1.

Before entering a confined space, what must be completed to ensure the safety
of the workers? Ref:1910.146
a. A job safety analysis (JSA) must be performed.
b. All tools and equipment should be inspected.
c. An entry permit must be issued.
d. Safety meetings should be conducted daily.
2. The employer shall retain each canceled entry permit for at least ______ year(s)
1910.146E6
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 30
3. Which of the following is a crucial step before starting mechanical ventilation in a
confined space?
A. Checking the weather forecast
B. Ensuring all personnel are trained on emergency procedures
C. Testing the atmosphere for oxygen sufficiency and toxic substances
D. Placing warning signs around the work area
4. A SDS of a chemical has a (CAS) Registry Number. What is CAS?
a. Chemical Abstract Services
b. Chemical Abbreviation Synonym
c. Chemical Alert System
d. Chemical Advisory Service.
5. Antwan is planning to clean the lab floor with a caustic 10% sodium hydroxide
solution. He doesn’t have gloves or a respirator. The lab manager stops the activity,
stating that it is unsafe. What should the company do?
A. Go to the safety manager to get permission to use the caustic soda.
B. Substitute a less hazardous cleaner
C. Find gloves and a respirator and continue using the caustic soda.
D. Nothing
6. What is the primary purpose of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS)?
A) To ensure chemical manufacturers provide detailed financial reports
B) To ensure that all chemicals are banned from the workplace
C) To ensure that the hazards of all chemicals produced or imported are classified
and that information concerning the classified hazards is communicated to
employers and employees
D) To monitor the import and export of chemicals
7. You are tasked with improving the emergency response skills of a factory's
workforce. Before designing the training, what is the first step you should take to
ensure the training will be effective?
A) Develop training materials based on common emergency protocols.
B) Conduct a needs analysis to identify specific gaps in current emergency response
capabilities.
C) Implement the training immediately to see how the workers respond.
D) Ask the management what they want the training to focus on
8. You are developing a new training program for chemical safety. In the Analysis
phase of the ADDIE model, you gathered information on accidents caused by
chemical mishandling. What is the next step according to the ADDIE model?
A) Design the training program focusing on safe handling and emergency
procedures.
B) Deliver the training to a small group to test its effectiveness.
C) Evaluate the feedback from past training sessions on similar topics.
D) Document the training process for reporting purposes.
9. You are conducting a safety training session on handling hazardous materials. You
plan to measure the training's impact through assessments. What is the most
effective way to use pre-tests and post-tests in this scenario?
A) Administer both tests after the training to compare scores with industry
standards.
B) Administer a pre-test to determine prior knowledge, and a post-test to assess
knowledge gained.
C) Use only a post-test to minimize testing time and focus on training content.
D) Skip pre-tests as they might demotivate learners who score poorly before the
training
10. You are a safety manager conducting a routine inspection when you notice a
forklift operator exhibiting signs of impairment, such as sluggish movements and
difficulty following instructions. What is your BEST course of action?
A. Allow the employee to continue working but keep a close watch on them for
further signs of impairment.
B. Immediately remove the employee from duty and follow company procedures for
suspected substance use.
C. Wait until the end of the shift to discuss the issue privately with the employee to
avoid conflict.
D. Ignore the behavior unless a supervisor specifically reports a safety incident.
11. What should a supervisor do if they suspect an employee is under the influence
of a substance at work?
A) Confront the employee and accuse them of substance abuse
B) Ignore the behavior and hope it doesn't happen again
C) Document the behavior and report it to HR or management
D) Try to cover up the behavior to avoid disciplinary action
12. Which of the following is a common sign of substance abuse in the workplace?
A) Frequent tardiness or absenteeism
B) Increased productivity and attention to detail
C) Improved relationships with coworkers and supervisors
D) Decreased stress and anxiety
13. Which of the following hazard control measures would be the MOST effective in
preventing long-term hearing loss from excessive noise exposure?
A) Regularly monitor noise levels, isolate noise-producing tasks, and install noise-
absorbing panels.
B) Require all workers to wear wool caps covering their ears in noisy areas.
C) Limit exposure to high noise levels to a maximum of two hours per 8-hour shift.
D) Require all workers to wear disposable foam earplugs.
14. When workers face potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens, such as during
first aid administration, which of the following control measures must be in place?

A) Eye wash station and a deluge shower

B) Antiseptic hand soap and disposable paper towels
C) Chlorine-based bleach wipes and a surgical mask covering the mouth and nose
D) Face shield, latex gloves, and a disposable apron
15.Which of the following best defines the concept of safety in the workplace?
A) The absence of any hazards or risks in a work environment.
B) The control of recognized hazards to prevent harm to people, property, and the
environment.
C) The ability to complete work quickly without following procedures.
D) The responsibility of management alone to enforce rules.
16. What is the primary purpose of a fitness-for-duty program?
A. Ensuring that a worker's physical capabilities align with job demands.
B. Promoting teamwork and cooperation among employees.
C. Verifying that a worker can lift a predetermined weight as specified in the lifting
equation.
D. Assessing whether a worker is physically and psychologically capable of
performing essential job functions.
17. What is the term for the wrist position where the palm faces downward and the
fingers curve slightly toward the wrist?
A. Poor posture
B. Flexion
C. Extension
D. Neutral
18. Which work scenario would benefit the most from an ergonomic study?
A. Using self-retracting lanyards for fall protection.
B. Operating an electric drill to install a door jamb.
C. Lifting materials from floor level to overhead for installation.
D. Wearing waders while working with concrete.
19. What is the primary protective measure against excessive exposure to
radiation?
A) Wearing sunscreen
B) Limiting time of exposure
C) Drinking plenty of water
D) Regular exercise
20. Which type of radiation is commonly used in medical imaging to diagnose
diseases?
A) Ultraviolet
B) Infrared
C) X-ray
D) Microwave
21. What is the unit used to measure the biological radiation dose in SI units
absorbed by a person?
A) Pascal
B) Sievert
C) Joule
D) Hertz
22. ISO 19011 covers
a. Informational Security
b. Auditing Management Systems
c. Business Continuity
d. Quality processes.
23. What is the primary focus of the ISO 45001 standard?
A) Environmental management systems
B) Quality management systems
C) Occupational health and safety management systems
D) Energy management systems
24. What is the purpose of a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) in the context of
business continuity planning?
A) To identify the organization's most critical processes and the potential impact of a
disruption on them
B) To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization's marketing strategies
C) To determine the organization's key performance indicators (KPIs)
D) To analyze the financial health of the organization
25. What is the median of the following set of numbers: 5, 7, 3, 9, 2?
A) 5
B) 7
C) 3
D) 9
26. Why is the range considered a measure of variability?
A) Because it identifies the typical value in a data set
B) Because it shows how data points are concentrated
C) Because it indicates how spread out the data points are from each other
D) Because it determines the skewness of the data set
27. What is the average (mean) of the following set of numbers: 2, 5, 9, 12?
A) 5
B) 7
C) 28
D) 9
28. You are tasked with improving the emergency response skills of a factory's
workforce. Before designing the training, what is the first step you should take to
ensure the training will be effective?
A) Develop training materials based on common emergency protocols.
B) Conduct a needs analysis to identify specific gaps in current emergency response
capabilities.
C) Implement the training immediately to see how the workers respond.
D) Ask the management what they want the training to focus on
29. You are developing a new training program for chemical safety. In the Analysis
phase of the ADDIE model, you gathered information on accidents caused by
chemical mishandling. What is the next step according to the ADDIE model?
A) Design the training program focusing on safe handling and emergency
procedures.
B) Deliver the training to a small group to test its effectiveness.
C) Evaluate the feedback from past training sessions on similar topics.
D) Document the training process for reporting purposes.
30. You are conducting a safety training session on handling hazardous materials.
You plan to measure the training's impact through assessments. What is the most
effective way to use pre-tests and post-tests in this scenario?
A) Administer both tests after the training to compare scores with industry
standards.
B) Administer a pre-test to determine prior knowledge, and a post-test to assess
knowledge gained.
C) Use only a post-test to minimize testing time and focus on training content.
D) Skip pre-tests as they might demotivate learners who score poorly before the
training.
31. Which should be the FIRST step in the risk management process?
a. Assessment of hazards
b. Implementation of hazard controls
c. Development of hazard controls
d. Identification of hazards
32. Which ergonomic practice is essential for maintaining a neutral body posture
while working in a seated position?
a. Ensuring the thighs and hips are supported by a well-padded seat that extends
beyond the knees.
b. Keeping the knees at approximately the same height as the hips, with the feet
positioned slightly forward.
c. Sitting with the back fully supported but without lumbar support when upright or
slightly reclined.
d. Keeping the elbows close to the body and bent at an angle between 45 and 90
degrees.
33. Which is the OSHA threshold shift in hearing that is considered to be a
“recordable” injury?
a. 10 dB or more at 2,000, 3,000, and 4,000 MHz
b. 15 dB or more at 2,000, 3,000, and 4,000 MHz
c. 20 dB or more at 2,000, 3,000, and 4,000 MHz
d. 25 dB or more at 2,000, 3,000, and 4,000 MHz
34. Why is employee involvement critical in behavior-based observation programs?
A. It shifts the sole responsibility for safety onto the employees.
B. It fosters an environment where employees can actively identify hazards and
contribute to safer practices.
C. It reduces the need for formal safety training.
D. It minimizes management’s role in setting safety standards
35. What is the primary purpose of conducting a Hazard and Operability (HAZOP)
study in a process plant?
A) To identify potential hazards and evaluate their risks
B) To develop emergency response plans
C) To train employees on safety procedures
D) To investigate accidents and incidents
36. What is the term for the process of evaluating the likelihood and potential
impact of a hazard, and then prioritizing controls to mitigate or eliminate the risk?
A) Risk Analysis
B) Hazard Control
C) Safety Audit
D) Hazard Evaluation
37. Which of the following is a critical first step in designing an effective employee
training program?
A. Skipping the needs assessment to save time.
B. Conducting a thorough needs assessment to identify skill gaps.
C. Relying exclusively on generic training materials.
D. Implementing training without clear objectives.
38. According to adult learning principles, what factor is most effective in motivating
adult learners?
A. Presenting content with no real-world relevance.
B. Relying solely on lecture-based instruction.
C. Offering opportunities for self–directed learning and immediate application.
D. Using rigid schedules without learner input.
39. Which model is commonly used in instructional systems design to structure the
development of training programs?
A. Skipping analysis and jumping directly into development.
B. The ADDIE model (Analysis, Design, Development, Implementation, Evaluation).
C. An ad hoc approach without any formal framework.
D. A one–size–fits–all training method.
40. What is the primary protective measure against excessive exposure to
radiation?
A) Wearing sunscreen
B) Limiting time of exposure
C) Drinking plenty of water
D) Regular exercise
41. Which type of radiation is commonly used in medical imaging to diagnose
diseases?
A) Ultraviolet
B) Infrared
C) X-ray
D) Microwave
42. What is the unit used to measure the biological radiation dose in SI units
absorbed by a person?
A) Pascal
B) Sievert
C) Joule
D) Hertz
43. _______________________(symbol Ω) is the electrical unit of resistance.
a. Ampere
b. Ohm
c. Volt
d. Watt
44. Live parts of electric equipment operating at _________ volts or more shall be
guarded against accidental contact by use of approved cabinets or other forms of
approved enclosures. Ref:1910.303(g)(2)
a. 24
b. 50
c. 110
d. 240
45. What hazards might be found in an old transformer yard?
A) PCB contamination, asbestos insulation, and electrical shock risks
B) Only minor rusting and structural wear, with no serious hazards
C) High levels of methane gas accumulation from transformer fluids
D) No hazards, as old transformer yards are always decommissioned safely
46. The employer must a select a full facepiece pressure demand SCBA for a
minimum service life of _______________minutes with entering deficient oxygen
atmospheres. Ref: 1910.134
a. 20
b. 30
c. 60
d. 90
47. How is Qualitative Fit Testing (QLFT) best described?
a. An evaluation of respirator fit based on an individual's experience in real working
conditions.
b. A measurement of respirator fit based on the amount of leakage entering the
mask.
c. A pass/fail test determined by the individual's reaction to specific test agents.
d. A pass/fail test based on the concentration of contaminants in the user's work
environment.
48. Which of the following is a key requirement for using a respirator in the
workplace?
a. The respirator must be properly fitted and sealed to the user’s face.
b. The user must clean the respirator once per year.
c. The user can share their respirator with coworkers if necessary.
d. The respirator only needs to be used in visibly dusty environments.
49. Which of the following is a critical first step in designing an effective employee
training program?
A. Skipping the needs assessment to save time.
B. Conducting a thorough needs assessment to identify skill gaps.
C. Relying exclusively on generic training materials.
D. Implementing training without clear objectives.
50. According to adult learning principles, what factor is most effective in motivating
adult learners?
A. Presenting content with no real-world relevance.
B. Relying solely on lecture-based instruction.
C. Offering opportunities for self–directed learning and immediate application.
D. Using rigid schedules without learner input.
51. Which model is commonly used in instructional systems design to structure the
development of training programs?
A. Skipping analysis and jumping directly into development.
B. The ADDIE model (Analysis, Design, Development, Implementation, Evaluation).
C. An ad hoc approach without any formal framework.
D. A one–size–fits–all training method.
52. Why is employee involvement critical in behavior-based observation programs?
A. It shifts the sole responsibility for safety onto the employees.
B. It fosters an environment where employees can actively identify hazards and
contribute to safer practices.
C. It reduces the need for formal safety training.
D. It minimizes management’s role in setting safety standards
53. What is the primary purpose of conducting a Hazard and Operability (HAZOP)
study in a process plant?
A) To identify potential hazards and evaluate their risks
B) To develop emergency response plans
C) To train employees on safety procedures
D) To investigate accidents and incidents
54. What is the term for the process of evaluating the likelihood and potential
impact of a hazard, and then prioritizing controls to mitigate or eliminate the risk?
A) Risk Analysis
B) Hazard Control
C) Safety Audit
D) Hazard Evaluation
55. Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) Distribution
A construction site has 120 workers and needs to distribute safety helmets. If each
box contains 24 helmets, how many boxes of helmets are needed to ensure every
worker receives one?
a) 6
b) 5
c) 4
d) 7
56. What is the primary principle behind Pareto Analysis?
A) 80% of problems are caused by 20% of causes.
B) 20% of workers contribute to 80% of results.
C) 50% of problems are caused by 50% of causes.
D) 100% of results come from 100% of efforts.
57. Fall Protection Clearance Calculation
A worker is using a 6-foot lanyard with a deceleration device while working at a
height of 18 feet. The d-ring is the same height as the anchorage point. The
deceleration distance is 3.5 feet, and the worker's height is 6 feet. The safety factor
is 2 feet.
58. What is the minimum fall clearance required to prevent the worker from striking
the lower level?
A) 6.5 feet
B) 12.5 feet
C) 17.5 feet
D) 24.5 feet
59. Which should be the FIRST step in the risk management process?
a. Assessment of hazards
b. Implementation of hazard controls
c. Development of hazard controls
d. Identification of hazards
60. Which ergonomic practice is essential for maintaining a neutral body posture
while working in a seated position?
a. Ensuring the thighs and hips are supported by a well-padded seat that extends
beyond the knees.
b. Keeping the knees at approximately the same height as the hips, with the feet
positioned slightly forward.
c. Sitting with the back fully supported but without lumbar support when upright or
slightly reclined.
d. Keeping the elbows close to the body and bent at an angle between 45 and 90
degrees.
61. Which is the OSHA threshold shift in hearing that is considered to be a
“recordable” injury?
a. 10 dB or more at 2,000, 3,000, and 4,000 MHz
b. 15 dB or more at 2,000, 3,000, and 4,000 MHz
c. 20 dB or more at 2,000, 3,000, and 4,000 MHz
d. 25 dB or more at 2,000, 3,000, and 4,000 MHz
62. What is the process by which companies assess potential risks and implement
strategies to minimize or eliminate them?
a. Loss Management
b. Risk Control
c. Loss Control
d. Workers' Compensation Management
63. ________________________ is the forecasting and evaluation of financial risks
together with the identification of procedures to avoid or minimize their impact.
a. Loss Management
b. Severity Control
c. Loss Control
d. Risk Management
64. According to OSHA, a competent person is knowledgeable about applicable
standards and can identify workplace hazards relating to the specific operation. In
addition, OSHA expects which of the following from a competent person?
A. Has the budget funds to eliminate the hazard
B. Has the authority to correct hazards immediately
C. Is an officer of the company
D. Can hire, fire, or effectively recommend a competent person
65. Ladder shall be inspected by a _____________for visible defects on a periodic
basis. Ref:1926.1053(b)(15)
a. Competent Person
b. Qualified Person
c. Manufacturer
d. Supervisor
66. Portable ladders used for access to an upper landing surface, such as a roof,
shall have side rails that extend at least ________________ above the upper landing
surface to which the
ladder is used to gain access. REfL: 1926.1053(b)(1)
a) 2 rungs
b) 3 feet (0.9 m)
c) 1.6 feet (0.5 m)
d) 6 feet (1.8 m)
67. Ladders must be visually inspected: Ref 1910.23(b)(9)
a. Frequently or periodically.
b. Each Work Shift
c. Only after they have been damaged.
d. Only after being used for heavy-duty jobs
68. The relationship between exposure to a substance and the resulting change in
health or body function is called.
A. Permissible exposure limits
B. Acute versus chronic reaction
C. Dose-response relationship
D. Toxicity
69. The OSHA level of airborne asbestos fibers allowed over a time-weighted
average of 480 minutes is currently limited to 0.1 fiber per cubic centimeter. What is
this limit called?
A. STEL
B. PEL
C. EL
D. REL
70. Prolonged exposure to heat can pose serious health risks to workers. Which
heat-related illness is the most severe and demands immediate medical
intervention?
a. Heat syncope
b. Heat cramps
c. Heat stroke
d. Heat exhaustion
71. Industrial hygienists MOST commonly measure thermal conditions to control
employee thermal stress using the wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT) index and
which other Index?
a. Temperature/Humidity/Sun/Wind (THSW) index
b. Apparent Temperature (AT) index
c. Temperature Humidity (THI) index
d. Wind Chill (WC) index
72. Which should be the FIRST step in the risk management process?
a. Assessment of hazards
b. Implementation of hazard controls
c. Development of hazard controls
d. Identification of hazards
73. Which is an important ergonomic practice when attempting to maintain neutral
body postures while working in a seated posture?
a. The thighs and hips are supported by a well-padded seat that extends past the
knee.
b. The knees are about the same height as the hips, with the feet slightly forward.
c. The back is fully supported without any lumbar support when sitting vertically or
leaning back slightly.
d. The elbows stay close to the body and are bent between 45 and 90 degrees.
74. Which is a leading indicator?
a. Injury frequency and severity
b. OSHA recordable injuries
c. Worker’s compensation costs
d. Safety audits scores
75. Which one is a lagging indicator?
A. The Scores from audits conducted every month.
B. The cost of injuries last year.
C. The percent of inspections or behavior based safety observations completed at a
location
D. Training Attendance Rates
76. During a routine safety review at a manufacturing plant, the safety manager
wants to implement a strategy that proactively reduces workplace injuries. The goal
is to identify potential hazards before they lead to incidents.
Which of the following actions would be considered a leading indicator of workplace
safety?
a. Tracking the number of days since the last injury and celebrating when
employees reach 100 injury-free days.
b. Conducting regular safety audits and hazard assessments to identify and correct
risks before an incident occurs.
c. Reviewing workers' compensation claims to determine which types of injuries are
costing the company the most.
d. Analyzing OSHA recordable incidents over the past year to identify trends and
common injury types.
77. Which one of these statements is true?
A. It’s best to use multi-factor authentication to access areas of the business
network with sensitive information.
B. You should use the same password for key business devices to guarantee that
high-level employees can access them in an emergency.
C. The best way to protect business data is to make sure no one loses any device.
D. You shouldn’t limit login attempts on key business devices, because getting
locked out for having too many incorrect attempts would leave you unable to access
your accounts.
78. Which of the following types of communication are often susceptible to
“eavesdropping”?
a. Email
b. Postal mail
c. Cell phones
d. Fax Document
79. Sarah works at a manufacturing plant and notices that one of her coworkers,
Jake, has been displaying increasingly aggressive behavior, such as slamming tools,
yelling at colleagues, and making threatening comments about management. One
day, he angrily tells Sarah that he’s "had enough" and that "people are going to
regret how they treated him." Sarah feels uneasy about his behavior.
What should Sarah do to ensure workplace safety?
A. Ignore it, as Jake is probably just venting and won’t actually do anything.
B. Confront Jake and tell him to calm down before things get worse.
C. Report Jake’s behavior to a supervisor or HR immediately, following workplace
violence prevention policies.
D. Wait until Jake does something more serious before taking any action.
80. A Fault Tree Analysis (FTA) is a top-down diagram used to identify where and
how the system can ______________.
a. Fail
b. Succeed
c. Break
d. Worsen
81. Which of the following is the most effective method for identifying hazards
associated with a specific task?
A. Relying on general safety rules
B. Conducting a PPE hazard assessment
C. Providing training on a work procedure
D. Developing a Job Safety Analysis (JSA) based on the work procedure
82. __________ is a system safety tool to explore the causes of system level failures.
It uses boolean logic to combine a series of lower level events and it is basically a
top-down approach to identify the component level failures (basic event) that cause
the system level failure (top event) to occur.
a. Hazop
b. Fault tree analysis
c. What If
d. Fishbone
83. Which is the best PREVENTION from being struck by falling tools.
a. Use of a tool tether.
b. Toeboards at the edge of a floor
c. Warning line six feet away from an elevator shaft.
d. Comprehensive hand placement training.
84. Which of the following is MOST important for reducing electrical hazards when
using power tools?
a. Using double-insulated tools
b. Wearing rubber gloves
c. Working in a well-ventilated area
d. Using a tool with a plastic casing
85. Which of the following design features minimizes the risk of kickback in power
saws?
a. A reinforced blade cover
b. Anti-kickback pawls and riving knives
c. A higher RPM motor
d. Extended power cord length
86. What should be included in the structure of COMMAND responsibilities in an
emergency response scenario?
a) Directing all emergency activities, ensuring outside emergency services are
notified, and directing shutdown or evacuation of the affected facility.
b) Safety of property, materials, and the public.
c) Trained hazardous materials responder, personal protective equipment, and self-
contained breathing apparatus certified.
d) Authority to issue orders to employees, first aid trained, multi-lingual, and be a
certified first responder.
87. A hazardous waste operations team will be working with a chemical agent that
poses a serious dermal health risk but only moderate respiratory health risk. Which
is the minimum level of PPE the team should use?
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D
88. In the event of a fire, what is the most critical action for safety professionals to
ensure?
a. Immediate financial assessment of potential losses.
b. Immediate planning for resumption of operations.
c. Safe and orderly evacuation of personnel.
d. Securing of all electronic data and backups.
89. Which of the following is NOT an example of a root cause of an accident?
A) A worker made a mistake due to lack of training
B) A machine malfunctioned due to poor maintenance
C) A company did not provide adequate safety equipment
D) An employee had a pre-existing medical condition
90. In conducting the incident investigation, you identify unsafe acts or hazardous
conditions. These elements of the incident may be referred to as ________ of failures
in the systems of safety.
a. Root causes
b. Safety Violation
c. Worker Behaviors
d. Symptoms
91. Which of the following details is NOT recorded by digital photography in an
accident?
A. The state of the equipment
B. The placement of objects relative to each other
C. The perspective of the victim
D. The prevailing weather conditions
92. What is the first step in conducting a task analysis for a needs assessment?
A) Develop training materials based on past experiences
B) Identify the desired performance and compare it to current performance
C) Create a random survey to gauge employee satisfaction
D) Assign blame to specific employees for performance issues
93. During task analysis, you identify that employees struggle with a specific step in
operating the new machinery. What should you do next?
A) Observe skilled employees performing the task correctly
B) Assume employees will eventually figure it out on their own
C) Replace all employees who fail to perform correctly
D) Focus only on training managers instead of operators
94. After completing the needs assessment and task analysis, what should be your
next step?
A) Design a training program focused on the identified skill gaps
B) Immediately replace the machinery with a simpler model
C) Penalize employees for errors instead of providing training
D) Implement a generic training program without tailoring it to needs
95. 30 degrees sling has ____________ approximately more reduction from the
horizontal.
a. 15%
b. 30%
c. 45%
d. 50%
96. A two-piece block and tackle with 5 part of rope to lift a weight of 2,000 pounds
requires how much force for lift (no friction)? ___________________ lbs.? see photo
a. 100
b. 200
c. 400
d. 500
97. Which is the best definition of a competent person from OSHA?
a A person that is required at confined spaces, hoisting and rigging and excavation
and trenching job sites.
b. A person has the authority to shut down the job at anytime.
c. A manager that has the ability to identify hazards.
d. A person who's capable identify existing and predictable hazards in the
surroundings or working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous
to employees, and has the authority to take prompt corrective measures to
eliminate them.
98. What is the primary concern of lead in the environment?
a. Soil fertility
b. Air freshness
c. Water pollution
d. Noise pollution
99. The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
(CERCLA) is also known as ___________.
a. Clean Air Act
b. Hazard communication
c. Superfund
d. Community Emergency Response
100. Wastewater is treated in three phases, they are?
a. Filtration, Digestion, Absorption
b. Anaerobic Recycling, Anoxic treatment, Sludge drying
c. Clarification, Effluent treatment, Anaerobic Digestion
d. Solid removal, bacterial decomposition, and extra filtration.
101. An example of an emergency which planning efforts are more focused on
mitigation and recovery than on prevention is a
a. Chemical Spill
b. Dust Explosion
c. Earthquake
d. Fire
102. In the placard below, What is the 3 at the bottom for?
a. UN number
b. Hazard class
c. Chemical Compatibilty
d. Risk Assessment Rating
103. A rate of rise detector triggers the fire alarm when the rate of _________
increases above a certain rate?
a. Temperature
b. Pressure
c. Smoke Particles
d. Decibels
104. What should a forklift operator do when approaching an intersection?
a. Slow down and sound the horn
b. Check for hazards by leaning out of the cab
c. Turn slowly and smoothly
d. Get through as quickly as possible
105. A nursing home patient cannot get out of bed. What is the best solution to
place him in a wheel chair?
a. Have two people grab his garments and place him in the wheelchair.
b. Roll him carefully into a wheel chair.
c. Slide a bedboard under him and lift him up.
d. Use a lift assist device
106. What is the most important factor to check before operating an indoor crane?
a. The levelness of the crane
b. Conducting a pre-use inspection
c. The load capacity and stability
d. The weather conditions inside the facility
107. Which of the following combinations represents the four elements required to
start a fire?
A. Heat, fuel, dust, chemical chain reaction
B. Heat, fuel, confinement, chemical chain reaction
C. Heat, dust, oxygen, chemical chain reaction
D. Heat, fuel, oxygen, chemical chain reaction
108. When a positively charged rod is brought near a neutral plastic ball, which of
the following occurs?
a) Protons on the ball are repelled by the rod and move to the far side of the ball.
Electrons in the ball are repelled by the rod and move to the far side of the ball
b) Electrons in the ball are repelled by the rod and move to the far side of the ball.
Protons on the ball are attracted to the rod and move to the near side of the ball
c) Protons on the ball are attracted to the rod and move to the near side of the ball.
Electrons in the ball are attracted by the rod and move to the far side of the ball
d) Electrons in the ball are attracted to the rod and move to the near side of the
ball. Protons on the ball are repelled by the rod and move to the far side of the ball.
109. What is the MINIMUM requirement for a servicing and maintenance check for a
portable fire extinguisher by an employer?
Ref: NFPA 10
A. Every 12 months
B. Every 24 months
C. Every 18 months
D. Every month
110. What is an effective technique for safety and health training since it often
illustrates the tragic consequences.
a. Powerpoint
b. Training Objectives
c. Case Studies
d. Follow up evaluations
111. In developing site-specific safety training for workers, what factors must be
considered first?
a. Trainer credentials, length of experience, and environment for learning
b. Budget, time availability, and trainer availability
c. Age of trainees, trade specialties, and gender
d. Learning objective, methods, and trainee characteristics
112. A four-step instruction protocol is effective in delivering important lessons to
your workers. The four steps are:
a. Provide manufacturers’ instruction sheet(s), provide a computer based
competency module, administer an examination, and rank workers based on their
examination score.
b. Schedule training, deliver the information in person, conduct a written
examination of 20 questions, and assign tasks to those who achieve an 80% or
greater score.
c. Prepare the worker for instruction, present the operation, have the worker
perform the operation, and follow-up with the worker to confirm understanding and
answer questions.
d. Describe the job, provide a written list of the rules to be followed, identify
disciplinary actions if the rules are not followed, and communicate the expected
levels of productivity.
113. The fire pentagon explains the explosion of ____________.
a. Tires
b. Bleve
c. Gasoline
d. Corn starch
114. OSHA requires _____________ air changes an hour in a flammable liquid storage
room. Ref 1910.106
a. 2
b. 5
c. 6
d. 12
115. Which color in the NFPA diamond represents fire.
a. Blue
b. Yellow
c. Red.
d. White
116. A client asks you to certify that a scaffold erection process cannot be done with
100% fall protection. You only know the basics of scaffold safety. As a Certified
Safety Professional, you should:
A) Certify the process based on your basic knowledge of scaffold safety.
B) Refer the client to an expert or seek additional guidance to ensure proper
certification.
C) Decline to certify and advise the client to proceed without certification.
D) Conduct the certification only after consulting OSHA regulations and making the
necessary adjustments on-site.
117. As a Certified Safety Professional, which action best aligns with the principle of
seeking opportunities to be of constructive service in civic affairs and advancing the
safety, health, and well-being of your community and profession?
A) Volunteering to lead a safety workshop for a local community group.
B) Limiting your expertise to workplace safety issues and avoiding community
involvement.
C) Prioritizing individual career advancement over community service efforts.
D) Focusing solely on meeting compliance standards without contributing to
professional growth initiatives.
118. A Certified Safety Professional is approached by a client who wants them to
approve a safety procedure that does not comply with OSHA regulations, claiming
the deviation is minor and will save the company significant costs. What is the most
ethical course of action for the safety professional?
A) Approve the procedure to maintain a good relationship with the client and secure
future contracts.
B) Refuse to approve the procedure, document the non-compliance, and advise the
client on corrective actions to meet OSHA standards.
C) Ignore the issue, as it is the client's responsibility to ensure compliance, not the
safety professional's.
D) Approve the procedure temporarily, with the intention of addressing the non-
compliance at a later date.
119. The lower flammable limit of a flammable gas or vapor is the:
a. Lowest concentration of the gas or vapor in air, expressed as a percentage, that
can be ignited
b. Highest concentration of the gas or vapor in air, expressed as a percentage, that
can be ignited
c. Amount, in grams or kilograms, that can be ignited
d. Amount that is equivalent to the limiting oxygen percentage that can be ignited
120. OSHA requires _____________ air changes an hour in a flammable liquid storage
room. Ref 1910.106
a. 2
b. 5
c. 6
d. 12
121. Which of the following is considered to be the most important source of fire
standards in the industry today?
A. National Fire Protection Association
B. International Agency for Firefighters
C. Factory Mutual
D. Underwriters Laboratory
123. What is the primary purpose of a task matrix in a needs assessment for safety
training?
a) To identify all equipment used in the workplace.
b) To evaluate employee performance during safety drills.
c) To map job tasks, associated hazards, and required training.
d) To track employee attendance during safety training sessions.
124. You are conducting a needs assessment at a manufacturing plant. Employees
frequently use forklifts to move heavy materials. Recent reports indicate near-miss
incidents involving improper forklift operation.
Which step should you take when developing the task matrix?
a) Document each forklift operator's training history without considering task
specifics.
b) Identify the tasks associated with forklift operation, assess hazards, and
determine training gaps.
c) Focus only on employees who reported the near misses and train them.
d) Create general safety training for all employees without focusing on forklift
operation.
125. Scenario: A chemical processing plant is introducing a new hazardous material
into production. Several workers have expressed concerns about potential exposure
risks.
What should the task matrix include to address this concern?
a) The new task involving the hazardous material, the specific exposure risks, and
the training needed to handle it safely.
b) A general statement about safety with roles and responsibilities
c) A list of all employees, job descriptions, and training history.
d) The inventory of all hazardous materials in the facility.
126. Which pesticide was banned by EPA in 1972.
a. DDT
b. Roundup
c. Chlorox
d. Cyanide
127. Which of the following best describes a "threshold quantity" under the EPA's
emergency planning regulations (EPCRA Section 302)?
a) The minimum quantity of any chemical that can be stored without reporting.
b) The quantity of an extremely hazardous substance (EHS) that triggers mandatory
reporting and emergency planning.
c) The maximum amount of any chemical allowed to be released without
consequences.
d) The quantity of hazardous chemicals a company must dispose of in a year to
avoid EPA oversight.
128. Under the CAA (Clean Air Act), the EPA has established six criteria for
pollutants. They are Lead, Carbon Monoxide, Sulfur Dioxide, Nitrogen Oxides, Ozone
and?
A. Chromium
B. Asbestos
C. VOC
D. Particulate Matter
129. In a warehouse, the floor plan is rectangular with a length of 50 feet and a
width of 30 feet. What is the area of the floor?
a) 150 square feet
b) 500 square feet
c) 1,500 square feet
d) 5,000 square feet
130. An emergency assembly point is designated with an area of 250 square feet.
Each worker requires a minimum of 15 square feet of space. How many workers can
safely assemble in this area?
A. 15 workers
B. 16 workers
C. 17 workers
D. 18 workers
131. A worker is using a fall protection system on a construction site. The worker’s
D-ring is measured 5 feet from the floor, and they are tied off at an anchor point
that is 18 feet above ground level. The lanyard is 6 feet long, and the system allows
for a shock absorber stretch of 3 feet. A clearance buffer of 2 feet is required
between the worker and the ground. What is the total free fall distance?
A. 2 feet
B. 11 feet
C. 12 feet
D. 16 feet
132. Which health control for manganese overexposure would be the MOST
desirable for a welder arc welding metal ??
A. Substitution of less toxic materials
B. Wear a N95 filtering face piece
C. Job rotation
D. General dilution ventilation
133. Effective exhaust ventilation:
a. Draws contaminated air away from workers’ breathing zones
b. Provides workers with uncontaminated air from an oil-less air compressor
c. Pushes uncontaminated air away from workers
d. Re-circulates filtered air throughout the work area
134. Which is a good choice for substitution?
a. Substitution of welding rod with chromium for those with that have copper.
b. Substitution of paint that contains toluene for benzene
c. Substitution of adhesive containing formaldehyde for one containing Isopropyl
alcohol.
d. Substitution of cleaner containing methylene chloride for one that has ethanol.
135. Which method is the engineering control demonstrated on a flat roof.
a. Workers are given anti slip footwear.
b. Workers wear fall arrest harness
c. Safety monitor system
d. Guardrails used on the roof edge.
136. Engineering fire controls for a warehouse include.
a. Housekeeping
b. Proving the use of flame retardant clothing.
c. Sprinkler System
d. Fire Extinguisher Training
137. With few exceptions, OSHA requires that PPE used to comply with OSHA
standards be paid for by the:
a. Union
b. Worker
c. Employer
d. Government
138. Why Is PPE Typically Considered the Last Resort For Controlling Hazards?
A. Workers do not fit in many PPE. Front-line workers are involved in the PPE
selection process.
B. PPE needs to be constantly replaced.
C. PPE doesn’t eliminate hazards, and sometimes introduces them.
D. Workers do not want to wear it because it’s uncomfortable.
139. Which is generally the best location for the air intake of a large office building?
A. Halfway up the building, near the street.
B. On the ground level, in the inner courtyard.
C. On the ground level, next to the loading dock.
D. On the rooftop, near the building’s center.
140. Within the hierarchy of controls, administrative controls are considered to be
which of the following?
a. More proactive than elimination
b. Less proactive than substitution
c. More proactive than engineering controls
d. Less proactive than supply of PPE
141. The first action in the hierarchy of control is;
a. Elimination
b. Training
c. Programs,
d. Audits
142. Which is BEST control for workers climbing a 30 foot fixed ladders to the roof to
physically inspect skylights condition.
a. Use trained climbers to access the ladder.
b. Provide ladder fall arrest system when climbing the ladder.
c. Provide stairs instead of ladders to access the roof
d. Reduce the task to once a year.
143. A 100,000 pound forge is used to hammer hot metal into a steel ring. Which
the best protection for the 120 dba noise?
a. Use 30 dba hearing protection
b. Rotate workers every 2 hours
c. Enclose the area with sound dampening material with the operator outside the
enclosure.
d. Have the worker stand 10 feet away.
144. Moving the hot works brazing operation from a combustible dust food
environment to a safer cleaner non-ignitable environment would be an example of
utilizing:
a) Elimination
b) Substitution
c) Engineering controls
d) Administrative controls
145. Written workplace policies and procedures (like LOTO, confined space, etc..)
would be considered an example of:
a) Administrative controls
b) Engineering controls
c) Elimination
d) Personal protective equipment
146. The section in the Hierarchy of Controls which affords workers the greatest
level of protection is:
a) Engineering controls
b) Administrative controls
c) Personal protective equipment
d) Elimination
Correct Answer: d) Elimination
147. Which of the following is an example of an engineering control?
a) Training employees on safety procedures.
b) Providing safety goggles to workers.
c) Installing machine guards.
d) Conducting regular safety inspections.
148. Which control measure focuses on changing work practices and procedures?
a) Elimination.
b) Substitution.
c) Administrative controls.
d) Personal protective equipment (PPE).
149. According to the generally accepted hierarchy of controls, personal protective
equipment (PPE) is typically considered as the last resort for controlling hazards.
However, under which circumstances might it be justified to prioritize PPE as the
FIRST control to be used?
a. Budget limitations
b. Schedule requirements
c. Convenience and comfort of the worker
d. Severity and duration of risk exposure
150. Scenario: Noise in a Manufacturing Plant
A manufacturing plant has several loud machines operating in close proximity to
workers, leading to noise levels exceeding the permissible exposure limit. Which of
the following control measures would be MOST effective in reducing the risk of
noise-induced hearing loss, according to the hierarchy of controls?
a) Provide hearing protection (earplugs or earmuffs) to all workers in the area.
b) Implement a noise monitoring program to track worker exposure levels.
c) Redesign the workspace to increase the distance between workers and the noisy
machines.
d) Replace the noisy machines with quieter models.
151. Scenario 2: Chemical Spills in a Laboratory
A laboratory works with hazardous chemicals that pose a risk of spills and splashes.
Which of the following would be the LEAST desirable control measure to prevent
worker exposure to these chemicals?
a) Implement a strict housekeeping program to ensure spills are cleaned up
immediately.
b) Provide workers with appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE), such as
gloves and eye protection.
c) Redesign the work process to minimize the handling and transfer of hazardous
chemicals.
d) Substitute the hazardous chemicals with less hazardous alternatives whenever
possible.
152. Scenario 3: Working at Heights on a Construction Site
Workers on a construction site need to access elevated areas to perform tasks.
Which of the following control measures would be the MOST effective in preventing
falls from heights?
a) Provide workers with safety harnesses and lanyards.
b) Install guardrails and safety nets around the elevated areas.
c) Develop a fall protection training program for all workers.
d) Eliminate the need for workers to access the elevated areas by using alternative
methods (e.g., drones for inspections).
153. Which of the following best represents the most preferred method in the
hierarchy of controls for eliminating hazards?
A) Personal protective equipment
B) Substitution of less hazardous materials
C) Engineering controls
D) Elimination of the hazard
154. Using two people to lift a pipe weighing 80 pounds is an example of:
a. Engineering Control
b. Administrative control
c. Substitution
d. Elimination
155. What is the purpose of the hierarchy of controls?
a) To prioritize control measures based on their effectiveness in reducing or
eliminating hazards
b) To comply with government regulations
c) To minimize the use of personal protective equipment
d) To save costs by implementing the cheapest controls first
156. What is the correct order of the ANSI Z10 Hierarchy of Control, from most
effective to least effective?
A) Elimination, Substitution, Engineering Controls, Warning Administrative Controls,
PPE
B) PPE, Administrative Controls, Warning, Engineering Controls, Substitution,
Elimination
C) Engineering Controls, Administrative Controls, PPE, Warning Substitution,
Elimination
D) Administrative Controls, PPE, Engineering Controls, Warning, Substitution,
Elimination
157. As a safety professional at a fitness equipment manufacturer, you see that
there are four back injuries this year from lifting a box of exercise equipment from a
conveyor to a pallet. The conveyor is 36 inches high. The pallet is four inches high.
The pallet is 36 inches away from the conveyor. The box weighs 110 pounds. What
is the BEST solution to this problem.
a. Rotate the lifting task, so the worker only lift the product two hours a day.
b. Lower the conveyor to 28 inches and ensure two workers lift the boxes.
c. Provide the worker with safe lifting training and implement a stretching program.
d. Provide a vacuum lift-assist device to lift the box to the pallet.
158. Effective exhaust ventilation:
a. Draws contaminated air away from workers’ breathing zones
b. Provides workers with uncontaminated air from an oil-less air compressor
c. Pushes uncontaminated air away from workers
d. Re-circulates filtered air throughout the work area
159. Within the hierarchy of controls, administrative controls are considered to be
which of the following?
a. More proactive than elimination
b. Less proactive than substitution
c. More proactive than engineering controls
d. Less proactive than supply of PPE
160. A manufacturing plant has several loud machines operating in close proximity
to workers, leading to noise levels exceeding the permissible exposure limit. Which
of the following control measures would be MOST effective in reducing the risk of
noise-induced hearing loss, according to the hierarchy of controls?
a) Provide hearing protection (earplugs or earmuffs) to all workers in the area.
b) Implement a noise monitoring program to track worker exposure levels.
c) Redesign the workspace to increase the distance between workers and the noisy
machines.
d) Replace the noisy machines with quieter models.
161. Fall Arrest Systems shall be rigged such that an employee can neither free fall
more than __________ feet, nor contact any lower level. Ref: 1926.502 d
a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 10
162. When stopping a fall, a personal fall arrest system shall bring an employee to a
complete stop and limit the maximum deceleration distance to _______ feet.
1926.502(d)
a. 3.5
b. 6
c. 6.5
d. 10
163. In the photo below , what is the free fall distance?
a. 5 feet
b. 6 feet
c. 10 feet
d. 11 feet

164. What is one of the functions of the EPA?

a. Manage the Endangered Species Act
b. Teach People about the environment
c. Regular Nuclear Waste
d. Enforce Safety and Health for workers at the job site.
165. Which of the following is NOT regulated under the Clean Air Act?
a) Emissions from power plants
b) Outdoor air pollutants
c) Vehicle emissions
d) Noise pollution
166. EPA’s TCSA act
a. Contains all EPA allowable limits for chemicals
b. Contains all toxicological research studies for chemicals.
c. Contains a list of all existing chemical substances manufactured, processed, or
imported in the United States
d. Contains the standard format of Safety Data Sheets.
167. Ionizing radiation occurs as a result of particles or electromagnetic waves
having enough energy to detach what from atoms or molecules?
a. Protons
b. Neutrons
c. Neutrinos
d. Electrons
168. What are the three types of particle radiation?
a. Alpha beta delta
b. X-ray ionizing and nonionizing
c. Alpha beta neutron
d. Ionizing, non ionizing, ultraviolet
169. A certain radioactive substance has a half-life of 20 years. If you start with 100
grams of this substance, how much of it will remain after 60 years?
A) 100 grams
B) 50 grams
C) 12.5 grams
D) 6.25 grams
170. If the intensity of a radiation source at 1ft is 300 mR/hr. What would the
intensity be at 6ft?
A. 8.3 mR/hr
B. 10 mR/hr
C. 15 mR/hr
D. 17.3 mR/hr
171. Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) Distribution
A construction site has 120 workers and needs to distribute safety helmets. If each
box contains 24 helmets, how many boxes of helmets are needed to ensure every
worker receives one?
a) 6
b) 5
c) 4
d) 7
172. What is the primary principle behind Pareto Analysis?
A) 80% of problems are caused by 20% of causes.
B) 20% of workers contribute to 80% of results.
C) 50% of problems are caused by 50% of causes.
D) 100% of results come from 100% of efforts.
173. Fall Protection Clearance Calculation
A worker is using a 6-foot lanyard with a deceleration device while working at a
height of 18 feet. The d-ring is the same height as the anchorage point. The
deceleration distance is 3.5 feet, and the worker's height is 6 feet. The safety factor
is 2 feet.
What is the minimum fall clearance required to prevent the worker from striking the
lower level?
A) 6.5 feet
B) 12.5 feet
C) 17.5 feet
D) 24.5 feet
174. Oxygen enriched atmosphere" means an atmosphere containing more than
___________ percent oxygen by volume.
A. 1
B. 10
C. 19.5
D. 23.5
175. Three requirements of a Permit-Required Confined Space are
that the space must have limited access and egress, be large
enough to enter, and not be designed for human habitancy.
Which is an additional requirement?
A. Have correct signage.
B. Remain locked at all times.
C. Exhibit a hazard.
D. Nothing else is required.
176. Which is True about Confined space training? 1910.146(g)
a. The trainees must be given a test to verify understanding of the training.
b. The training certification shall contain each employee's name, trainers’ names,
location of training, training matrix, and the dates and time of training.
c. Training must be conducted annually.
d. Rescue personnel, attendant, entrant, and entry supervisor must be all trained
before the employee is assigned these duties.
177. Which type of ionizing radiation has the greatest mass?
A.
alpha particle
B.
beta particle
C.
photon
D.
Neutron
178. A mutagen
a. Comes in the form of nonionizing radiation
b. Causes birth defects
c. Is a substance or agent which causes a change to cell DNA
d. Is regulated under the National Toxicology Program
179. Laboratories analysis for bloodborne pathogens such as HBV and HIV should be
at what biosafety level?
a. Biosafety level-2
b. Biosafety level-4
c. Biosafety level-1
d. Biosafety level-3
180. If a radioactive substance has a half-life of 2 years, how much of the original
substance would remain undecayed after 6 years?
a) 1/2
b) 1/4
c) 1/8
d) 1/16
181. Which type of radiation produces the most damage in a person when it
interacts directly with living tissue?
Choose One
1. Alpha
2. Beta
3. Gamma
4. It depends on the energy level.
182. What is the primary purpose of wearing a dosimeter when working with
radiation?
a) To measure the total amount of radiation exposure received.
b) To prevent radiation from entering the body.
c) To shield the body from alpha particles.
d) To decontaminate the body after radiation exposure.
183. Which action most effectively minimizes radiation exposure?
a) Wearing a lead apron
b) Maximizing the distance from the radiation source
c) Minimizing the time spent near the radiation source
d) Taking iodine supplements before radiation exposure
184. What is the meaning of ALARA in radiation safety protocols?
a) As Low As Reasonably Achievable
b) Always Limit And Reduce Absorption
c) Annual Level And Radiation Assessment
d) Active Learning And Radiation Awareness
185. What is the primary cause of groundwater contamination?
A) Air pollution
B) Surface water clean-up
C) Leaching of contaminants from the soil
D) Filtering through activated carbon
186. What is a common indicator of groundwater contamination?**
A) Decrease in air quality
B) Increased clarity in water
C) Change in water taste, odor, or color
D) Rise in local land temperatures
187. Which method is commonly used to remediate contaminated groundwater?
A) Pump and treatment.
B) Photodegradation
C) Thermal desorption
D) Composting
188. While reviewing a subcontractor’s safety program, you find that it only partially
addresses fall protection requirements. The subcontractor argues it is sufficient
based on past performance. What should you do?
A. Approve the program because the subcontractor has a good safety record.
B. Require the program to be revised to fully align with OSHA standards before
approving it.
C. Modify the program yourself to meet the requirements and then approve it.
D. Allow the program as is and monitor performance during the project.
189. A manufacturing plant employee reports a near-miss incident involving a
forklift. The employee asks you to keep it confidential because they fear retaliation.
What should you do?
A. Keep the incident confidential and take no further action.
B. Investigate the incident while protecting the employee's identity and ensure
corrective actions are taken.
C. Inform the entire workforce about the incident to raise awareness without
considering confidentiality.
D. Ignore the report since no actual harm occurred.
190. What are subrogation rights in the context of insurance?
A) The rights of the insured to file a claim
B) The rights of the insurance regulator to oversee the industry
C) The rights of the insurance agent to represent the insured
D) The rights of the insurance company to recover its costs from responsible third
party
191. What is one of the functions of the EPA?
a. Manage the Endangered Species Act
b. Teach People about the environment
c. Regular Nuclear Waste
d. Enforce Safety and Health for workers at the jobsite.
192. The Clean Air act establishes _____________ air quality standards.
a. Universal
b. Industry
c. National
d. International
193. Federal Water Pollution Control Act (FWPCA), in order to "enhance the quality
and value of our water resources and to establish a national policy for the
prevention, control and abatement of water _________.
a. standards
b. integration
c. quality
d. pollution
194. Which pesticide was banned by EPA in 1972.
a. DDT
b. Roundup
c. Chlorox
d. Cyanide
195. EPA required what metal to be removed from gasoline from 1973-1995?
a. Lead
b. Uranium
c. Cobalt
d. Sodium
196. Toxic Substances Control Act gives EPA specific authority to move against
chemical hazards such as PCBs and ________________.
a. Food additives
b. Asbestos
c. Prescription drugs
d. Pesticides
197. ____________ ranked the worst sites on the potential threat to public health and
the environment.
a. CRLA
b. RCRA
c. TCSA
d. Superfund
198. What is the primary concern of lead in the environment?
a. Soil fertility
b. Air freshness
c. Water pollution
d. Noise pollution
199. November 30, 1993 EPA announced a final rule to fully phase out domestic
production and imports of_____________ and six other substances that deplete the
stratospheric ozone layer.
a. Chlorofluorocarbons
b. Lead
c. Asbestos
d. Silica
200. Clean Air Mercury Rule of 2005 was specifically targeted at regulating and
reducing mercury emissions in what industry?
a. Trucking.
b. Refineries.
c. Coal Power plants
d. Nuclear plants
201. Which of the following is NOT regulated under the Clean Air Act?
a) Emissions from power plants
b) Outdoor air pollutants
c) Vehicle emissions
d) Noise pollution
202. How often is Spill Control, and Counter measure plans training conducted for
existing employees.
a. Daily
b. Weekly
c. Monthly
d. Annually
203. The Community Right to know is under EPA ______________
a. SARA Title III
b. TSCA
c. CERCLA
d. RCRA
204. Which of the following best describes a "threshold quantity" under the EPA's
emergency planning regulations (EPCRA Section 302)?
a) The minimum quantity of any chemical that can be stored without reporting.
b) The quantity of an extremely hazardous substance (EHS) that triggers mandatory
reporting and emergency planning.
c) The maximum amount of any chemical allowed to be released without
consequences.
d) The quantity of hazardous chemicals a company must dispose of in a year to
avoid EPA oversight.
Explanation: Under EPCRA Section 302, facilities must notify authorities if they have
an extremely hazardous substance (EHS) at or above its threshold planning quantity
(TPQ). This triggers emergency planning requirements.
This is based on the requirement that facilities storing or using extremely hazardous
substances (EHS) above a specified threshold must comply with reporting and
emergency planning regulations.
Oct 14 2024
205. In 1984, a chemical release in Bhopal ___________ killed thousands of people.
a. Ohio
b. Russia
c. India
d. China
Nov 15 2023
206. The toxic Substances Control Act TSCA addresses the production, importation,
use, and disposal of specific chemicals including polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs),
________________ , radon, and lead-based paint.
a. Silica
b. Mercury
c. Uranium
d. Asbestos
207. The Resource and Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) was the law to
control hazardous waste from ______________.
a. Cradle to Grave
b. Communities to landfills
c. Mining to burning
d. Water Reclamation to disposal.
208. The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
(CERCLA) is also known as ___________.
a. Clean Air Act
b. Hazwoper
c. Superfund
d. Community Emergency Response
209. Your facility is a Large Quantity Generator(LQG) of hazardous waste.
Employees involved in the management of your hazardous waste complete annual
refresher training as required by Resource Conservation & Recovery Act (RCRA).
How much training must be completed each year to comply with RCRA’s training
requirements?
A. One Hour
B. Eight Hours
C. 24 Hours
D. No Minimum exists
210. Greater Bulk Cartage has three 1,000 gallon above-ground storage tanks
(AST). Two have about 500 gallons of diesel each. The other is nearly empty,
containing only a few gallons of gasoline.
In a recent inspection of their fuel storage, the inspector cited them for not having
an SPCC plan. The EHS manager complained, stating that they never have more
than 1000 gallons of diesel at any time, and the gasoline tank is no longer in use.
Did the citation stand?
A. Yes, because the inspector has a lot of leeway when interpreting the rules.
B. Yes, because the requirement for an SPCC plan is based on capacity.
C. No, because the amount on hand at any one time is less than 1,320 gallons.
D. No, because fuel is exempt from the rule.
211. ________________ was the first major environmental law in the United States
and is often called the "Magna Carta" of Federal environmental laws. It requires
Federal agencies to assess the environmental effects of proposed major Federal
actions prior to making decisions.
a. FEPA
b. NEPA
c. AEPA
d. DEPA
212. EPA uses these principles for environmental sustainability.
a. Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
b. Sort, Use, Recycle
c. Plan, Do, Act
d. Recover, Redo, Remediate
213. EPA’s TCSA act
a. Contains all EPA allowable limits for chemicals
b. Contains all toxicological research studies for chemicals.
c. Contains a list of all existing chemical substances manufactured, processed, or
imported in the United States
d. Contains the standard format of Safety Data Sheets.
214. Under the CAA (Clean Air Act), the EPA has established six criteria for
pollutants. They are Lead, Carbon Monoxide, Sulfur Dioxide, Nitrogen Oxides, Ozone
and?
A. Chromium
B. Asbestos
C. VOC
D. Particulate Matter
215. What is one of the key objectives of RCRA?
A) Regulating drinking water quality
B) Managing radioactive waste
C) Encouraging resource conservation and proper waste management
D) Prevention of the improper disposal of medical waste.
216. Your company makes reinforced plastic fuel tanks. You install the fuel tanks at
gas stations. Which of the following regulatory agencies would be concerned with
your operation?
a. CERCLA and RCRA
b. OSHA and EPA
c. HAZWOPER and OPS
d. DOT and NTSB
217. The most common source of wildfires is cause by which type of lightning.
a. Dry Lightning
b. Cloud Flashes
c. Ball Lightning
218. Wastewater is treated in three phases, they are?
a. Filtration, Digestion, Absorption
b. Anaerobic Recycling, Anoxic treatment, Sludge drying
c. Clarification, Effluent treatment, Anaerobic Digestion
d. Solid removal, bacterial decomposition, and extra filtration.
219. Hazard mitigation plans can address a range of natural and human-caused
hazards. They typically include four key elements: 1) capability assessment, 2)
mitigation strategy, and 3) plan maintenance procedures and ?
a. Company Development plan.
b. Risk assessment
c. Emergency Assistance plan.
d. Continuity of Operation Plan.
220. A worker has to disposed of four different chemicals at a hazardous waste site.
Waste water, lithium metal, Toulene and halogenated hydrocarbons. What is the
greatest concern for waste site worker segregating these streams in the 55 gallon
drums?
A. Mixing lithium and water
B. Mixing lithium metal and toulene
C. Mixing acetone and non potable water
D. Mixing the hydrocarbons and toluene
221. What type of material is considered hazardous waste.
a. All waste streams are not regulated and will not be recycled
b. Waste it is toxic, corrosive, or infectious to people environment
c. All Waste material that can be repurposed for use in other industries
d. All waste streams that are not regulated and are recycled
222. What is the primary purpose of the REACH regulation?
A) To reduce the administrative burden on chemical manufacturers
B) To ensure a high level of protection of human health and the environment from
the risks posed by chemicals
C) To increase the import of chemicals into the EU
D) To deregulate chemical production within the European Union
223. Your company is considering various alternatives to remediation some
contaminated soil on the property. One of the options that the environmental
consultant has suggested is to install a cap over the property. Which of the following
is a limitation associated with the use of a cap as a remediation method?
A. The cap will increase water infiltration and speed up the rate of subsurface plume
movement
B. A cap does not actually remove the contamination but helps to minimize
migration
C. A cap allows the property to be aesthetically pleasing
D. Using a cap can allow the property to be used for some useful purpose (parks,
parking lot, etc.) while minimizing the risk of exposure
224) Which of the following is an example of environmental protection legislation?
A) The Consumer Product Safety Act
B) The Clean Water Act
C) The Occupational Safety and Health Act
D) The Americans with Disabilities Act
225) What is the main purpose of environmental impact assessments?
A) To determine the impact of a proposed project on the environment
B) To evaluate the economic benefits of a proposed project
C) To assess the impact of a proposed project on human health
D) To determine the impact of a proposed project on the local community
226. What does the "whole man theory" relate to in the context of workers'
compensation?
A. The calculation of retirement benefits
B. The assessment of an employee's overall health
C. The determination of compensation based on the impact of an injury on a
worker’s overall capabilities
D. The legal responsibility of employers to maintain workplace safety
227. Running other software on idle computer without the knowledge of the
organization is called theft of ____
(A) Software
(B) Computer
(C) Computer time
(D) Use
228. What is an example of cyberbullying?
A. Telling a consultant that you will underbid them in the next contract.
B. Creating an embarrassing picture of your coworker and forwarding it to your
friend's email addresses
C. Telling a forklift driver to wear a seat belt and the first is a verbal warning.
D. Accepting a gift card for not writing up some issues on a safety audit.
229. Which is an example of plagiarism?
A. Reading a paragraph online and retyping it in your own words.
B. Copying and pasting someone else's work into your paper using quotation marks
and citing the author
C. Typing a paper in your own words
D. Copying and pasting a sentence from the Internet into your paper.
230. Which is an example personally identifiable information (PII)?
a. Race of the person.
b. Credit Card Number
c. City of Residence.
d. Marital status
231. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a legal framework that sets
guidelines for the collection and processing of personal information from:
a. Corporations
b. Subcontractors
c. Lawyers
d. Individuals
232. In disability terminology, what is a stigmatizing term which places an individual
in a passive role as an object of pity?
a. Injured
b. Claimant
c. Victim
d. Plaintiff
233. An example of constructive discharge would be:
a. Sally was terminated through a progressive discipline policy for non-performance
of her assigned duties.
b. Henry was terminated for not wearing the required PPE on a construction
worksite.
c. James resigned because he was not promoted.
d. Shirley resigned because she was given a salary reduction and reduced benefits,
more work, and unattainable deadlines. She was not given a reason.
234. What are subrogation rights in the context of insurance?
A) The rights of the insured to file a claim
B) The rights of the insurance regulator to oversee the industry
C) The rights of the insurance agent to represent the insured
D) The rights of the insurance company to recover its costs from responsible third
parties
235. A manager might be accused of quid pro quo sexual harassment if that
manager did which of the following?
a. Told an employee that she would receive a raise if she went on a date with him
b. Made advances during a work dinner
c. Sent offensive pictures to the women on his team
d. Verbally harassed a new employee without any past issues
236. The safety program book is a legal document that does what?
A. Describes how businesses should deal with an accident
B. Records of how an establishment is protecting (or plans to protect) employees
overall for a safety or health hazard
C. Records the details of an accident in the workplace
D. Lists the first aid requirements of the workplace
237. The legal responsibilities of an employer with regards to health and safety
include what?
a. Charging employees for replacing damaged or lost PPE
b. Taking out additional insurances for dangerous work
c. Providing safe place of work for all employees
d. Ensuring that only one member of staff works on a dangerous job
238. What is the appropriate response when you suspect an employee's complaint
is intended to cause trouble for another employee?
a. Consider the information bona fide until you have the results of the company
investigation.
b. Assume the information of the complaint is not correct.
c. Discipline the employee who has filed the complaint.
d. Do not accept the complaint and share the information with other employers.
239. Four liability theories can render a defendant liable for Injuries they may have
caused. These are intent, recklessness, negligence, and ______________ .
A. Criminal behavior
B. Ignorance
C. Strict liability
D. Poor management
240. Which example would reflect discrimination or bias?
a. A safety professional terminating a minority status employee for repeated and
deliberate life-endangering behavior.
b. A safety professional endorsing a program for diversity inclusion.
c. A safety professional mandating special additional training for employees with
developmental learning disabilities.
d. A safety professional ensuring training accessibility for all employees in the
English language only.
241. In disability terminology, what is a stigmatizing term which places an individual
in a passive role as an object of pity.
a. Injured
b. Claimant
c. Victim
d. Plaintiff
242. A manager might be accused of quid pro quo sexual harassment if that
manager did which of the following?
a. Told an employee that she would receive a raise if she went on a date with him
b. Made advancements during a work dinner
c. Sent offensive pictures to the women on his team
d. Verbally harassed a new employee without any past issues
243. The safety program book is a legal document that does what?
A. Describes how businesses should deal with an accident
B. Records of how an establishment is protecting (or plans to protect) employees
overall for a safety or health hazard
C. Records the details of an accident in the workplace
D. Lists the first aid requirements of the workplace
244. The legal responsibilities of an employer with regards to health and safety
include what?
a. Charging employees for replacing damaged or lost PPE
b. Taking out additional insurances for dangerous work
c. Providing safe place of work for all employees
d. Ensuring that only one member of staff works on a dangerous job
245. A construction manager asks you, a Certified Safety Professional, to bypass an
OSHA-required safety guard on a piece of machinery to expedite project completion.
What should you do?
A. Remove the guard temporarily and replace it after the task is complete.
B. Refuse the request and explain the legal and safety risks associated with
noncompliance.
C. Report the manager's request to OSHA immediately without further discussion.
D. Document the situation but proceed with the manager's request to maintain
good working relationships.
246. What are subrogation rights in the context of insurance?
A) The rights of the insured to file a claim
B) The rights of the insurance regulator to oversee the industry
C) The rights of the insurance agent to represent the insured
D) The rights of the insurance company to recover its costs from responsible third
parties
247. What is an appropriate way for safety professionals to advance their profession
within the community?
a. Refrain from discussing safety outside of professional circles.
b. Participate in local government meetings to advocate for safety regulations.
c. Only offer safety advice when compensated for their expertise.
d. Focus exclusively on global issues rather than local community concerns.
248. In what way should safety professionals share their knowledge and skills to
improve civic affairs?
a. By writing articles or blogs that address local safety concerns.
b. By using technical jargon to maintain a professional image.
c. By only sharing knowledge during paid consultancy hours.
d. By endorsing specific safety equipment for personal gain.
250. Which term refers to the process of identifying problems and their solutions by
organizing information into either established or newly invented concepts?
a. Analytical thinking
b. Conceptual seeking
c. Achievement seeking
d. Conceptual thinking
251. What is the primary purpose of workers' compensation?
A. To punish employers for workplace accidents
B. To provide financial support to workers injured on the job without the need for
litigation
C. To cover all medical expenses for life for any worker
D. To provide a retirement fund for all workers
Explanation: Workers' compensation is a no-fault system designed to provide
medical benefits and wage replacement to employees injured on the job, regardless
of who was at fault. The correct answer is B
252. What is considered shouting over the Internet?
A. Screaming at your computer in the office.
B. Writing in all CAPS.
C. Putting a lot of exclamation marks at the end of a sentence.
D. Not answering a friend request on Facebook.
253. Which strategy is commonly recognized for multinational companies to handle
the diversity of statutory laws across different countries?
a. Lobby to change the laws in each country to make them uniform.
b. Align all operations with the least restrictive country law.
c. Conform all operations to the strictest laws of the country where the corporate
office is based.
d. Ensure compliance with the laws of each country where branches are located.
254. What is the appropriate response when you suspect an employee's complaint
is intended to cause trouble for another employee?
a. Consider the information bona fide until you have the results of the company
investigation.
b. Assume the information of the complaint is not correct.
c. Discipline the employee who has filed the complaint.
d. Do not accept the complaint and share the information with other employers.
255. Which factors are considered in the Revised NIOSH Lifting Equation to
determine the risk associated with a lifting task?
A) Weight of the lifted object only
B) Lifting duration and frequency only
C) Biomechanical, physiological, and environmental factors
D) Worker's height and age only
256. What is the recommended best practice for injury prevention when handling
materials?
A. Always bend at the knees, not at the waist.
B. Always maintain straight legs and lift with your back.
C. Always bend at the waist, not at the knee.
D. Always bend both at the waist and the knee.
257. What is the primary goal of ergonomics in a workplace?
A) To increase the aesthetic appeal of the office
B) To enhance employee productivity by improving working conditions
C) To promote rapid performance regardless of working conditions
D) To enforce strict compliance with industry standards
258 . The Process Safety Management program
A. Closely parallels EPA’s Risk Management Program
B. Applies to all chemical processes
C. Begins with a Process Hazard Analysis
D. Requires submitting hazard determinations to the state environment board
259. One of the most commonly used Process Hazard Analysis tools in Process
Safety Management is:
A. Hazard and Operability Analysis (HAZOP)
B. Job Hazard Analysis (JHA)
C. Systemic Cause Event Tree (SCET)
D. Energy Flow Analytical Procedure (EFAP)
260. What is the difference between insurance and a bond?
A. There is no real difference.
B. Insurance protects a specific person and project while bonds protect a person,
business, or company.
C. Bonds cost more.
D. A bond protects a contractor who hires someone for a specific project while
insurance protects people or businesses from a covered loss
261. What is the chance of loss or peril? It includes retained (uninsured) losses and
related loss adjustment expenses, risk control costs, and transfer and administrative
costs.
a. Risk
b. Accidents
c. Insurance
d. Business
262. An amputation costs $111,000 in direct and indirect costs. The profit margin is
5%. How much sales is needed to pay for this injury. Needed Sales is Cost/profit
margin.
a. $111,000
b. $555,000
c. $2,200,000
d. $5,550,000
263. The particle in the eye for a worker costs $27,750 in direct and indirect costs.
The profit margin is 5%. How much sales are needed to pay for this injury. Needed
Sales is Cost/profit margin.
a. $111,000
b. $555,000
c. $2,200,000
d. $5,550,000
264) Construction cranes must be inspected: .1412
A. Daily, Weekly, Monthly
B. Every Shift, Monthly, Annually
C. Every Shift, Weekly, Annually
D. Daily, Monthly, Annually
265. The purpose of the load moment indicator is:
a. Is a cab mounted display connected to various types of load sensors that show
the crane operator the weight they are lifting.
b. Prevent swing travel beyond the counterweight.
c. Prevent the load block from hitting the sheave block.
d. Tell the angle of the crane boom to horizontal grade.
266. Who is MOST likely at greater risk if a mobile crane contacts an energized
power line of 7200 volts?
a. The construction worker receiving the suspended load
b. The crane operator sitting in the seat
c. The crane signal person
d. The Safety professional
267. A square pyramid how many number of faces? See photo.
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
268. The angle which is less than 90 degrees is called
a. Acute angle
b. Obtuse angle
c. Right angle
d. Straight angle
269. What is the weight of a cylinder of water that is 5 feet high and 1 feet in
radius? Water weighs 62.4 lbs/cuft
a. 797 lbs
b. 888 lbs
c. 979 lbs
d. 1234 lbs
Volume= π × r² × Height
(3.14)x(1)²x(5)= 15.7
Weight= Volume x water weight
Weight = 15.7 x 62.4= 979.6 lbs
270. What is the Hawthorne Effect?
A) Observation that workers are mainly motivated by personal gain
B) The theory that greatest efficiency is achieved by management based on
scientific analysis of a process
C) The tendency of employees to work harder when they are participants in an
experiment
D) Inherently unsafe working conditions caused by bureaucratic management
271. For what is W. Edwards Deming known?
A) Theory X and Theory Y
B) Total Quality Management
C) Management By Objectives
D) The One Minute Manager
272. What is the Safety Case Approach?
A) An incident investigation technique required in the United Kingdom Health and
Safety Executive.
B) Regulatory system where a company presents it’s case that a facility is safe to
operate.
C) A systematic method of assessing and prioritizing hazards in an industrial facility
D) A contested OSHA inspection which has become a litigation case
273. The Likert scale is often used for
A. Measuring job satisfaction motivators
B. Attitude measurement
C. Post training knowledge exams
D. Participative management
274. Worker buy-in to a safety program is greatly enhanced by
A. Effective implementation of the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle
B. Formal corrective action for rules violations
C. Seeing health and safety as an add-on program
D. Making them aware of their impact on safety
275. Why is it important to manage changes in the workplace effectively?
A. While people may appreciate traditional methods, they aren't necessarily
opposed to trying new ways.
B. Changes to equipment or processes can directly affect workplace safety.
C. Adhering to changes is a requirement under OSHA's lockout and guardrail
standards.
D. Newly introduced machinery might present operational challenges.
276. A disciplinary program works more effectively if
A. Used in a positive manner for reinforcement of safety rules
B. Disciplinary cases are widely publicized within the department
C. It’s a one step process done with immediacy
D. It’s applied stringently
277. Organizational culture greatly affects implementation of a safety program, but
it’s not a cut and dried topic. Each organization has it’s own culture which depends
on many factors. What is one way to measure safety culture improvement?
A. Number of OSHA violations
B. Implementation of OSHA safety and health guidelines
C. Regular safety perception surveys of all workers
D. Implement a formal Pareto Perception Analysis
Apr 8 2024
Explanation: Safety perception surveys can provide valuable insights into the
effectiveness of the safety program and identify areas where the safety culture can
be improved. They measure employee attitudes and beliefs about safety. The
correct answer is C.
278. Disaster recovery planning should include
A) Local emergency management official contact
B) Respirator medical evaluation records
C) Benchmarking against national competitors
D) Disaster competent person certification
279. The RACI Chart
A) Provides workers with information on hazards and risks
B) Shows safety committee staffing
C) Is an excel spreadsheet of the complete safety department budget
D) Clarifies project roles and responsibilities
280) _________________ seeks to reduce the possibility that a loss will occur and
reduce the severity of those that do occur.
a. Financial management
b. Control Management
c. Loss Control
d. Zero sum management
281. ____________________ is the set of methods by which firms evaluate potential
losses and take action to reduce or eliminate such threats.
a. Loss Management
b. Risk Control
c. Loss Control
d. Worker’s Compensation Management
282. ________________________ is the forecasting and evaluation of financial risks
together with the identification of procedures to avoid or minimize their impact
a. Loss Management
b. Severity Control
c. Loss Control
d. Risk Management
283. _____________ is a set of business practices that aims to reduce or eliminate
business costs related to accidents or theft.
a. Loss Management
b. Risk Control
c. Loss Control
d. Risk Management
284. A management of change process for almost any workplace includes
A. Administration of questionnaires to the affected production department
B. Use of the Heinrich Ratio to prevent near misses and accidents
C. RACI chart implementation
D. Preparing the group for change and empowering them in the process
285. In what ways does the safety department contribute to the integration of a
new plastic injection molding machine?
A. The safety department does not play a role as the purchase is covered by the
capital improvement budget.
B. Provide production support during the setup and installation phase.
C. Provide risk assessment and safety training to production and maintenance staff
on safe operation practices for the new equipment.
D. Outline duties and monitor the implementation of the machine using a RACI
(Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed) chart.
286. ___________________ is a common element of disaster recovery and business
continuity phases of disaster contingency planning
A. Worker training for new skills needed
B. Implementation of succession plans
C. Incident Command System
D. Inspections of the site
287. Employee exposure records are required to be retained for?
Ref: 1910.1020
A) 5 years
B) 50 years
C) Duration of employment plus 30 years
D) Forever, no end date due to NIOSH epidemiology requirements
288. Benchmarking is a/an
A. Form of injury/illness measurement used by large corporations
B. Process to develop an annual safety and health budget
C. Process to compare company safety program to industry peers
D. Systematic approach to organizational change
289. A safety group is tasked with agreeing on the severity of a risk assessment and
presenting findings to senior leadership. Leadership requires that anything above a
Marginal rating must have solutions attached. If the group cannot agree on the
severity rating, what should they do?
A) Present the finding undecided
B) Do not make a presentation
C) Make the presentation and revise the rating later
D) Postpone the presentation until consensus is reached
290. What is the primary goal of benchmarking?
A) To analyze competitors’ weaknesses
B) To improve performance by learning from others
C) To reduce operational costs
D) To comply with industry regulations
291. According to OSHA, a competent person is knowledgeable about applicable
standards and can identify workplace hazards relating to the specific operation. In
addition, OSHA expects which of the following from a competent person?
A. Has the budget funds to eliminate the hazard
B. Has the authority to correct hazards immediately
C. Is an officer of the company
D. Can hire, fire, or effectively recommend a competent person
292. What is the PRIMARY objective of a work site safety assessment or audit?
a. Ensure compliance with applicable standards
b. Find employees out of compliance with the rules
c. Make the site better.
d. Ensure management is following the safety protocols.
293. Which is the MOST effective way to convince senior management that the
company will receive value for the money spent on training?
a. Show them course evaluations.
b. Provide examples of other companies that do training.
c. Show them that administrative costs will be kept to a minimum.
d. Use a cost benefit analysis that compares training costs to injury costs.
294. The site safety representative’s role is to:
a. Write up noncompliance with the rules
b. Discipline personnel that violate the company safety policy.
c. Provides technical and safety assistance to workers as needed.
d. Keep up with the latest safety trends and implement them into the site.
295. The communication of hazard control information to management, supervisors,
and workers should include:
a. Information that is clear, specific to the audience and situation, and the expected
outcome
b. A site safety program in concise order with relevant appendices of the company
safety program.
c. Communication via email to all workers, managers and supervisor with tracking
to ensure that all have received it.
d. Tool box talks that must be communicated to all workers, managers and
supervisors every week.
296. Aside from the OSHA 1989 Guidelines, which other consensus standards BEST
establish SHMP approaches?
a. Lean manufacturing, and ISO 14001
b. ISO 9001, and ANSI Z10-2011
c. ISO 45001, ANSI Z10-2022
d. ISO 9001, ANSI Z10-2022, and Lean manufacturing
297. The best suggestion for enhancing an employer’s Safety and Health
Management Programs is:
a. Encouraging employee involvement in JSAs
b. Adding more disciplinary steps for workers not following safety rules
c. Placing more emphasis on the reporting of near-misses
d. Instituting a management team responsible for safety at a company
298. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of a safety and
health management program?
a. Increases value-added work by eliminating waste and reducing incidental work
b. Is an operational strategy oriented toward achieving the shortest possible cycle
time by eliminating waste
c. Provides a framework to ensure occupational health and safety compliance with
OSHA and consensus standards
d. Provides an effective tool for continual improvement of a company’s occupational
health and safety performance
299. A company is investigating an issue on the assembly line and is conducting a
gap analysis. Which of the following analyses should the company conduct to
investigate the issue further?
a. Predictive analysis
b. SMART analysis
c. Fishbone analysis
d. SWOT analysis
300. The Seven R’s of Change Management are Reason, Resources, Who Raised the
Request, Return Required, and Relationship.
a. Recommended Action
b. Risks Involved.
c. Remediation needed.
d. Retention Results.
301. A written Management of Change Program is required by OSHA for:
a. Confined Space
b. Lockout
c. Process Safety Management
d. Emergency Response Program
302. The Three C;s of Change Management by Leaders are:
a. Care, Charge, Climb
b. Choose, Chop, Captivate
c. Communicate, Collaborate, Commit
d. Call out, Challenge, Crush
303. The best method of assessing a workplace’s SHMP is to:
a. Compare employer’s DART with the national average, conduct a benchmarking
exercise, and conduct employee interviews
b. Ask the employer about their safety policy and work rules during the start of the
visit, interview employees, and review workers’ compensation records
c. Review employer’s documents, do a plant inspection, and conduct management
and employee interviews
d. Review the OSHA 300 logs to determine injury and illness trends, conduct a
benchmarking exercise, and employ Safety Pays\
304. Prioritize tasks to be trained
When prioritizing tasks to be trained, which factor should be considered the most?
A. The complexity of the task.
B. The potential impact on safety and compliance.
C. The preferences of the employees.
D. The cost of implementing the training.
305. What is the best approach to address multiple training needs within a limited
timeframe.
A. Focus on tasks that are most frequently performed.
B. Train employees on tasks they already excel in to ensure quick wins.
C. Prioritize tasks with the highest risk or consequence of failure.
D. Delay training until all needs can be addressed simultaneously.
306. Which of the following best describes a critical step in prioritizing training
tasks?
A. Consulting only with upper management to decide training priorities.
B. Assessing the resources available for training implementation.
C. Focusing on tasks with the lowest impact on productivity.
D. Selecting tasks based on employee seniority.
Lockout
307. Working under the raised forks of a powered industrial truck is what type of
energy?
a. Momentum
b. Potential
c. Reciprocating
d. Transverse
308. The energy control procedure must include specific requirements for testing a
machine or equipment to determine and ____ the effectiveness of lockout devices,
tagout devices, and other energy control measures. 1910.147 c 4 ii d
a. Record
b. Label
c. Call out
d. Verify
309. The periodic inspection of authorized employees must be conducted every
_____. 1910.147(C)(6)
a. Year
b. Month
c. Before each shift
d. Week
310. A machine operator who is not allowed to clear a jam or service the machine is
an ______________ employee.
a. Authorized
b. Certified
c. Affected
d. Trained
311. When a tag is attached to an energy isolating means, it is not to be removed
without authorization of the ____________ person responsible for it, and it is never to
be bypassed, ignored, or otherwise defeated.
a. Senior
b. Authorized
c. Controlling
d. Affected
312. Which is the correct order for lockout.
a. Energy isolation, Shutdown machine or equipment, Isolate equipment, Notify
employees
b. Notify employees, Prepare for shutdown, Lockout, Verify Isolation,
c. Application of control, Lockout tagout, Isolate equipment, Shutdown machine or
equipment
d. Lockout, Isolate equipment, Shutdown machine or equipment, Notify employees
313. Lockout and tagout are used for which of the following?
a. To control people's access to certain hazardous chemicals
b. To isolate people who have been in contact with hazardous materials
c. To safely conduct repairs on equipment
d. To eliminate tampering at the location where an incident has occurred
314. What is lockout/tagout (LOTO) used for?
a) Enhancing equipment performance
b) Preventing unauthorized access
c) Securing confidential information
d) Ensuring employee safety
315. When is lockout/tagout required?
a) Only for high-voltage electrical equipment
b) Only for mechanical equipment
c) For any equipment with an energy source
d) Only during scheduled maintenance
316. What is the primary responsibility of managers in ensuring lockout/tagout
(LOTO) compliance?
a) Completing all lockout/tagout procedures themselves
b) Ensuring all machines have visible warning labels
c) Verifying that energy control procedures are documented, implemented, and
reviewed annually
d) Overseeing employee attendance during lockout/tagout training sessions
317. What is the purpose of a lockout/tagout procedure?
a. To prevent the unexpected start-up or energization of machines and equipment
during service or maintenance
b. To ensure the machine is running efficiently
c. To verify the identity of workers
d. To secure the building at the end of a workday
318. What is a lockout device?
a. A device to lock the building at the end of the day
b. A device used to secure a key
c. A device that utilizes a positive means such as a lock to hold an energy-isolating
device in the safe position
d. A device used to time stamp when workers start and end their shifts
319. Who is authorized to perform a lockout/tagout procedure?
a. Any employee
b. Only trained and authorized employees
c. Any employee with a key to the lockout device
d. Only the owner of the company
320. Why is it important to verify the absence of energy after performing a lockout?
a. To confirm that the lockout device is attached
b. To ensure that the equipment is still operational
c. To make certain there is no residual energy that could pose a danger when
performing maintenance
d. To check the jog function of the machine
321. What does a lockout device do?
A) It identifies the operator of the machine
B) It physically prevents the energization or start-up of a machine or equipment
C) It cleans the machine automatically
D) It increases the machine's speed
322. How often are managers required to conduct periodic inspections of energy
control procedures?
a) Once every month
b) At least annually
c) Only when a new machine is installed
d) Every five years
323. A safety professional starts at a new company. They realize the company has
done nothing for lockout. What should be their first step?
a. Conduct a periodic inspection for authorized employees
b. Write a lockout program
c. Train employees
d. Conduct a risk assessment
324. What is the primary purpose of lockout/tagout (LOTO) procedures?
A) To improve machinery efficiency
B) To protect workers from unexpected energization or startup of machinery and
equipment C) To label machinery for easy identification
D) To ensure machines are cleaned properly
325. Which of the following is an essential step before starting lockout/tagout
procedures?
A) Notifying all affected employees that a lockout/tagout procedure will be
performed
B) Checking the machine's warranty
C) Making sure the machine is operating correctly
D) Testing the machine's efficiency
326. Why is it important to verify the absence of energy after performing a lockout?
a. To confirm that the lockout device is attached.
b. To ensure that the equipment is still operational.
c. To make certain there is no residual energy that could pose a danger when
performing maintenance.
d. To check the jog function of the machine.
327. When can a lockout/tagout device be removed and by whom?
A) By any worker when the job is perceived as finished
B) By the maintenance team at the end of the shift
C) Only by the authorized employee who applied it, after ensuring the work is
completed and the area is safe
D) By the site manager at any time
328. Which of the following is a necessary component of an effective lockout/tagout
program?
A) Training only new employees on the procedures
B) Using a universal lock that fits all types of machinery
C) Having detailed, machine-specific procedures available
D) Implementing the procedures only for electrical equipment
329. Which of the following statements about lockout/tagout is FALSE?
A) Lockout/tagout procedures are only necessary for electrical hazards.
B) Personal locks should have the individual's name and other identifying
information.
C) A lockout device is used to hold an energy-isolating device in a safe position.
D) Tagout devices are warning devices affixed to energy-isolating devices and do
not provide the physical restraint that a lock does.
330. What should you always do when you finish using a tool?
A) Leave it where you last used it
B) Clean and store it properly in a secure place
C) Give it to someone else to put away
D) Disassemble it for the next use
331. Which piece of personal protective equipment (PPE) is essential when
operating loud power tools?
A) Hearing protection
B) Knee pads
C) Thermal gloves
D) A bright-colored vest
332. All hand tools shall be:
A.Tested monthly
B. Equipped with safety guards
C. Maintained in a safe condition
D. Kept in an approved storage container
333. This is the main reason for employees to work safely. This convinces the worker
to perform desired behaviors or action as part of this psychology.
a. Motivation
b. Ego
c. Money
d. Fear
334. Most training experts recommend a second_______________ after 6 months to
obtain valid student reaction to the training.
a. Observation
b. Evaluation
c. Testing
d. Round of Training
336. An example of good training preparation is one where the organization has a
provided a __________to the trainer with identification of the gaps in employees’
knowledge and skills before these gaps start creating real issues that can affect the
organization.
a. Course Curriculum
b. Summary of past evaluations.
c. Needs Analysis
d. Past test scores of the students.
337. What is a characteristic of adult learning per Malcolm Knowles
a. Adults are motivated to learn when they see the value of the information to their
personal and professional lives.
b. Adults dislike learning new things.
c. Adults will avoid training if given an opportunity.
d. Adult prefer lecture style of training.
338. Per Clay Carr, what is an adult learning needs?
a. Training must be short
b. Training must be relevant
c. Trainers must be an expert in the topic
d. Adults do not want feedback
339. Effective feedback can be in the form of?
a. Notes, Emails, Letters
b. Failures, Experiences, Critiques,
c. Grades, Evaluation, or Comments.
d. Job analysis, Investigations, Coaching
340.Which is the best way to convey the safety message on a jobsite.
a. Email
b. Video conference
c. Safety Posters
d. In person
341. What is an effective technique for safety and health training since it often
illustrates the tragic consequences.
a. Powerpoint
b. Training Objectives
c. Case Studies
d. Follow up evaluations
342. What the three parts of effective communication
a. Sender, Receiver, Message
b. Method, Management, Message
c. Sender, Signal, Impact
d. Introduction, Body, Conclusion
343. What is the term for a collaborative training method that encourages
participants to freely share and generate numerous ideas in a group setting, without
the use of lectures or slideshows?
A) Brainstorming
B) Fishbowl
C) Ad lib
D) Ice breaker
344. Training ______ are a measurable intended end result of a training program
expressed in terms of (1) the desired behavior or skill level, (2) conditions under
which it has to occur, and (3) the benchmark against which it will be measured.
a. Operations
b. Support
c. Objectives
d. Plans
345. The use of _____________ is to standardized a presentation and avoid omission
of critical material.
a. Enabling Objectives
b. Evaluations
c. Powerpoint
d. Lesson Plans
346. What is the primary goal of brainstorming?
A) To critically evaluate each idea as it is suggested
B) To generate as many ideas as possible in a short period
C) To identify the best idea quickly
D) To finalize a project plan
347. Put in the correct order for conducting training.
a. Identifying training needs, Evaluate program effectiveness, Conduct the training,
Develop learning objectives.
b. Identifying training needs, Conduct the training, Develop learning objectives,
Evaluate program effectiveness,
c. Identifying training needs, Develop learning objectives, Conduct the training,
Evaluate program effectiveness
d. Identifying training needs, Evaluate program effectiveness, Develop learning
objectives, Conduct the training,
348. In the ADDIE Instructional Design Model, which phase involves identifying the
learning needs and the overall goals of the instructional program?
A) Design
B) Analysis
C) Development
D) Implementation
349. For safety training programs and safety program effectiveness, one principle
factor must be present:
a. 100% attendance
b. Employee Engagement
c. 90% test scores
d. Student cannot be on the cell phones
350. When used alone, lectures can be ineffective because they do not permit
active participation between students and the instruction. What does "active
participation" typically involve?
a) Taking extensive notes
b) Engaging in group discussions
c) Memorizing the lecture content
d) Passive listening
351. When used alone, lectures can be ineffective because they do not permit
active participation between students and the instruction. What does "active
participation" typically involve?
a) Taking extensive notes
b) Engaging in group discussions
c) Memorizing the lecture content
d) Passive listening
352. Which is the BEST slide type for powerpoint of these?
a. 6 lines with 6 words
b. 150 words
c. Monochrome font.
d. Capital letters
353. Which are the key elements of an effective safety and health performance
management system?
a. Policy, organizing, planning and implementation, and measuring performance,
and discipline
b. Measuring performance, reviewing performance, and auditing near-misses,
training, and enforcement
c. Education, Planning and organization, policy, reviewing performance and
enforcement
d. Policy, organizing, planning and implementation, measuring performance and
reviewing performance
354. Trainer should arrive ____________ minutes before the start of training to get set
up, check the learning environment, verify materials are in order, and greet
participants as they arrive.
a. 10
b. 15.
c. 20
d. 30
355.What technique can be used to expand on ideas generated during a
brainstorming session?
A) Voting on each idea to determine the best one immediately
B) Ignoring less popular ideas to focus on the most liked ones
C) Building on others’ ideas through open discussion and collaboration
D) Limiting discussion time strictly to 10 minutes per idea
356. Gen Z Learners
a. Were born into technology
b. Are strangers to diversity
c. Will listen if not important
d. Do not want immediate feedback.
357. What is the MOST effective way to convince senior management that the
company will receive value for the money spent?
a. Proven results of returning a portion of the safety budget back to the company.
b. Show that the return on investment analysis is 15% or more
c. Use a cost benefit analysis that compares training costs to injury/incident cost
d. Show senior management the standards requiring safety training for all workers
358. The term "kinesics" is:
A. A derogatory term referring to specific thought patterns
B. The ability to move objects through the power of the mind
C. The term used to interpret body motion communications
D. A method for identifying certain air quality-related nervous disorders
359. In developing site-specific safety training for workers, what factors must be
considered first?
a. Trainer credentials, length of experience, and environment for learning
b. Budget, time availability, and trainer availability
c. Age of trainees, trade specialties, and gender
d. Learning objective, methods, and trainee characteristics
360. A four-step instruction protocol is effective in delivering important lessons to
your workers. The four steps are:
a. Provide manufacturers' instruction sheet(s), provide a computer based
competency module, administer an examination, and rank workers based on their
examination score.
b. Schedule training, deliver the information in person, conduct a written
examination of 20 questions, and assign tasks to those who achieve an 80% or
greater score.
c. Prepare the worker for instruction, present the operation, have the worker
perform the operation, and follow-up with the worker to confirm understanding and
answer questions.
d. Describe the job, provide a written list of the rules to be followed, identify
disciplinary actions if the rules are not followed, and communicate the expected
levels of productivity.
361. Communication is?
a. Exchange of information with others.
b. Sharing information and ideas with others and being understood.
c. Presenting facts to a receiver in a language they speak.
d. Transferring important issues to the workers so they know what is happening.
362. Which term best describes the educational approach that emphasizes self-
directed learning among adults?
A) Tactile
B) Andragogy
C) Pedagogy
D) Kinesthetic
363. Question: What evaluation method is used to assess the effectiveness of a
training program during its development phase?
A) Kirkpatrick's
B) Summative
C) Informative
D) Formative
364. Which level of Kirkpatrick's Training Evaluation Model focuses on the
immediate reaction of the participants to the training?
A) Level 1: Reaction
B) Level 2: Learning
C) Level 3: Behavior
D) Level 4: Results
365. Which level of Kirkpatrick's Training Evaluation Model assesses the extent to
which participants have applied what they learned during training when they return
to their workplaces?
A) Level 1: Reaction
B) Level 2: Learning
C) Level 3: Behavior
D) Level 4: Results
366. Which Machine guard is required on conveyer belt with long tray where there is
spillage and manager asked the worker to clean it at the end of shift?
a.Adjistable guard
b.Fixed guard
c.Movable guard
d.End point guard
366.What is major control for waste management at site.
a.Isolation
b.Immobilization
c Metal removal
d.Toxic removal
367. Which type of hierarchy is this if the company disassemble the waste and use
it into next process in the same company
a.Reuse
b.Recycle
C.Reduce
d.Isolate
368.Example of indirect and direct cost
a.Machine down time.
b.Medical cost
c.Insurance cost
d.Worker compensation cost
369. Worker working wiht grinder and Chain saw which Hazard need more attention
a. Vibration syndrome
b. Flying particles or dust from rotating parts
c. Local exhaust ventilation
370. What safety method can best protect a press brake operator?
a. Pressure sensitive mat
b. Two hand controls.
c. Hairpin guards
d. Sweep guard
371. A manufacturing worker is operating a mechanical press. During operation, you
notice that the guard on the machine is loose and can be easily bypassed. What
should be your immediate response as a safety professional?
A. Allow the worker to continue operating but inform them to avoid touching the
guard.
B. Stop the machine immediately and report the issue for repair.
C. Schedule a maintenance check for the next day to address the issue.
D. Instruct the worker to temporarily tape the guard in place and continue
operation.
372. When should guards be used on a conveyor system?
A. Only when the conveyor is in operation
B. During maintenance activities
C. At all times to protect against accidental contact
D. Only when local regulations require them
373. Management of change in the workplace is necessary because
A. Many people like the old way of doing things, but are not resistant to change.
B. Change can impact safety
C. It’s required by the OSHA safety and health program standard
D. New machines are more difficult to operate
374. ________________________ is the forecasting and evaluation of financial risks
together with the identification of procedures to avoid or minimize their impact
a. Loss Management
b. Severity Control
c. Loss Control
d. Risk Management
375. What is the PRIMARY objective of a work site safety assessment or audit?
a. Ensure compliance with applicable standards
b. Find employees out of compliance with the rules
c. Make the site better.
d. Ensure management is following the safety protocols
376. Lockout and tagout are used for which of the following?
a. To control people's access to certain hazardous chemicals
b. To isolate people who have been in contact with hazardous materials
c. To safely conduct repairs on equipment
d. To eliminate tampering at the location where an incident has occurred
377. When is lockout/tagout required?
a) Only for high-voltage electrical equipment
b) Only for mechanical equipment
c) For any equipment with an energy source
d) Only during scheduled maintenance
378. Why is it important to verify the absence of energy after performing a lockout?
a. To make certain there is no residual energy that could pose a danger when
performing maintenance
b. To ensure that the equipment is still operational
c. To confirm that the lockout device is attached
d. To check the jog function of the machine
379. The competent person examination of soil consists of a
a. Hydrometer and compaction test
b. Torvane and shear strength test.
c. Blows per sauce foot test and compaction test.
d. A visual and manual test.
380. ______ soils have a high clay content.
a. Sandy
b. Silt
c. Loamy
d. Cohesive
381. What is the maximum allowable depth of an excavation before OSHA requires
a protective system, such as shoring, shielding, or sloping, unless the excavation is
made entirely in stable rock? Ref: 1926.652 a 1
a) 3 feet
b) 5 feet
c) 7 feet
d) 10 feet
382. ______________ requires that an explosion isolation device be installed on all
suction side ducts that transport material with a KST value above zero.
a. Natural Gas Society
b. EPA
c. OSHA
d. NFPA
383. You are inspecting a manufacturing facility that processes grain. You notice a
fine layer of dust on the beams and equipment in the production area. What is your
first course of action?
A. Instruct the facility to immediately shut down operations and clean all areas with
compressed air.
B. Conduct a risk assessment to evaluate the potential for a combustible dust
explosion.
C. Recommend opening windows and doors to improve ventilation.
D. Advise workers to wear respiratory protection while continuing operations.
384. During a training session on combustible dust safety, an employee asks how to
PREVENT dust accumulation in hard-to-reach areas. What is the most appropriate
response?
A. Use compressed air daily to blow dust into collection areas.
B. Implement a housekeeping program with regular inspections and cleaning
schedules.
C. Allow dust to accumulate in these areas until it becomes visible and then clean it
thoroughly.
D. Apply anti-static coatings to all surfaces to prevent dust from sticking.
385. Which is the MOST appropriate control for pinch points while handling 55-
gallon drums?
a. Employee knowledge of proper hand placement
b. Use of gloves with the correct crush rating for the weight of the drum
c. Requiring two-man lifts for all drums
d. Only utilizing specialized dollies for transport
386. Which condition is most likely to alter the hazards associated with an open
excavation?
a. Operation of heavy machinery near the excavation
b. An employee with less than one year of experience performing the excavation
c. The presence of both Type A and Type C soil in the excavation
d. Multiple excavations present on the same job site
387. Who holds the primary responsibility for maintaining walking and working
surfaces in a clean, orderly, and sanitary condition in the workplace?
a. The employer
b. The safety manager
c. The employees
d. The supervisors
388. How can a safety manager use leading indicators to engage workers?
a. Require workers to attend safety training after a regular work shift.
b. Show that injuries have declined over 12 months.
c. Award incentives to workers who have worked injury-free for 30 days.
d. Recognize a worker for stopping a coworker from working unsafely.
389. Safety training for workers is mandatory. What is the primary outcome that
holds the most significance from this training?
a. Achieving a satisfactory score on the training exam
b. Obtaining certification for a designated task
c. Observing a decrease in reported injuries
d. Validating knowledge application through job performance
390. What is a crucial aspect of senior executive commitment to an effective safety
management program?
a) Be visible to all workers
b) Allocating safety incentives in the annual budget.
c) Delegating safety responsibilities to the lowest level possible.
d) Including safety as a topic at the company's year-end meeting.
391. Proper equipment for prompt _____________ of the injured person to a physician
or hospital, or a communication system for contacting necessary ambulance
service, shall be provided. Ref: 1926.50
a. Debrillibration
b. Resuscitation
c. Treatment
d. Transportation
392. Who does the Safety Officer report to in a large emergency?
a. Operations manager
b. Incident Commander
c. Planning Officer
d. Permit Authorizing Individual
393. A spill of 10,000 pounds of benzene from a vessel requires what?
A. Calling EPA
B. Calling OSHA
C. Calling Department of Transportation
D. Calling Chemical Safety Board
394. When verifying knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) for a specific job, which
of the following is the most effective method?
a) Reviewing only past performance evaluations
b) Administering skills tests and observing job performance
c) Using self-reported surveys without verification
d) Assigning employees tasks without prior evaluation
395. Why is verifying KSAs critical when reviewing jobs?
a) To identify gaps between job requirements and employee capabilities
b) To reduce employee turnover rates
c) To ensure job descriptions are legally compliant
d) To prioritize employee satisfaction surveys
396. Which of the following best describes task analysis as part of a needs
assessment?
a) Analyzing the organization's strategic goals
b) Breaking down a job into specific tasks to determine necessary KSAs
c) Assessing an employee's willingness to learn new skills
d) Reviewing the company’s financial resources for training
397. The smell of rotten eggs, an indication of the presence of deadly
_______________ ________________ gas.
A. Helium
B. Hydrogen Sulfide
C. Argon
D. Carbon Monoxide
398. The OSHA PEL of Carbon Monoxide is _____________ ppm
A. 1
B. 10
C. 19.5
D. 50
399. Constant Ventilation can provide fresh air to the ____.
A. Attendant
B. Authorized Entrant
C. Entry Supervisor
D. Permit Authorizing Individual
400. One of the commercial drivers has an accident on the highway with a
semitruck. Within how many hours must the driver be drug tested?
a. 8
b. 24
c. 32
d. Not required unless a fatality.
401. Your fleet had $645,690 losses in collision incidents last year. There were 42
collisions incidents. What the cost per collision.
a. 13, 729
b. 14,777
c. 14,999
d. 15,373
402. What is the recommended following distance when driving a company vehicle
on the highway?
a. 1 second for every 10 miles per hour
b. 2 seconds regardless of speed
c. 3 seconds under normal conditions, more in adverse weather
d. 5 seconds regardless of conditions
403. Which of the following is the first step in conducting a safety training needs
assessment?
a. Evaluate current training programs.
b. Identify tasks with potential safety risks.
c. Implement new company policies.
d. Conduct a post-training evaluation.
404. How can you verify that safety training topics align with regulatory
requirements?
a. Conduct interviews with employees.
b. Review industry best practices and guidelines.
c. Cross-check training content with OSHA standards or other applicable regulations.
d. Observe employees performing their tasks.
405. What is lagging indicator that safety training topics are effectively addressing
company policies and compliance requirements?
a. Reduced workplace incidents and injuries.
b. Increased employee satisfaction scores.
c. A lower number of employees taking sick leave.
d. Higher participation in company events.
406. Risk management
A. Is a subset of Risk Control
B. Always has a goal of zero injuries and illnesses in order to reduce costs
C. Prioritizes costs in the risk decision making process
D. Minimizes risk through safety interventions and insurance
407. Risk transfer is a
A. Method for resolving direct vs. Indirect costs of injuries/illnesses
B. Process which is ideally suited for use with a risk matrix
C. Technique which shifts financial risk from one party to another
D. Safety principle involving worker rotation to reduce chemical exposures.
408. Return on Investment calculations are useful for:
A. Calculating an incremental budget
B. Showing financial risk and benefits
C. Determining costs to control hazards
D. Justifying expense of controls
409. The Process Safety Management program
A. Closely parallels EPA’s Risk Management Program
B. Applies to all chemical processes
C. Begins with a Process Hazard Analysis
D. Requires submitting hazard determinations to the state environment board
410.. One of the most commonly used Process Hazard Analysis tools in Process
Safety Management is:
A. Hazard and Operability Analysis (HAZOP)
B. Job Hazard Analysis (JHA)
C. Systemic Cause Event Tree (SCET)
D. Energy Flow Analytical Procedure (EFAP)
411. What is the difference between insurance and a bond?
A. There is no real difference.
B. Insurance protects a specific person and project while bonds protect a person,
business, or company.
C. Bonds cost more.
D. A bond protects a contractor who hires someone for a specific project while
insurance protects people or businesses from a covered loss
412. Under what type of risk management does installing a video surveillance
system qualify?
A. Sharing
B. Transferring
C. Risk Mitigation
D. Loss control
413. Risk summation is used to
A. Determine the Risk Priority Number RPN
B. Aggregate different risks to provide a comprehensive understanding of the
overall risk exposure.
C. Mathematically calculate partial risks of a process
D. Start a Process Hazard Analysis on a chemical process
414. A morale hazard is condition that increases the frequency or severity of loss
resulting from ________________ .
a. Deceitful conduct
b. Fraud
c. Careless or indifferent behavior
d. A screaming supervisor
415. Risk can be referred to as:
a. The chances of having an unexpected or negative outcome
b. A calculated output from analysis of all inputs
c. A certain loss
d. The movement of uncertainty in the decision-making process.
416. Risk identification:
a. is something completely different from loss identification
b. is only relevant for firms making products that have moving parts
c. can lead to financial loss
d. is also called loss identification in the insurance industry
417. Which of the following would not normally be identified in the risk identification
process?
A) Property Risk
B) External Risk
C) Human Resource Risk
D) Pure Risk
418. What are the 5 levels of Probability?
a. Chance, Blind chance, Risk, Lower Risk, Greater risk
b. Remote, unlikely, average, high, and very high,
c. Zero, some, average, greater, 100%
d. Impossible, Unlikely, Possible, Likely, Certain
419. Which of the following is true about internal risks?
A) They deal with issues related to the operations of the firm.
B) They are harder to manage than external risks.
C) They are beyond the control of the risk manager.
D) They are more costly than external risks.
420. Which of the following is true about external risks?
A) They deal with issues related to the operations of the firm.
B) They are beyond the control of the risk manager.
C) They are easier to manage than external risks.
D) They are predictable.
421. Which of the following is true about pure risks?
A) The risk/return tradeoff is applicable to pure risks.
B) A firm cannot profit from its exposure to pure risk.
C) Risk managers must be tolerant of negative outcomes related to pure risks.
D) Pure risk is not a source of great concern for risk managers.
422. Which of the following is true about speculative risks?
A) A firm cannot profit from its exposure to speculative risk.
B) The risk/return tradeoff is not applicable to speculative risks.
C) Risk managers must be tolerant of negative outcomes related to speculative
risks.
D) Speculative risk is not a source of great concern for risk managers.
423. Which of the following is true about direct losses such as superintendent falling
and breaking the ankle with three tendons torn?
A) Does not become a recordable incident if they can return to work the next day
B) Is a non-financial loss
C) Has no direct liability consequences for the firm
D) Often is followed by an indirect loss.
424. Which of the following is true about indirect losses requiring another worker to
work overtime to fill while a worker is out for a week due to lifting 130 pounds?
A) Includes damage to a building
B) Is unrelated to business interruption
C) Often results as a consequence of a direct loss
D) Is a non-financial loss
425. Which of the following is true about the relationship between direct and
indirect losses?
A) The impact of indirect losses can be much bigger than the original direct loss.
B) They are unrelated events.
C) Direct losses are the result of an indirect loss due to business interruption.
D) Indirect losses are irrelevant compared to direct losses.
426. What are the two types of risk transfer?
a. Contractual and Financial
b. Liability and Comprehensive
c. Speculative and Pure
d. Indemnity and Tort
427. Which of the following is true about pure risks?
A) They are risks that are beyond human control and result in a loss or no loss with
no possibility of financial gain
B) They are completely unrelated to hazard risks.
C) Are only recently being considered by risk managers.
D) Consist of Property and associated Human Resource risk only.
428. What is the primary goal of risk treatment in safety management?
A) To eliminate all workplace hazards.
B) To assess the likelihood of hazards occurring.
C) To implement measures to reduce, eliminate, or transfer risk.
D) To monitor and review the financial impact of hazards.
429. What role does insurance play in risk treatment?
A) It eliminates the hazard causing the risk.
B) It transfers the financial risk associated with a hazard to another party.
C) It reduces the likelihood of a hazard occurring.
D) It identifies new hazards in the workplace.
430. Which of the following is not a tort?
A) Battery
B) Assault
C) Negligence
D) Breaking a contractual agreement
431. The EMR of the company was 1.05 last year. Which is a true statement?
a. Losses were below average when compared to the sector
b. Worker Compensation premiums are higher when compared to the sector.
c. EMR is calculated on a 2 year rolling average
d. The Worker Compensation insurance will go down 5%.
432. Which one of the following lists presents the three major categories of "legal
liability" for a business?
A) Reputational Liability, Res Ipsa Loquitor, Torts
B) Criminal Wrongs, Product Liability, Intentional Interference
C) Knowing Liability, Breach Of Contracts, Liability Without Fault
D) Contractual Liability, Torts, Criminal Liability
433. To estimate potential property losses, risk managers must know:
A) the accounting book value of property
B) the replacement cost of property
C) the actual cash value of property
D) the original purchase price of property
434. Joe had a work related injury with an unguarded table saw. Workers'
compensation covers all of the following losses except:
A) Medical expenses
B) Rehabilitation expenses resulting from the injury
C) 100% Lost wages including overtime
D) Ambulance ride to the hospital
435. Conducting an onsite, visual inspection of the work area is what part of risk
management? 537
a. Assessment of the Hazard
b. Controls Development
c. Hazard Identification
d. Controls Implementation
436. A variety of communication tools are available to organizations, for both
internal and external information sharing. Which should be included when
considering the specific transfer of hazard and hazard control information to internal
stakeholders (i.e. management, supervisors, and workers)?
a. All available technical data, safety data sheets, diagrams, photos, and regulations
related to the hazard
b. Information that is clear, specific to the situation, and the expected outcome
c. A signature sheet to confirm the information was received
d. An email containing several links to additional reference information
437. Delivering safety-related information is a key responsibility of safety
professionals. This includes communicating safety performance, injury trends,
project safety planning, and conducting training. Which method is the MOST
effective for conveying this information?
a. Use of social media or email.
b. Communicate benefits, lessons learned, and advocate for participant
engagement.
c. Take charge of the communication, minimizing questions and feedback.
d. Utilize a structured and qualitative lecture style.
438. Which of the following is an example of an indirect cost associated with
workplace injuries?
A) Medical Treatment
B) Worker Compensation Expenses.
C) Negative public and client relations.
D) Prescription Medicine
439. Which of the following best describes the main purpose of FOD management?
a. To enhance passenger comfort.
b. To prevent damage to equipment and ensure safety.
c. To reduce aircraft maintenance costs alone.
d. To comply with government regulations exclusively
440. Which of the following categories is not part of the LEED certification criteria?
a) Sustainable Sites
b) Materials and Resources
c) Social Responsibility
d) Water Efficiency
441. What is a primary concern when handling nanomaterials in the workplace?
a. The color and texture of the nanomaterial.
b. Potential for inhalation and respiratory exposure.
c. Difficulty in identifying nanomaterials under normal light.
d. High energy consumption during their production.
442. Planks must extend ________________ inches past supports or be secured.
1926.451b
A. 2
b. 6
c. 10
d. 12
443. What should you do before inspecting a scaffold?
A) Read and understand the manufacturer's instructions
B) Use the scaffold as long it has guardrails.
C) Make a scaffold checklist
D) Watch a video on scaffold safety
444. What should workers do if they notice missing guardrails on the scaffold?
A) Stay 6 feet away and continue working
B) Report it to a supervisor at the end of the day
C) Fix it themselves
D) Stop work and report it to the supervisor or scaffold competent person.
445. What is risk mitigation in project management?
A) The process of transferring all project risks to another party to handle.
B) The act of ignoring minor risks until they become significant.
C) The process of taking proactive steps to reduce the likelihood or impact of
potential project risks.
D) The practice of insuring against all possible risks to ensure no financial loss.
446. Which of the following is an example of an external business risk?
A) Employee turnover
B) Market competition
C) Product quality control
D) Workplace safety
447. What role does 'Risk Identification' play in risk management?
A) Determines the potential financial loss from risks
B) Assigns risk responsibilities to team members
C) Assesses the company's ability to endure risks
D) Identifies potential hazards that could impact the project
448. Silica is a naturally occurring material used in many building products. Which
hazard to workers does silica create on a construction site and how is it BEST
controlled?
a. Inhalation of crystalline silica causes silicosis (a respiratory condition). Use water
to prevent silica dust from becoming airborne and respirable.
b. Silica is abrasive and can cause rapid deterioration of the eyes, skin, and teeth.
Use of a full-face supplied air mask is the only adequate control.
c. Silica dust is an irritant to the mouth and throat. Use of a single strap dust mask
will control the exposure.
d. Because it is naturally occurring, the only hazard silica creates is making safety
eyewear dirty and difficult to see through. Use a clean cotton cloth to clean eyewear
regularly.
449. Direct exposure to solvents can cause:
a. Fingernails to turn black.
b. Defatting of the skin, inflammation.
c. Blisters and cracks on the skin.
d. Skin that is firm and waxy.
450. The thickening and scarring of connective tissue in the lungs is called.
a. Cystic Trichinosis.
b. Pulmonary Edema
c. Bursitis
d. Fibrosis
451. What is the primary purpose of a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) in a laboratory
setting?
A) To outline emergency procedures and safety precautions for handling the
chemical
B) To provide detailed information about the chemical's properties
C) To list the prices of chemicals
D) To serve as a marketing tool for chemical manufacturers
452. When working with toxic aromatic chemical, which of the following safety
measures is most critical?
A) Wearing appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE)
B) Using a fume hood to ventilate harmful vapors
C) Storing chemicals in an open container for easy access
D) Ensuring that all chemicals are labeled with their hazard warnings
453. In case of a chemical spill, what is the first action you should take?
A) Attempt to clean it up immediately without any protective gear
B) Evacuate the area and alert your supervisor or emergency response team
C) Pour water over the spill to dilute it
D) Clean with bleach
454. All eye protection shall be distinctly marked to facilitate identification of
___________.
a. Manufacturer
b. Shade
c. Strength of lens
d. Employer
455. According to OSHA regulations, which of the following is true about eye
protection in the workplace?
A) Safety glasses are only required for tasks involving flying objects
B) Eye protection should only be worn when working with chemicals
C) All employees must wear safety goggles, even if no visible hazards are present
D) Eye protection must be provided when there is potential exposure to chemical,
environmental, or mechanical hazards
456. When should PPE be used?
A) Only during emergency situations
B) After implementing other control measures
C) As the first and only line of defense against hazards
D) To replace other safety measures
457. What is the first step in conducting a job analysis?
a. Interviewing current employees.
b. Developing job descriptions and specifications.
c. Gathering information about the job through observation or surveys.
d. Defining the purpose and scope of the analysis.
458. What is the primary purpose of a needs assessment in training and learning?
a. To create a budget for training programs.
b. To identify performance gaps and determine training needs.
c. To evaluate employee satisfaction.
d. To measure the impact of past training programs.
459. Which of the following is NOT a key component of a job analysis?
a. Identifying tasks and responsibilities.
b. Assessing employee preferences for tasks.
c. Determining required knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs).
d. Documenting tools and equipment used.
460. What is the most common type of workplace eye injury?
A. Cataracts
B. Foreign body
C. Thermal burn
D. Chemical burn
461. The ____________ has the responsibility of ensuring adequacy, sanitation, and
proper maintenance of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) when an employee uses
their own PPE.
a. Employee
b. Employer
c. Competent person
462. Eye and face protection equipment used to protect against hazards shall meet
the requirements specified in:
a. ANSI Z87.1
b. ANSI Z89.1
c. ANSI Z41.1
d. ANSI Z244.1
463. Which type of task may validate the use of PPE as the FIRST option to be used?
a. Lowest cost option
b. The worker wants to use the PPE
c. Severity and duration of risk exposure
d. Workers show no health effects
464. How often should you inspect your PPE to ensure it’s in good condition and
functioning properly?
a. Before each use
b. Once a week
c. Once a month
d. Annually
465. Safety footwear must meet standards set by ANSI and…:
a. American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM)
b. International Chemical Workers Union (ICWU)
c. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
d. National Safety Commission (NSC)
466. Your company is installing a new process that uses a chemical rinse that was
not previously used in the company. What should your first action be to evaluate the
health hazards.
a. Make sure the room has 6 air changes and hour
b. Order PPE before the work starts.
c. Conduct Air Sampling
d. Review the SDS.
D) Review the SDS.
467. As a new safety professional in a facility, you notice that there are high eye
and lacerations injury rates. What action should you take first?
a. Review the operations and facility to determine the probable causes of these
injuries.
b. Initiate a personal protective equipment program that requires safety glasses and
safety shoes.
c. Bring in an experienced loss control professional to conduct a safety audit.
d. Hold a safety meeting to emphasize that workers need to be aware of their
surroundings and be careful.
468. You are starting at a new company. Last year, eye injuries and foot injuries
were the highest cause of recordable incidents. As a new safety professional what
action should you perform first?
a. Survey the facility and operations to determine the cause of the injuries.
b. Hold the safety meeting discussing the need to be more careful.
c. Require everybody to wear safety glasses and safety toe shoes.
d. Put up safety posters reminding workers to wear their protective equipment all
the time.
467. Which of the following is an example of PPE used to protect against chemical
splashes?
a) Respirator
b) Safety glasses
c) Chemical goggles
d) Dust mask
C) Chemical goggles
468. Who is responsible for ensuring the PPE fits the employees?
a) Employees are responsible for ensuring the fit of their PPE
b) The government is responsible for ensuring g the fit of the PPE
c) Employers are responsible for ensuring the fit of the PPE
d) Unions are responsible for ensuring the fit of the PPE to their members
C) Employers are responsible for ensuring the fit of the PPE
469. What is an example of PPE used to protect against the hazards of absorbing
toxic chemicals to the hands?
a) Safety glasses
b) Respirator
c) Earplugs
d) Gloves
470. When selecting proper gloves for chemical materials handling, it is essential to
understand the chemical breakthrough rating for the type of chemical the employee
may contact. The chemical ratings are E, G, F, and P.
What is the meaning of the "P" chemical breakthrough rating? Please select one of
the following options:
a. Poly-coated, highly recommended (breakthrough times greater than 8 hours)
b. Perforated, not designed for chemical exposure (breakthrough times less than 1
hour)
c. Poor, not recommended (breakthrough times less than 1 hour)
d. Performance, highly recommended (breakthrough times greater than 8 hours)
471. Which of the following is a key component of PPE hazard analysis?
A) Risk assessment and identification of potential hazards
B) Selection of the most popular PPE options
C) Checking the color coordination of PPE with the work environment
D) Determining the PPE brand with that top companies use.
472. Why is it critical for personal protective equipment (PPE) to be properly fitted
to the individual worker? Select the most accurate option:
A) To enhance the aesthetic appeal and style of the worker
B) To adhere to organizational dress code policies
C) To maximize comfort and ease for the worker
D) To optimize the protective function and reduce the potential for injury or hazard
exposure
473 When should damaged or defective PPE be replaced?
a) At the end of each work day.
b) When it is no longer needed.
c) After a coworker has used it.
d) Immediately upon discovering the damage or defect.
474. Two police officers enter your hard hat only site on a non-emergency basis.
What would you do?
a) Have security escort them out of the site.
b) Ask them to wear the visitor hard hats and sign in at the general contractor
trailer for site meeting.
c) Refuse entry to the policemen.
d) Tell them to return to their police station and get hard hats.
475. One of the first responsibilities in determining the types of PPE is to determine
the hazards present in the work environment. The safety professional must conduct
a thorough _________to determine the specific hazards present. Ref: Yates p339 2nd
ed.
a. Job Hazard Analysis
b. Record Review of the OSHA logs.
c. Financial analysis of the losses at the company.
d. Incident investigation.
476. All eye protection shall be distinctly marked to facilitate identification of
___________.
a. Manufacturer
b. Shade
c. Strength of lens
d. Employer
A) Manufacturer
477. According to OSHA regulations, which of the following is true about eye
protection in the workplace?
A) Safety glasses are only required for tasks involving flying objects
B) Eye protection should only be worn when working with chemicals
C) All employees must wear safety goggles, even if no visible hazards are present
D) Eye protection must be provided when there is potential exposure to chemical,
environmental, or mechanical hazards
478. When should PPE be used?
A) Only during emergency situations
B) After implementing other control measures
C) As the first and only line of defense against hazards
D) To replace other safety measures
B) After implementing other control measures
479. What is the most effective strategy for eliminating the potential hazard to
workers in the proximity of cellular and microwave antennas, which emit non-
ionizing radio frequency radiation during transmission?
a) Limit exposure duration and dose.
b) Shut down and lock out the transmitter.
c) Wear lead-lined clothing.
d) Use a radio frequency monitor to detect exposure time and dose.
480. In a facility, workers are tasked with extracting gypsum wallboard and
structural framing from a basement office. What key safety topics should the onsite
safety expert emphasize during training for these workers?
A) Understanding confined spaces, methods of evacuation, and risks of
asphyxiation.
B) Procedures for detecting low-oxygen environments and ensuring proper air
circulation.
C) Strategies to prevent caught-in incidents.
D) Identifying risks associated with mold and allergens, monitoring techniques, and
protective measures.
481. A structural engineer plans to perform X-ray scanning on all four levels of your
fully occupied cast-in-place concrete office building. What is the most appropriate
control measure to mitigate any potential risk to the occupants?
a. There is no risk because X-rays are not dangerous to humans.
b. Cover all electronics with lead shields.
c. Evacuate scanned areas for seven days.
d. Vacate areas adjacent to the scanning zones.
482. Certified safety professionals should undertake services for clients only if:
A. They really need the fees
B. Their own bid is the lowest
C. They are fully technically competent
D. Carrying out the services wouldn’t involve excessive time or effort
483. Which conduct is exemplified by a safety professional misrepresenting lost
time hours to lower the company overhead cost?
a. Compromised integrity
b. Generally acceptable behavior
c. Professional negligence
d. The industry standard approach
484. When referring to the BCSP Code of Ethics, which definition BEST captures the
meaning of the word "integrity"?
a. Adherence to moral and ethical principles; soundness of moral character
b. The state of being whole, entire, or undiminished
c. The state, condition, or quality of being fair or free from bias or injustice
d. A sound, unimpaired, or perfect condition
485. What is an important ethical responsibility outlined in the BCSP Code of Ethics?
a) Maximizing personal benefits in business.
b) Being honest, fair, and impartial in all professional actions.
c) Prioritizing the interests of employers above all else.
d) Acting in a way that only benefits colleagues and clients.
486. Your company has a bar bender that needs guarding. The quote is $5,600. The
plant manager says that is too expensive. What should you do?
a. Report the issue to the insurance company.
b. Report the issue to OSHA anonymously.
c. Provide the firm with an ultimatum that you will leave if the issue is not resolved.
d. Show other injuries with the bar bender at other companies and the approximate
average cost of $137,000 per injury.
487. Which is considered a key principle of the BCSP Code of Ethics?
a. Impartiality
b. Consideration
c. Communication
d. Objectivity
488. What are the 5 levels of Probability?
a. Chance, Blind chance, Risk, Lower Risk, Greater risk
b. Remote, unlikely, average, high, and very high,
c. Zero, some, average, greater, 100%
d. Impossible, Unlikely, Possible, Likely, Certain
489. Which of the following is true about speculative risks?
A) A firm cannot profit from its exposure to speculative risk.
B) The risk/return tradeoff is not applicable to speculative risks.
C) Risk managers must be tolerant of negative outcomes related to speculative
risks.
D) Speculative risk is not a source of great concern for risk managers.
490. Conducting an onsite, visual inspection of the work area is what part of risk
management?
a. Assessment of the Hazard
b. Controls Development
c. Hazard Identification
d. Controls Implementation
491. A new ventilation system will cost $1,200,000 in five years. How much money
should a company invest at 4.5% annual interest to reach this number? F = P(1 +
i)n
a. $120,000
b. $1,052,631
c. $1,114,857
d. $962,964
492. How is the OSHA Total Recordable Incident Rate (TRIR) calculated?
A) (Total OSHA Recordable incidents × 200,000) / Total Hours Worked in the Year
B) (Total OSHA Recordable incidents × 100,000) / Total Hours Worked in the Year
C) (Total OSHA Recordable incidents × 300,000) / Total Hours Worked in the Year
D) (Total OSHA Recordable incidents × 150,000) / Total Hours Worked in the Year
493. If you invest $10,000 in an exoskeleton for workers who must attach bolts from
an assembly project and it saves $15,000 annually in medical injuries, what is the
ROI as a percentage?
A) 150%
B) 50%
C) 15%
D) 1
494. The chance of loss or the perils including retained (uninsured) losses and
related loss adjustment expenses, risk control costs, transfer costs, and
administrative costs
a. Risk
b. Accidents
c. Insurance
d. Business
495. An amputation costs $111,000 in direct and indirect costs. The profit margin is
5%. How much sales is needed to pay for this injury. Needed Sales is Cost/profit
margin.
a. $111,000
b. $555,000
c. $2,200,000
d. $5,550,000
496. The particle in the eye for a worker cost $27,750 in direct and indirect costs.
The profit margin is 5%. How much sales are needed to pay for this injury. Needed
Sales is Cost/profit margin.
a. $111,000
b. $555,000
c. $2,200,000
d. $5,550,000
497. The Life Cycle Costs are all costs that the owner or producer of the ____________
will incur over its lifespan.
a. Salary
b. Accident
c. Insurance
d. Asset
498. Annual robot injuries costs: $32,000
Cost to implement laser scanner to detect entry: $5,000
Cost recovery time is _______ months.
a. 1.4
b. 1.8
c. 2.2
d. 4.0
499. There were 5 OSHA recordables in 2020
The hours worked was 600,000
The incident rate is ?
a. 2.0
b. 3.1
c. 1.7
d. 5.0
500. There were 49 OSHA recordables in 2020
The hours worked was 2,500,000
The incident rate is ?
a. 6.3
b. 1.4
c. 3.9
d. 7.8
501. What is the most secure way to dispose of sensitive financial information
documents?
A) Toss the documents in the trash without tearing them up
B) Shred the documents using a cross-cut shredder
C) Throw the documents in a landfill.
D) Fold the documents and place them in the recycling bin
502. If a company had $800,000 losses in the last 3 years, what is the expected
losses for 10 years with no inflation.
a. $800,000
b. $2,400,000
c. $2,666,666
d. $8,000,000
503. Limited liability is a characteristic of what form of business ownership?
A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Corporation
D. Joint proprietorship
504. What are potential risks to a business that fails to follow government
regulations?
A. Bankruptcy, higher sales, and lower stock values
B. Penalties, lower stock values, and lower credibility
C. Lower stock values, fines, and higher sales
D. Fines, penalties, and bankruptcy
505. A company has paid $3,800,000 in worker compensation costs in the last three
years. Not counting interest and inflation, what is the average annual loss?
a. $1,266,667
b. $380,000
c. $800,000
d. $600,000
506. A new ventilation system will cost $1,200,000 in five years. How much money
should a company invest at 4.5% annual interest to reach this number? F = P(1 +
i)n
a. $120,000
b. $1,052,631
c. $1,114,857
d. $962,964
507. The average cost of a recordable back strain injury moving 55 gallon drums is
$44,000. The company has four back strains a year from moving the drum from a
conveyor to a pallet. The company wants to buy a lifting robot that costs $20,000.
What is the payback period?
a. 1.4 months
b. 2.3 months
c. 3.6 months
d. 4.8 months
508. The CFO says the MARR is the number that they are willing to accept before
starting a project, given its risk and the opportunity cost of forgoing other projects.
MARR stands for?
a. Minimum Attractive Rate of Return
b. Maximum Attractive Rate of Return
c. Minimum Acceptable Rate of Return
d. Maximum Acceptable Rate of Return
509. How is the OSHA Total Recordable Incident Rate (TRIR) calculated?
A) (Total OSHA Recordable incidents × 200,000) / Total Hours Worked in the Year
B) (Total OSHA Recordable incidents × 100,000) / Total Hours Worked in the Year
C) (Total OSHA Recordable incidents × 300,000) / Total Hours Worked in the Year
D) (Total OSHA Recordable incidents × 150,000) / Total Hours Worked in the Year
510. Why does OSHA use 200,000 hours in some of its incident rate formulas?
A) It represents the total number of hours 100 employees would work in one year.
B) It's the average number of hours a single employee works in a year.
C) OSHA considers it a lucky number.
D) It's the average number of hours in a working month.
511. How is ROI calculated?
A) (Net Profit / Initial Investment) x 100
B) Initial Investment / Profit
C) (Initial Investment - Profit) x 100
D) Profit / Sales Revenue
512. If you invest $10,000 in an exoskeleton for workers who must attach bolts from
an assembly project and it saves $15,000 annually in medical injuries, what is the
ROI as a percentage?
A) 150%
B) 50%
C) 15%
D) 5%
513. If a company spends $200,000 to redesign the workplace ergonomically and it
saves $20,000 in annual injury costs after expenses, what is the ROI?
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 20%
514. In terms of safety investment, what is a significant consideration for financial
decision-makers?
a) The cost of safety training materials
b) The potential for reducing accident-related costs
c) The price of personal protective equipment
d) The impact on shareholder value
515. Why is budget allocation crucial in safety management?
A) It allows for increased spending on non-essential items.
B) It enables procurement of necessary safety equipment and training.
C) It is only relevant during financial audits.
D) It focuses primarily on maximizing employee bonuses.
516. In finance, diversification is important because it helps to:
A. Guarantee a fixed return on investment
B. Focus investments in a single market for expertise
C. Spread investment risk across various assets
D. Increase the potential for high-risk, high-reward investments
517. What role does financial analysis play in safety management?
A) It is used to determine the entertainment budget for corporate events.
B) It helps justify the cost-effectiveness of safety interventions.
C) It is irrelevant to the practical aspects of safety management.
D) It is solely focused on reducing the workforce to save costs.
518. What is the primary financial benefit of implementing a comprehensive safety
program in the workplace?
a) Reducing legal fees
b) Decreasing employee turnover
c) Lowering insurance premiums
d) Increasing stock prices
519. What is the impact of cutting safety budgets in terms of long-term financial
outcomes for a company?
A) It increases overall profitability by reducing expenses.
B) It has no impact on the company’s financial health.
C) It can lead to higher costs from accidents and insurance claims.
D) It enhances the company’s reputation in the industry.
520. Perform gap analysis as part of a job analysis
What is the primary purpose of performing a gap analysis during a job analysis?
a) To identify discrepancies between employee performance and company goals
b) To assess the difference between current job descriptions and future
requirements
c) To evaluate the financial impact of a specific role in the organization
d) To determine the training needs for all employees across the organization
521. Which of the following is NOT a typical step in conducting a gap analysis as
part of job analysis?
a) Identify the current state of job roles and responsibilities
b) Define the desired future state of job roles
c) Develop and implement corrective training programs immediately
d) Analyze the gaps between the current and desired states
522. When performing a gap analysis, what is a key outcome that organizations aim
to achieve?
a) A complete restructuring of the organization
b) Detailed documentation of gaps for regulatory purposes
c) Insights to align workforce skills with strategic goals
d) Elimination of all non-performing employees
523. What is the speed of a rocket that travels 8,000 m in 13 seconds?
a. 415 m/s
b. 515 m/s
c. 615 m/s
d. 715 m/s
524. A car moving with 15 m/s uniformly slows its velocity. It comes to a complete
stop in 10 seconds What is its acceleration? a=(v2-v1)/(t2-t1)
a. -4.5 m/s²
b. -3.5 m/s²
c. -2.5 m/s²
d. -1.5 m/s²
525. The mass of a large car is 1000 kg. How much force would be required to
accelerate the car at a rate of 3 m/sec²? F=ma
A. 2000 N
b. 3000 N
c. 4000 N
d. 5000 N
526. The measure of central tendency is a summary statistic that represents
_____________ point of a dataset.
a. Center
b. Mode
c. Inverse
d. Converse
527. If marks obtained by students in a class test is given as per below:
55 36 95 73 60 42 25 78 75 62
What is the mean?
a. 60.1
b. 23.4
c. 45.3
d. 59.5
528. What is the standard deviation?
a. 6.3
b. 11.2
c. 21.3
d. 34.3
529. Which of the following is a common sign of marijuana use?
A. Constricted pupils
B. Increased aggression
C. Bloodshot eyes
D. Uncontrollable shaking
530. Which of the following is a common sign of substance abuse in the workplace?
A) Frequent tardiness or absenteeism
B) Increased productivity and attention to detail
C) Improved relationships with coworkers and supervisors
D) Decreased stress and anxiety
531. What should a supervisor do if they suspect an employee is under the
influence of a substance at work?
A) Confront the employee and accuse them of substance abuse
B) Ignore the behavior and hope it doesn't happen again
C) Document the behavior and report it to HR or management
D) Try to cover up the behavior to avoid disciplinary action
532.You are the risk manager in a manufacturing company that has recently
expanded its operations internationally. You are tasked with identifying risks
associated with this expansion according to ISO 31000. Which of the following
should be your first step in aligning with ISO 31000 guidelines for risk identification?
A. Implementing immediate controls for all perceived risks without further analysis.
B. Conducting a comprehensive risk assessment session involving stakeholders from
various departments to gather different perspectives on potential risks.
C. Focusing solely on financial risks while assuming other types of risks are covered
by local managers.
D. Copying risk management strategies from competitors in the new market without
customization.
533. You are an auditor preparing to conduct an audit of a company's management
system, which claims compliance with ISO 19001 standards. You need to ensure
your audit plan aligns with these standards. Which of the following should be a key
consideration when planning your audit according to ISO 19001?
A. Ensuring that the audit is conducted during the company's busiest season to
observe typical stress conditions.
B. Selecting audit team members based only on their availability during the planned
audit period.
C. Determining the audit scope, criteria, and objectives, taking into account the size
and nature of the organization.
D. Focusing solely on areas where previous audits have found issues, ignoring other
processes or systems.
534. What is the primary focus of ISO 45003?
A) Improving physical health in the workplace
B) Managing psychosocial risks in the work environment
C) Enhancing product safety standards
D) Regulating environmental impacts of businesses
535. There are three requirements before using a tight-fitting respirator. Two
requirements are a medical evaluation by a LHCP and initial fit testing, either
qualitative or quantitative. What is a third requirement?
A. Real-time demonstration in a hazardous environment
B. Cardio-pulmonary function test
C. Initial and annual training
D. Leak test
536. When a respiratory hazard exists or is suspected, the concentration must be
measured. Which testing medium is MOST appropriate for this measurement?
a. Dba Dosimeter.
b. LEL meter
c. Oxygen sensor
d. Air sampling device
537 . Employees working in IDLH atmospheres shall be provided a full facepiece
pressure demand SCBA certified by NIOSH for a minimum service life of ____
minutes:
a. 20
b 30
c. 40
d. 50
538. What action should be taken if a crane operator comes into contact with a
7200 volt power line and the crane is not on fire?
A. Continue operating to complete the task quickly
B. Immediately shut down the crane, have the area evacuated and stay in the
cab.
C. Try to remove the power line from the crane using a dry wooden stick and
rubber gloves. .
D. Ask bystanders to pull the crane away from the power line.
539. A subcontractor is planning a system safety analysis for dismantling a tower
crane that is attached to a multi-story building, to be disassembled using a mobile
crane section by section. Considering the analysis will focus on equipment, which
system safety analysis technique is most suitable?
A) Fault Tree Analysis
B) Multilinear Events Sequencing
C) Job Safety Analysis
D) Failure Modes and Effects Analysis
540. The purpose of the anti-two block is:
a. Prevent the Sheaves from falling out of the load block.
b. Help prevent the load block from contacting the boom tip.
c. Prevent the wire rope from jumping off the sheave.
d. Prevent the Swing Radius block from hit the load block.
541. Which is most common entry for chemicals into the body.
a. Inhalation
b. Ingestion
c. Absorption
d. Injection
542. Metal Fume Fever comes from inhalation of ______________.
a. Iron Oxide
b. Copper Oxide
c. Tin Oxide
d. Zinc Oxide
543. What is the function of the skeletal system in the human body?
A) To produce blood cells and store nutrients.
B) To control body temperature.
C) To digest and process nutrients.
D) To transmit nerve impulses.
544. What is the KEY priority for a safety Professional?
a. Ensure the company survives and makes a profit.
b. Take continuing education classes.
c. Make sure the company meets key performance indicators.
d. Ensure the safety and health of the workers.
545. A safety professional’s not recording medical treatment cases on the injury log
to lower the company overhead cost is an example of which conduct?
a. Compromised integrity
b. Generally acceptable behavior
c. Professional negligence
d. The industry standard approach
546. What is considered a key BCSP Code of Ethics principle?
a. Impartiality
b. Consideration
c. Communication
d. Objectivity
547. What is the primary purpose of an occupational exposure assessment?
A) To increase workplace productivity
B) To identify and evaluate potential health hazards in the workplace
C) To determine employee satisfaction levels
D) To assess the company's financial performance
548. Which of the following is NOT typically considered when conducting an
occupational exposure assessment?
A) Duration of exposure
B) Route of exposure
C) Employee's age and gender
D) Concentration of the hazardous substance
549. What is a Time-Weighted Average (TWA) in occupational exposure assessment?
A) The average time it takes for a worker to complete a task
B) The average exposure to a hazardous substance over a specific time period,
typically 8 hours
C) The time it takes for a hazardous substance to break down in the environment
D) The average time between workplace accidents
550. ________________ temperature is the temperature at which the vapor of
flammable material ignites an air without an ignition source.
a. Boiling point
b. Flash point
c. Autoignition
d. Detonation
551. A fire evacuation simulation was given at a hospital. The audit observer noted
multiple issues made by nurses during the drill. What should the follow-up for the
drill be?
a. Reenact the drill again
b. Provide training for the nursing staff
c. Ignore the issues and assume they won't happen again
d. Conduct a written test on evacuation procedures
552. Large building under construction for an industrial facility should what kind of
protection to prevent fires at the job site.
a. A daily visit by the fire department to job trailer of the project superintendent.
b. Fire insurance of 110% the value of the property and material.
c. A trained fire brigade.
d. An established program of pre-fire plans consisting of daily surveillance and
housekeeping.
523. In construction, Stair landings are required every ___________________feet. Ref:
1926.1052
a. 4
b. 12
c. 19
d. 24
524. What is the recommended angle for setting up an extension ladder against a
wall or other vertical surface?
A) 30 degrees
B) 45 degrees
C) 60 degrees
D) 75 degrees
525. A Type 1A ladder as a capacity of ______________ pounds.
a. 400 lbs
b. 300 lbs
c. 250 lbs
d. 200 lbs
526. Raynaud’s phenomenon is a problem which causes
A. Tendinitis
B. Decreased blood flow to the fingers
C. Joint inflammation
527. Anthropometrics is
a. The study of living organisms.
b. Measurements of the human body
c. Designing the machine to fit the individual
d. Implementation of a work hardening program
528. The following data factors apply to a task:
Loading Weight = 70 lb
Recommended Weight Limit = 20 lb
Lifting Index = LW/RWL
What is the lifting index for the task?
a. 1.00
b. 2.50
c. 3.50
d. 4.00
529. Which of the following explains how a fixed guard protects workers?
a. Stops the machine when a worker enters the danger area
b. Restrains the worker from entering the danger area
c. Creates distance to keep the worker from entering the danger area
d. Provides a barrier to prevent access to the danger area
530. The three major types of machine guards are:
a. Barrier, warning signs, training
b. Fixed, Interlocked, automatic
c. Hairpin, remote sensing, color coded.
d. Electronics, Enclosure, Machine operators audits.
531. What is the most important thing to do before performing maintenance on a
conveyor system?
A. Notify your supervisor
B. Lockout the conveyor
C. Wear personal protective equipment
D. Review the maintenance manual
532 Which health control for manganese overexposure would be the MOST desirable
for a welder arc welding metal ??
A. Substitution of less toxic materials
B. Wear a N95 filtering face piece
C. Job rotation
D. General dilution ventilation
533. Which is BEST control for workers climbing a 30 foot fixed ladders to the roof to
physically inspection skylights condition.
a. Use trained climbers to access the ladder.
b. Provide ladder fall arrest system when climbing the ladder.
c. Provide stairs instead of ladders to access the roof
d. Reduce the task to once a year.
534. Scenario: Noise in a Manufacturing Plant
A manufacturing plant has several loud machines operating in close proximity to
workers, leading to noise levels exceeding the permissible exposure limit. Which of
the following control measures would be MOST effective in reducing the risk of
noise-induced hearing loss, according to the hierarchy of controls?
a) Provide hearing protection (earplugs or earmuffs) to all workers in the area.
b) Implement a noise monitoring program to track worker exposure levels.
c) Redesign the workspace to increase the distance between workers and the noisy
machines.
d) Replace the noisy machines with quieter models.
535. What is social engineering as it applies to information security?
A. A method for controlling the thought process of a group of people
B. The negative aspect of decision by committee, otherwise known as groupthink.
C. The science of mob psychology
D. The use of emotional triggers and other psychological tactics to obtain
confidential information.
536. Two colleagues in your department have been in a heated argument over work
responsibilities for several minutes. The argument escalates, and one of them
shoves the other forcefully in view of the team. What is the most appropriate action
to take?
A. Try to physically intervene and separate them yourself.
B. Shout at them to stop and try to grab everyone’s attention to shame them into
stopping.
C. Call for security or the appropriate personnel to intervene immediately.
D. Record the incident on your phone to provide evidence in case of an
investigation.
537. A recently terminated employee has been sending hostile and vaguely
threatening emails to your team, expressing anger over the termination. The emails
suggest he might do something to "make everyone understand" his situation. How
should your team respond?
A. Reply to his emails, trying to calm him down and explain the reasons for his
termination more clearly.
B. Report the emails to your security department and human resources as soon as
possible.
C. Ignore the emails, assuming he will cool down eventually.
D. Send the emails to other coworkers to warn them and gather their opinions on
what to do next.
538. Which of these can be explosive as a dust?
a. Lead
b. Aluminum
c. Copper
d. Silicon
539. What is the primary reason for conducting a combustible dust hazard analysis
(DHA) in industrial settings?
A) To fulfill insurance requirements.
B) To identify and assess the risks associated with combustible dust.
C) To ensure proper inventory tracking.
D) To comply with local building code.
540. Which method is most effective for preventing the risk of dust explosions in a
facility handling combustible powders?
A) Regular housekeeping to remove dust accumulations.
B) Installation of explosion venting in the ventilation system.
C) Use of water sprinklers in areas where dust is present.
D) Increasing the humidity levels to above 95% at all times.
541. When evaluating clarity in communication, which of the following is the MOST
important aspect to consider?
A) The speaker's tone of voice and rate of speech.
B) The message is easily understood by the intended audience.
C) The use of complex vocabulary and technical jargon.
D) The length of the communication (shorter is always better).
542. Which of these scenarios BEST demonstrates effective active listening skills?
A) Nodding occasionally while thinking about what you will say next.
B) Interrupting the speaker to share your own similar experiences.
C) Summarizing the speaker's points to ensure understanding.
D) Maintaining constant eye contact without any breaks.
543. Empathy in interpersonal communication is BEST described as:
A) Agreeing with everything the other person says.
B) Sharing your own personal experiences to build rapport.
C) The ability to understand and share the feelings of another.
D) Offering unsolicited advice to help solve the other person's problems.
534. A chain applies a steady force of 1000 N to a cart, causing the cart to move in
a straight line and accelerate at a rate of 25 m/s^2.
Given the formula: Force = Mass x Acceleration,
What is the cart's mass?
A. 40.00 g (0.088 lbs)
B. 40.00 kg (80.82 lbs)
C. 0.25 kg (0.55 lbs)
D. 0.25 g (0.00055 lbs)
535. A sum of money has a present value of $1,000. If it is invested for 5 years at
an interest rate of 3% compounded annually, what will its future value be? Formula
is FV=PV×(1+r)n
A. $1,159.27
B. $1,500.00
C. $1,115.93
D. $1,300.00
536. When constructing a confidence interval for a population mean, which factor
does not affect the width of the confidence interval?
A) The sample size
B) The confidence level
C) The sample mean
D) The standard deviation of the sample
537. Raynaud’s phenomenon is a problem which causes
A. Tendinitis
B. Decreased blood flow to the fingers
C. Joint inflammation
D. Neuritis
538. A fitness for duty program’s purpose is to ensure that a worker is
A. Physically matched with workload characteristics
B. A team player with regard to fellow co-workers
C. Can lift the load constant weight specified in the lifting equation
D. Physically and psychologically able to perform essential functions of a job
539. What is the position of the wrist called where the palm is down, and the
fingers are curved slightly toward the wrist?
A. Bad posture
B. Flexion
C. Extension
D. Normal
540. What is the Hawthorne Effect?
A) Observation that workers are mainly motivated by personal gain
B) The theory that greatest efficiency is achieved by management based on
scientific analysis of a process
C) The tendency of employees to work harder when they are participants in an
experiment
D) Inherently unsafe working conditions caused by bureaucratic management
541. _________________ seeks to reduce the possibility that a loss will occur and
reduce the severity of those that do occur.
a. Financial management
b. Control Management
c. Loss Control
d. Zero sum management
542. What is the primary goal of benchmarking?
A) To analyze competitor weaknesses
B) To improve performance by learning from others
C) To reduce operational costs
D) To comply with industry regulations
543. At what minimum voltage level must an employer guarantee that personnel
trained in first aid and CPR are present onsite at all times when employees are
working on or near exposed electrical equipment and wiring?
a. 24 volts
b. 120 volts
c. 480 volts
d. 50 volts
544. What are the 5 C’s of safety? Commitment, Culture and?
Ref: Sheehan’s Building a Strong Safety Culture, The 5 C’s of Workplace Safety.
a. Communication, Controls, and Continuous Improvement
b. Compliance, Controls, and Catalyst
c. Champions, Cost, and Compliance.
d. Cooperation, Compliance, and Communication
545. What is the primary goal of an Emergency Action Plan (EAP) in the workplace?
a. To facilitate and organize employer and employee actions during workplace
emergencies.
b. To provide a financial plan for emergency situations.
c. To comply solely with local government regulations.
d. To ensure that the business continues without interruption.
546. Accident/Incident investigations determine how and why ___________ occur.
a. Errors
b. Failures
c. Mistakes
d. Complacency
547. The incident investigation should be conducted:
a. At the start of the next day with all the witnesses.
b. As soon as possible individually with each witness separate
c. Within one hour. Get the witnesses together and see if the group can put together
a timeline of events.
d. Give each witness an incident form to fill out and return to the safety department
the next day.
548. Which of the following is NOT a typical step in an incident investigation
process?
a) Securing the scene and providing first aid.
b) Gathering information through interviews and observations.
c) Disciplining employees involved in the incident.
d) Analyzing the data and identifying root causes.
549. After discussing it with your workers, you learned that most of the trips and
falls were caused by floors cluttered with tools and equipment that workers used to
assemble automotive parts, including air hoses used for pneumatic tools. What is a
good leading indicator?
a. Hold slip trip and fall training every month and measure the amount of slip and
trip incidences.
b. Ask employees to report unsafe conditions to you. Measure the number of
suggestions.
c. Measure and keep track of slips and falls.
d. Create an indicator that measures the frequency of inspecting and clearing the
floors, and your goal is once daily.
550. When calculating incident or injury rates, which factors are commonly
considered, given the variations due to company policies and regulatory demands?
a. Total hours employees have worked and the overall count of incidents or injuries.
b. Count of fatal incidents, average employee count, and the sum of all settlement
expenses.
c. Total training hours received by employees, their salaries, and their tenure in the
company.
d. Duration of absence post-incident, accumulated medical expenses, and specific
body regions impacted.
551. How can leading indicators improve workplace safety?
A) By providing data on past accidents to avoid future legal issues
B) By encouraging reactive measures after an incident occurs
C) By guiding proactive safety measures and interventions
D) By focusing solely on the financial aspects of safety incidents
552. Hazard Identification and assessment is an ongoing process to assess
________________.
a. Workplace hazards
b. Worker compensation losses
c. The organizational behavior towards safety
d. Constant Behavior analysis
553. An effective risk management program includes risk identification, risk
analysis, and risk response. One example of risk identification is:
A. Building a retainer wall to prevent flooding.
B. Estimating the likelihood and financial impact of a fire.
C. Contacting families and insurance companies.
D. Doing research on local weather patterns and geological formations.
555. What are the main principles of successful auditing according to ISO 19001.
a. Intelligence, Articulation of Issues, and Documentation.
b. Integrity, Independence and Due Professional Care.
c. Speed, Accuracy, and Truthfulness.
d. Length, Knowledge, and Identification of Hazards.
556. One ______________ is defined as the energy consumption rate of one joule per
second (power)
a. Ampere
b. Ohm
c. Volt
d. Watt
557. What does Ohm's Law state?
A) Voltage is directly proportional to the square of resistance.
B) Current is inversely proportional to resistance.
C) Voltage is directly proportional to current.
D) Resistance is directly proportional to current.
558. A ground loop impedance tester is used to test _________________
a. The Amps in the circuit
b. The Resistance in the grounding wire.
c. The Watts in the system
d. Th 4. The metal ring weighs 1000 lbs.
559. The three sling angles are at 45 degrees from horizontal.
What is the tension in each sling leg?
_______________ pounds.
a. 283
b. 362
c. 408
d. 471
560. Which grade of chain is the only acceptable type for use in chain slings?
Ref: 1926.251(b)
a. Transport G-7
b. High test G-4
c. Alloy G-8
d. Proof coil G-3
561. What is the primary purpose of a rigging plan in construction?
A) To determine the cost of materials and labor for a project.
B) To ensure that the right type of crane is available on-site.
C) To outline procedures and safety measures for lifting and moving loads.
D) To provide training for new construction workers.e Voltage to earth
562. The Community Right to Know is under EPA ______________
a. SARA Title III
b. TSCA
c. CERCLA
d. RCRA
563. The most common source of wildfires is caused by which type of lightning.
a. Dry Lightning
b. Cloud Flashes
c. Ball Lightning
d. The bolt from the blue.
564. What is the primary purpose of the REACH regulation?
A) To reduce the administrative burden on chemical manufacturers
B) To ensure a high level of protection of human health and the environment from
the risks posed by chemicals
C) To increase the import of chemicals into the EU
D) To deregulate chemical production within the European Union.

.
565. Sheet metal in stamping are used in a facility. During handling of these
materials, a risk of lacerations may exist. Which control is MOST effective in
minimizing this risk to workers?
a. Conduct a job brief to discuss proper handling of sheet metal.
b. Dull the edges of the sheet metal to make it safer to handle.
c. Mark the edge with orange tape so workers know where to put hands.
d. Require the use of properly rated, cut resistant gloves.
567. What should you do before using a forklift?
A) Ensure the forklift is suitable for indoor use only.
B) Perform a pre-use inspection to check for any potential issues.
C) Modify the forklift for higher performance.
D) Use the forklift to push loads instead of lifting them.
568. What is the primary purpose of implementing ergonomic principles in material
handling?
A) To reduce the environmental impact of manufacturing processes.
B) To increase the speed of operations and material flow.
C) To minimize the risk of injuries through proper design and use of equipment.
D) To comply with international shipping regulations.
569. What does the "whole man theory" relate to in the context of workers'
compensation?
A. The calculation of retirement benefits
B. The assessment of an employee's overall health
C. The determination of compensation based on the impact of an injury on a
worker’s overall capabilities
D. The legal responsibility of employers to maintain workplace safety
570. Which term refers to the process of identifying problems and their solutions by
organizing information into either established or newly invented concepts?
a. Analytical thinking
b. Conceptual seeking
c. Achievement seeking
d. Conceptual thinking
571. What is the appropriate response when you suspect an employee's complaint
is intended to cause trouble for another employee?
a. Consider the information bona fide until you have the results of the company
investigation.
b. Assume the information of the complaint is not correct.
c. Discipline the employee who has filed the complaint.
d. Do not accept the complaint and share the information with other employers.
572. What is active listening and why is it important in effective communication?
A) Listening to music while talking to someone to improve mood
B) Paying full attention to the speaker, understanding their message, responding
thoughtfully, and remembering what was said
C) Repeating exactly what someone has said to confirm the message
D) Avoiding eye contact to better concentrate on the verbal message
573. Which of the following is NOT typically considered an interpersonal skill?
A) Empathy
B) Negotiation
C) Proficiency in software programming
D) Conflict resolution
574. What does the term 'synchronous learning' refer to in the context of training
and development?
A) Learning that happens in real-time, where all participants engage in the learning
activity simultaneously.
B) Self-paced learning modules that participants complete on their own schedules.
C) Training that is conducted asynchronously in different time zones.
D) The documentation and tracking of a learner's progress over time.
575. Why is it important to use Ground Fault Circuit Interrupters (GFCIs) in areas
near water sources?
A) To prevent electrical appliances from overheating.
B) To provide a stable power supply during voltage fluctuations.
C) To detect and interrupt electrical faults that could cause electric shock.
D) To reduce energy consumption and lower electricity bills.
576. A secondary side of the transformer usually has _______ voltages than the
primary side. See the diagram below.
a. Higher
b. Lower
c. Equal
d. Zero
577. The safety professional was inspecting the electrical that controlled all
operating equipment in the plant. She noticed that the manually operated
Emergency Power shutoff switch was blocked by a pallet of servers. Why is this a
hazard?
A. Servers are required to be stored outside.
B. Emergency Power shut off for the electrical cannot be reached.
C. The switch was not painted red.
D. The power switch was not labeled.

578. What is the title of a person who has the knowledge to design and supervise
the installation of fall protection systems on a job site?
A. Qualified Person
B. Competent Person
C. Authorized Person
D. Rescuer
579. Personal fall arrest systems, when stopping a fall, shall limit maximum
arresting force on an employee to __________________ pounds when used with a body
harness; 1926.502(d)
a. 700
b. 1800
c. 2000
d. 2200
580. Which of the following is a potential consequence of orthostatic intolerance
during a fall arrest?
A. Uncontrolled descent
B. Suspension trauma
C. Equipment malfunction
D. Immediate unconsciousness
581. Which of the following is a key component of effective instructional leadership?
A) Focusing solely on standardized test scores.
B) Limiting teacher autonomy to ensure compliance.
C) Prioritizing administrative tasks over classroom activities.
D) Promoting professional development for teachers.
582. Effective communication in educational leadership should primarily aim to:
A) Convey decisions and policies from top management only.
B) Discourage teachers from expressing concerns or suggestions.
C) Encourage a one-way flow of information.
D) Foster an environment of open dialogue and feedback.
D) Using a formal approach in all communications to assert authority.
583. Which of the following best describes the use of interpersonal skills in
educational leadership?
A) Avoiding personal interactions to maintain professional distance.
B) Building relationships to understand and motivate staff and students.
C) Ignoring conflicts to maintain peace in the organization.
D) Using a formal approach in all communications to assert authority.
584. The area of a lot that is 100 ft long and 60 ft wide is ________ square feet.
a. 100
b. 160
c. 320
d. 6000
585. A circle has a diameter of 10 feet. What is its radius?
A) 2 feet
B) 5 feet
C) 10 feet
D) 20 feet
586. A safety zone is marked in the shape of a circle. If the diameter of the circle is
10 meters, what is the approximate area of the safety zone?
A) 31.4 square meters
B) 314 square meters
C) 157 square meters
D) 78.5 square meters
587. As a company safety manager, what would be your initial step to address the
recent increase in hand and arm lacerations at a manufacturing plant?
a. Retrain all workers in hand and arm safety.
b. Buy more personal protective equipment and enforce its use.
c. Conduct a root cause analysis.
d. Carry out a training needs assessment.
588. Safety training and education are typically classified into two categories:
formal and informal. In the case of informal training:
a. It includes on-the-job training and online training
b. It may necessitate 75% more time compared to formal training covering the
same material.
c. It is not limited to the work environment alone.
d. It constitutes approximately 90% of adult learning
589. According to William C. Pope, which three factors contribute to the cause of an
incident?
a. Error, defect, oversight
b. Training, oversight, inadequate system
c. Regulation, error, attitude
d. Defect, management, training
590. Which is the correct order for lockout.
a. Energy isolation, Shutdown machine or equipment, Isolate equipment, Notify
employees
b. Notify employees, Prepare for shutdown, Lockout, Verify Isolation,
c. Application of control, Lockout tagout, Isolate equipment, Shutdown machine or
equipment
d. Lockout, Isolate equipment, Shutdown machine or equipment, Notify employees
591. Who is authorized to perform a lockout/tagout procedure?
a. Any employee
b. Only trained and authorized employees
c. Any employee with a key to the lockout device
d. Only the owner of the company
592. Why is it important to verify the absence of energy after performing a lockout?
a. To confirm that the lockout device is attached.
b. To ensure that the equipment is still operational.
c. To make certain there is no residual energy that could pose a danger when
performing maintenance.
d. To check the machine's jog function.
593. Per Clay Carr, what is an adult learning needs?
a. Training must be short
b. Training must be relevant
c. Trainers must be an expert in the topic
d. Adults do not want feedback
594. Which are the key elements of an effective safety and health performance
management system?
a. Policy, organizing, planning and implementation, and measuring performance,
and discipline
b. Measuring performance, reviewing performance, and auditing near-misses,
training, and enforcement
c. Education, Planning and organization, policy, reviewing performance and
enforcement
d. Policy, organizing, planning and implementation, measuring performance and
reviewing performance
595. Trainer should arrive ____________ minutes before the start of training to get set
up, check the learning environment, verify materials are in order, and greet
participants as they arrive.
a. 10
b. 15.
c. 20
d. 30
596. Name two atmospheric tests that must be conducted if entering a broken
sewer main in a trench
a. Carbon Monoxide and Methylene Chloride
b. Carbon Dioxide and Sulfur Dioxide
c. Hydrogen Sulfide and Methane
d. Dimethyl Bromide and Ammonia.
597. Before starting excavation work, what is the most important step to ensure
safety?
A) Setting up barriers around the excavation site
B) Conducting a thorough risk assessment
C) Securing the necessary tools and equipment
D) Informing local authorities about the excavation work
20. Type A soil is sloped at ____________:1
a. 2
b. ¾
c. 1
d. 1.5
598. What Is The Traditional Risk Management Approach For Industrial Hygiene?
A. Anticipation, Recognition, Evaluation, Control, and Confirm
B. Plan, Do, Check, Act
C. Planning, Hazard Identification, Risk Assessment, Risk Control, Monitor and
Review
D. Policy, Organize, Plan and Implement, Measure Performance, Review
Performance.
599. OSHA uses a ___________ of 50 ppm for carbon monoxide
a. PEL
b. REL
c. TLV
d. STEL
600. Which of the following is the most correct concerning sanding of asbestos
containing floor material in accordance with OSHA regulations? Ref: 1910.1001(k)(7)
(ii).
a. The ventilation system must be installed that captures all the ACM above the PEL.
b. The surface area must be wetted, or enclosed or effectively ventilated prior to
sanding.
c. Sanding must be done in a wet state sufficient to prevent the emission of
airborne fibers so as to expose the employees to levels in excess of the TWA and or
excursion limit.
d. Sanding of asbestos containing flooring materials is prohibited.
601. A paint storage room requires six air changes per hour to maintain safe air
quality by diluting and removing potentially toxic fumes. If the paint storage room
has a volume of 240 cubic meters, how much air must be circulated through the
room each hour to meet this requirement?
A) 1,440 cubic meters
B) 360 cubic meters
C) 1,200 cubic meters
D) 2,400 cubic meters
602. A dike is being constructed to protect a riverside area. It has a rectangular
cross-section with a width of 5 meters and a height of 3 meters. If the dike is to
extend for 200 meters, what is the volume of material needed to construct the dike?
A) 3,000 cubic meters
B) 2,500 cubic meters
C) 3,500 cubic meters
D) 4,000 cubic meters
603. The volume of a cylinder with a radius of 2 feet and height of 4 is _____ Cuft.
a. 20.2
b. 30.2
c. 40.2
d. 50.2
604. Which technique is most effective for maintaining learner engagement during
a training session?
A) Lecturing without interruptions
B) Frequent, short breaks
C) Continuous, one-way communication
D) Extended sessions without interaction
605. When introducing a new concept, what is a recommended facilitation
technique?
A) Using technical jargon to sound knowledgeable
B) Starting with an advanced topic before basics
C) Connecting the concept to real-world applications
D) Avoiding questions until the end of the session
606. What role should multimedia play in a training session?
A) It should be used sparingly to avoid distractions
B) It should replace all traditional teaching methods
C) It should be the primary source of information
D) It should complement the training by reinforcing learning objectives
607. To identify areas within your facility that are most susceptible to slip, trip, or
fall hazards, which tool would be MOST suitable for your use?
a) Root cause analysis of previous slip, trip, or fall incidents
b) Facility floor plan showing locations of related injuries for the past 12 months
c) Recent Inspection reports indicating potential risk factors for walking and working
surfaces
d) Near miss reports related to unsafe conditions
608. If construction workers at your facility are seen carrying 80-pound (36.29
kilograms) bags of material up four flights of stairs, which action should the on-site
safety manager take first to mitigate the risk of incidents or injuries?
Ref: Elements of Ergonomic Programs; National Institute for Occupational Safety and
Health. (1997).
a. Assess the work for duration, stress, work rotation, and material handling
concerns.
b. Immediately stop the work.
c. Provide a hoisting device to raise the materials to the 4th floor.
d. Conduct a safety meeting to discuss proper material handling and body
positioning.
609. In a work setting where temperatures can vary SIGNIFICANTLY and potentially
reach extreme levels during a shift, what approach can help employees keep a safe
core body temperature?
a. Adequate hydration
b. Portable heating/cooling units
c. Layered clothing
d. Frequent breaks
610. Occupational exposure limits for chemicals are primarily derived from
a. Human exposure studies
b. Workplace epidemiological studies
c. Animal toxicological studies
d. Mycological data
611. Silica is commonly found in many construction materials. What is the main
hazard it poses to workers on a construction site, and what is the MOST effective
method to manage this hazard?
a. Inhalation of crystalline silica leads to silicosis (a lung disease). To manage this,
use water to suppress dust formation.
b. Silica is abrasive, damaging the eyes, skin, and teeth. The recommended control
measure is a full-face supplied air mask.
c. Exposure to silica dust irritates the mouth and throat. A single strap dust mask is
sufficient for protection.
d. The primary issue with naturally occurring silica is that it obscures vision by
dirtying safety eyewear. Regularly wipe eyewear with a clean cotton cloth to
mitigate this.
612. What three readings are taken outdoors to calculate the heat index?
Wet bulb temperature, Dry bulb temperature and?
a. Globe thermometer temperature
b. Radiant Gorge Temperature
c. Infrared Thermal Temperature
d. Ultraviolet Radiation Exposure
613. Under U.S. federal regulations, what is the maximum driving time for property-
carrying commercial drivers before a required rest break?
A) 8 hours of driving
B) 11 hours of driving
C) 14 hours of driving
D) 24 hours of driving
614. What is one of the most effective ways to reduce accidents in a fleet
operation?
A. Increasing the number of vehicles
B. Improving road infrastructure
C. Providing driver training and education
D. Reducing vehicle maintenance standards
615. Which technology has been shown to significantly improve transportation
safety by monitoring driver behavior?
A) GPS tracking
B) Dashboard cameras
C) Telematics systems
D) FM radio systems
616. _________________ refers to the number of subordinates under a manager’s
direct control.
a. Command structure
b. Organizational Chart
c. Span of Control
d. Key Performance Indicator
617. When developing an Emergency Management plan, what is the principle which
the strategies and tactics must be met?
a. Command responsibilities.
b. Communication responsibilities.
c. Protection of life, property, and the environment
d. Business continuity
618. Which factor determines the span of control for an Incident Commander (IC)?
A) The level of experience of the IC
B) The number of responders available at the scene
C) The severity of the incident
D) The geographical location of the incident
619. What is the name of a program that provides employees with access to
professional services and trained providers to address personal, physical, or stress-
related issues that may impact their overall well-being?
a. Employee assistance program
b. Socio-psychological group
c. Corporate support program
d. Wellness program
620. To ensure a safe and healthy workplace, organizations must understand the
basics of indoor air quality (IAQ). Which item(s) would MOST likely compromise IAQ?
a) Cleaning products
b) Unfiltered sunlight
c) Inadequate ventilation
d) High interior humidity
621. Scenario
A manufacturing plant is assessing risks associated with a new machinery
installation. The risk assessment team identifies potential hazards, including:
Electrical shock
Crushing injuries
Fire
622. A risk matrix categorizes the electrical shock hazard as "High Severity" and
"Medium Likelihood." What does this indicate?
A) The risk is low priority
B) The risk requires immediate mitigation
C) The risk is acceptable without controls
D) The risk requires periodic review
623. Which guidance sets overall safety standards for ships, including those
carrying dangerous goods. It mandates requirements for vessel stability, fire
protection, and navigation systems.
a. International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS)
b. Maritime Safety Act (MSA)
c. Merchant Marine Safety for Ships Afloat (MMSSF)
d. Naval Vessel Flag of Registration requirements (NVFR)
624. What is the PRIMARY purpose of ROTE in maritime navigation?
a) To establish speed limits for vessels.
b) To prevent collisions between vessels.
c) To regulate the discharge of pollutants.
d) To ensure the proper loading of cargo.
625. What is the primary purpose of the International Maritime Dangerous Goods
(IMDG) Code?
a) To establish rules for preventing collisions at sea.
b) To regulate the discharge of pollutants from ships.
c) To provide guidelines for safely transporting hazardous materials by sea.
d) To set standards for the construction and design of ships.
626. What does the flashpoint of a substance indicate?
A. The temperature at which it melts
B. The temperature at which it can suddenly explode
C. The lowest temperature at which it can vaporize to form an ignitable mixture in
air
D. The temperature at which it freezes
627 If nearby combustible materials cannot be removed or guarded, a fire watch
must be stationed in the area and maintained for at least ____ minutes after the
welding operations has been completed in locations where a fire might develop.
Ref: https://www.osha.gov/.../files/publications/OSHA4188.pdf
a. 15
b. 30
c. 45
d. 90
628. Per NFPA 850, Recommended Practice for Fire Protection for Electric Generating
Plants and High Voltage Direct Current Converter Station, fire protection and water
supply mains:
a. Must be installed before construction starts on the power plant.
b. Must be installed as major construction progresses.
c. Optional after construction is complete.
d. Not required, as long as a smoke detection system and employee alarms are in
place.
629. What is the most effective way to evaluate job performance change following a
safety training course?
a) Rely solely on participant self-assessment.
b) Compare incident rates before and after the training.
c) Conduct observations of workers performing their tasks and provide feedback.
d) Administer a written test immediately after the training.
630. According to the Kirkpatrick Model, which level evaluates the extent to which
learners apply new skills and knowledge on the job?
A) Reaction
B) Learning
C) Behavior
631. What is a key indicator of successful job performance improvement following
safety training?
A) Decrease in workplace incidents and injuries
B) Increased employee satisfaction
C) Reduced training costs
D) Enhanced company reputation
632. A lithium battery fire would be a Class _____ Fire
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
633. What method involves connecting two or more conductive objects with a
conductor?
a) Humidification
b) Bonding
c) Scaffolding
d) Priming
634. Which detector detects a difference in the light level received from the light
source?
a) Ionization detectors
b) Rate-of-rise heat detectors
c) Photoelectric detectors
d) Heat detectors
635. Fall protection for scaffolds starts at ____________________ feet.
Ref: 1926.451g
a. 2.
b. 4.
c. 6.
d. 10
636. Employees handling scaffolding materials at head level and bending and
leaning between scaffolding members are at risk of impact-type head injuries. Slips
and falls also increase this risk. Why are protective helmets required in this
situation?
A) To protect against electrical shocks.
B) To enhance visibility on the worksite.
C) To protect against impact-type head injuries.
D) To comply with uniform regulations.
637. To protect employees from falling objects on a construction site, what safety
measures must be implemented when working on scaffolds more than 10 feet
above lower levels?
A) Install bright lighting around the scaffold perimeter.
B) Erect barricades below the scaffold and restrict access to the hazard area, and
install toeboards along the edge of platforms.
C) Ensure all workers wear high-visibility clothing.
D) Conduct daily safety briefings for all employees entering the site.
638. Water is Ph of
a. 1.
b. 3.
c. 5.
d. 7
639. You fill a metal container with a volume of 0.55 mol of gas at 105.7 Kpa
pressure and 300K temperature. What volume does it occupy? R = 8.31 LkPa/molK
PV=nRT
a. 42L
b. 24L
c. 13L
d. 4L
640. What is the primary purpose of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?
A) To provide financial information about hazardous materials
B) To guide the safe handling and use of chemicals
C) To list the manufacturer's contact information only
D) To serve as a legal document for environmental violations
641. Which is a good choice for substitution?
a. Substitution of welding rod with chromium for those that have copper.
b. Substitution of paint that contains toluene for benzene
c. Substitution of adhesive containing formaldehyde for one containing Isopropyl
alcohol.
d. Substitution of cleaner containing methylene chloride for one that has ethanol.
642. Moving the hot works brazing operation from a combustible dust food
environment to a safer cleaner non-ignitable environment would be an example of
utilizing:
a) Elimination
b) Substitution
c) Engineering controls
d) Administrative controls
643. As a safety professional at a fitness equipment manufacturer, you see that
there are four back injuries this year from lifting a box of exercise equipment from a
conveyor to a pallet. The conveyor is 36 inches high. The pallet is four inches high.
The pallet is 36 inches away from the conveyor. The box weighs 110 pounds. What
is the BEST solution to this problem.
a. Rotate the lifting task, so the worker only lift the product two hours a day.
b. Lower the conveyor to 28 inches and ensure two workers lift the boxes.
c. Provide the worker with safe lifting training and implement a stretching program.
d. Provide a vacuum lift-assist device to lift the box to the pallet.
644. Hand tools hurt workers when they are:
a. Old
b. New
c. Misused and damaged.
d. Not Inspected Monthly
645. Which of the following should you always do when changing a drill bit or saw
blade?
a. Leave the tool plugged in but switch it off.
b. Ask a friend to hold the tool while you change the bit.
c. Unplug the tool or ensure it's disconnected from its power source.
d. Use a wet cloth to hold the drill bit or blade.
646. Which of the following design features minimizes the risk of kickback in power
saws?
a. A reinforced blade cover
b. Anti-kickback pawls and riving knives
c. A higher RPM motor
d. Extended power cord length
647. All machines consist of three fundamental areas, including __.
a. Flywheels, connecting rods, and transverse moving parts
b. Point of operation, power transmission device, and operating controls
c. Reciprocating parts, rotating parts, and on/off switch
d. Feed mechanisms, auxiliary machine parts, and nip points
648. Unguarded circular saw blades are a common causal factor for a:
a. Puncture wound.
b. Crushed-by injury.
c. Caught-in injury.
d. Struck by injury
649. When should guards be used on a conveyor system?
A. Only when the conveyor is in operation
B. During maintenance activities
C. At all times to protect against accidental contact
D. Only when local regulations require them
649. Which part of the body is the UV light from arc welding harmful to?
a) Eyes
b) Lungs
c) Kidneys
d) Heart
650. Which hazardous metal oxide is associated with welding stainless steel?
a) Iron
b) Manganese
c) Chromium
d) Zinc
651. When welding a muffler to a car, what fire extinguisher should be available if
there is gasoline leaks?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
652. A SDS of a chemical has a (CAS) Registry Number. What is CAS?
a. Chemical Abstract Services
b. Chemical Abbreviation Synonym
c. Chemical Alert System
d. Chemical Advisory Service.
653. Antwan is planning to clean the lab floor with a caustic 10% sodium hydroxide
solution. He doesn’t have gloves or a respirator. The lab manager stops the activity,
stating that it is unsafe. What should the company do?
A. Go to the safety manager to get permission to use the caustic soda.
B. Substitute a less hazardous cleaner
C. Find gloves and a respirator and continue using the caustic soda.
D. Nothing
654. What is the primary purpose of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS)?
A) To ensure chemical manufacturers provide detailed financial reports
B) To ensure that all chemicals are banned from the workplace
C) To ensure that the hazards of all chemicals produced or imported are classified
and that information concerning the classified hazards is communicated to
employers and employees
D) To monitor the import and export of chemicals
655. If a 28 kilogram object has a momentum of 94, what is its velocity?
a. 2.98 meters per second
b. 3.36 meters per second
c. 35.98 meters per second
d. 26.32 meters per second
656. A worker is using a ladder on a smooth concrete floor. Which of the following
best explains why the ladder might slip?
A. The force of gravity on the worker is too low.
B. The air pressure in the room is too high.
C. The ladder has too much mass to remain stable.
D. The friction between the ladder and the floor is insufficient.
657. A worker is hit by a falling object from a height of 20 feet. According to
Newton's Second Law (F = ma), which of the following factors will increase the force
of impact?
A. Reducing the mass of the object.
B. Increasing the height from which the object falls.
C. Reducing the acceleration due to gravity.
D. Wearing a hard hat.
658. When issuing public statements about a hazardous spill, what is the most
ethical course of action?
A) Minimize the severity of the spill to avoid causing panic.
B) Provide accurate and timely information about the spill and its potential risks.
C) Exaggerate the dangers of the spill to ensure people take it seriously.
D) Withhold information about the spill to prevent public outcry.
659. How should safety professionals strive to lead their company?
a. Leading by example
b. Providing adequate training to employees
c. Enforcing strict discipline and policy adherence
d. Exercising the authority granted to them by the company
660. When referring to the BCSP Code of Ethics, which definition BEST captures the
meaning of the word "integrity"?
a. Adherence to moral and ethical principles; soundness of moral character
b. The state of being whole, entire, or undiminished
c. The state, condition, or quality of being fair or free from bias or injustice
d. A sound, unimpaired, or perfect condition
661. When reviewing job performance reports, what key indicator should be
primarily used to assess the effectiveness of safety training?
A) The number of participants who completed the training
B) Changes in job performance related to safety incidents
C) Employee satisfaction with the training
D) Cost of training per employee
662. What is an effective method for reviewing job performance reports to
determine training impact?
A) Looking at reports annually
B) Comparing pre-training and post-training performance metrics
C) Focusing only on the highest performers
D) Reviewing reports without any benchmarks
661. In the context of safety training, why is it important to conduct both initial and
follow-up course evaluations?) To ensure that the training is forgotten
A) To ensure that the training is forgotten
B) To check compliance with legal standards only once
C) To assess the immediate and long-term impact of the training
D) To reduce the workload of the training department