PAPER CODE

A
TEST ID : 0004

(Your Target is to secure good rank in NEET - 2025 )

N EET- 2025
GRAND TEST-4
Max. Marks : 720
NEET - Batch Time : 3 : 00 hours

Roll No : Date : 18 - 04 - 2025

Name : ..................................................................................................................................................

Class : .............................................................Section.................................................................................

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. This paper consists 180 objective type questions from Physics, Chemistry and Biology.
2. For each correct response 4 marks will be awarded, whereas for each incorrect response 1 mark will be
deducted from the total score.
3. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated.
4. More than one answer will be negatively marked.
5. Use Blue/Black ink ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
6. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle in the answer sheet.
7. Do not use White-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. No change in the answer once
marked.
8. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
9. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

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 PHYSICS NEET-Batch

1. For a logic gate A, B are input and C is output voltage In the light of the above statements, choose the most
waveform, then logic gate is appropriate answer from the options given below
1) Both statement A and statement B are correct
2) Both statement A and statement B are incorrect
3) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect
4) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct
8. A voltmeter has a resistance R0 and range V. The resistance
which should be connected with it to increase its range to 3V
will be
1) 2R0 in series 2) 3R0 in series
1) OR 2) AND 3) NOR 4) NAND
3) 2R0 in parallel 4) 3R0 in parallel
2. Assuming the diodes to be ideal, the current I in the following
9. If the ratio of the densities of two planets is 3 : 8 and the ratio
circuit is
of their diameters is 2 : 3, then ratio of their acceleration due
to gravity (close to their surfaces) is
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2
3) 3 : 1 4) 1 : 4
10. Assertion (A): An induced emf must develop in conducting
wire moving in a direction perpendicular to magnetic field.
Reason (R): EMF induced in a conducting wire of length l
1) 10 mA 2) 20 mA 3) 10 A 4) Zero     
3. Light of wavelength 124 nm is incident on photo sensitive

moving with velocity v in magnetic field B is v  B  l 
surface at a rate of 1.6 × 10–7 J/s. The number of photons In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
falling per second on the surface will be answer from the options given below.
1) 109 2) 1010 3) 1011 4) 1012 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation
4. In the reaction H  H  He  0 n , if the binding energies
2 3 4 1 of (A)
1 1 2
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
of 21 H , 31 H and 42 He are respectively a, b and c (in Mev),
explanation of (A)
then the energy (in Mev) released in this reaction is
3) (A) is false but (R) is true
1) a + b + c 2) a + b – c
4) Both (A) and (R) are false
3) c – a – b 4) 4c – 3b – 2a
11. The magnetic field at the centre O of circular part of the
5. Length of a resonance tube is 120 cm. Number of resonances current carrying element as shown in the figure is
possible for wave having frequency 1320 Hz (speed of sound
is 330 m s–1) will be
1) 15 2) 21 3) 10 4) 19
6. An equiconvex lens has refractive index  and radius of
curvature of each surface is R. It is cut into two symmetrical
halves by a plane perpendicular to the principal axis. The
  i  i
power of one part is 1)  0  0   out of the plane of paper
 4R 8R 
 1  1
1) 2)   i  i
2R R 2)  0  0   out of the plane of paper
 2R 2 R 
2(  1) 2  1
3) 4)
R R   i  i
3)  0  0   out of the plane of paper
7. Given below are two statements:  4R 4 R 
Statement A: About the centre of gravity of a body, the total
  i  i
gravitational torque on the body is non-zero. 4)  0  0   out of the plane of paper
 4R 2 R 
Statement B: The centre of mas of symmetric bodies always
12. Two magnets are placed in x-y plane as shown in figure.
coincides with their centre of gravity.
The net magnetic moment of the system will be

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17. Consider the following statements:

Statement A: For an ideal gas, the change in internal energy
of gas and work interaction of the gas are equal in magnitude
in an adiabatic process.
Statement B: The internal energy does not change in an
isothermal process for an ideal gas.
Based upon above information, pick correct option.
3ml ˆ 3ml ˆ
1) i 2) j 1) Both statements A and B are correct
4 2
2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
ml ˆ ml ˆ
3) i 4) j 3) Statement A is correct while B is incorrect
4 4
4) Statement A is incorrect while B is correct
13. In an AC circuit, the voltage
18. If a soap bubble contracts, the pressure inside the bubble
1) Always lead the current
1) Remains same
2) Always lag the current
2) Decreases
3) Is always in phase of current
3) Increases
4) May lead, lag or in phase with current
4) Will become equal to atmospheric pressure
14. Consider the following statements and tick the correct option.
19. For a given gas at 1 atm pressure, rms speed of the molecules
Statement A: If a body is moving with constant speed but
is v at 127°C. At 2 atm pressure, and at 227°C, the rms speed
variable velocity then its path should be circular.
of molecules will be
Statement B: If a body is moving with constant acceleration
but variable velocity then its path should be straight line. 5 5 1 3
1)  2)  3)  4) v
1) Statement A is correct while statement B is incorrect 4 4 2 5
2) Statement A is incorrect while statement B is correct 20. Assertion (A): Steel is more elastic than rubber.
3) Both statement A and statement B are correct Reason (R): Young’s modulus is defined for solids only.
4) Both statement A and statement B are incorrect In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below.
15. Consider the following statements:
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation
a. Linear and superficial expansion coefficients are not
of (A)
defined for liquids.
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
b. Due to increase in temperature, the time period of simple
explanation of (A)
pendulum decreases. 3) (A) is true but (R) is false
c. At 4°C, the specific volume of water is minimum. 4) Both (A) and (R) are false
d. For heat transfer, two bodies must have same temperature 21. The kinetic energy and potential energy of a particle executing
Based on above information, pick correct option. SHM are equal, when displacement in percentage terms of
1) Only a and b are correct amplitude A is
2) Only b and c are correct 1) 50% of A 2) 70.7% of A
3) Only a, b and c are correct 3) 60% of A 4) 25% of A

4) Only a and c are correct 22. For the given stationary wave y  20sin(4x)sin(20t )
16. The P-V diagram for an ideal gas undergoing a thermodynamic where y and x are in m and t is in s.
process is shown in figure. The process is Match column I with column II.
Column-I Column-II
a. Amplitude of component wave (in m) (i) 5
b. Velocity of the component wave (in m s–1) (ii) 0.125
c. Minimum separation between a node and (iii) 0.5
an antinode (in m)
d. Wavelength (in m) of the component wave (iv) 10
1) Isothermal expansion 2) Adiabatic compression 1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) 2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
3) Isochoric 4) Isobaric expansion 3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) 4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

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23. If U is the energy carried by EM wave travelling with speed

c in free space, then momentum P of the EM wave is given by

U2
1) P = Uc 2) P 
c
U
3) P  Uc 4) P 
c
24. Two coherent sources each emitting light of intensity I
interfere in a medium at a point where phase difference
 , then resultant intensity at that point 1) 10 m/s 2) 30 m/s 3) 50 m/s 4) 12 m/s
between them is
3 30. Assertion (A): The work done by the conservative force
would be depends only on the end points of a path.
Reason (R): Wconservative = Uf – Ui
I
1) I 2) 4 I 3) 3 I 4) In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
4
answer from the options given below.
25. If velocity of a particle depends on time (t) as
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation
r
v  p  qt  then the dimensions of r would be [p, q, r of (A)
st
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
and s are positive constants]
explanation of (A)
1) [T–1] 2) [LT–2] 3) [L] 4) [L–1T–1]
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
26. A particle is moving along x-axis. Its x-coordinate varies with
4) Both (A) and (R) are false
time as, x = 2t2 + 4t – 6. Here x is in metres and t in seconds.
The average velocity between the time interval t = 0 to t = 2 s 31. An electron and a proton are placed at 1 Å distance apart,
is the electrostatic force between them is nearly
1) 2 m/s 2) 4 m/s 3) 6 m/s 4) 8 m/s 1) 144 nN 2) 2.3 nN
27. Three blocks P, Q and R of masses 5 kg, 4 kg and 1 kg 3) 23 nN 4) 0.144 nN
respectively, are in contact on a frictionless surface as shown. 32. Two uncharged capacitors are connected in series with a
If a force of 20 N is applied on the 5 kg block then the contact battery as shown in figure. After closing the switch, the net
force between blocks P and Q is work done by the battery in a long time after closing the
switch will be

1) 20 N 2) 10 N 3) 40 N 4) 5 N
28. Acceleration-time graph of a particle moving in a straight
line is as shown. If velocity of particle at time t = 0 is 4 m/s
then velocity at the end of fourth second is
1) 36 J 2) 48 J
3) 72 J 4) 53 J
33. Consider the following statements.
Statement A: For a conducting wire, increase in drift velocity
results in increase in current.
Statement B: For a conducting wire having constant
potential difference across its ends, temperature increase
results in decrease in drift velocity.
1) 4 m/s 2) 12 m/s
Mark the correct option
3) 8 m/s 4) 6 m/s
1) Statement A is correct while statement B is incorrect
29. Two masses, 15 kg and 5 kg are connected by an ideal string
2) Statement A is incorrect while statement B is correct
which is passing over an ideal pulley. If the mass 15 kg is
released from the height 10 m above the floor, then it strikes 3) Both the statements are incorrect
the floor with a speed of (g = 10 m s–2) 4) Both the statements are correct

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34. Nine identical cells each of emf 2 V and internal resistance 39. A current carrying infinite wire is passing through the centre
1 are connected in series with load resistance of 11and n of a ring of radius R and perpendicular to plane of the ring.
cells out of these nine cells are reversed. If this combination The magnetic flux passing through the ring will be

of cells drive
1 A in a load resistance then the value of n is 0 IR 0 IR
2 1) 2)
4 2
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) Zero 3)  0 IR 4) Zero
35. In comparison to eye-piece of telescope, the objective has
40. In an R-L-C series circuit, the voltage and current are
1) Smaller focal length but larger aperture represented by V  100sin(100 t ) and
2) Smaller focal length and smaller aperture
 
I  20sin  100t   A . The value of resistance in the
3) Larger focal length and larger aperture  3
4) Larger focal length but smaller aperture circuit is
36. If radii of curvature of both convex surfaces is 30 cm, then 5 5
focal length of the lens placed in water as shown is 1) 5  2) 3 3)  4) 
3 2
41. If wavelength of electron in third Bohr orbit is 10–8 m, then
the circumference of the orbit is
1) 9 × 10–8 m 2) 4 × 10–8 m
3) 10–8 m 4) 3 × 10–8 m
42. Suppose a pure Si crystal has 4 × 1026 atoms m–3. It is doped
by 1 ppm concentration of pentavalent P. Calculate the
1) 30 cm 2) 120 cm number density of electrons and holes.
3) 60 cm 4) 90 cm (Given that ni = 1.4 × 1016 m–3)
37. A thin uniform spherical shell has mass M and radius R with 1) 4 × 1020 m–3, 4.9 × 1010 m–3
centre at O. Potential (V) due to this shell is given by 2) 4 × 1026 m–3, 4 × 1020 m–3

3 3 GM 3) 4 × 1020 m–3, 4.9 × 1011 m–3

1) Vcentre  Vsurface  
2 2 R 4) 4 × 1026 m–3, 4.9 × 1010 m–3
43. A flat circular ring of radius 4.5 cm is placed gently over the
2 2 GM
2) Vcentre  Vsurface   surface of water. If surface tension of water is 0.07 N m–1,
3 3 R then excess force required to pull it away from surface is
3 3 GM 1) 19.8 mN 2) 39.6 mN
3) Vcentre  Vsurface  
3 2 R 3) 3.96 mN 4) 1.98 mN
GM 44. If the radius of star is R and it acts as a blackbody, then
4) Vcentre  Vsurface   temperature of star if the rate of radiation is Q will be
R
1
38. A uniform disc of mass 10 kg and radius 2 m is hinged about 
1
 Q  4  4R 2Q  4
point P. A force 18 N acts in the plane of the disc at its centre 1)  2 
2)  
as shown below. Initial angular acceleration of the disc is
 4R     

1 1

 Q  2  Q 4
3)  2 
4)  2 
 4R    4R  
45. A beam of light of wavelength 5000 Å from a distance source
falls on a single slit 2 mm wide and resulting diffraction pattern
is observed on a screen 2 m away. Width of central bright
2 2
1) rad / s2 2) rad / s2 fringe will be
3 5
1) 0.5 mm 2) 2 mm
3 4 3) 5 mm 4) 1 mm
3) rad / s2 4) rad / s2
5 3

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46. In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions, the 53. Arrange the following amines in their decreasing order of
central atoms have sp2 hybridisation? basic nature in aqueous solution
1) NO 2 and NH3 2) BF3 and NO 2 a. Benzenamine
3) BF3 and NH 2 4) NH 2 and H2O b. N-Methylaniline
47. The correct increasing order of ionic character is c. Phenylmethanamine
1) LiCl < NaCl < KCl 2) KCl < LiCl < NaCl d. N,N-Dimethylaniline

3) NaCl < LiCl < KCl 4) KCl < NaCl < LiCl 1) a > b > c > d 2) d > b > c > a

48. A solution of sucrose has been prepared by dissolving 34.2g 3) d > b > a > c 4) c > d > b > a
of sucrose in 1000 g of water. The freezing point of the 54. Consider the following statements
solution obtained will be (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol–1) a. [Mn(CN)6]3 – has 2 unpaired electrons and d2sp3
1) – 0.186°C 2) + 0.372°C hybridisation.

3) – 0.372°C 4) + 0.186°C b. cis–[CrCl2(ox)2]3 – complex ion is optically active.

49. Consider the following statements. c. The correct IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NO2)] is
Diamminechloridonitrito-N-Platinum(III)
Statement I: Solubility of gases in liquids increases with
d. [Mn2(CO)10] has one metal-metal bond and two bridged
increase in temperature.
CO groups.
Statement II: For a solution of volatile liquids, the partial
The correct statements are
vapour pressure of each volatile component of the solution
is directly proportional to its mole fraction in solution. 1) a and b only 2) b and d only

In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate 3) a, b, c and d 4) a, b and c only
answer from the options given below 55. Match column-I with column-II
1) Both statement I and statement II are correct Column-I (Reaction) Column-II (Name of reaction)
2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
50. Consider the following statements.
a. BeH2 and BCl3 have incomplete octet of central atoms.
b. N2O is an odd electron molecule.
c. PF5 and SF6 have expanded octet of central atom.
The correct statements are
1) a and b only 2) b and c only
3) a and c only 4) a, b and c
51. The correct decreasing order for the wavelength of The correct match is
absorption for the complexes of Co3+ is 1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
1) [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(CN)6]3 – > [Co(C2O4)3]3 – 2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
2) [Co(C2O4)3]3 – > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(CN)6]3 – 3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(ii)
3) [Co(CN)6]3 – > [Co(C2O4)3]3 – > [Co(NH3)6]3+ 4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
4) [Co(CN)6]3 – > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(C2O4)3]3 – 56. In the following reaction sequence

52. Arrange the following compounds in their increasing order

of reactivity towards SN1 reaction
a. CH3CH2CH2CH2 – Br
b. CH 3CH 2  C H  CH 3
|
c. (CH ) CBr Br
3 3

1) b < a < c 2) a < c < b

3) a < b < c 4) c < b < a The products (A) and (C) respectively are

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61. Consider the following compounds

1) 2)

3) 4)

57. Match the column-I containing some inorganic compounds

with column-II containing their chemical formula.

Hyperconjugation does not occur in

1) (I) only 2) (I), (II) and (III) only
3) (IV) only 4) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
62. Select the incorrect statement.
1) Zinc reacts with concentrated nitric acid to give nitrous
oxide.
2) Chromium does not dissolve in concentrated nitric acid
3) Concentrated nitric acid oxidises iodine to iodic acid
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 4) Phosphine is prepared by heating white phophorus with
1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of
CO2
2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
63. Chemical formula of mustard gas is
3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
1) COCl2
4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
58. Choose the incorrect statement 2)
1) n-Pentane and isopentane are chain isomers
3) CCl3NO2
2) 2,2-Dimethylpropane is also known as neopentane
4) CHCl3
3) Propanone and propanal are functional group isomers
64. In the following reaction, product ‘P’ is
4) Ethoxyethane and ethoxypropane are metamers
59. Which of the given reactions is an example of dispro-
portionation?
1) 2Pb(NO3 ) 2 
Heat
 2PbO  4NO 2  O 2

2) CH 4  2O 2   CO 2  2H 2 O
1) Salicylaldehyde 2) Benzoquinone
3) CaCO3 
 CaO  CO 2
Heat
3) Salicylic acid 4) Aspirin
65. In the following reaction sequence
4) 2H 2 O 2 
Sunlight
2H 2O  O 2
60. Consider the given redox reaction in acidic medium
MnO 4  C 2 O 42  H   Mn 2  CO 2  H 2 O
The number of moles of KMnO4 required to oxidise 0.5 mol
of oxalate ions is
1) 0.1 mol 2) 0.2 mol
3) 0.5 mol 4) 1 mol
The product B and C is

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1) (CH3)3C – I, CH3CH2OH 74. Given below are two statements

2) CH3CH2 – I, (CH3)3C – OH Statement I: Molecularity of a reaction cannot be zero.
3) CH3 – CH2 – I, CH3 – CH2 – OH Statement II: Order of reaction is experimental quantity and
4) (CH3)2CH – OH, CH3CH2 – I can be fraction or zero.
66. Which of the following will not be formed on complete In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate
hydrolysis of XeF4? answer from the options given below
1) Xe 2) XeO3 1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
3) F2 4) HF 2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
67. Match the column-I with column-II 3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Column-I Column-II 4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Compound pKa 75. Reaction of acetone with Grignard reagent followed by hy-
a. o-Nitrophenol (i) 10.2 drolysis majorly gives
b. p-Nitrophenol (ii) 10.1 1) Tertiary alcohol 2) Carboxylic acid
c. m-Cresol (iii) 7.1 3) Secondary alcohol 4) Alkane
d. p-Cresol (iv)7.2 76. Which among the following salt solution will give rotten egg
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. like smell on addition of dilute H2SO4?
1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) 2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) 1) NaCl(aq) 2) Na2S(aq)
3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) 4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) 3) KNO2(aq) 4) Na2CO3(aq)
68. If solubility of Al2(SO4)3 is ‘s’ mol L , then the solubility
–1
77. Match group of cation in column-I with their group reagent
product (Ksp) is of qualitative analysis in column-II
1) 72s5 2) 6s2 Column-I Column-II
3) 54s4 4) 108s5 a. Group-I (i) NH4OH + NH4Cl
69. Which among the following is the correct order of metallic b. Group-II (ii) dilute HCl
character of the given elements?
c. Group-III (iii) H2S + dilute HCl
1) K > Al > Mg > B 2) B > Al > Mg > K
d. Group-IV (iv)H2S + NH4OH
3) K > Mg > Al > B 4) Mg > K > Al > B
Correct match among the following is
70. On electrolysis of H2O, how many faradays are required to
produce 16 g of oxygen gas at anode? 1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) 2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
1) 2 2) 4 3) 3 4) 6 3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) 4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
71. The dissociation constant of an acid HA is 10 –6. The 78. If half life of a first order reaction is 24 min, then time required
dissociation constant of its conjugate base at 25°C is to consume 93.75% reactant will be
1) 10 – 3 2) 10 – 6 3) 10 – 8 4) 10 – 9 1) 48 min 2) 72 min
72. The molar conductivity of 0.2 M NaCl aqueous solution hav- 3) 120 min 4) 96 min
ing conductivity of 1.6 × 10– 3 S cm–1 is 79. Correct decreasing order of pKa for given acids is
1) 2 S cm mol
2 –1
2) 4 S cm mol
2 –1
a. CH3COOH
3) 8 S cm mol
2 –1
4) 16 S cm mol 2 –1
b. HCOOH
73. Given below are two statements, c. C6H5COOH
Statement I: Electron gain enthalpy of bromine is more negative 1) a > b > c 2) b > c > a
than fluorine.
3) a > c > b 4) c > b > a
Statement II: Silicon is more electronegative than carbon as
80. Which one of the followings has maximum number of
per Pauling scale.
molecules among the following?
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.
1) 18 mL of water
1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
2) 0.018 g of water
2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
3) 10 – 2 mol of water
3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
4) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K
4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

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81. Match the following aspects with the respective metal of 85. Consider the following reaction sequence
3d series.
List-I List-II
(Aspects) (Metal)
a. The metal with highest enthalpy of (i) Manganese
atomisation
b. The metal which in +1 oxidation (ii) Vanadium
state undergoes disproportionation Major product B and C are
in aqueous solution 1) CH3CH2CH2CHO and HCHO
c. The metal with highest spin only (iii) Copper 2) CH3CH2CHO and CH3CHO
magnetic moment in +2 oxidation 3) CH3CH2COOH and CH3COOH
state
4) CH3CH2CH2OH and CH3CH2OH
d. The metal which does not exhibit (iv) Scandium
86. If a particle of mass 5 mg is moving with a velocity of
variable oxidation states
2000 ms–1 then the wavelength associated with the moving
Select the correct option
particle will be (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) 2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
1) 6.6 × 10–35 m 2) 6.6 × 10–32 m
3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) 4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
3) 6.6 × 10–30 m 4) 6.6 × 10–28 m
82. The correct relationship between CP molar heat capacity at
87. Match the column-I with column-II
constant pressure and CV molar heat capacity at constant
Column-I Column-II
volume for 2 moles of an ideal gas is
Vitamin Deficiency disease
1) CP + CV = 2R 2) CP – CV = R
a. Pyridoxine (i) Cheilosis
R b. Thiamine (ii) Scurvy
3) CP – CV = 2R 4) CP – CV =
2 c. Riboflavin (iii) Convulsions
83. Given below are two statements d. Ascorbic acid (iv) Beri beri
Statement I: Due to lanthanoid contraction, Zr and Hf have Choose the correct answer from the options given below
almost identical radii. 1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) 2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
Statement II: Both Ce and Yb are diamagnetic in nature.
4+ 2+
3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) 4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate 88. Given below are the two statements
answer from the options given below Statement I: Amylopectin is insoluble in water and constitutes
1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect about 80-85% of starch
2) Both statement I and statement II are correct Statement II: Chemically amylopectin is a long unbranched
3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct chain with 200-1000 -D-(+)-glucose units held together by
4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect C1-C4 glycosidic linkage.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate
84. Reversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal and
answer from the options given below
adiabatic conditions are as shown in the figure.
1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
89. Consider the following species

a. Uisothermal < Uadiabatic (Magnitude only)

b. TC > TB
The total number of aromatic species are
c. TB = TA
1) 2 2) 4 3) 5 4) 3
d. wisothermal < wadiabatic (By system)
90. Correct order of energy of the given orbitals for
Identify the incorrect statements. multielectronic species is
1) a, b and c only 2) b and c only 1) 5s > 4s > 4d > 3d 2) 4d > 5s > 4s > 3d
3) b and d only 4) a, b and d only 3) 5s > 4d > 4s > 3d 4) 4d > 5s > 3d > 4s

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91. Match column I with column II and select the correct option. 98. Select the correct option for the label ‘X’ in the following
Column -I Column-II figure.
(Biologicalname) (Taxonomic categories)
a. Musca domestica (i) Poales
b. Mangifera indica (ii) Polymoniales
c. Solanum melongena (iii) Diptera
d. Triticum aestivum (iv) Sapindales
1) a(iii); b(iv); c(ii); d(i) 2) a(iii); b(iv); c(i); d(ii)
3) a(iv); b(iii); c(ii); d(i) 4) a(iv); b(iii); c(i); d(ii)
92. Five kingdom classification was proposed by
1) R. H. Whittaker 2) Linnaeus
3) Aristotle 4) Carl Woese
93. A prokaryotic organism ‘X’ that completely lack a cell wall
1) Cotyledon 2) Seed coat
and is smallest living cell known, can survive without oxygen.
This organism ‘X’ will most likely to be 3) Hypocotyl 4) Epicotyl hook

1) Nostoc 2) Methanogens 99. Select the correct statement w.r.t. cotton

3) Mycoplasma 4) Halophiles 1) It lacks plasticity

94. Select the mismatched pair. 2) Its growth is stimulated by dormin

1) Stilt roots – Maize 3) Shapes of leaves that are produced in air are different
than those produced in water
2) Respiratory roots – Rhizophora
4) Its abscission is accelerated by ethylene
3) Storage roots – Zaminkand
100. The basal part of the ovule is represented by
4) Prop roots – Banyan tree
1) Funicle 2) Hilum
95. In which of the following plants fruits are formed without
fertilisation? 3) Micropyle 4) Chalaza

1) Apple 2) Mango 101. Observe the figure given below.

3) Grapes 4) Coconut
96. Read the following statements (a-d).
a. Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan
b. Cytoplasmic ribosomes are made up of 60S and 40S
subunits
c. Cyanobacteria oxidise inorganic substances and use the
released energy for ATP production hence are
chemoautotrophs.
d. Some of organisms are autotrophic but vast majority are
heterotrophic Choose the correct labellings for ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ from the
e. Respiratory enzymes are found associated with plasma following options.
membrane 1) A-Microspore mother cells, B- Tapetum, C-Epidermis
How many of the above features are seen in the members of 2) A-Microspore mother cells, B- Endothecium, C-Epidermis
kingdom Monera? 3) A-Tapetum, B- Microspore mother cells, C-Endothecium
1) Four 2) Three 4) A-Tapetum, B- Microspore mother cells, C-Epidermis
3) Two 4) Five 102. Following are given two statements, labelled as Assertion
97. Which of the following take place simultaneously? (A) and Reason(R).
1) Embryo and endosperm formation Assertion(A): Distribution of bryophytes and pteridophytes
2) Embryo and seed formation is limited.
3) Fruit and seed formation Reason(R): Pollination occurs by water in bryophytes and
pteridophytes.
4) Fruit and seed coat formation

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In the light of the above statements, identify the correct 107. Which of following elements of phloem is absent in most of
option from the following. the monocotyledons?
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation 1) Sieve tubes 2) Companion cells
of (A)
3) Phloem parenchyma 4) Phloem fibres
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
108. Read the given Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose
explanation of (A)
the correct option.
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
Assertion(A): In roots, pericycle and hypodermis provide
4) (R) is true but (A) is false mechanical support.
103. Which of the following is a recessive trait of the pea plant Reason(R): In roots, pericycle is made up of sclerenchyma
selected by Mendel for his studies? while hypodermis is made up of collenchymatous cells.
1) Axial floral position 2) Violet colour of flower 1) (A) is true but (R) is false
3) Yellow seed 4) Constricted pod 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
104. Which of the following depicts the correct genotypic ratio explanation of (A)
in the F2 generation if a cross is conducted between a tall pea 3) Both (A) and (R) are false
plant and a dwarf pea plant?
4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation
1) 1 : 1 2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 of (A)
3) 1 : 2 : 1 4) 3 : 1 109. In eukaryotes, which rRNA is not transcribed by RNA
105. Observe the following pedigree polymerase I among those given below?
1) 5.8 S rRNA 2) 28 S rRNA
3) 5 S rRNA 4) 18 S rRNA
110. Read the given statements and choose the correct option.
Statement A: DNA fingerprinting is a technique to find out
variations in individuals of a population at DNA level.
Based on the above pedigree, certain inferences were Statement B: In lac operon, the repressor is synthesised
proposed. constitutively from the i gene.
a. All the affected individuals are haemophillic. 1) Both statements A and B are correct
b. This pedigree exemplifies the inheritance pattern of 2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
myotonic dystrophy. 3) Only statement A is correct
c. Parents are homozygous recessive for the trait under 4) Only statement B is correct
study.
111. Select the correctly matched pair.
d. The affected individuals are homozygous recessive for
I) Friedrich Meischer – Discovery of nuclein in
the trait.
1896
e. If I-5 marries with a unaffected homozygous male, then
II) DNA gyrase – Topoisomerase activity in
all progenies will be unffected
prokaryotes
Select the correct one(s).
III) Ribonucleic acid – Mutate at a slower rate but
1) a and b only 2) b, c and d only evolve faster
3) a, b and c only 4) d and e IV) Caenorhabditis elegans – A free-living pathogenic
106. Mark the given statements as True(T) or False(F) and select nematode used as vector in
the correct option. HGP
a. Deletions and insertions of DNA cause substitution (1) (I) (2) (II) (3) (III) (4) (IV)
mutation. 112. The ground tissue is made up of all the following, except
b. UV rays can act as mutagens. a. Phloem
c. Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal abnormalities b. Endodermis
abc abc c. Xylem
i) T T F ii) T F T d. Pith
iii) F T T iv) F F T e. Medullary rays
(1) (i) (2) (ii) (3) (iii) (4) (iv)
f. Epidermis

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Select the correct option. a. Pre-mitotic phase

1) f only 2) b, d and e only b. S-phase
3) b and f only 4) a, c and f only c. Post-mitotic phase
113. State True(T) or False(F) to the given statements. d. Intrameiotic interphase
a. Two nucleotides are linked through 3’-5’ phosphodiester Choose the correct option.

linkage to form a dinucleotide. 1) Two 2) Three

3) Four 4) One
b. Lambda phage has single-stranded linear DNA with
119. If a cell in the G1 phase has 10 chromosomes and 5 picograms
48502 nucleotides.
of DNA, what would be the corresponding chromosome
c. Rho factor (Á) is required for termination of transcription number and DNA content in the G2 phase?
d. UTRs are present at both 5’-end after start codon and 3’- 1) 10 chromosomes; 10 pg
end before stop codon. 2) 20 chromosomes; 5 pg
e. M. Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin had proposed a 3) 5 chromosomes; 20 pg
definitive double helix model of DNA on the basis of 4) 5 chromosomes; 10 pg
X-ray diffraction pictures
120. T.W. Engelmann worked on green alga, Cladophora along
Choose the correct option. with aerobic bacteria and
a bc d e a bc d e 1) Revealed the essential role of light in growth of green
(i) F T T T T (ii) T T F F T plants
(iii) T F T F F (iv) T F F F T 2) Hypothesised that plants restore the air whatever
breathing animals remove
(1) (i) (2) (ii) (3) (iii) (4) (iv)
3) Observed that the bacteria accumulated mainly in the
114. 'X' number of tRNAs are found for three stop codons.
region of blue and red light of the split spectrum
In the light of above statement, correctly fill in the blank for
4) Showed that sun light is essential to the plant processes
‘X’.
121. Which of the following is correct match w.r.t. colour of
1) X – One 2) X – Three photosynthetic pigments in chromatogram?
3) X – Zero 4) X – Two i) Xanthophylls – Yellow
115. Which scientist studied different types of animal cells and ii) Carotenoids – Green, Yellow
reported that cells had a thin outer layer known as the plasma iii) Chlorophyll b – Bright or blue-green
membrane?
iv) Chlorophyll a – Yellow-green
1) Matthias Schleiden 2) Theodore Schwann (1) (i) 2) (ii) 3) (iii) 4) (iv)
3) Robert Hooke 4) Rudolf Virchow 122. Both alcoholic and lactic acid fermentation are similar in all
116. Select the correct statement w.r.t. polysomes. of the following features, except
1) It represents the surface structure of bacteria that play a 1) Occurrence of decarboxylation
role in mating. 2) Hazardous end product are produced
2) It is a form of inclusion body in which reserve material 3) Net gain is 2 ATP
are stored. 4) Less than 7% of the energy in glucose is released
3) These are formed when several ribosomes attach to a 123. If 20,000 J of energy is trapped at producer level then calculate
single mRNA the energy transferred to top carnivore level in the given
4) Ribosomes of the polysomes help to translate DNA into food chain?

proteins Plant  Grasshopper  Frog  Snake

1) 0.2 kJ 2) 0.2 J 3) 200 kJ 4) 20 J
117. Which of the following is not included in the significance of
124. The common enzyme in Krebs’ cycle and mitochondrial
meiosis?
electron transport system is
1) Formation of gametes 2) Cell repair and growth
1) NADH dehydrogenase
3) Crossing over 4) Introduction of variations
2) Pyruvate kinase
118. How many of the following phases involves cell organelle or 3) Succinate dehydrogenase
cell structure duplication?
4) Phosphofructokinase

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125. Which of the following is the correct expression to evaluate 1) Both statements A and B are correct
the net primary productivity? 2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
1) NPP = GPP × R 2) NPP = GPP  R 3) Only statement A is correct
3) NPP = GPP/R 4) GPP = NPP  R
4) Only statement B is correct
126. Which one of the following plants possess coralloid roots?
133. According to rivet popper hypothesis used by Paul Ehrlich,
1) Dryopteris 2) Pinus species is represented by
3) Cycas 4) Chara
1) Airplane 2) Rivets
127. Read the following features of the members related to a
3) Wings 4) Seats
particular class of algae
134. Mark the organism that breeds only once in its life time.
a. Major pigments are chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b
b. Food is stored in the form of starch 1) Pacific salmon fish 2) Most birds

c. Cell wall is composed of cellulose 3) Earthworm 4) Mango

d. Found in freshwater, brackish water or salt water 135. A closer examination of human body and a sample of Earth’s
In the light of above features select the organism that belongs crust reveals that the relative abundance of
to the given group 1) Oxygen is higher in human body than in Earth’s crust
1) Ectocarpus 2) Polysiphonia 2) Carbon is higher in Earth’s crust than in human body
3) Chlamydomonas 4) Fucus 3) Nitrogen is same in human body as well as in sample of
128. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t. mosses. Earth’s crust
1) The members reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation. 4) Hydrogen is higher in Earth’s crust than in human body
2) The dominant phase of life cycle consists of foot, seta 136. Complete the analogy by selecting the correct option.
and capsule.
Acid-soluble fraction : Phosphate :: Acid-insoluble fraction
3) They have an elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal :________
4) The second gametophytic stage develops from the 1) Glycine 2) Glucose
secondary protonema as a lateral bud
3) Guanine 4) Glycogen
129. Select the incorrectly matched pair.
137. If a healthy person is running fast, then
i) Tobacco Mosaic Virus – Compact rod-shaped virus
a. Every 100 mL of oxygenated blood will deliver more than
ii) Adenovirus – Causes respiratory infections
5 mL of oxygen to tissues.
iii) LAB – Heterotrophic bacteria
iv) Saccharomyces – Used in fermentation of Dosa b. Duration of inspiration will reduce.
and cheese c. Cardiac output will increase.
(1) (i) 2) (ii) 3) (iii) 4) (iv) Choose the correct option.
130. Swiss cheese is a product of fermentation carried out by 1) Only a and b are correct
1) Penicillium roquefortii 2) Only c is correct
2) Penicillium camembertii 3) Only b and c are incorrect
3) Propionibacterium sharmanii 4) a, b and c are correct
4) Trichoderma polysporum
138. The type of epithelium that is present in air sacs of lungs
131. Competition cannot occur possesses ________ cells. Choose the option that correctly
1) Between unrelated species fills the blank.
2) When resources are not limiting 1) Tall and slender 2) Cube-like
3) Between closely related species 3) Ciliated 4) Flattened
4) Between two unrelated species living in two different 139. If we completely hydrolyse cytidylic acid, then all of the
zones following will be produced, except
132. Read the following statements and select the correct option.
1) A hexose sugar
Statement A: Tropical Amazonian rain forest in South America
2) A pyrimidine derivative
has the greatest biodiversity on earth.
3) Phosphoric acid
Statement B: As we move from low to high latitude,
biodiversity increases. 4) Ribose

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140. Presence of how many of the features mentioned in the box a b cd a b cd

below is/are not considered as fundamental characteristic(s) i) T F T T ii) T T F F
of chordates? iii) F F T T iv) T F F F
Notochord, Dorsal heart, Dorsal solid CNS, Pharyngeal (1) (i) 2) (ii) 3) (iii) 4) (iv)
gill-slits, Post-anal tail
146. Select the option representing the correct set of hormones
Select the correct option. released by pars distalis and pars nervosa respectively.
1) One 2) Two 1) ADH, ACTH 2) MSH, Oxytocin
3) Three 4) Four 3) Prolactin, Vasopressin 4) Oxytocin, Growth hormone
141. Read the statements A and B and choose the most appropriate
147. Choose the correct match w.r.t. diseases and their respective
option.
symptoms.
Statement A: Animals never accumulate ammonia, urea, CO2,
1) Ascariasis – Blockage of lymphatic vessels
Na+, K+, phosphate, sulphate, etc., either by metabolic
activities or by excess ingestion. 2) Ringworms – Dry, scaly lesions on skin, nails and scalp
Statement B: In bony fishes, ammonia is generally excreted 3) Filariasis – Blockage of intestinal passage and abdominal
by diffusion through gill surfaces as ammonium ions. pain
1) Both the statements A and B are true 4) Amoebiasis – Lips and finger nails turn gray to bluish in
2) Only statement A is true colour
3) Only statement B is true 148. The option which represents incorrect comparison between
4) Both the statements A and B are false acquired and innate immunity, is that
142. Dinosaurs were dominant on Earth during which of the 1) Former is pathogen specific and latter is non-specific
following geological times?
2) Latter is present at the time of birth while former develops
1) Paleozoic era 2) Mesozoic era post birth after encounter with the pathogens
3) Carboniferous period 4) Permian period
3) Former provides humoral immune response while latter
143. In 1953, S. L. Miller created electric discharge in a closed
provides cell mediated immune response
flask that contained all of the following at 800oC, except
1) Hydrogen 2) Oxygen 4) Latter includes various barriers that prevent entry of
pathogen in body while former releases army of proteins
3) Ammonia 4) Methane
144. Read the statements given below w.r.t. evolution. called immunoglobulins in response to pathogen

A) The first non-cellular forms of life could have originated 149. A similarity between AIDS and cancer is that both
3 bya. 1) Are always caused due to viruses
B) The first cellular forms of life could have originated about 2) Can spread by mere touch or physical contact with an
2000 bya. infected person
C) Louis Pasteur by careful experimentation demonstrated
3) Can be detected by technique based on the principle of
that life came out of decaying and rotting matter.
antigen-antibody reactions
Which of the above statements is/are not incorrect?
4) Can be treated by radiotherapy and immunotherapy
1) Only A 2) Only B
3) A and B only 4) B and C only 150. Assertion (A): Morphine which is extracted from latex of
poppy plant is very useful in patients who have undergone
145. Read the following statements and select True (T) or False(F)
for the given statements and choose the correct option. surgery.
a. Integral membrane proteins, are always partially embedded Reason (R): It is very effective sedative and pain killer.
in the membrane In the light of above statements, select the correct option.
b. Peripheral proteins cannot be removed easily and their 1) Both (A) and (R) are false
removal requires crude methods like using detergents 2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation
c. Quasi fluid nature of lipids, enables lateral movement of of (A)
protein within the overall bilayer 3) (A) is true, (R) is false
d. Every chromosome essentially has a primary constriction 4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
on the sides of which disc shaped structures are present explanation of (A)

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151. In human males, primary sex organ is situated within a pouch 158. The cranial meninx that is in close contact with the brain
called ‘X’. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. ‘X’. tissue is
1) Testes are located outside the abdominal cavity within 1) Arachnoid 2) Pia mater
‘X’ 3) Dura mater 4) Sub-arachnoid
2) ‘X’ is responsible for protecting the testes 159. Read the following statements:
3) ‘X’ provides suitable temperature necessary for (a) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder
spermatogenesis characterised by rapid spasms in muscles
4) ‘X’ helps in maintaining the temperature higher than the (b) Gout is a type of arthritis caused due to accumulation of
internal body temperature, necessary for proper uric acid crystals in joints.
functioning of the testes (c) After menopause, females are more susceptible to
152. The process of fusion of male and female gametes which osteoporosis as compared to fertile females.
leads to the formation of a diploid cell is called Choose the option with only correct statements.
1) Gametogenesis 2) Embryogenesis 1) a, b and c 2) Only a and b
3) Fertilization 4) Gestation 3) Only b and c 4) Only c
153. Select the correct statement w.r.t. healthy fertile humans. 160. Match column I with column II.
1) Androgens are produced by Sertoli cells under the effect Column I Column II
of LH a. Coronary artery disease (i) Congestion of lungs
2) Leydig cells are found inside the seminiferous tubules of b. Heart attack (ii) Heart stops beating
testis c. Cardiac arrest (iii) Heart muscle is suddenly
3) Lack of menstruation may be the indicative of pregnancy damaged by an inadequate
in females blood supply

4) Development of blastocyst is followed by the formation d. Heart failure (iv) Atherosclerosis

of zygote Select the correct option.

154. Plasmid is 1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) 2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

1) A part of the chromosomal DNA of bacteria 3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) 4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
161. In a fully contracted skeletal muscle, length of which of the
2) Always linear and double-stranded
following remains the same in comparison to its resting
3) Always devoid of antibiotic-resistant genes
stage?
4) Capable of autonomous replication
1) ‘I’ band 2) ‘H’ zone
155. Compared to a simple stirred-tank bioreactor, a sparged
3) ‘A’ band 4) Sarcomere
stirred-tank bioreactor exclusively contains a/an
162. Tetany can be caused/characterised by all of the following,
1) Sampling port 2) Flat-blade impeller
except
3) Sparger 4) Oxygen delivery system
1) Low Ca+2 level in body fluids
156. While performing PCR, an error occurred during the extension
2) Wild contraction in muscles
step what can be the possible consequence of this?
3) Due to hyposecretion of thyrocalcitonin
1) Single-stranded DNA templates will not be obtained from
the source dsDNA 4) Due to hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone

2) Primers will not attach to the 3’ end of the template strand 163. Nodal tissue of human heart which can generate the maximum
number of action potentials is present in the
3) Amplification of DNA would not occur
1) Right upper corner of the right atrium
4) Desired DNA segment will still get amplified multifold
2) Right upper corner of the left atrium
157. EcoRI recognises a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence
3) Lower left corner of the left atrium
where it cuts the nucleotide sequence between
4) Upper left corner of the left atrium
1) Two bases at the centre of the palindromic sequence
164. During blood coagulation in humans, which of the following
2) Two bases that contain a single homocyclic ring with
two nitrogen atoms is responsible for the conversion of prothrombin into
thrombin?
3) Two bases each with two heterocyclic rings
1) Fibrin 2) Only Ca2+
4) Two bases that are categorised under pyrimidines
3) Thrombokinase 4) Fibrinogen

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165. Choose the odd one w.r.t. the location of gap junctions in 170. Match Column I and Column II w.r.t. humans.
humans. Column I Column II
1) Biceps present in arm a. Spermiation (i) Release of semen by the
2) Striated involuntary muscle present in heart penis into vagina
b. Spermiogenesis (ii) Changes in the sperm before
3) Muscle present in wall of urinary bladder
fertilisation in female reproductive
4) In between adjacent muscle fibres present in the wall of
tract
intestine
c. Insemination (iii) Transformation of spermatids
166. Select the secondary metabolite among the following whose into spermatozoa
monomeric unit is glucose and does not possess any complex
d. Capacitation (iv) Release of sperms into the
helices.
seminiferous tubules
1) Inulin 2) Starch
Choose the option with all correct matches.
3) Chitin 4) Cellulose
1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) 2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
167. Match column I and column II w.r.t. hormones and their 3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) 4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
respective function.
171. Choose the correct match w.r.t. male cockroaches.
ColumnI Column II 1) Spermathecae – Present in the 6th abdominal segment
a. CCK (i) Inhibits gastric secretion and motility 2) Testes – Lying laterally in the 2nd-6th abdominal segments
b. Secretin (ii) Stimulates secretion of H2O and from 3) Anal style – Found attached to the 10th abdominal segment
pancreas 4) Mushroom-shaped gland – Present in the 6th-7th
c. GIP (iii) Stimulates secretion of pancreatic abdominal segments
enzymes and bile juice 172. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. the structure that is a
d. Gastrin (iv) Stimulates secretion of HCl and component of brain stem but not the hind brain.
pepsinogen 1) A canal named cerebral aqueduct passes through it
Select the correct option. 2) Located between the thalamus /hypothalamus of the
forebrain and pons of the hindbrain
1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
3) Receives and integrates visual, tactile and auditory inputs
2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
4) Its ventral portion consists of four round swellings
3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
173. Consider the given gel image obtained after gel
4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) electrophoresis and the statements w.r.t. it.
168. Choose the correct statement among the following w.r.t.
excretion in animals.
1) Terrestrial adaptation necessitated the production of most
toxic nitrogenous waste like uric acid for water conservation.
2) Land snails and marine fishes mainly excrete uric acid
and are called uricotelic animals.
3) Reptiles, birds and insects excrete nitrogenous wastes
in the form of pellet or paste with maximum loss of water
a. The DNA fragment present in ‘lane 1’ is bigger in size
and are called ureotelic animals. than the DNA fragment present in ‘lane 4’
4) In ureotelic animals, some amount of urea may be retained b. The DNA fragments present in ‘lane 2’ and ‘Lane 4’ are
in the kidney matrix to maintain a desired osmolarity. possibly equal in size
169. Earth was supposed to have been formed about c. The DNA fragment in ‘lane 3’ seems to be smaller in size
1) 500 million years ago than the DNA fragment present in ‘lane-1’ as it has moved
closer to cathode due to the sieving effect of the gel
2) 4.5 billion years back
d. The wells are made towards the positive electrode in
3) 2000 million years ago which bromophenol blue is also added that acts as the
4) 450 million years ago staining dye

CHAITANYA BHARATHI C O N T R O L N E GAT I V E M A R K I N G 16

 NEET-Batch

Choose the option with only correct statements. 177. Select the correct option w.r.t., Rosie.
1) a and d 2) b and c 1) Transgenic animal produced in the year 1990
3) a and b 4) d and c 2) Transgenic animal which produced human protein
174. Select the odd one w.r.t. Obelia. enriched milk (2.4 gm per litre)
1) Exhibits alternation of generation of body forms 3) Milk produced by it was used to treat respiratory disease
2) Possesses a porous body caused due to chronic smoking
3) Reproduces sexually by formation of gametes 4) Was made transgenically to produce milk in the same
year in which gene therapy for the first time was given to
4) Exhibits extracellular as well as intracellular digestion
a 4-year old girl
175. Choose the correct match.
178. In which of the following ARTs, blastocyst with 32-celled
i) Pleurobrachia – Presence of true coelom
stage is transferred into the uterus of the female who cannot
iii) Ancylostoma – Acoelomate
conceive naturally?
iii) Pila – Exhibits internal fertilisation
1) GIFT 2) ZIFT
iv) Euspongia – Exhibits external fertilisation
3) IUT 4) IUI
1) (i) (2) (ii)
179. All of the following sexually transmitted diseases are
(3) (iii) (4) (iv)
completely curable, if detected early and treated properly,
176. Probe in molecular biology except
1) Constitutes a double stranded RNA 1) Syphilis 2) Genital warts
2) Is used only for detection of foreign antibodies 3) Genital herpes 4) Trichomoniasis
3) Possesses a radioactive molecule 180. Which of the following factors favours the formation of
4) Is used as a conventional and old method of diagnosis oxyhaemoglobin?
1) Low pO2 2) High temperature
3) High H+ concentration 4) High pH

CHAITANYA BHARATHI C O N T R O L N E GAT I V E M A R K I N G 17