study. (2marks)
 Some students may have been cut/injured by the rocks
 There may have been harsh weather/weather change.
 Inability to collect the right samples.
 Inaccessibility of some sample sites
 -The heavy weight of the rock samples hence difficult to carry.

8. a) i) Differentiate between a watershed and a confluence. (2marks)

 A water shed is a ridge/ highest area separating two river channels/basin/valleys while a
confluence is the point where river tributaries join the main river.

ii) Describe two processes though which a river erodes its channel. (4marks)
 Abrasion/corrosion is an erosion process where the river water uses the materials it is
transporting to scrub, polish, grind the river banks and the river bed.
 Solution – Solution is the process where as a river flows it dissolves soluble minerals and
salts from the river bed and river banks.
 Hydraulic action/quarrying – process where the shear force of the water as it flows is
thrown to the cracks of rocks of the river bed and banks creating pressure causing
cracking.
 Attrition – Eroded particles collide with each other hence reducing in sizes.
Process – 2 marks
Description – 2 marks
Total – 4 Marks

b) The diagram below shows a water fall. Use it to answer question b (i)

i. Name the parts marked Q, R and S. (3marks)

 Q – Resistant rock (1mark)

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GEOGRAPHY PP1 HAWK II MARKING SCHEME JUNE 2024
 R –Plunge pool (1mark)
 S – Rock boulder/debris (1mark)

ii. Explain two causes of river rejuvenation. (4marks)

 Increase in the river discharge/volume (static rejuvenation caused by increased rainfall in

the catchments area, river capture or melt of glacier causing the river to renew its erosive
power.
 Changes in the base level (dynamic rejuvenation) may be caused by uplift or subsidence
of land causing the river to renew its erosive power
 Change in rock resistance from hard to soft increasing the river’s erosive power.
iii) Name two features resulting from river rejuvenation. (2marks)
 Abandoned meanders
 Knick points
 River terraces
 Incised meanders/ingrown meanders/in trenched meanders.

c) Using well –labeled diagrams, describe how an ox-bow lake is formed. (6marks)

 The river starts to meander from one end of the valley to the other.
 The river deposits in the inner bank and erodes the outer bank.

 continued erosion and deposition leads to the formation of a pronounced meander to form
a neck / narrow land

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GEOGRAPHY PP1 HAWK II MARKING SCHEME JUNE 2024
 With time the river erodes off the meander neck to form a short cut abandoning the
former long channel

 The abandoned meander forms a crescent shaped water body known as Ox-bow Lake
Diagrams – 3 marks
Description – 3 marks

d) Your Geography class intends to carry out a field study on an ox-bow lake along river
Tana.
ii) Give two reasons for dividing the class into groups. (2marks)
 It creates order
 To cover a wide area within a short time
 To avoid overcrowding and injuries
 To ensure maximum participation of all students.
ii) Give two reasons for preparing a work schedule. (2marks)
 It gives ample time to each activity so that no activity is forgotten.
 It reduces the tendency of time wastage and forces the research team to work within the
allocated time in order to complete the project within the stipulated time.
 It provides an estimate of the time required for the study.
 It provides a basis for evaluating the field work while it is still in progress.
 It provides a frame work that guides the researcher to remain within the scope of the
topic.
9. a) i) What is a karst scenery? (2 marks)
 A karst scenery is a rugged landscape made of limestone, chalk or dolomite rocks that
have greatly been acted upon by carbonation to form many features.
ii) State five characteristics of karst landscapes. (5 marks)
 The rock on the surface and underground is limestone or chalk.
 Absence of surface runoff due to swallow holes.
 Many surface depressions due to solution and carbonation.
 Underground network of caves and caverns with features.
 Scanty vegetation due to thin poor soils.
 The surface is rugged due to several residual hills
b) Give four sources of ground water. (4 marks)
 Rain water which infiltrates the ground to lower parts.
 Melt water from ice or snow which also infiltrates through rocks.

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GEOGRAPHY PP1 HAWK II MARKING SCHEME JUNE 2024
 Water from rivers, lakes, swamps and ponds which seeps into the ground.
 Magmatic/plutonic water that is trapped deep in rocks during volcanism
c) Explain how the following factors influence the occurrence of ground water:
(i) Nature of rocks. (2 marks)
 The more permeable surface rocks are, the higher the infiltration rate. Impermeable rocks
on or near the surface blocks infiltration resulting in high surface runoff.
(ii) Slope of land. (2 marks)
 Infiltration is greater on flat areas since water remains in one place over a long period
of time while areas with steep slopes have greater surface runoff.
(iii) Vegetation cover. (2 marks)
 Where there is plenty of vegetation cover the surface runoff is obstructed. Its speed is
slowed and most of the water has time to sink into the ground.
 Absence of vegetation cover leads to very little infiltration.
d) Explain four conditions that favour the development of an artesian well. (8 marks)
 The aquifer must lie in between two impermeable rocks so that it can retain water.
 The aquifer must bend downwards from the intake area and form a broad shallow
basin/syncline.
 The sides of the aquifer must be exposed in a high rainfall area or lake which is the
source of water.
 The mouth of the artesian well must be at a lower level than the intake area to allow
water to be forced to the surface under its own pressure.
 The aquifer must be made of the same material to allow water to pass through it.

10. a) i) Distinguish between oceans and seas. (2marks)

 An ocean is a large body of saline water occupying a huge depression between continents
while sea is a large body of saline water, smaller than an ocean, found along continental
margins as well as within continents.

ii) State three characteristics of ocean water. (3marks)

 Salinity of ocean water.

 Temperature of ocean water.
 Density of ocean water.
 The ocean life.
 The ocean topography.
 Ocean pollution.

b) Explain how the following factors cause vertical movement of ocean water.

i) Salinity (2marks)

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GEOGRAPHY PP1 HAWK II MARKING SCHEME JUNE 2024
ii) Convergence of ocean currents. (2marks)

 When two ocean currents meet, they sink and move vertically downwards before
diverging and moving horizontally.
 The water eventually moves upwards towards the surface through upwelling.

c) The diagram below shows a breaking sea wave.

i) Name the parts labeled H and K. (2marks)

 H - Trough
 K - Swash

ii) Describe how ocean waves occur. (4marks)

d) i) Give two conditions necessary for the formation of a beach. (2marks)

 A gently sloping land at the sea shore.

 The wave breaking must have a strong swash or be constructive waves
 The wave must have a weak backwash or wave deposition should be strong than erosion.
 The sea should be shallow towards the coastline or shore.
 Waves should carry materials to be deposited.

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GEOGRAPHY PP1 HAWK II MARKING SCHEME JUNE 2024
ii) With the aid of well labeled diagrams, describe the process through which a stack is
formed. (8marks)

 A coastal with a headland is eroded by waves on opposite sides.

 This leads to the formation of caves.
 Elongation of the caves through the headland forms an arch.
 The roof of the arch collapses.
 Part of the headland on the seawards end is isolated to form a stack.

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GEOGRAPHY PP1 HAWK II MARKING SCHEME JUNE 2024
NAME……………………….………………………CLASS…………….…..ADM:.................

DATE…………………………….SIGNATURE…………………...

312/2
MARKING SCHEME GEOGRAPHY Paper 2
JUNE 2024
Time: 2¾ hours

312/2 - GEOGRAPHY – PAPER 2

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section Questions Maximum Candidate’s

Score Score

A 1-5 25

6 25
B
25

Total Score

1 a) What is Agroforestry? (2 marks)

This is a practice that involves the cultivation of crops, planting of trees and

HAWK II PP2 MARKING SCHEME JUNE 2024

1
keeping livestock on the same piece of land. OR
A land use system that involves planting of trees, cultivation of crops and
rearing of livestock on the same unit of land.
b) Outline three exotic softwood tree species grown in Kenya. (3 marks)
Cypress
Pines
Fir
Wattle
Eucalyptus/blue gum
Spruce (Any 3x1=3mks)

2. State five physical factors favouring tea growing in Kenyan highlands (5mks)

-Moderate to high temperatures

-moderate to high rainfall
- Well distributed rainfall throughout the year
Deep, well drained,volcanic/slightly acidic soils
-Gently sloping/undulating land
(Any1x5=5mks)

3. (a) State three factors necessary for a land to be reclaimed (3mks)

The large should be large/extensive

The land should be accessible for easy transportation
Availability of gentle sloping land for mechanization
Availability of capitals to initiate the project
The climate should be suitable for the intended agricultural activities skilled man
power should be available to make reclamation viable
(Any 3x1=3mks)

(b) Give three uses of polder land in Netherlands (3mks)

HAWK II PP2 MARKING SCHEME JUNE 2024

2
 It’s used for cultivation of crops
 It is for settlement
 It’s used for establishment of transport network
 Its use for setting up industries
 It’s used for pasture /and for dairy animals
(Any 3x1=3mks)
4. Name three endangered species of wild animals in kenya (3marks)
 rhino/block rhinocerous
 roan antelope
 grevy zebra
 hunter antelope
 thomsons gazelle
 lesser kudu

ii) State three effects of drought on wildlife in Kenya (3mks)

prolonged drought leads to migration of animals to areas that have supply of water / pasture
Prolonged drought leads to drying of some plant species / starvation / death of wild animals
When there is prolonged drought outbreak of wild fires are common

5) Study the map of the Ruhr industrial region and use it to answer the questions that follow.

Dortmund - Ems
Canal

R. Rhine
R. Wupper

(i) Name the River marked X. (1 mark)

 Ruhr river

HAWK II PP2 MARKING SCHEME JUNE 2024

3
(ii) Name the Canal marked Y. (1 mark)
 Lippe canal
(iii) Apart from iron and steel industries, name one other industries in the Ruhr
region. (1 marks)
 Petro-chemical industries
 Textile industries
 Oil refining
 Electronics industries
 Food processing
 Cutlery and surgical industries
 Engineering industries
(b) State two characteristics of Jua Kali industries in Kenya (2 marks)
 Mostly operated in the open/sheds,
 They use simple equipment,
 Use locally available / recycled raw materials,
 Use simple / basic skills in craft,
 Operated by individuals / small groups,
 Pursued as part time or full-time occupation,
 Require low capital investment,
 They are widespread.

SECTION B
6. Study the table below and use it to answer questions (a) and (b)

Value of leading imports to Kenya from 2015 to 2019 (Ksh million)

MPORT 2016 2017 2018 2019
Industrial 253,500 238,400 252,400 257,600
machinery
183,800 234,900 295,100 307,500
Petroleum products
Iron and Steel 75,500 83,600 97,700 104,100

HAWK II PP2 MARKING SCHEME JUNE 2024

4
(a) (i) What is the difference between the value of petroleum products imports
between year 2018 and year 2016? (2 marks)

Ksh 295,000 million – Ksh 183,000 million = Ksh 111,300 million

OR Ksh 111,300,000,000 OR Ksh 111.3 Billion

(ii) Calculate the percentage increase between the value of industrial machinery
imported between year 2017 and the year 2019.
(2 marks)
Difference Ksh 257,600 million – Ksh 238,400 million = Ksh 19,200 million
Ksh 19,200 million X 100% = 8.05%
Ksh 238,400 million

(ii) Using a vertical scale of 1cm to represent Ksh 30 Billion, draw a

comparative bar graph to present the data in the table. Use the graph
paper provided.
(9 marks)

HAWK II PP2 MARKING SCHEME JUNE 2024

5
(c) State three advantages of using comparative bar graphs to present statistical
data.
(3 marks)
 Are easy to construct
 Are easy to read
 Gives a clear visual impression
 Allows for easy comparison.
 The bars emphasize quantities very well.
(c) apart from cattle and goats , name two animals kept by pastoral communities in
Kenya (2marks)
 Camel
 Horse
 sheep
(d) (i) give two challenges facing nomadic pastoralism in Kenya.
(2 marks)
Shortage of water and pasture due to long dry spell making animals to be of poor quality.
 Pests such as ticks and fleas which weaken animals and Diseases such as east coast
fever, foot and mouth and anthrax which cause heavy losses of stock.
 Cattle rusting/raids from neighbouring communities make the area insure.
 Poor marketing strategies
 Competition from other land uses/decrease in grazing land
 Impassable roads within the areas limiting the market.
 Prolonged drought leads to death of animals due to shortage of water and pastures.
 Poor stocks management which leads to poor- or low-quality animals.
 Exploitation by middlemen so herders make little profit.
 Inadequate veterinary services hence difficult to treat animals.

(ii) explain two measures the government of Kenya is taking to improve dairy farming
(4marks)
 Appointing supervisory boards for dairy co-operatives.
 Extending credit facilities to farmers through co-operatives.
 Holding agricultural shows to educate farmers on good dairy farm management.
 Setting up demonstration farms which breed high quality bulls to be released to farmers.
 Establishing well maintained roads for delivery of milk.
 Carrying out extensive research on possible solutions to diseases.

(iii) name three beef cattle breeds reared in commercial ranches of Argentina (3marks)

 Short horn, Aberdeen Angus, Galloway, Hereford, Brangus

HAWK II PP2 MARKING SCHEME JUNE 2024

6
7 a i) What is agroforestry? (2marks)

Agroforestry is the combination of tree planting crop growing and livestock rearing on the same piece of
land simultaneously.
2x1=2mks

ii) Give three Ecological reasons why it is important to manage and conserve forests.
(3marks)
- Maintaining water catchment areas
- Controlling soil erosion
- Preventing siltation of water bodies
- Adding humus to the soils
- Purifying the atmospheric air
- Breaking the speed of wind.
Any 3 x 1 = 3mks

b) Explain three differences between natural and exotic forests in Kenya (6marks)

- Natural forests consist mainly of hardwoods while exotic forests consist mainly of soft woods
- Natural forests occur in mixed species while exotic in pure strands
- In natural forests there is random occurrence of trees in exotic they are planted in rows and
spaced.
- Natural forests have big trunks while exotic have slender trunks.
- Natural forests take long to mature over 70 years, while exotic mature faster 15 – 30 years.
3 x2=

c i) State two problems that affect forestry in Canada. (2 marks)

 Periodic forest fires destroy large areas of forests.

 Pests and diseases attack (Aphids) also destroy forests
 The forests in northern parts are not accessible in winter because of snow.
 The harsh and cold climatic conditions do not allow trees to mature quickly. This slow growth had led
to overexploitation.
 The north has a rugged terrain which hinders its accessibility.
 Periodic forest fires destroy large areas of forests.
 Pests and diseases attack (Aphids) also destroy forests
 The forests in northern parts are not accessible in winter because of snow.
 The harsh and cold climatic conditions do not allow trees to mature quickly. This slow growth had led
to overexploitation.
 The north has a rugged terrain which hinders its accessibility.

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ii) Explain three reasons why Canada exports more softwood forest products than Kenya
(6mks)
- In Canada there are many softwood species leading to more varieties of products that are of high
demand leading to more exports.
- In Canada there is highly advanced technology in harvesting and processing of softwood trees
leading to high quality products, while Kenya has less advanced technology in harvesting and
processing leading to low quality products.
- In Canada there is cheap water transport provided by many navigable rivers, there is fast delivery
of softwood products to the market while in Kenya road net worth which is expensive is used.
- Canada has high capital to be inverted in softwood products production while Kenya has limited
capital hence limited production.
- In Canada there are large areas under softwood product production and economic to exploit and
export while in Kenya the area is small hence uneconomical to exploit.
3 x 2 = 6mks

d) Differentiate between softwood forests in Kenya and Canada under the following sub headings;

 Logging (4 marks)
 In Kenya logging is done throughout the year whereas in Canada logging done during
winter
 In Kenya logging is done indiscriminately while in Canada logging done selectively

 Transport (2 marks)
 In Kenya logs are transported by tractors/ lorries/trucks while in Canada logs are
transported by floating on rivers and skidding over snow.

8. The pyramids below represent the population structure of Kenya and Sweden in the year
2009.Use them to answer question(a).
POPULATION PYRAMIDS 2009

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8
(a)Describe the characteristics of population of the two countries as represented by the
pyramids. (6 marks)

-In both Kenya and Sweden, the number of male and female is almost equal at all ages.
-In Kenya, the aging population is low/there is low life expecancy.In Sweden,the aging
population is high/life expectancy is high.
In Kenya, birth rate is high; In Sweden,birth rate is low
- In Kenya, death rate is high; In Sweden, death rate is low.
- In Kenya, fertility rate is high; In Sweden, fertility rate is low.
- In Kenya, dependency rate is high; In Sweden, dependency rate is low.
-In Kenya, the number of infants from age 0-4 is high; In Sweden,the number of infants from
age 0-4 is low.
- In Kenya, the number of youthful population is high; In Sweden, the number of youthful
population is moderate

(b) (i) What is fertility rate? (2 marks)

Is the number of live births in an area to the population of that area, expressed per
1000people per year/Is the number of live births in a given population in a year

(ii) Explain three factors that have contributed to the reduction in fertility rate in Kenya.
(6 marks)
Education: More girls are attending school, so they take longer to marry, thus have fewer
children compared to those whose level of education is low.

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9
- Urbanization: People are opting for smaller families since the cost living is quite high hence
the cost of bringing up children has also gone up.
- Employment: most of the educated ladies pursue careers hence leading to delayed
marriages and hence reducing the number of children one can have. Also, most employers do
not want to employ women who keep going on maternity leave.
- Family planning: Increased use of birth control measures has also lowered the number of
children women are having in their lifetime.
- There is an increase in the number of women opting to remain single,thus reducing fertility
rate.

(c) State three problems caused by slow population growth rate in developed countries.
(3 marks)
- There is under-utilization/under-exploitation of resources .Slow population growth rate
makes it difficult for a country to fully develop its resources .
-The resources also remains unexploited because of the shortage of labour.
- There is inadequate labour supply/manpower. Shortage of labour will lead to slow industrial
growth as well as labour being expensive.
-There is inadequate local market for the locally produced goods-
-The social amenities are underutilized.
- There is reduction in revenue collection.
- The dependency ratio is high in old age.

(d) Explain four causes of rural-rural migration in Kenya. (8 marks)

- Population pressure which leads to landlessness in areas such as central Kenya leading to
migration of people to settlement schemes and to less populated areas in search of land
-Transfer of services from one rural area to another/retirement/retrenchment.
- Insecurity in areas such as north-eastern Kenya where frequent attacks occur and cattle
stolen forces people to migrate to safer areas.
-The establishment of large plantations near Thika town and rice irrigation schemes in Mwea
and Ahero attract people from neighbouring areas as they search for employment.
- Pastoral communities move with their animals to areas where pastures and water are
available,for example the Maasai, Samburu and Boran.
Drought and famine at times cause people to migrate in search of food,for example,people
living in arid and semi-arid areas migrate to places they can find food during times of
drought.
-Changes in land tenure systems/inheritance/land disputes cause people to move and settle
elsewhere.

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9. Use the map of East Africa to answer questions a(i) and (ii)

(a)(i) Name the minerals mined at the following marked areas S, P, and Q (3mks)

 S – oil Uganda
 P – trona Kenya
 Q – limestone Kenya

(ii) State three types of minerals. (3mks)

 Metallic
 Non metallic
 Energy minerals/fossil fuels

(b) Describe how alluvial placer method of mining is carried out. (4mks)
 Mix alluvial deposit with water in a container

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 The mixture is rotated to separate light presides eg sand mud and small
stones leaving only mineral particles eg gold, platinum and diamonds
 Circular pan used by swirling around where lighter materials are washed
away leaving heavy mineral deposit
 Minerals are picked for storage

(c)(i) Mention two ports through which some of the minerals mined in East Africa are
exported (2mks)

 Mombasa
 Dar -es- salaam

(ii) Explain three ways in which mining derelicts can be reclaimed (6mks)

 Planting of trees to pave way for better micro-climate

 Filling in depressions by earthier materials (refill)
 Creating of parks with animals likes reptiles hence local and foreign tourists
attracted
 Can be used for agricultural activities
 Introduce aqua culture

(d) Students of Uwezo School carried a field study on mining of Diatomite in Nakuru
County.

(i) Give two reasons why they carried out a reconnaissance visit before actual
study. (2mks)
 Gather general information and relevant documents from officials
 Helps one to decide on the appropriate equipment methods of data collection.
 Helps in identifying the appropriate method of data collection
 Helps in identifying the appropriate equipment or instruments to be used
during the study.
 To familiarize with the area and save time during the actual study.
 Determine appropriate routes to be taken
 Access suitability
 Identify problems
 Help in general planning and prepare work schedule.

(ii) Give three reasons why they tabulated a work scheduled (3mks)

 Ensure proper time management and reduce tendency waste time

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 Ensure no area will be inadequately covered or forgotten
 Ensure those involved don’t deviate into irrelevant areas
 It’s a pointer as to how much time will be required for the study.

(iii) Give two hypothesis they could have formulated. (2mks)

 There is a lot of diatomite resources enough for Kenya
 The diatomite in Kenya is mined and exported
 The diatomite mines have attracted labour force.

10. a i) Apart from water and air pollution, name two other types of pollution (2mks)
Land / soil / ground pollution, - Noise /sound pollution
- Thermal pollution, -Radiation

(ii) Identify three ways through which water is polluted. (3 marks)

- Discharge of industrial waste/ oil spillage/ radioactive waste into water bodies
- Disposal of domestic waste into water bodies
- Discharge of agriculture chemicals into rivers/ lakes by rain water
- Discharge of raw sewage into water bodies
- Abuse of water bodies by human beings
- Natural causes e.g. soil erosion/ terrestrial gas

(iii) Explain three effects of air pollution on the environment (6 marks)

Gases emitted from some factories contain substances which corrode roofs of houses and mental
structures
- Some gases from factories contain substances which dissolve in water to form acid which make
plants maim or kill animals
-Inhalation for smoke and soot particles / bad smell lead to discomfort/ irritation of the
respiratory system / discolouring of vegetable/ building.
- Gases emitted from factories may contain poisonous substance which can lead tc poor health/
death when inhaled/plant leaves turn yellow.
- Gases/ excess carbon dioxide increases the temperature affecting the climate of the affected
areas/ depletion of O-Zone layer.

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- Smoke / dust/ smog reduces visibility which may lead to motor accidents.
-Dust particles that settles on leaves inhibits photosynthesis.

(b) (i) Explain three factors that lead to frequent flooding in the lake region of Kenya. (6marks)
-Most of the land is low lying which causes the rain water of spread over wide area.
- The adjacent highlands receive torrential rainfall which releases large volumes of water
resulting to rivers overflowing their banks.
- Silt has filled the river beds making them shallow thus spilling their water over banks
-The rivers are at their old stage, thus they have wide flood plains which allows water to spread
over large areas.
- The area has black cotton soil which is non- porous and when soaks up allow water to flow and
spread on the surface.
- The heavy rainfall received in the area is discharged into Lake Victoria making its level rise,
thus flooding the adjacent lowlands.

(ii) Explain two ways through which floods are controlled in the lake region of Kenya.
(4marks)
Dams have been constructed across the rivers to check their velocity thus reducing the incident
of flooding.
-Several dykes have been constructed / artificial levees to restrict the rivers within their channels/
diversion channels have been constructed in the flood plain and water used for irrigation thus
reducing the effect of the excess water.

(c) State four effects of wind as an environmental hazard in Kenya. (4 marks)

Strong winds destroy trees,
- Winds blow off roofs of houses
- Winds cause strong sea storms and lead to boats capsizing / communication lines are destroyed/
destruction of transport line.
-Winds cause soil erosion,

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- Winds spread air - borne diseases,
-Winds spread bush fires

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HAWK 2 2024

313/1

CRE PAPER ONE

MARKING SCHEME

TERM TWO, JUNE 2024

1. a). Explain how the learning of Christian Religious Education in Kenyan secondary schools
promotes the goal of national unity. (6x1=6 marks)
 It teaches on moral values
 It teaches on self-respect and respect for others
 It teaches on the need to respect our religion, culture and that of others
 It encourages respect of authority and laws of the country
 It promotes international consciousness
 It teaches on social equity for all races

b). State the similarities between the first and second accounts of creation. (7x1=7 marks)
 In both, God is acknowledged as the sole creator
 In both human beings are given responsibilities/authority
 In both human beings are special/share in God’s image
 In both there is a sense of order
 In both created things depend on God for sustenance/He is the provider
 In both God is self-existent
 In both God is the source of life
 In both God created both male and female

c). Mention occasions when Christians use the Bible. (7x1=7 marks)

 When preaching the word of God

 When in court
 When instructing new converts/Bible study
 During different Christian religious festivals
 When teaching CRE in schools
 During fellowship/guidance and counseling
 When composing Christian songs
 During swearing in ceremonies of public officers

CRE PAPRER ONE HAWK 2 MS 2024 1

2. a). Describe the call of Moses. (Exodus 3: 1-22) (8x1=8marks)
 Moses was looking after his father-in law’s sheep at mount Horeb/Sinai
 An angel of the lord appeared to him in a burning bush which was not getting consumed
 Moses became curious and moved closer to see what was happening
 When the lord saw him coming closer, he called out to Moses by his name
 Moses responded to God by saying, ‘Here I am’
 God commanded Moses to remove his shoes because the place was holy
 God revealed Himself as the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob
 Moses was filled with fear and hide his face from God
 God told Moses that He had seen the suffering of His people in Egypt
 Moses was reluctant to be sent to Pharaoh
 God revealed Himself to Moses as ‘’I am who I am’’
 God told Moses to go and gather the elders of Israel
 Moses was told to go with the elders to Pharaoh to ask for the release of the Israelites
 God promised to perform wonders to compel Pharaoh to release the Israelites

b). Explain the significance of the events that took place on the night of the Passover.

(7x1=7marks)

 The young lamb, one year old without blemish signified innocence and purity of the
Israelites
 Slaughtering of the animal signified sacrifice to God
 Meat was roasted whole to show they were in a hurry
 No traces of the lamb were left behind meaning that no identity of the Israelites was to be
left in Egypt
 The preparation of unleavened bread signified they had no time to ferment the dough
 Eating of bitter herbs signified their suffering in Egypt.
 Smearing of blood on the doorposts protected the Israelites from the angel of death
 Borrowing jewelry from the Egyptian was a way of compensation for slave labor
 Eating while standing with their sandals and staff in hand signified they were ready for
the journey

CRE PAPRER ONE HAWK 2 MS 2024 2

c). Identify the challenges that Christians face while practicing their faith in Kenya today.

(5x1=5 marks)

 The emergence of splinter groups within the church

 The emergence of cults which practice ungodly activities
 The emphasis of materialism by the church
 Lack of role models among the leaders
 Leadership wrangles
 Misuse of church resources by the leaders
 Rise of state-church conflicts
 Confusion among Christians due to different Bible interpretations
 Discriminations in church
 Negative influence from mass media
 Moral decadence

3. a). Outline the failures of King Saul as the King of Israel.

(6x1=6marks)
 He assumed priestly duties instead of waiting for Samuel
 He lacked patience to wait for Samuel who was to offer the burnt offering to God
 He disobeyed God’s command to destroy the Amalekites completely by sparing the life
of king Agag
 He spared the best of the animals instead of destroying them
 He lost faith in God
 He wanted to kill David
 He committed suicide
 He was deceitful to the servant of God
 He exposed his soldiers to hunger hence they ate meat with blood which was a sin
 He consulted a medium

b). Describe the incident in which King Ahab took Naboth’s vineyard. (1 kings 21:2-16)

(7marks)

 Naboth had a vineyard in Jezreel, besides the palace of King Ahab

 King Ahab asked Naboth to give him the vineyard
 Naboth refused to sell it to Ahab because it was an inheritance from his fore fathers
 King Ahab went home dejected
 His wife asked him why he was sad
 When king Ahab explained what Naboth had told him, Jezebel asked him whether he was
king or not
 Jezebel wrote letters to the elders of the city instructing them to accuse Naboth of treason
 The elders organized for Naboth to be killed

CRE PAPRER ONE HAWK 2 MS 2024 3

 Naboth was taken outside the city where he was stoned to death
 When Jezebel heard about the death of Naboth she told king Ahab to go and take
possession of the vineyard
 King Ahab went to possess the vineyard

c). Identify seven life skills learnt from Elijah that Christians can apply in their lives today.

(7x1=7marks)

First seven

 Assertiveness
 Creative thinking
 Critical thinking
 Decision making
 Self-esteem
 Negotiation
 Effective communication
 Problem solving
 Self-awareness

4. a). Explain the vision of the basket of summer fruits shown to prophet Amos by God. (Amos 8:1-
3). (6x1=6
marks)
 prophet Amos was shown a basket of ripe fruits at the end of the harvest
 God told Amos that Israel was ripe for destruction
 Just as one awaits for time to harvest fruits, God had waited for the Israelites to repent
 since Israelites had not repented, the time had come for them to be punished
 God’s judgment could not be delayed any longer
 Amos did not plead for God’s mercy
 This meant that God’s punishment was inevitable

CRE PAPRER ONE HAWK 2 MS 2024 4

b). Outline seven teachings of prophet Amos on the day of the Lord. (7x1=7 marks)

First seven
 It will be a day of terror and disaster
 God will punish Israelites for their disobedience
 There shall be earthquakes
 People will wail
 It will be a day of disappointment to the Israelites
 There will be darkness at noon
 The fest and festivals will not be joyful
 The people will hunger for the word of God
 People will faint in the process of searching for the word of God
 The wicked will not escape Gods judgment

c). Give ways in which church leaders are put to test today. (7x1=7 marks)

 Lack of co-operation from the congregation

 Inadequate knowledge on how to deal with different groups
 Temptation to acquire property unjustly
 Too much service is expected from them
 Inability to control human desires
 Maybe in an environment that is hostile/insecure
 Influence from cults

5. a). Outline the content of Jeremiah’s letter to the exiles. (Jeremiah 29). (7x1=7marks)
 To build houses and live with them
 To plant gardens and eat their produce
 To marry and have children
 To live in peace and promote the welfare of the cities where they were living
 To pray for their masters
 Not to listen to the words of false prophets and diviners
 God would restore them back to their land after seventy years
 To trust in God and not to give up
 God was accessible to them even in Babylon
 God would punish those who had remained in Judah for failing to listen to Him

CRE PAPRER ONE HAWK 2 MS 2024 5

b). List seven vows made by the Israelites during the time of the renewal of the covenant.
(Nehemiah 10:28-39). (7x1=7marks)

 They were to live according to God’s law

 They would not intermarry with foreigners
 They promised not to farm every seventh year
 They would make annual contribution towards temple expenses
 They were to provide wood for burnt sacrifices
 They were to offer the first fruit of their harvest
 They would pay for their tithes in accordance with the law
 They will not do any business on the Sabbath day

c). What is the importance of prayer in the life of a Christian? (6x1=6marks)

 Prayer is a way of communicating with God

 Through prayer Christians faith in God is strengthened
 Christians have an opportunity to confess their sins
 Through prayer Christians thank God for blessings received
 Christians ask God for their needs through prayer
 They use prayer to intercede
 It’s a way emulating the example of Jesus
 Christians praise God through prayer
 Prayer promotes unity among believers

6. a). Explain seven roles of elders in traditional African communities. (7x1=7marks)

First seven
 They preside over religious ceremonies
 Presided in judging cases
 Overseeing sharing of family property
 Praying for the community
 Mediating between God/ancestors/spirits
 Advice and guide the community
 Facilitate reconciliation between warring parties in the community
 Formulate laws governing the community

CRE PAPRER ONE HAWK 2 MS 2024 6

b). What changes have taken place in the rite of initiation in Kenya today? (7x1=7marks)

 Female circumcision is discouraged

 Circumcision can be done at any time and day
 Some communities take their children to hospital for circumcision
 Education of the initiates is offered by persons/ bodies other than traditional
sponsors
 Some initiation practices like removal of teeth have been discouraged
 Some communities have minimized rituals associated with circumcision
 People are being discouraged from using same circumcision instruments
 The role of age sets is fading away in some communities
 Initiation practices are no longer a test to prove bravery

c). Give reasons why death is feared in traditional African communities. (6x1=6marks)

 It disrupts the rhythm of human life

 It is irrevocable
 It brings impurity to the family
 It deprives the community of the individual
 It involves too many rituals
 It comes unannounced
 It separates one from the loved ones
 It may cause misunderstanding the community
 Death rites reveal peoples characteristics
 It brings poverty to the family involved
 Nobody knows about the afterlife

CRE PAPRER ONE HAWK 2 MS 2024 7

HAWK 2 TERM 2 2024

KENYA CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION

CANDATES
SCORE
1. a) State the psalmist prophecies concerning the messiah psalms 41.6,110: 1-2 (7mks)
i. Messiah will be betrayed by a close friend.
ii. He will conquer/ have victory over His enemies.
iii. He will rule Zion.
iv. He will be honoured by God.
v. He will be a representative of God.
vi. He will enjoy God’s protection.
vii. He will be exalted and sits at the right hand of God.
viii. He will rule in the midst of enemies.
Any 7x1 = 7mks (Open/ unrestricted)
b) What ways Angel Gabriel message about John the Baptist to Zechariah in Luke 1: 13-17
i. John the Baptist will be a son/ male/ boy.
ii. He will be called John.
iii. He will bring joy and gladness to Zachariah.
iv. Many will rejoice at his birth.
v. He will be great before God.
vi. He will drink no wine nor strong drink.
vii. He will be filled with the Holy Spirit.
viii. He will turn sons of Israel to the Lord their God.
ix. He will go before the Lord in the power and spirit of Elijah.
x. He will turn the hearts of fathers to their children.
xi. He will turn the disobedient to the wisdom of the just.
xii. He will make the Lord a people prepared.
xiii. Any 6x1 = 6mks (Open/ unrestricted)(6mks)

c) Identify seven lessons from the annunciation of the birth of John the Baptist (7mks)

i. Christians should be righteous/ upright/ blameless before God.

ii. They should obey God’s commandments.
iii. They should desire to be led by the Holy Spirit.
iv. They should be prayerful.
v. They should serve God irrespective of their circumstances.
vi. They should persevere/ be patient in their life.
vii. They should have faith in God/ believe in God’s word.
viii. They should depend on God/ ask God for their needs.
ix. They should thank God/ be thankful/ grateful.
x. They should praise and worship the Lord.
First 7x1 = 7mks (Closed/ restricted)
2. Give reasons why Jesus faced opposition from the pharisees in Galilee (Luke 5:12- 6:11)7 mks

i. He touched a man with leprosy

ii. He healed on a Sabbath day/Jesus attitude towards the Sabbath
iii. Jesus growing popularity/ fame.
iv. He publicly condemned the hypocrisy of the religious leaders.
v. He claimed to have power to forgive sin
vi. He mixed and ate freely with the sinners/ tax collectors
vii. His disciples did not fast like the disciples of John the Baptist.
viii. His disciples plucked grains and corns on a sabbath day

(7x1= 7mks)

b) Describe the healing of the woman with the flow of blood by Jesus Luke 18: 42b-48

i. Jesus was on His way to Jairus’ home/ house.

ii. A large crowd followed/ pressed against Him.
iii. In the crowd there was a woman who had a flow of blood for 12 years.
iv. She approached Jesus from the back and touched the hem of His garment.
v. The flow of blood stopped immediately.
vi. Jesus demanded to know who had touched Him.
vii. Peter explained to Jesus that the crowd was pressing against Him/ said Jesus was surrounded by
a crowd.
viii. Jesus said that someone touched Him for He had perceived that power had gone forth from
Him.
ix. Realizing that she could not hide any more the woman came forward trembling and fell at Jesus’
feet.
x. She explained why she had touched Jesus and how she had been healed immediately.
xi. Jesus told her that her faith had made her well.
xii. He told the woman to go in peace.

Any 7x1 = 7mks (Open/ unrestricted)(7mks)

c) Give reasons why some Christian finds it difficult to help the sick.(6 mks)
i. Fear of being infected by sickness
ii. Inadequate / lack of funds to take care of the sick.
iii. Lack of professional training on how to handle the sick.
iv. Lack of faith in God to pray for the sick.
v. Some people pretend to be sick / difficulty in identifying genuine cases of sickness.
vi. Due to religious differences.
vii. Due to selfishness.
viii. Due to discrimination based on tribe /race. (6x1=6 mks)

3. a) Describe the parable of the good Samaritan Luke 10:29-37

(8mks)
 A lawyer asked Jesus who a neighbor is.
 Jesus responded by teaching him the parable of the Good Samaritan.
 He said a man was on his way from Jerusalem to Jericho when he fell among the
robbers.
 They stripped him/beat him and departed leaving him half dead.
 A priest was going down the road and saw him but passed on the other side.
 But a Samaritan as he journeyed came to where he was.
 He had compassion and bound up his wounds after pouring oil/wine on them.
 He set him on his beast / took him to an inn to rest.
 He paid the inn keeper and promised to come back and pay whatever would be used
in caring for the injured man.
 Jesus then asked the lawyer , who among the three proved a neighbor to the injured
man
 The lawyer answered that it was the one who showed mercy on him.
 Jesus told the lawyer to go and do so as the Samaritan had done.
(8x1=8mks)

b) State six teachings of Jesus about a committed follower in reference to the parable of the
Good Samaritan (6mks)
i. One who understands the law and obeys it.
ii. One who understands that a neighbour is anybody who requires help/ in need regardless of
their social status.
iii. One who uses their resources selflessly to help others/ the needy.
iv. One who is not restricted by cultural and religious practices in responding to needy situation/
helping others who are in need.
v. One who is compassionate, generous and kind.
vi. One who shows solidarity with the suffering.

First 6x1 = 6mks (Closed/ restricted)

c) Identify lessons Christians learn from the parable of the Good Samaritan (6mks)
i. They should understand the law and obeys it.
ii. They should understand that a neighbour is anybody who requires help/ in need regardless
of their social status.
iii. They should use their resources selflessly to help others/ the needy.
iv. They should not be restricted by cultural and religious practices in responding to needy
situation/ helping others who are in need.
v. They should be compassionate, generous and kind.
vi. They should show solidarity with the suffering.

First 6x1 = 6mks (Closed/ restricted)

4. a) How did the holy spirit manifest himself on the day of Pentecost (7mks)

i. A rash of a mighty/ strong wind.

ii. Tongues of fire.
iii. Speaking in tongues.
iv. Peter became bold/ defended disciples.
v. Peter preached about the Risen Christ.
vi. The crowd understood in their native languages/ vernaculars.
vii. 3000 people repented/ were baptized/ were converted.
Any 7x1 = 7mks (Open/ unrestricted)

b) Explain how unity of believers is expressed in the symbol of body of Christ

(1st Corinthian 12:27)(8mks)
i. The human body has many parts just as the Body of Christ has many members.
ii. Body parts are united the same way members of the Body of Christ are united in One Spirit.
iii. Body parts have different functions just like members of the Body of Christ play different roles.
iv. Body parts depend on each other the same way members of the Body of Christ are
interdependent.
v. Body parts function well in harmony when united just like members of the Body of Christ
function well in harmony when united.
vi. The inferior parts of the human body are given greater glory by God so members of the Body of
Christ must care for each other/ if one suffers all suffer and if one is honoured all rejoice.
vii. Parts of the body are individual members of the human body just like believers are the
individual members of the body of Christ.
Any 4x2 = 8mks (Open/ unrestricted)

c) State how church disciplines those who cause disunity in the church today (5mks)
i. They are denied leadership positions/ they are demoted from leadership positions.
ii. They are denied some services of the church such as wedding rites , burial e.t.c
iii. They are charged a fine.
iv. They are reprimanded and asked to apologize
v. Workers who cause disunity can lose their jobs.
vi. Leaders who cause disunity are asked to resign.
vii. Some churches excommunicate members who blaspheme
viii. They might be suspended from church duties and services.
ix. They are denied sacrament
(5x1=5mks)

5.a) Outline the importance of professional code of ethics (6mks)

i. They help professionals to treat their clients with human respect and dignity
ii. Helps to create a condusive / peaceful working environment
iii. Help determine minimum academic requirement/ qualification needed to join a
profession.
iv. Help protect employees from unneccessary pressure from the public /employer.
v. Help determine the type of punishment given to errand members of a profession.
vi. Help boost the image of a specific profession in the public.
(6x1=6mks)

b) Explain four factors that has led to increase of intermarriages among Kenyan
Communities (8mks)

i. Employment has made people to interact leading to intermarriages.

ii. Education has made people from different communities to interact in institutions during
learning and co-curricular activities.
iii. Christianity- Biblical teachings have broken cultural barriers among believers.
iv. Migration- People are free to acquire land/ settle in any part of the country.
v. Urbanization-Life in towns/ cities has allowed mixing/ intermingling of people from various
cultures.
vi. Language- The use of Kiswahili/ English enables people from different communities to
intermarry.
vii. Modern means of transport- People are able to travel/ move easily across the country.
viii. Modern means of communication- The availability of social media enables people of different
cultures to talk/ maintain relationships.
ix. Sports/ games- This has enabled people from different communities to interact.
x. Modern trade- This has increased interactions leading to intermarriages.

First 4x2 = 8mks (Closed/ restricted

c) Give reasons why some Christians break their marriages vows (6mks)

i. Due to unfaithfulness.
ii. Lust/ covetousness.
iii. Financial constraints/ poverty/ illness.
iv. Pressure from in-laws.
v. Lack of faith/ trust in God.
vi. Influence from friends/ peers.
vii. Lack of guidance and counseling.
viii. Lack of children/ barrenness/ having children of one sex or gender.
ix. Poor role models.
x. Denial of conjugal rights/ dissatisfaction.
xi. Domestic violence/ alcoholism/ drug and substance abuse.

Any 6x1 = 6mks (Open/ unrestricted)

6.a) Identify ways in which wealth is acquired in Traditional African Community(8mks)

i. Inheritance
ii. Bride price/wealth
iii. Farming/rearing animals/agriculture
iv. Gifts/presents/donations
v. Use of skills / talents
vi. Exploitation of natural resources
vii. Barter trade
viii. Marrying of many wives/ giving birth to many children
ix. Giving of services
x. Materials generated from fines
xi. Cattle raids.
(8x1=8mks)
b) Explain ways in which science and technology has negatively affected human life (6mks)
i. Use of deadly weapons is harmful to human life e.g. use of bombs.
ii. Fatal accidents from improved transport e.g. plane crashes.
iii. Death of animals and spread of diseases because of environmental pollution.
iv. Erosion of moral values caused by western influence through the mass media.
v. Leads to poaching due to growth of ivory trade.
vi. Causes human cancer through use of fertilizers and pesticides harmful to man.
vii. Disseminating of pornographic materials that promote irresponsible sexual behaviours.

(6x1=6mks)

c) State six reasons why Christians are against Euthanasia (6mks)

i. God is the only one who gives life and thus should be the one to take it away.
ii. It destroys God’s image in human beings.
iii. Switching off life support machine is wrong because some people have recovered after years of
being in a comma.
iv. It’s equal to murder/ killing which is against God’s command “do not kill”.
v. It discourages medical research on vaccines that may cure various diseases.
vi. It’s contrary to Jesus’ teaching of restoration of human life.
vii. Human judgement is limited and cannot make correct decision on terminating the life of others.
viii. It’s against medical ethics which only allows doctors to sustain life and not take away.
ix. Suffering is part of Christian life from Jesus’ teaching thus cannot be used to justify euthanasia.
x. It’s a constitutional right to uphold human life.
xi. It can lead to killing someone because of wanting to grab wealth/ property.
xii. It undermines God’s healing power/ power over illness/ miracles.

First 6x1 = 6mks (Closed/ restricted)

HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATIONS 2024

HOME SCIENCE

PAPER 1 MARKING SCHEME

SECTION A (40 marks)

1. Explain two reasons why dump dusting is better than dry dusting in a sick
room
 To avoid blowing dust into the air.
 To prevent cross infection.
 So that dust particles in the air cannot spread germs.
(2 x 1 = 2mks)
2. State two disadvantages of concealed drainage system.
 Can only be used where there is supply of piped water.
 Are expensive to install.
 Maintenance may be expensive if carelessly used especially when
plumbers have to be engaged in unblocking sinks and drains or
replacing broken fitting. (2 x 1 = 2mks)
3. Nutritional disorders associated with lifestyle
 Obesity
 Gout
 Diabetes mellitus
 Hypertension
4. State two qualities of a good soup.
 Should have skin on the surface.
 Right in consistency.

1
 Well flavoured.
 Not oily on the surface.(2 x 1 = 2mks)
5. Give two areas in a garment where top stitching is done.
 Waist band.
 Hem
 Collar(2 x 1 = 2mks)
6. Mention two advantages of blending cotton and nylon fibres.
Fabric made is:-
 Light in weight.
 Crease resistant.
 Becomes absorbent.
 Not attacked by moth.
 Does not attract static electricity.(2 x 1 = 2mks)
7. Give two methods of credit buying
 Hire-purchase.
 Use of credit cards.
 Simple non-installment credit(2 x 1 = 2mks)
8. Give two ways in which a mother can infect her new born baby with
HIV/AIDS virus
 Through breast feeding.
 When giving birth.(2 x 1 = 2mks)
9. Outline two reasons for snipping curved seams.
 To smoothen the edge.
 For shaping the curve.(2 x 1 = 2mks)
10.Difference between food spoilage and food poisoning

2
 Food spoilage is the deterioration of food while food poisoning is
the consumption of contaminated food
(2 x 1 = 2mks)
11.Factors to consider when choosing an ironing board
 Stable
 Flat
 Padded with scotch free fabric
 Shouldn’t be pointed
 Adjustable height
 Have a sleeve board
(2 x 1 = 2mks)
12.Mention two positive effects of advertisements to a consumer
 Entertaining
 Creates employment of advertising .
 Creates competition among producers.
 Information – creates awareness of goods and services to
customers.(2 x 1 = 2mks)
13.Give two factors determining the choice of color in a sitting room.
 Size of room.
 Effect desired.
 Personal taste.
 Orientation of the room(2 x 1 = 2mks)
14.Identify two dangers of weaning the baby when it is too late
 Child becomes malnourished.
 Child refuse to accept new foods.
 Deficiencies due to lack of extra nutrients.

3
 Baby growth slow and development(2 x 1 = 2mks)
15. State two disadvantages of using charcoal when cooking
 Dirty
 Not properly burned produce smoke.
 Not readily available in some areas.(2 x 1 = 2mks)
16.Advantages of staying in an employer’s house
 Cheaper than renting
 Distance to work is short

.(2 x 1 = 2mks)
17. State two points to consider when choosing flowers for flower
arrangement
 Choose fresh flowers.
 Make sure the foliage is clean.
 Avoid choosing flowers in bloom.
 Avoid choosing scented plants because people may be
allergic(2 x 1 = 2mks)
18. List two ways of enhancing personal appearance
 Care of body.
 Wearing clean and appropriate clothes.
 Keep the hair neat and well groomed.
 Use cosmetics, body creams and deodorants properly.
 Use jewelry and accessories properly(2 x 1 = 2mks)
19.Suggest two measures to take immediately nose bleeding occurs
 Letting the person sit down with the head slightly raised to prevent
blood from flowing down the throat.

4
 Cooling person with cold wet towel(2 x 1 = 2mks)
20.List two improvised abrasives in the home
 Sieved sand
 Sieved ash
 Crushed egg shells
 Crushed charcoal
 Sisal fiber
 Maize cob(2 x 1 = 2mks)
SECTION B (20 marks)
21.You are doing personal cleaning at school. Describe how you will;
a) Clean your cotton blood stained sheet.
 Collect the necessary cleaning equipment and materials
 Soak the sheet in cold water with salt to remove the
blood stain.
 Wash in hot water. Using friction method.
 Rinse in hot water.
 Final rinse in cold water. To freshen the fabric
 Add jik to the final rinse or laundry blue to brighten the
garment or boil it.
 Dry in the sun
 Iron while still slightly damp with a hot iron.
 Air
 Fold and store.
 Clean and store the cleaning equipment (8 marks)
b) Clean your white pair of bata slippers.
 Collect the necessary cleaning equipment and materials

5
 Remove any loose dirt
 Use warm soapy water with a disinfectant
 Scrub to remove fixed dirt using a soft brush
 Rinse in warm water
 Wipe dry using a clean cloth and put away
 Clean and store the cleaning equipment ( 6 marks)
c) Clean your wooden locker
 Collect cleaning equipment and materials
 Empty the locker
 Dust the surface using a dry cloth
 Clean using warm soapy water and a scrubbing
brush
 Scrub in the direction of the grain
 Rinse using a clean cloth wrung out of warm
clean water
 Final rinse in cold water to freshen the wood
 Dry using a soft non-fluffy cloth.
 Clean and store the cleaning equipment

SECTION C (40 marks)

22.a) Ways of helping a child play and learn properly.

 Providing plenty of room or space
 Allowing for independence by encouraging a child to do things
 Encouraging responsibility
 Using toys gives a child an opportunity to practice different
manipulative and creative skills

6
 The child should be dressed in clothing which does not restrict
playing
 Parents and older siblings should take some time to play with the
small children

b) Give four ways in which a lactating mother would improve supply of breast
milk to her baby.

 Mother taking in nutritious and adequate fluids for milk

production.
 Eating a well balanced diet but rich in calcium, energy
and protein.
 Adopt a positive attitude towards breast feeding the baby
in a relaxed and free atmosphere.
 Massage and clean breasts with warm water to stimulate
milk production.
 Avoid stress and stressful situations when feeding the
baby (4×1=4)

c) Identify four functions of the Kenya consumer association.

• To handle consumer complaints

• To partner with other organizations
• To provide information to members
• To prevent dumping of substandard goods
• To conduct market surveys, check on faulty
products and compare prices of similar products
(4×1=4)

7
d) Overlaid seam


(6 marks)
23.a) Give 5 reasons for preserving food
• Stop multiplication of micro-organisms which produce toxins harmful
to human health.
• Neutralize the action of enzymes which can cause food deterioration.
• Make food available for use when out of season.
• Stop wastage in bumper harvest when the yields are more than can be
consumed.
• Maintain freshness and retain nutrients.
• Protect it from contamination by bacteria and other disease causing
micro-organism.
• Retain as many qualities of fresh food as possible e.g. flavour, colour,
texture and nutritional value. (5×1=5)
b) Five laundry processes that are harmful to woolen
fibres
 Soaking-causes wool to shrink and weaken
 Rubbing/fiction washing stretching of wool
 Starching-causes hardening and breaking of wool
fibres
 Ironing-causes stretching and produces shinning
patches on the garment
 Airing by hanging causes
 Drying wool in the sun-causes hardening and
breaking of wool

8
 Washing in hot water-causes wool to shrink harden,
and crease
 Rinsing in cold water-causes wool to felt and matt
(5×1=5)
c) State four qualities that make aluminium popular for
household utensils
 Shinning in appearance
 Light in weight
 Does not rust
 Good conductor of heat
 Cheap
 Does not react with food to form poisonous substances
 Easy to clean
 Easy to care for (4×1=4)
d) Name and draw any six pattern symbols and markings

9
24.a) State five factors that determine the efficiency of a detergent
 Mechanical action
 Temperature of water
 Time of washing
 Amount of builders in the detergent
 Type of water whether hard or soft
(5×1=5)

b) Five methods of finishing the edges of sleeves other than using a cuff

 Facing
 Binding
 Lace
 Frills
 Piping
 Hemming/shell hemming (5×1=5)

c) List four ways of disposing refuse in the home

• Use of dust bins

• Compost pits

10
• Feeding to animals (organic)
• Using for mulching e.g. organic
• Burying
• Burning (4×1=4)
e) Points to consider when working out stitches
 Use matching color of thread and fabric
 Ensure the needle is sharp and of the correct
size
 Use a thimble for pushing the needle into the
fabric to avoid needle pricks
 Ensure that the stitches are not visible on the
right side of the garment

11
HAWK 2 JOINT EVALUATIONS 2024
The Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
2024 MOCK EXAMINATION
HOME SCIENCE PAPER 2
441/2 (CLOTHING CONSTRUCTION)
HAWK 2 June 2024
PROCESSES MAX Actual REMARKS
SCORE SCORE
1. Presentation:
- Work well pressed (½)
and folded(½) 1
- Label (½) firmly fixed (½)
on single (½) fabric. 1½
- Unnecessary stitches
removed (½) ½
- No hanging threads (½)
and pins (½) 1
- Made-up right half(½) ½
Sub-total 4½
2. Cutting out:
All pieces cut out 6 * 1.
Sub-total 6
3. Side seam:
NB: If not an open seam,
award zero.
-Accurate stitching. 1
-Seam pressed open. 1
-Seam well neatened. 1
-Correct stitch tension ½

Sub-total 3½
4. Back shirt dart:
-Accurate stitching. 1
-Tapering to a point. 1

1
-Correct length from seam
line (within 3mm) 1
-Correct with (0.7 cm) at
seam line (within 1mm) 1
- Well reinforced. 1
- Pressed toward the
center back. 1
- Correct stitch tension ½

Sub-total 6½
5. Collar preparation:
-Interfacing accurately
applied. 1
-Accurate joining. 1
- Trimmed side and top
edges. 1
- Pressed flat. 1
- Top stitched. 1
Correct size (½) and
shape (½) 1
Sub-total 6
6. Collar attachment:
-Collar sandwiched
between shirt and facings. 1
- Machine stitched
accurately. 1
- Raw edges trimmed. 1
- Facings secured with ½
catch stitches.
Sub-total 3½
7. Shoulder seam:
NB: If not machine fell
seam, award zero
-Fell facing back of the 1
shirt. 1
- Fell well tucked under.
- Correct width 0.7mm to 1
within 1mm 1
- Correct length
- Machine stitched close to 1

2
the fold. ½
- Pressed flat.
Sub-total 5½
8. Patch pocket
preparation: 1
-Preparation of a box tuck. 1
-Hemming pocket top 1
edge. 1
- Snipped round the edge.
- Trimmed side edges. ½
- Press raw edges along
stitching line to wrong side.
Sub-total 4½
9. Patch pocket
attachment: 1
-Accurate positioning.
- Accurately stitched close 1
to the fold. 1
- Reinforced at the corners.
Sub-total 3
10. Joining front and back
neck facing:
-Use of un-neatened Open
Seam. 1
- Neatened free edges of
both front and back neck
facing. 1
Sub-total 2
Total. 45

3
NAME…………………………………………………………….. INDEX NO…………………

SCHOOL………………………………………………………… ADM NO……………………

STREAM………………….

AREAS OF ASSESSMENT MAX STUDENT REMARKS

SCORE SCORE
1. PLAN
Recipe
Availability 1½
Correct quantities 1½
Suitability of menu 1½

Order of work
Availability ½
Correct sequencing 1
Dovetailing 1

List of foodstuff
Availability ½
Adequacy 1
Appropriateness 1

List of equipment and materials

Availability ½
Adequacy 1
Appropriateness 1

Sub-total 12
2. PREPARATION
Correct procedure
Item 1 1
Item 2 1
Beverage 1

Methods of cooking
at least two 1

Quality of results
Item 1 1
Item 2 1
Beverage 1

Sub-total 7

1
3. PRESENTATION
Utensils
clean ½
appropriate ½
Use of garnishes/decorations ½
Availability of a packing basket ½
General impression 1
Sub-total 3
4. GENERAL
hygiene
Personal ½
Food ½

Economy of resources
Water and food ½
Fuel ½

Clearing up
During work ½
after work ½

Sub-total 3
Total 25

2
HAWK 2 JOINT EXAMS TERM 2 2024

443/1

AGRICULTURE

MARKING SCHEME

1. Practices in organic farming

-mulching
-crop rotation
-use of organic manure
-cover cropping

2. Types of labour records.

4. Reasons for crop rotation

-maximum utilization of nutrients
-control of soil borne pests and disease build up
-control of weeds
-improvement of soil fertility
-improvement of soil structure
-controls soil erosion

5. a) Thorn apple.
b) Mexican marigold.

6. Methods of harvesting agroforestry trees

-pruning
-pollarding
-coppicing
-lopping
7. Factors affecting the quality of a farmyard manure.
- Type of animal used
- Type of food eaten
- Type of litter used
- Method of storage
- Age of farmyard manure

8. Methods treating seed before planting

- Seed inoculation
- Seed dressing
- Chitting
- Breaking of dormancy (4 x ½ = 2mks)

9. Symptoms of viral diseases.

- Leaf chlorosis
- Mosaics
- Leaf Curling
- Malformation
- Rosetting. (4 x ½ =2rnks)
10. Factors determining stage of crop harvest.
- Intended purpose
- Chemical concentration
- Prevailing weather conditions
- Market demand
-
11. Conditions that may lead to sub-division of land
- Well sheltered place
- The place should not have grown crops of the same family for the last 3 years
- Reliable water source
- Gentle slope
- Sandy loam soil
- Accessible
- Secured place
-
- . (3 x ½ = 1 ½ mks)
12. Reasons for carrying out primary cultivation
- Facilitate water infiltration.
- Kill weeds
- Burying organic matter to decompose

2
HAWK 2 JOINT EXAMS©2024
- Increase soil aeration.
- Destroy soil bone pests by exposing them to the predators.
- Make planting easy. (1st 3 x ½ = 1 ½ mks)
13. Sources of capital.
- Savings from farmer.
- Credit facilities/borrowing.
- Grants from individuals/NGOs. (Any 3 x ½ = 1 ½ mks)
14. Characteristics of a rootstock for grafting.
- Healthy/pest free and diseases.
- Compatible with different scions.
- Resistant/tolerant to soil borne pest and diseases
- Adaptable to different soil condition. (1st 3 x ½ = 1 ½ mks)
15. Benefit of a good soil structure. .
- Influences water-holding capacity
- Determine soil aeration and drainage
- Influence root penetration and microbial activities
16. a) Fertilizer grade-Is the guarantee minimum content of nutrients in a fertilizer expressed
as a Percentage.

b) Fertilizer ratio-Is the relative percentage expresses as a ratio of N.P.K.

17. Functions of calcium.

- Promote formation of soil aggregates thus improve aeration.
- Play a role in nitrification by raising soil PH
- Formation of middle layer and raising protein content.
- For protein synthesis.
18. Factors that contribute to competitive ability of weeds
- Produce large quantities of seeds
- Some remain viable for long.
- Easily dispersed.
- Propagate vegetation.
- Well develop root system.
- Survive in limited nutrient supply.
- Shoot life cy1e.
19. Pesticide classification.
- Formulation
- Target pest
- Mode of action
20. (a) This is a situation whereby a farmer aims at producing one product, but automatically ends in
getting another products. (1 x 1 = 1mk)
(b) - Cotton lint and cotton seed.
- Maize grain and maize stover. (2 x ½ = 1mk)

21. i) A-Squirel
C-Army worms
D-Sudan duich/Quelea birds.
E-Commen rat. (4 x ½ mk = 2mks)

ii) Maize streak

iii) Damages - Eating and contaminating the grains with excreter

- Making holes in container

- Harbor fleas which transmit bubonic plague to human (Any 2 x ½ = 1mk)
iv) Control for Quelea birds
- Poisoning breeding places.
- - Use of explosives. (2x ½ = lmk)

22. i)
MAKAU’S FARM
Balance sheet
As at 30th June 2011

Liabilities Sh Cts Assets Sh Cts

Current liabilities Current assets

Creditors 49,000 00 Cash at hand 15,000 00
Equity overdraft 24,000 00 Cash in bank 50,000 00
Debtors 18,000 00
Goats 48,000 00
Long term Fixed assets
liabilities Oxplough 20,000 00
Loan: Equity 180,000 00 Working tools 15,000 00
Total liabilities 253,000 00 Land 70,000 00

Networth 17,000 00

Total 253,000 00 253,000 00

ii) Its insolvent, the value of liabilities exceeds assets value, the business can’t meet all that it owes

b) 30×10
=300kg/SA

24. a) Heap/Stack method

b) - Well drained place

-away from windward side

-center of the land

-accessible

c) i) Top soil-introduces microorganism that assist in decomposition

ii)Wood Ash-adds the level of potassium and phosphorus

25. a) Propping.
b) Reasons - To prevent stem breaking/falling.
- For easy management practices like pruning.
- Proper development of bench.

26. a) Factors considered in designing a crop rotational programme.

6
HAWK 2 JOINT EXAMS©2024
- Modifies the soil temperature.
- Add nutrients on decomposition.
- Improve water infiltration
- Increase microbial activity.
- Control weeds.
- Reduce evaporation of water.
- Buffer soil PH upon decomposition. (Any 7x1=7mks)
b) Establishment of cabbage under the following subheadings
a) Nursery establishment and management
 Select a suitable site where members of the Brassica family have not been grown for the last three
years.
 Dig the site deeply to remove all perennial weeds and stones
 Harrow the site to a fine filth
 Make shallow drills, 10 cm apart. The drills should be made evenly on the nursery bed.
 Place he seeds in the drills and cover them with light soil.
 Apply mulch material evenly on the nursery bed and water
 Remove the mulch after the seeds have germinated, then erect a shade over the nursery bed.
 Water the seedlings regularly
 Harden off before transplanting. (5 x 1 = 5 mks)
b) Land preparation
 Prepare the land early enough when the weather conditions are dry. This allows enough time for the
weeds to die
 Clean all vegetation and remove any tree stumps
 Plough deeply to remove all perennial weeds
 Harrow the land to a fine filth
 Make holes 10cm deep at a spacing of 90 cm x 60cm depending on the variety. (4 x 1 = 4 mks)
c) Transplanting
 Cabbage can be sown directly into the field or first established in a nursery bed.
 Transplant the seedlings at the age of three to four weeks.
 Transplant during a cloudy or cool day
 Water the nursery bed thoroughly before transplanting
 Lift the seedlings with a ball of soil to avoid damaging the roots
 Water he field well before transplanting
 Apply handful of farmyard manure or one tablespoonful of double superphosphate to each hole.
 Apply suitable insecticides to control soil borne pests.
 Plant seedlings at the same depth as they were in the nursery.
 Firm the soil well around the base of the seedlings. (4 x 1 = 4 mks)

28. a) Ways of improving soil fertility.

- Controlling soil erosion.
- Practice crop rotation
- Controlling soil PH/limimg.
- Ensure proper drainage.
- Weed control.
- Practice Intercropping,

7
HAWK 2 JOINT EXAMS©2024
- Minimum tillage
- Use of organic manure.
- Use of inorganic fertilizer. Any 5x2=l0mks.
b) Methods of preventing water pollution.
- Soil conservation to reduce soil loss/terracing/ploughing along the contours.
- Fencing of water sources to minimize pollution by livestock or human.
- River banks should be vegetated/plant grass to minimize siltation.
- Enforce by-law/use of non-chemical methods of test and weed control.
- Employ adequate storm water control methods and disposal system.
(5 points x 1 = 5rnks

c).

 Training-Formally or informally-formally in colleges/schools. Improved through farmers training

centres, field days, agricultural shows, demonstration farms.
 Farm mechanisation-Incorporating machinery in farm’s operation
 Giving incentives and improving terms and conditions of services
 Labour supervision-keeping proper and up to date records on the time work commences and ends,
type of work and amount done, records of absenteeism, malingering, theft/robbery. Etc.
 Assigning specific task-governed by labour skills, one clearly knows clearly their duties (any
5x1=5mks)

8
HAWK 2 JOINT EXAMS©2024
HAWK AGRIC PP2 MARKING SCHEME
1. Notifiable dieases in livestock
-anthrax
-foot and mouth disease
-rinderpest

2. Gizzard

3. –produces high quality carcas

-high prolific

-Grows faster and matures faster

-better adapted to hot weather

4-overgrown hooves

-filthy environment

-sharp objects in grazing field

-presence of wound in the hoof

5-easy to load and offload

-spacious

-vermin proof.

-free from pests

-well ventilated

-leak proof

6. a) Flushing is the giving of highly nutritious feed/ high plane of nutrition to female animals 3-4
weeks to and after mating while steaming up is giving of extra nutrients feed to an animal 4-8
weeks to parturition

b)absconding is the swarming of bees due to unfavourable conditions within the hive while
Nuptial flight is the first flightof bees when mating takes place.

7. - Immunity it produces should be as good as natural immunity.

1
-should have a long keeping live that is its shelf life should be longer.

-should be easy to administer

-should have no side effect when inoculated.

-should be compatible with the other vaccines given to the animal

-single dose should produce life long immunity

8.-Water

-pollen

-propolis

-nectar

9- a)Spillway-allows excess water to flow out of the pond/prevents water from overflowing the
dykes

b) outlet- allows the used water to flow out of the pond/prevent fish from swimming out of the
pond

10-upgrading

-crossbreeding

11-one point hitch

-three point hitch

-PTO

12. -High fibre content

– low protein content

-High moisture content – high carbohydrate content

13.-a)many eggs can be hatched at a time

-a farmer can plan when to hatch.

-chicks may not suffer from parasites and diseases

-incubator is normally ready when required

b)- to prevent termite attack

2
-to prevent moisture from rising up the wall

14. i) Cold chisel…………Ball pein hammer

ii)Screw driver………Screw

iii)Trocar………………Canula

15-provides energy during stervation

-used in the synthesis of products such as milk,meat and eggs

-excess are converted into fats and stored

16. -does not eradicate other stages of the developing parasites

-does not destroy the parasite in the intermediate hosts

-does not destroy the parasite in the pasture,water and forage

17. -Anus

-Ears

-Mouth

-Eyes

-Reproductive organs

-Skin

-Mammary glands

18 a) Iron

b) Zinc

19.-Act as a disinfectant against nematodes

-Neutralizes acidity in the pond water

-Makes silt to settle at the bottom of the pond

20.Between 26th-28th October

3
SECTION B

21.

a) Identify the implement 1mk

Stir up pump
b) Name the parts label 4mks

B Hand lance

C Trigger
D Handle
c) What maintenance practice would be required in the part label A 1MK
Cleaning an unblocking

22.-a)Trial and error method

-Linear programming

-use of computers

Maize 7% 16 parts of maize huasks

18%

Sunflowe seed 34% 11parts of simsim seedcake

Total parts 27

Maize husks=16/27 *200 =118.5kg

Simsim seedcake 11/27 *200 =81.5kgs

4
23. a) K - Swarm net

L – Roof

M – Kenya top bar hive

N – Catcher box/ Syrup/sucrose container

(b - Method of extraction

- Type of flowers from which the nectar was collected

- Season of the year . Honey formed over dry season tends of lower quality.
- Maturity age of the honey. Mature honey is of good quality.

(c)-Ants

-Wax moth

-Bee houses

-Honey badgens

24.
a) Name the parts label 4mks

A Lactiferous duct

B Gland cistern

b) Where does lacto genesis take place 1mk

Udder

c) Name the hormone that is involved in lacto genesis 1mk

Prolactin
d) State two factors that influence milk let down
Taking the cow into the milking shed
Rattling sound of of buckets
Sight of calf
Sucking by calf
Washing of udder with warm water

5
SECTION C

26. b) Training a calf how to feed from the bucket.

-Well measured milk is put in a clean bucket

-Insert index finger into the mouth of the calf.

-Lower the head of the calf slowly into the bucket until the calf starts to drink the milk

-Withdraw the finger slowly as the calf continues to drink from the bucket.

-The procedure is repeated until the calf learns how to drink from the bucket

6
a) 27. Discuss anthrax disease under the following sub headings
a) Animal attacked
cattle
b)Causal organism
Bacillus anthracis
c)Signs and symptoms
High fever
Dificulty in breathing
Loss of appetite
Sudden death
Blood stains on feaces
Carcas lack rigor mortis Blood oozes out of all openings
d)Control measures
Quarantine
Burry carcass 6 feet deep
Avoid eating meet from dead animals
Avoid opening infected carcass
Vaccination Isolate sick animals from healthy ones

ii) Parts of a plunge dip.

-Animal holding yard; holding animals before dipping

-Footbath; washing the feet of animals/ contain chemical for controlling footrot disease

-The Jump; allow animals to jump singly into the dip tank

-Dip tank; holds the dip wash

-Draining race;allows the chemical from the body of the animal to drain back into the dip tank

-Silt trap outlet

-Drying yard

-water tank

iii) )- Used to demarcate the farm land from that of neighbours

--Used to keep off wild animals and other initiative from outside the farm.

-Used to separate crop fields from pasture facilitating mixed farming.

-Used to divide pasture fields into paddocks facilitating rotational grazing.

-Control movement of animals and people preventing formation of unnecessary paths.

7
-Help to control the spread of parasites and diseases by keeping off wild and stray animals.

-Help to isolate sick animals from the rest of the herd to prevent diseases spread.

-Enable farmer to control breeding by rearing different animals in different paddocks

-Provide security to the homestead and farm animals.

8
1. List four functions of a computer. (2 marks)
 accept data
 store data
 process data
 display information
2. Mention four types of registers used as special purpose memory. (2 marks)
 Instruction registers
 Storage registers
 Accumulator registers
 Address registers
 Program counter
3. A keyboard is an input device that is used to enter data to the computer. List two types of cables that are
used to connect the keyboard to the motherboard. (1 mark)
 USB
 PS/2
4. Give two advantages of using hard disk over compact disk.
 High storage capacity
 Faster than the compact disk
 Easy availability
5. Database model refers to the way a database is structured and organised. Explain hierarchical and flat file
database models
Data are arranged in a tree format.

6. Differentiate between installation and configuration in relation to operating system. (2 marks)

 Installation refers to copying of software file into a computer for execution while configuration is the
fine tuning the installed software to function to the user’s expectations

7. State three differences between TFT monitor and CRT monitor

 Tft monitors consume a less of power while CRT monitors consume more power
 Tft monitors are expensive while CRT monitors are less expensive
 Tft monitors have flat screen while CRT monitors have curved screen
 Tft monitors are easily portable while CRT monitors are heavy
8. Crashing of the hard disk is regarded as a threat to data security. Give three measures you can take to
protect the hard disk from crashing. (3 marks)
 Install antivirus
 Frequently blow away dust to avoid dust accumulation
 Shut down the computer using correct procedure
 Connect the computer to UPS

9. Mr. Abongo, the principal of Usenge high school wanted to buy a computer. He was informed by the teacher
of Computer Studies that he should consider cost of the laptop, processor speed, and portability of the
computer. Give four factors that determine the cost of the computer.
 Processor speed
 Storage capacity of the hard disk
 Random access memory
 Monitor type and size
 Whether branded or clone
10. List three devices under the control of operating system.
Input devices
Output devices
CPU
Motherboard
11. State three benefits of using folders to organize information in a computer system
 Retrieval of certain files will be faster easy
2
 Classification of related files will be easy ie files of the one program can be stored separately from each
other
 Users using the same computer can store their work separately

12. The table below was created using MS-Word use it to answer the questions that follow:
Product Name Quantity Unit Cost Total
Maize 80 10 800
Millet 60 20 1200
Grand Total 2000
(i) Identify the formula used to get:
Total
 Product(left)
Grand Total
 Sum (Above)
(ii) List four types of alignment used in word processor (2 mark
 Left alignment
 Right alignment
 center alignment
 justify alignment

13. Explain two reasons why its important to draw a flowchart of a program during development (4 marks)
 To understand the flow of the program
 To ensure accuracy of the program
 To enable easy reference
 To enable understanding of the program
14. In relation to DTP, explain the meaning of:
i. Pasteboard
An area in the DTP where work is organized before arranging them neatly in the printable area
ii. Master page
Page used for general organization and format of publication
15. The operating system is a system software that manages the computer hardware. Explain three ways in which
the operating system manages the primary memory.
 Allocation of data to specific area of main memory
 De-Allocation of data to specific area of main memory
 Determining which task remain in the main memory awaiting execution and which on is taken back to
the backing storage.
 Passing control from one job to another by following priority when more than one job occupies the
main memory
 Enabling the user to switch from one program to another when there are many programs in the main
memory

SECTION B (60 MARKS)

ANSWER QUESTION 16 AND ANY OTHER THREE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

16. Define the following terms as used in programming. (2marks)
i. Assembler
 A programming language that translates an assembly into machine language
ii. Pseudocode

3
 A set of statements written in a readable language (English like-phrases) expressing the
processing logic of a program
b. With the aid of a flow hart seg e ts, highlight the differe e etwee the REPEAT…. UNTIL a d
WHILE…. DO statement structures. (4marks)

statements
Cond YES statements
ition

Cond NO
NO
ition
EXIT LOOP
YES WHILE……..DO
EXIT LOOP
REPEAT…..UNTIL
c. Study the pseudocode below and then answer the questions that follow.
START
Deposit = 1000
Interest Rate = 20%
Year =1
REPEAT
Interest = Deposit *interest rate
Deposit = Deposit + interest
Print Deposit
Year = Year + 1
UNTIL
Year = 4
STOP

i.Write down all the expected outcomes (prints) from the above pseudocode. (4marks)
Loop 1 Loop 2 Loop 3 Loop 4
Deposit= 1000 Deposit= 1200 Deposit=1440 Deposit=1728
Year=1 Year= 2 Year=3 Year=4
Interest=1000*0.2 Interest=1200*0.2 Interest=1440*0.2 Interest=1728*0.2
200 240 288 345.6
Deposit=1200 Deposit=1440 Deposit=1728 Deposit=2073.6

Expected prints:1200, 1440, 1728, 2073.6

4
d. Draw a programme flowchart for the above pseudocode. (5marks)

START

1
Deposit=1000
Interest = 20%
Year= 1

1
Interest=deposit * interest
rate
Deposit= deposit+ interest

1/2
PRINT Deposit

1/2
Year=year+1

NO
1
Year
=4?
YES
Correct logic flow = 1mark

STOP

5
17.
a. Convert 142.18 to Decimal (2marks)
(1*64) + (4*8) + (1*2). (1/8*1)
64+32+2. (0.125)
98.12510
b. State two advantages of Twos compliment over Ones compliment. (2marks)

 There are o two ways of represe ti g a zero as i o e’s co pli e t a d sig ed ag itude
 Effective addition and subtraction can be done even with numbers that are represented with a
sign bit
c. Subtract using Ones compliment. (4marks)
3110-1710
3110=111112
1710=100012
1sc for 1710 = 011102
11111+01110=(1)01101
01101+1=11102
d. (i) List the last three stages of system development. (3 marks)
 System construction
 System implementation
 System review and maintenance
(ii) List two methods that can be used to train users about usage of a system (1 mark)
 demonstration
 film show
 manual reference
 group discussion
 visits

(iii) Explain any TWO causes of a system maintenance. (2 marks)

Hire failure rate of the existing system
 Slowness of the system
 Complaints from the users
 Technological change
 Lack of security
(iv) Name two content of a feasibility report. (1 mark)
 Objectives
 Cos/ benefits comparison
 Effect on organization
 Schedule requirements
 Operational requirements
 Technical requirements
 Legal requirements
18. (a) distinguished between the following terms as used in data communication (6 marks)
i. Guided transmission and unguided transmission
Guided transmission have physical links through which signals are confined to a narrow path unguided
transmission no physical link between the sender and the receiver
ii. Multiplexing and demultiplexing
Multiplexing is the process of sending multiple data signals over the same medium, e.g., a wire
conductor can be made to carry several data signals either simultaneously or at different times.
iii.
Demultiplexing is the process of separating the multiplexed signals at the receiving end.
iv. Simplex and duplex
 Simplex Communication is in one direction
 Duplex Communication is in two direction
(b) Below is a diagram of a network topology.
6
i. Name the above topology (1 mark)
Tree topology
ii. State ONE advantages and ONE disadvantage of using the topology named above (2 marks)
Advantages
 Easy to add new nodes to the network
 Failure of a network segment does not bring the entire network down
Disadvantage
 If the backbone breaks, the entire network segment goes down
 More difficult to configure and install than other topologies
(c) Define the following terms as used in data communication (3 marks)
I. Attenuation
The loss of signal strength as it travel along transmission media
II. Noise
Unwanted signals picked up by the channel caused by either cross talk or external impulses
III. Impendence
Resistance offered by the cable to the signal
(d) State three duties performed by database administrator (3 marks)
 Determine the storage needs of users
 Managing the collection of data
 Carrying out backup of database
 Carrying out recovery data in case of system failure
 Ensuring security and integrity of the system
 Adding new users and managing users accounts
19.
a) There are four stages in data processing cycle. Describe the stages of data collection (4 marks)
i. Data creation – capturing of data from the sourse
ii. Transmission of data – transfer of creaded data from remote location to the processing point
iii. Data preparation – getting data ready for input by removing errors
iv. Control – ensuring that the integrity of data is maintained during the entire collection process.
b) Describe the following arithmetic errors that may occur during computerised data processing (2
marks)
i. Truncation
Cutting/ shortening part of a word or a number
ii. Overflow
The result of a calculation is larger than the allocated memory space
c) Data integrity refers to accuracy, completeness, relevance and timely of data
d) File organization method refers to the way in which records are arranged in a file. list four types of file
organization methods . (2 marks)
 Sequential file organization
 Serial file organization
 Index Sequential file organization
 Random/ direct file organization

7
e) A school uses computer system which operates batch processing mode and real-time mode. State a task in a
school that would use: (2 marks)
i. Batch processing
ii. Real-time processing
f) Explain the impact of information technology on organization in each of the following areas
a. Competition (2 marks)
 Ability to advertise in the internet
 Improved quality goods & services
 Reduced operational costs

b. Pace of growth (2 marks)

 Reduced costs
 Reduced need for manpower
 Reduced space requirement
 Greater output

20.
a. Define the term automatic recalculation (1 mark)
 Refers to automatic update of the result of a formula when a value in a cell in a range is changed.
b. Name and explain any two types of data types used in excel (2 marks)
 Value – numbers that can be manipulated mathematically
 Lables – text entered in a cell
 Formula – user defined mathematical expression entered in a cell
 Functions – inbuilt formular

c. Below is a an excel sheet, study and use it to answer questions that follow.
A B C D E
1 NAMES MATH ENG KISW TOTAL
2 JAMES 67 76 25
3 OMWOYO 45 45 45
4 JAEL 24 67 68
5 JOHN 78 87 46
6
i. Write a function that can be put in cell A6 count names that begin with letter J.
(3marks)
 =cou tif A :A5, J*
o Countif=1mark
o Correct range=1mark
o J* = ark
ii. errors = sign missing, no comma between 40 and fail, one bracket missing
a) =IF E2>= 0,”A”, IF E2>= 0,”B”, IF E2>= 0,”C” ,IF E2< 0,”FAIL”
b) False
c. Name two negative effects of internet (2 mark)
 Harmful information such as drug trafficking
 Immoral content such as pornography
 Security issues
 Plagiarism of intellectual property
 Erosion of social culture
 Intrusion of privacy
d. Give the functions of the following features in an e-mail. (3 marks)
i. Forward
Pass on the email in their inbox to other reciepient
ii. Send
Dispatch the composed e mail
iii. Compose
Create e mail/ write email
8
Name__________________________________admno_________school______
Question 1
1. The following table contains data extracted from an employees’ payroll file maintained by a certain company.
(a) (i) Create a database file and save as Company. (1 mark)
(ii) Create a table named Workers containing the fields in the table.
(1/2mk x 6 fields, and ½ mk for saving as Workers) Max 3 mks
(iii) Choose and set an appropriate field as a primary key. (½ mark)
(b) (i) Create a form named WorkersForm.
- Form title (11/2 mark)
- Controls (3 marks)
- Layout (21/2 marks)
(ii) Use the WorkersForm to enter the data above into the Workerstable. (5 marks)
(c) Create queries to determine:
(i) number of people with basic salary greater than 32,000/= .Save the query as Basic
(Query 1 mk, correct criteria 1 mk and saving as Basic 1 mk) Max 3 mks
(ii) number of people with basic salary less than 45,000/= and come from computer
department. Save the query as Computer.
(Query 1 mks, criteria for salary 11/2mks, criteria for department 11/2mks and saving as Computer
1mk) Max 5 mks
(iii)those whose name begin with letter ‘M’ or end in letter ‘S’. Save the query as Names
(Query ½ mk, criteria 2mks and saving as Names ½ mk.)max 3 mks.
(d) (i) Create a query to determine those employees who will earn more than 50,000/= if there
is an increment of basic pay by 10%. Save the query as SalaryIncrement.
(Query ½ mk, calculated field 2 mks, criteria 1 mk and saving as SalaryIncrement ½ mk) Max 4
mks)
(ii) Create a query to determine the year of birth of each employee from the current year. Save as
YearOfBirth.
(Query ½ mk, calculated field for year of birth 2 mks and saving as YearOfBirth ½ mk) Max 3 mks
(e) (i) Create a report from Workerstable to display all the data in the table. Save as WorkersReport.
(3 marks)
(ii)Modify the WorkersReport in (e)(i) above as follows:
I. Add the “EMPLOYEE SALARY DETAILS”as the report title. Use font size 19 pts, bold,
underline and centre it across the columns containing data.
(Correct report title 1 mk, font size ½ mk, bold ½ mk, underline ½ mk and centre alignment
½ mk) max 3 mks
II. Display the employees records according to their department and show the total amount the
company spend on each department as salary and the total amount spend on paying all the
employees. Save as WorkersReport_2.
(Displaying employees records according to departments –2mks
Departmental salary subtotal – 2 mks
Grand total on salaries – 1 ½ mks
Saving as WorkersReport_2 – ½ mk) Max 6 mks
(f) Print:
(i) Workers table; (1 mk)
(ii) YearOfBirth query; (1 mk)
(iii)WorkersReport_2. (1 mk)

1
QUESTION TWO
Part Activity Max Score
(a) Use a DTP software to design the following publication as it is with the following settings: 6mks

 paper size = A4 1mk

 orientation = Landscape 1mk
 page margins = 0.25 inches (or 0.64cm) all around 1mk
 Guides = Column 1 Width = 5.2”, Space between Columns = 0.75”, Column 2 2mks
Width = 5.2”
 File name = ExcellenceBook 1mk
(b) Designing the publication 38mks
Front Cover Section
 Book Title: Excellence Computer Studies: Correct Shape @ 1mk, Fill Colour @ 4mks
1mk, Text Font 1mk, White Font colour @ 1mk
 Computer drawn using shapes (not clipart/photo) 5mks
 Correct Callout @ 1mk + text in callout @ 1mk 2mks
 Book One: Must be Wordart @ 1mk, Correct Shape @ 1mk, Format @ 1mk 3mks
 Rounded Corners shape: Compound Line @ 1mk, Proportionally positioned to
enclose all shapes @ 1mk 2mks
 Placement of all objects to fit in the section
1mks
Spine/Middle section
 Correct Font @ 1mk, Font Size @ 1mk, Text Direction @ 1mk
 2 Hearts @ ½ x 2mk, Correct direction @ 1mk 3mks
2mks
Back Cover Section
 Upper banner @ 1mk, Text in banner @ 1mk, Font @ 1mk
 Shape around volume one @ 1mk, Fill colour 1mk, Text Direction 1mk 3mks
 Text in rectangular textbox: Bolding @ ½ mk, Italics @ ½ mk, Bullets @ 1mk, 3mks
Line Spacing @ 1mk, Shape Compound border @ 1mk
 Bar codes: White box background @ 1mk, Varied thickness @ 1mk, size/neatness 4mks
@ 1mk
 Ksh. 250 colour @ 1mk
 Enclosing shape border @ 1mk, Fill colour @ 1mk 3mks

1mk
2mks
(c) Insert your name and admission number as header, then your class and page number as footer. 4mks
 Attempt to insert header 1mk
 Correct Header 1mk
 Attempt to insert footer 1mk
 Correct Footer 1mk
(d) Print the publication. 2mks

2
HAWK CLUSTER EXAMINATIONS – 2024
HAWK II EXAMINATIONS
FORM FOUR – JUNE, 2024
BUSINESS STUDIES PAPER ONE ( 565/1)
MARKING SCHEME.
NAME…………………………………………………..ADM………………….CLASS………..
SCHOOL……………………………………………….SIGN……………DATE………………..
Instructions
a) Write your name and registration number in the spaces provided above
b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided
d) Do not remove any pages from this booklet
For examiners use only
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
TOTAL

HAWK 2 TERM TWO BUSINESS STUDIES Page 1 of 9

1. State four benefits of business studies to the society. (4marks)
 Enables members of the society to acquire skills and knowledge to manage a business
 Enables members of the society to get careers in the business related fields
 Enables members of the society to relate issues affecting business to its environment
 Enables members of the society to appreciate the role of government in business
(4X1) = 4 mks
2. Highlight four sources of a business idea.
(4marks)
 -Media such as newspapers, radio, television, magazines etc
 -Hobbies
 -Shows and exhibitions
 -Vocational training and experience
 -Surveys
 -Waste products
 -Listening to what people say
 -Spotting a market gap
 -Attending seminars
(4X1) = 4 mks
3. List four advantages of an open office layout to an organization.
(4marks)
 Supervision is enhanced
 Enhanced team work
 Economical on space
 Cheap to construct
 Easier to maintain
 Sharing of resources
(4X1) = 4 mks
4. Outline four difficulties faced in the satisfaction of human wants
(4marks)
 Scarcity of resources/gooods /services
 Low income /poverty/unemployment
 Poor health of individual consumers
 High prices of goods and services
 Political instability creates uncertainty in production
 Instability of human wants /dynamic.
(4X1) = 4 mks

HAWK 2 TERM TWO BUSINESS STUDIES Page 2 of 9

5. Highlight four measures that have been put in place by the government to bring order and
sanity in the public transport sub-sector.
(4marks)
 Removal of Unroadworthy vehicles which may cause accidents.

 Installation of bumps to reduce speed which may cause accidents.

 Heavy penalties on motorists who disobey traffic rules.

 Making sure those passenger vehicles have safety belts to minimize casualties.

 Ensuring that public service vehicles have speed governors to limits the speed
 Construction of dual carriage roads and by-pass to ease congestion.

 Restrictions on travelling hours to ensure drivers have ample time to rest.

 Use of alcoblow to curb drunken driving

 All the PSVs are operating under a registered SACCO

 All drivers and conductors must have uniforms

 Drivers and drivers required to have certificate of good conduct

 (4X1) = 4 mks
6. Highlight four economic environment that may positively influence the activities of a
business
 Decrease in the Level of inflation
 Increase in Income of people
 Decrease in interest rate
 Low prices
 Increase in the number of customers
(4X1) = 4 mks
7. Name the types of warehouses associated with each of the statements given below.
(4marks)

Statement Type of warehouse

Specialized goods are stored private

Individuals can hire storage facilities. public

Goods are stored from several manufacturers free

Goods can be stored before payment of bonded

custom duty.

HAWK 2 TERM TWO BUSINESS STUDIES Page 3 of 9

(4X1) = 4 mks

8. In the spaces provided below, indicate the types of utility created by each of the following
commercial activities. (4marks)

Commercial activity Type of utility

a) Rendering medical care to students; Possession

b) Transporting relief food to Kakuma camp; Place

c) Storekeeping; Time

d) Making desks. Form

9. Outline four circumstances under which cash with order (C.W.O) is appropriate.
(4marks)
 When the buyer is new to the seller.
 When the buyers credit worthiness is in doubt
 Where the seller is operating mail order business
 If cost of collecting debt is considered high by the business
 If cost of collecting debt is high.
(4X1) = 4 mks

10. State four possible factors that might have led to this situation.
 Increase in the cost of production
 Increase in price in price of competitive goods \
 Poor technology in production
 Unfavorable climate
 Unfavorable government policy
 Future expectation of increase in price
 Decrease in factors of production.
(4X1) = 4 mks
11. Highlight four factors that may a trader may consider when deciding on the types of
business to venture in.
(4marks)

 The profit margin/return to be earned from the investment

 Existing attitudes/practices/beliefs of the target market.
 Appropriate technology
 Size/availability of the market
 Government policy/legal requirements
 Channel of distribution
 Level of competition
HAWK 2 TERM TWO BUSINESS STUDIES Page 4 of 9
 Capital
 Inputs/supplies
 Management skills
 Payback period
 Spread of risks/avoid losses/manageable/bearable
( 4X1 ) = 4 mks

12. Outline four challenges that may be encountered by a country when several firms are
located in one town.
(4marks)

 Can lead to inefficient operation due to congestion

 Leads to lack of expansion area
 Leads to pressure on resources e.g. housing
 Leads to scramble for resources
 Risk of loss incase of a calamity
 Lack of market
 May lead to pollution
 May lead to unemployment of the jobless
 Rampant social evils
 Lack of labour in rural areas
4 x 1 = 4 marks

13. State four reason why diagonal communication should be encouraged in an organization.

(4 mark)

 Promotes team work within an organization

 It helps eliminate goal blindness
 Assists in development of human resources because they can freely exchange ideas
 Assists in coordination and harmonization of different activities in an office
 Creates a sense of belonging amongst staff thus a motivating.
( 4X1 ) = 4 mks

14. The following is a table of Assets, Liabilities and Capital. Determine the missing figures.
(4marks)
a) 532,400
b) 777,000
c) 268,300
d) -123,600

( 4X1 ) = 4 mks

HAWK 2 TERM TWO BUSINESS STUDIES Page 5 of 9

15. Outline four features of perfect competition market structure. (4
marks)
 -They are large number of buyers and sellers.
 -Products are uniform that is homogeneous.
 -There is freedom of entry and exit.
 -There is uniformity of buyers and sellers
 There is no government intervention.
 -There is perfect knowledge of the market among buyers and sellers
 -No excess supply or demand
 -Perfect mobility of factors of production
 No transport costs ( 4X1 ) = 4 mks
16. Outline four differences between Assurance policies and Insurance policies (4 marks)

Life assurance policy Genera (property) insurance policy

-Taken to cover life only -Taken to cover property only

-It is a long term policy -It is a short term policy

-Principle of indemnity does not apply -Principle of indemnity applies

-It has surrender rate -Does not have surrender rate

-It is a kind of a saving -It is not a saving planning in any way.

-Policy value depends on ability to pay -Policy value depends on the value of
property

( 4X1 ) = 4 mks

HAWK 2 TERM TWO BUSINESS STUDIES Page 6 of 9

17. Given the transactions in the table below, indicate the effects on the balance sheet totals as
either increase, decrease or no effect. (4marks)
Statement Effect on balance sheet totals

(i) Received cash donation of shs 5,000 from the Increase

owner

(ii) Paid a creditor shs 1,000 by cheque Decrease

(iii) A debtor settled his account shs 500 in cash No effect

(iv) A reduction of a liability from owner’s cash No effect

4 x 1 = 4 marks

18. Mention any four modern trends in product promotion.

(4marks)
 Increased use of radio stations in advertisement
 Use of billboards
 Use of mobile phones
 Use ofn publicities
 Road shows
 Use of internet and ecommerce.
( 4X1 ) = 4 mks
19. Assumptions in a two sector economy
 Economy is closed (no imports or exports)
 Firm spends all its income in paying factors of production
 The household spends all its income on goods and services
 There is no government interference
 There are no leakages and injections
( 4X1 ) = 4 mks
20. Highlight four ways in which an organization will safeguard its properties. (4marks)

 Enhancing security through installing cctv cameras, fencing and employing

watchmen.
 Ensuring physical care by people using the property
 Keeping records of all properties
 Physical stock taking of each property
 Taking insurance cover.
 Proper repairs servicing and maintenance
( 4X1 ) = 4 mks

HAWK 2 TERM TWO BUSINESS STUDIES Page 7 of 9

21. For each of the following transactions, name the account to be debited and the one to be
credited. (4marks)

Transaction. A/C A/C Credited

Debited

Cash introduced to expand business Cash Capital

Tenants pay rent by claque Bank Rent received

A cheque drawn to buy sons toy Drawings Bank

Sh. 500 cash deposited into the bank Bank Cash

account.

( 4X1 ) = 4 mks

22. State four requirements for opening a current account with a commercial bank in Kenya.
(4marks)
 Personal identification
 Initial deposit
 A letter of introduction from an existing customer
 Passport size photograph
 Physical contact address
Age 18 years ( 4X1 ) = 4 mks
23. State four features of an underdeveloped country.
 High birth rates
 Low life expectancy
 High dependency ratio
 More female than male
 High fertility rate
 High death rate
 Youthful population.
( 4X1 ) = 4 mks
24. State the book of original entry used to record information from the following source
documents
Source Document Book of Original entry

a) Received invoice Purchase journal

b) Copy of credit note Sales returns journal

c) Payment voucher Cash payment journal

d) Issued invoice Sales journal

HAWK 2 TERM TWO BUSINESS STUDIES Page 8 of 9

( 4X1 ) = 4 mks

25. Highlight four benefits that maybe realized when several firms merge.
 Increase in the volume of output
 Increased control over supplies
 Increased influence on the market/customers
 Reduced cost of operations as a result of economies of scale
 Access to larger capital
 Increased ability to control prices of the product
 Elimination of unhealthy competition
 Ability to employ more qualified personnel
 Increase in quality of output
 Combined talents and skills which may result in better management
( 4X1 ) = 4 mks

HAWK 2 TERM TWO BUSINESS STUDIES Page 9 of 9

HAWK CLUSTER EXAMINATIONS – 2024
HAWK II EXAMINATIONS
FORM FOUR – JUNE, 2024
BUSINESS STUDIES PAPER TWO ( 565/2)
MARKING SCHEME
NAME…………………………………………………..ADM………………….CLASS………..
SCHOOL……………………………………………….SIGN……………DATE………………..
Instructions.
a) Write your name and registration number in the spaces provided above
b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer ANY FIVE questions in the spaces provided
d) Do not remove any pages from this booklet
For examiners use only
question score
1
2
3
4
5
6
TOTAL

1
1. a,) Explain five importance of entrepreneurship in an economy (10 marks)
 Provides employment to many people who work as traders, hence improving their living
standards
 Provides revenue to the government inform of taxes which is used to finance the national
budget.
 Provides a variety of goods and services to local people for their choice to satisfy many needs.
 A source of foreign exchange when goods are exported and used to finance foreign trade.
 Leads to quality goods and services due to healthy competition
 Helps to increase productivity in the country by exploiting local natural resources.
 Provides people with income which improves living standards.
 Helps to improve local infrastructure to facilitate trade and production due to faster movement.
 Encourages savings and investment in a country as extra money is put in trade leading to
creation of wealth.
any 5 × 2 = 10 marks)
b,) Measures that the government may institute to solve unemployment .
 Population control - Advocating for reduction in the population growth rates in the country through
various ways such as family planning/have a labour force that can be absorbed by the job market.
 Adaption of appropriate education systems - Introducing the appropriate forms of education and
training people for the jobs that are available.
 Use of labour intensive methods - Use of labour intensive techniques in government institutions
and projects.
 Proper planning- By proper planning and management of natural resources and fighting
corruption so that resources can be used well to create jobs.
 Promoting entrepreneur culture- Through encouraging the entrepreneurship culture in the country
by providing a conducive environment for investment. Accept examples of a conducive environment.
 Delocalization of firms/Rural development- Delocalization of firms by the government to create jobs
in rural areas hence reducing rural to urban migration of people in search of employment.
 Encouraging direct foreign investments. - Encouraging foreign investment enough various policies
such as tax holidays and enabling repatriation of profits from the businesses of foreigners.
 Increase government spending or expenditure. - Expenditure on infrastructure such as roads
railways and electricity supply creates jobs and releases money in circulation creating demand for
goods and services.
 Encouraging the use of local resources - Government can encourage investment on economic
activities that use locally available raw materials or inputs which will intern create more jobs
opportunities.
 Diversification of economic activities – that provide a variety of economic activities.
 Exporting labour – by assisting the unemployed acquire jobs abroad/countries with higher labor
deficiencies.
 Setting vocational/TVETs Institutions – to train youths on practical skills.
Any 5 × 2 = 10 marks)

2
2. a,) Explain five factors that a firm may consider when choosing a method of product
Promotion. (10 mks)
 Cost of the method. The organization should choose a promotion method that is affordable / cost effective /
cheaper / cheap.
 Geographical area of coverage / extent of the market / distance to be covered. The organization should
choose a method that will reach the customers in their various locations.
 Target group / type of consumers / nature of market segment. The organization must choose a method
that appeals to the relevant group / accept examples of type of consumers a naming

 Speed of the medium or the method in relation to urgency of the message / time factor. The organization
should choose a method that will reach the customers within the desired time frame.

 Nature of the product / type of product. Different methods may be chosen depending on the nature of product
e.g. technical products may require demonstration best achieved through personal selling / Firms should
choose a method that is appropriate for the type of product
 Nature of the message. The organization should choose a method that will best or effectively present
the various aspects of the message.
 Number of consumers / size of the market. The firm should choose a method that can effectively serve the
number of consumers available / size of the market to be reached
 Intended impression / impact. A firm may choose the medium that can best achieve the desired
impression / impact
 Frequency /duration of the message. If the message requires repetition / lasts long / short , a firm should
choose a medium that is appropriate
 Availability of the medium. A firm can only choose a method that is available
 Government policy. The firm may have no option but to comply with the government directives
 Flexibility. A firm should choose a method that can allow it to change the message when the need arises
 Method used by competitors /level of competition. The firm should choose a method that can
effectively counter its competitors
((Mention =1mk, otherwise = 2mk; any 5 × 2 = 10 marks)

3
2 b)
Jawabu Traders
Three Column Cashbook
Dr Form the month of June, 2021 Cr
Date Details Disc Cash Bank Date Details Disc Cash Bank
allowd Rec

2017 2012

June1 Capital 40,000 June1 Capital 150,000

2 KCB loan 250,000 6 Purchases 5,600 64,400

4 Sales 30,000 10 Drawing 10,000

9 Lonyangapuo 500 24,500 12 Cash ( C ) 48,000

12 Bank ( C ) 48,000 13 Jamii Bora 100 900

15 Murgor 45,000 18 Wages 10,000

27 Sales 28,000 40,000 20 Murgor 45,000

30 Cash ‘C’ 118,000 20 Bank Charges 1,000

30 Bank ‘C’ 118,000

30 Bals C/d 8,000 168,200

500 146,000 477,500 5,700 146,000 477,500

30 Bals b/d 8,000 168,200

NB:Withdrawal instead of drawings penalize by awarding 0

For consistency wrong balances carried down consistently and correctly calculated award. If
discount columns are balanced no tick for totals.
If no dates either sides at all deduct a maximum of 2 mks
Details must be correct to award
Balances must be specified i.e. bal c/d or bal b/d.
Accept DA for discount allowed or DR for discount received

4
3. a) Using a diagram, explain the effect on the decrease in supply on equilibrium price and
quantity while demand is constant (10 marks)
D s1
S0
E1
Eo
s1
So D

Q1 Qo
Quantity
 A reduction in supply shifts the supply curve to the left from so to s1
 The quantity supplied reduces from Qo to Q1
 The price increases from Po to P1
 The equilibrium point changes from Eo to E1
b) Sources of finance available to Kenyan government

 Taxation, - is the main source of finance. They include personal income tax, VAT e.t.c

 Rent, rates and lease incomes… the government receives income from rates and house rent

 Proceeds from disposal of assets such as building, old motor vehicles

 Loans from internal borrowing (domestic debt)

 Loans from external borrowing e.g from IMF, world bank etc

 Dividends and profit from its businesses such as public corporation

 Fines and penalties imposed especially on offenders by court

 Grants and donation from other friendly countries and organizations e.g JICA

 License fee for operating various kinds of businesses in the country

Loyalties for rights granted by the government to private businesses to use national natural
resources such as minerals, land, broadcast frequencies any 5 × 2 = 10 marks

5
4 a) Differences between public limited company and partnership
Public limited company Partnership
Membership is a minimum of seven share Membership is a minimum of two partners
holders
Members have limited liability No limited liability for partners ( at least one
partner has unlimited liability)
Managed by people appointed by board of Managed by partners themselves (active
directors partners)
Regulated by articles/memorandum of Regulated by partnership deed/partnership
association/company’s Act Act
Pay corporate tax Do not pay corporate tax
Has legal entity/ can sue or be sued under its Has no legal entity/individual partners can
name be sued
Shares can be transferred freely without Capital contribution require consent of other
members consent partners

any 5 × 2 = 10 marks)

4b
Lencer Entertainment
Trading Profit and Loss Account
For the year ended 30th April 2018

Dr Cr
Opening Stock 86,400√ Sales 320,000√
Add Purchases 160,000√
Less returns I 12,000√
246,000 Net sales 308,000√
Less Returns O. 34,500√

C.O.G.A.F.S. 211,900
Less closing stock 77,000√
C.O.g.s. 134,900
Gross profit c/d 173,100√
308,000 308,000
Electricity 12,900√ Gross profit b/d 173,100√
Rent 18,300√ Discount received 19,300√
Salaries 36,000√
Insurance 14,500√
Total Expenses 81,700 Net Profit c/d 110,700√√

192,400 192,400

Net profit b/d 110,700

(16x ½ =8mks)

6
Lencer Entertainment
Balance Sheet
As at 30th April 2018

Fixed Assets . Shs Shs.

Equipment 90,000√ Capital 136,000√
Motor vehicle 250,000√ Add Net profit 110,700√ 485,100
340,000
Current Assets Current Liabilities
Stock 77,000√ creditors 29,400
Bank 63,000√
Cash 34,500
174,500

514,500
514,500

(8 x ½ = 4mks)

5. a) Features of a good filling system

 Cost effectiveness – cheap /economical in terms of installation and maintenance
 Safety – ensure documents are secured against theft/damage
 Compactness – ensure minimal sue of space
 Simplicity – easy to understand
 Accessibility – ensure easy location/retrieval of documents
 Elasticity – easy to expand whenever need arises
 Confidentiality – guard against unauthorized access to documents
Any 5 × 2 = 10 marks)

b) Outline five ways a country may control her imports so as to correct her Balance
of payment disequilibrium. (10 marks)
 Applying total ban or zero quota – therefore non will be imported
 Subsidizing the cost of production for that commodity that would otherwise be imported.
 Fixing import quotas – restricting to imported goods in terms of quantity or value
 Restricting foreign exchange allocated for imports
 Imposing or increasing custom duty/import duty
 Any 5 × 2 = 10 marks)

7
6. a) Explain five trends in transport
 Bicycles transport and motorcycle
 Electric trains replacing diesel engines.
 Pipeline
 Containerization
 Courier services
 Formulation and enforcing laws on transport
 Constructing modern highways
 Use of computers and automation on highways.
 Any 5 × 2 = 10 marks)
b) Outline the channels of distribution for locally manufactured goods.
 Local Manufacturer – consumer
 Local Manufacturer – retailer – consumer.
 Local Manufacturer – wholesaler- retailer – consumer.
 Local Manufacturer – agent – consumer.
 Local Manufacturer – agent –retailer –consumer.
 Local Manufacturer –agent –wholesaler- consumer.
 Any 5 × 2 = 10 marks)

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