Trinity Entrance Test

SAMPLE TEST QUESTION – 2025

SCIENCE
Time: 90 minutes

Full Marks: 100

Welcome to the Trinity Entrance Test 2025!

ABOUT THE TEST

This Test assesses a student’s competency to undertake a Cambridge International A Levels. It

contains four sections: A) English B) Mathematics C) Science D) Analytical and General Knowledge

DIRECTIONS:

1. Write your Name and Exam Entry Card number clearly in the space given in the Answer Sheet.

2. Read the questions carefully.

3. Choose the best option marking it carefully.

4. Do not leave your seat during the Test without permission.

5. Maintain complete silence in the examination hall.

6. Do not use calculators or mobiles.

7. Do not write anything on the Test Paper.

8. Use scrap paper provided for rough work.

9. Darken the circles with BLACK OR BLUE INK PENS while marking answers.

Example: A student divided a number by 2/3 when he was required to multiply it by 3/2.

Calculate the percentage of error in his result.

A) 100 B) 66 C) 0 D) 33

The answer is '0'; so, darken the circle for the correct answer as shown below:

10. Do not scratch, overwrite, tick, or mark more than one answer, as this will be considered invalid.

11. Do not leave your seat until your Test Papers (Question Paper, Answer Sheet & scrap paper) are

collected by the Invigilator.

 SCIENCE
Section A: English

I. READING [10 MARKS]

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:
Reading is a fundamental skill that plays a vital role in our lives. It’s not just about deciphering
words on a page but about the doors it opens, the knowledge it imparts, and the worlds it allows us
to explore. Reading is an essential tool for learning, expanding our horizons, and fostering
imagination.
When we read, we acquire knowledge. Whether it’s reading textbooks, newspapers, or online
articles, we gain information that helps us understand the world. Books, in particular, are a
treasure trove of knowledge. They contain the wisdom of generations, the discoveries of great
minds, and the stories of diverse cultures. Reading books can educate us on history, science,
literature, and countless other subjects. It’s like having a mentor, guiding us through the
complexities of life.
Reading also broadens our horizons. It exposes us to different viewpoints, perspectives, and
experiences. When we read about characters from various backgrounds or explore far-off lands
through the pages of a novel, we step into their shoes and see the world from a different angle. This
broadening of perspective fosters empathy and understanding, making us more tolerant and open-
minded individuals.
Furthermore, reading fuels our imagination. Whether it’s a fantasy novel, a science fiction story, or
a compelling mystery, books transport us to other worlds and challenge us to envision the
unimaginable. Our minds become the canvas, and words paint the pictures. It’s a magical
experience that ignites creativity and inspiration.
Moreover, reading is a skill that transcends academic boundaries. It’s not just about scoring well
on tests; it’s about developing critical thinking, analytical skills, and the ability to communicate
effectively. A person who reads regularly is likely to have a broader vocabulary, better writing
skills, and an improved ability to express their thoughts and ideas.
In our modern digital age, reading has taken on new forms. E-books and audiobooks have made it
more accessible and convenient. With just a few clicks or taps, we can access a vast library of
literature. However, there’s something timeless and intimate about holding a physical book,
flipping its pages, and smelling the scent of paper and ink.
In conclusion, reading is not just a hobby; it’s a cornerstone of education, personal growth, and
cultural enrichment. It empowers us with knowledge, broadens our perspectives, ignites our
imagination, and equips us with essential skills. Whether we’re reading for pleasure, information,
or self-improvement, reading is a journey that enriches our lives and shapes us into more
informed, empathetic, and creative individuals.

Answer all the questions below:

1. What are some of the benefits of reading mentioned in the passage?
A. Acquiring knowledge B. Physical exercise
C. Developing cooking skills D. Enhancing video game proficiency

2. How does reading broaden our horizons and foster empathy?

A. By encouraging isolation
B. By exposing us to different viewpoints and experiences
C. By promoting narrow-mindedness
D. By making us less tolerant

Trinity International College 1

3. What role does reading play in developing critical thinking and communication skills?
A. It has no impact on critical thinking or communication skills
B. It broadens horizons but does not impact skills
C. It expands vocabulary, improves writing skills, and enhances communication abilities
D. It only helps with imagination but not critical thinking or communication

4. What are the advantages of reading physical books compared to digital formats?
A. Physical books are more expensive
B. Digital formats are more environmentally friendly
C. Physical books offer a timeless and intimate experience
D. Digital formats are easier to access

5. How does reading enrich our lives and shape us as individuals, according to the passage?
A. Reading has no impact on personal growth
B. Reading makes us less informed and less creative
C. Reading empowers us with knowledge, broadens our perspectives, and equips us with essential
skills, making us more informed, empathetic, and creative individuals
D. Reading only fosters creativity but not empathy

For each of the words below in Questions 6 - 10, circle the letter (A, B, C or D) which has the same
meaning that the word (in bold letters) has in the (indicated) paragraph of the passage.
6. fundamental (paragraph 1)
A. essential B.entire
C. complex D. system

7. wisdom (paragraph 2)
A. insights B. quality
C. folly D. grouped

8. transcends (paragraph 5)
A. alarming B. sudden
C. going beyond D. astonishing

9. intimate (paragraph 6)
A. warning B. close
C. command D. signal

10. equips (paragraph 7)

A. implied B. imitated
C. addressed D. prepare

II. GRAMMAR & USAGE [20×1= 20 marks]

Directions: Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D).

11. I __________ working all afternoon and have just finished the assignment.
A. have been B. had been
C. shall be D. am

12. Rohan __________the movie before he read the review.

A. watches B. have watched
C. had watched D. was watching

Trinity International College 2

13. He __________ in the States but he still does not have a command over the English language.
A. have been living B. has been living
C. have lived D. living

14. Hearing, technically known as , begins when a sound wave reaches the outer ear.
A. audition B. audacity
C. audio-visual D. autocracy

15. Amendment VI discusses the use of an impartial jury. In the word IMPARTIAL, the prefix im- most
likely means
A. full of. B. very.
C. not. D. against.

16. "Next to my neighbor’s house" In the sentence above, what does the author fail to include?
A. An apostrophe in neighbors B. A subject and a verb
C. End punctuation D. All of the above

17. Based on the meaning of its prefix and suffix, what is the definition of NONPROFITABLE?
A. Not profiting B. Not capable of making profit
C. Capable of making a profit D.Profiting

18. She ______________the people standing nearby.

A. Yelled at B. Yelled into
C. Yelled out D. Yelled off

19. I was disappointed______________not finding doctor in his seat.

A. On B. From
C. Over D. At
20. I know Jack ___ he was a little boy.
A. For B. Since
C. While D. After

21. Choose the correct spelling

Mr Patrick is our new ______.
A. Principle B. Principal
C. Princepal D. Pricepal

22. Choose the correct spelling

The company______________all the terms.
A. Excepted B. Accepted
C. Expected D. Expated

23. Choose the correct spelling

Please don’t keep your dog on the_________
A. Lose B. Loose
C. Lost D. Loss

24. Sita or her brothers __________ to be blamed.

A. is B. has
C. are D. was

25. The Chief guest, with his wife, __________.

A. has left B. are leaving
C. have left D. left

Trinity International College 3

26. The quality of products __________ over time.
A. are degrading B. has been degrading
C. have degrading D. were degraded

27. Choose the correct sentence.

A. When I woke up, he has already eaten breakfast.
B. When I woke up, he had already eaten breakfast.
C. When I had woken up, he had already ate breakfast.
D. When I had woken up, he has already ate breakfast.

28. I __________ the medicine as prescribed by the doctor for a week now.
A. takes B. have been taking
C. would have taken D. have had been taking

29. You and I__________ the obligations.

A. am fulfilled B. has been fulfilling
C. have fulfilled D. has fulfilled

30. “Shyam and his brothers”__________ a famous sweet shop in our neighbourhood.
A. are B. have been
C. is D. have

Section B: Mathematics [30 ×1 = 30 marks]

31. In ABC, if a = 4√2 , b = 4√3 , angle A = 45°, the value of angle C=
A. 45° B. 60°
C. 75° D. 120°

32. In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability of getting a total of 7?
A. 1/2 B. 1/6
C. 2/3 D. 3/4

33. The marked price of a fan is Rs.620. Due to off season, a 15% discount is allowed. The
S.P. of the fan is
A. Rs. 327 B. Rs. 427
C. Rs. 527 D. Rs. 547

34. The number of elements in the Power set P(S) of the set S = {1, 2, 3} is:
A. 4 B. 8
C. 2 D. None of these

35. The range of the function f(x) = 3x – 2‚ is:

A. (- ∞, ∞) B. R – {3}
C. (- ∞, 0) D. (0, – ∞)

36. If f(x) = ax + b, where a and b are integers, f(–1) = – 5 and f(3) = 3, then a and b are equal to
A. a = – 3, b = –1 B. a = 2, b = – 3
C. a = 0, b = 2 D. a = 2, b = 3

37. If sin θ and cos θ are the roots of ax2 – bx + c = 0, then the relation between a, b and c will be
A. a2 + b2 + 2ac = 0 B. a2 – b2 + 2ac = 0
C. a2 + c2 + 2ab = 0 D. a2 – b2 – 2ac = 0

Trinity International College 4

38. If tan A = 1/2 and tan B = 1/3, then the value of A + B is
A. π/6 B. π
C. 0 D. π/4

39. Relation between mean, median and mode is given by:

A. Mode = 2 Median – 3 Mean B. Mode = 2 Median + 3 Mean
C. Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean D. Mode = 3 Median + 2 Mean

40. The next term of the given sequence 1, 5, 14, 30, 55, … is
A.80 B.90
C.91 D.96

41. In a final step of the calculation, a student accidentally divided by 100 instead of multiplying by 100.
What should he do to correct his answer?
A. Multiply by 100 B. multiply by 104
C. Divide by 100 D. Multiply by 103

42. The LCM & HCF of the two numbers are 840 & 14 respectively and if one of the numbers is 42 then the
other number is
A. 84 B. 280
C. 868 D. 42

43. For a fixed sum of money for 10 years, which one of the following scheme provides the maximum
amount of interest during 10 years?
A. simple interest at the rate of 10% p.a.
B. compound interest at the rate of 10% p.a. compounded annually
C. compound interest at the rate of 10% p.a. compounded half yearly
D. compound interest at the rate of 10% p.a. compounded quarterly

44. The angle of elevation of the top of a building 30 m high from the foot of another building in the same
plane is 60°, and also the angle of elevation of the top of the second tower from the foot of the first
tower is 30°, then the distance between the two buildings is:
A. 10√3 m B. 15√3 m
C. 12√3 m D. 36 m

45. If the perimeter and the area of a circle are numerically equal, then the radius of the circle is
A. 2 units B. π units
C. 4 units D. 7 units

46. The wheel of a motorcycle is of radius 35 cm. The number of revolutions per minute must the wheel
make so as to keep a speed of 66 km/hr will be
A. 50 B. 100
C. 500 D. 1000

47. The area of the circle that can be inscribed in a square of side 8 cm is
A. 36 π cm2 B. 16 π cm2
C. 12 π cm2 D. 9 π cm2

48. If a parallelogram circumscribes a circle, then it is a:

A. Square B. Rectangle
C. Rhombus D. None of the above

Trinity International College 5

49. The average age of A, B and C is 26 years, if the average age of A and C is 29 years, what
is the age of B in years?
A. 20 B. 23
C. 26 D. 29

50. If a-b=1 , b-c=2 and c-a=d, what is the value of d ?

A.-3 B. -1
C. 1 D. 3

51. Area of triangle with sides x = 0, y = 0 and 4x + 5y = 20 is

A. 20 Sq. unit B. 10 Sq. unit
C. 5 Sq. unit D. 1 Sq. unit

52. For some integer n, the odd integer is represented in the form of
A. n B. n+1
C. 2n+1 D. 2n

53. The quadratic equation has degree

A. 0 B. 1
C. 2 D. 3

54. If 5x + 13 = 31, what is the value of √5𝑥 + 31

173
A. 49 B. √ 5
C. 7 D. 13

55. The length of the tangent from an external point A on a circle with centre O is
A. always greater than OA B. equal to OA
C. always less than OA D. cannot be estimated

56. If the perimeter of the circle and square are equal, then the ratio of their areas will be equal to:
A. 14:11 B. 22:7
C. 7:22 D. 11:14

57. In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. The area of the sector formed
by the arc is:
A. 200 cm2 B. 220 cm2
C. 231 cm 2 D. 250 cm2

58. If the nth term of an arithmetic progression is 3n-4, then the 10th term of an A.P is
A.10 B.12
C.22 D.26

59. A polynomial f(x) of degree m is divided a polynomial of degree n such that n<m, then degree of
quotient is
A. m/n B. m-n
C. m + n D. n-m

60. The three terms of an AP are respectively 3y-1, 3y+5 and 5y+1. Then y equals to
A. -3 B. 4
C. 5 D. 2

Trinity International College 6

Section C: General Science [30 ×1 = 30 marks]
61. A particle is traveling with constant speed.
A. Its position remains constant as time passes.
B. It covers equal distances in equal time intervals.
C. Its acceleration is zero.
D. It does not change its direction of motion.

62. Four bodies have the following masses and speeds:

A 1 kg 10 ms-1
B 2 kg 9 ms-1
C 3 kg 8 ms-1
D 4 kg 7 ms-1
The body having the largest magnitude of momentum is
A. A. B. B.
C. C. D. D.

63. Two particles are kept at a separation ‘r’. The square root of the gravitational force between them is
proportional to
A. r. B. r2.
C. 1/r. D. 1/r2.

64. Two bodies A and B having masses 100 g and 200 g respectively are dropped near the earth’s surface
from the same height. Let the acceleration of A and B be a1 and a2 respectively.
A. a1 = a2. B. a1 < a2.
C. a1 > a2. D. a1 ≠ a2.

65. The distance between a crest and the nearest trough in a periodic wave is
A. λ. B. λ/2.
C. λ/4. D. 2λ.

66. Which of the following does not change during expansion?

A. Mass. B. Length.
C. Area. D. Volume.

67. High value of specific heat capacity of an object means:

A. The body takes longer time to heat and also longer to cool.
B. The body takes longer time to heat and shorter to cool.
C. The body takes shorter time to heat and also shorter to cool.
D. The body takes shorter time to heat and longer to cool.

68. A body forms a virtual image of a real object.

A. It must be a convex lens. B. It must be a concave lens.
C. It must be a plane glass plate. D. It could be any of the items mentioned above.

69. If the power supply to your house is cut off, you can operate
A. A motor but not a dynamo. B. A dynamo but not a motor.
C. A motor as well as a dynamo. D. Neither a motor nor a dynamo.

70. Which of the following statements are not true?

A. Resistance of Voltmeter and Ammeter should be very high and very low respectively.
B. Resistance of Voltmeter and Ammeter should be very low and high respectively.
C. Resistance of both the Voltmeter and Ammeter should be very low.
D. Resistance of both the Voltmeter and Ammeter should be very high.

Trinity International College 7

71. 1 Hydrogen can form both H+ ions and H– ions.
Which one of the statements below is correct?
A. An H+ ion has more protons than an H– ion.
B. An H+ ion has no electrons.
C. An H– ion has one more electron than an H+ ion.
D. An H– ion is formed when a hydrogen atom loses an electron.

72. The conduction of electricity by metals is carried out by the movement of

A. electrons only.
B. electrons and positive ions.
C. negative ions only.
D. negative ions and positive ions.

73. The diagram shows the results of an electrolysis experiment using inert electrodes.

Which could be liquid X?

A. aqueous copper(II) sulfate B. concentrated aqueous sodium chloride
C. dilute sulfuric acid D. ethanol

74. In which reaction is nitric acid reacting with sodium carbonate?

A. Cu + 4HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2H2O + 2NO2
B. CuO + 2HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + H2O
C. Na2CO3 + 2HNO3 → 2NaNO3 + H2O + CO2
D. NaOH + HNO3 → NaNO3 + H2O

75. Which property is common to calcium, potassium and sodium?

A. Their atoms all lose two electrons when they form ions.
B. They all form carbonates which are insoluble in water.
C. They are all less dense than water.
D. They are all metallic.

76. Which set of the electronic structures are only found in metals?
A. 2, 1 2, 8, 1 2, 8, 8, 1
B. 2, 5 2, 6 2, 7
C. 2, 7 2, 8, 7 2, 8, 18, 7
D. 2, 8, 3 2, 8, 4 2, 8, 5

Trinity International College 8

77. Five structures are shown.

Which structures represent identical molecules?

A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 3 and 5 only

78. Which graph represents how the rate of reaction varies with time when an excess of calcium
carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid?

79. Which statement about the material used for aircraft bodies is correct?
Aircraft bodies are made from
A. an aluminium alloy because pure aluminium is too soft.
B. pure aluminium because of its high melting point.
C. pure aluminium because of its low density.
D. pure aluminium because of its resistance to corrosion.

80. Self-igniting flares contain Mg3P2. With water this produces diphosphane, P2H4, which is
spontaneously flammable in air.
Which equation that includes the formation of diphosphane is balanced?
A. Mg3P2 + 6H2O → 3Mg(OH)2 + P2H4
B. Mg3P2 + 6H2O → 3Mg(OH)2 + P2H4 + H2
C. 2Mg3P2 + 12H2O → 6Mg(OH)2 + P2H4 + 2PH3
D. 2Mg3P2 + 12H2O → 6Mg(OH)2 + 3P2H4

Trinity International College 9

81. Four features found in cells are listed.
1. cell membrane 2. chloroplasts
3. nucleus 4. starch grains
Which two features are found in animal cells?
A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4 D. 3 and 4
82. Which statement about enzymes is always correct?
A. They change reactions to produce different end products.
B. They change the rate of reactions.
C. They catalyse reactions inside body cells.
D. They catalyse reactions at body temperature.
83. What is transpiration?
A. evaporation of water from the stomata
B. evaporation of water at the surface of mesophyll cells and its loss through the stomata
C. the movement of water through the cuticle
D. the movement of water in the xylem from the roots to the leaves
84. How do veins differ from arteries?
width of lumen in wall thickness of elastic fibres muscles in wall
veins veins
A narrower thicker more fewer
B narrower thinner fewer more
C wider thicker more more
D wider thinner fewer fewer

85. The table shows some features of three types of microorganism.

type of cell wall cell membrane nucleus cytoplasm
microorganism
1 × × × × key
2   ×   = present
3     × = absent
Which row identifies each type of microorganism?
microorganism 1 microorganism 2 microorganism 3
A bacterium virous fungus
B fungus bacterium virus
C virus bacterium fungus
D virus fungus bacterium

86. In a garden there is a species of insect which can be either red or green in colour. The green insects
are well camouflaged.
Birds that eat insects start to live in the garden.
The graph shows how the populations of red and green insects then change.

What is this an example of ?

A. artificial selection B. continuous variation
C. incomplete dominance D. natural selection

Trinity International College 10

87. The diagram shows how food is processed in the human alimentary canal.

Which row correctly identifies the named stages?

absorption assimilation enzyme digestion

A P S T
B P S Q
C S P Q
D S T R

88. Which changes occur when a person walks from a very cold room into a hot room?
sweating skin blood vessels
A decreases constrict
B decreases dilate
C increases dilate
D increases constrict

89. When a bright light is shone into the eye, the pupil becomes smaller.
Which statement explains this response?
A. Ciliary muscles in the eye contract.
B. Circular muscles in the iris contract.
C. Sensory cells in the iris detect the bright light.
D. Sensory neurones stimulate the ciliary muscles in the iris.

90. The diagram shows a section through a flower.

Where does fertilisation take place?

Trinity International College 11

Section D: Analytical and General Knowledge [10 ×1 = 10 marks]
91. Who was the first President of Nepal?
A. Shukraraj Shastri B. Ram Baran Yadav
C. Bhimsen Thapa D. BP Koirala

92. Which one is the major food crops grown in Nepal?

A. Rice B. Tomato
C. Banana D. Citrus Fruit

93. Which is the tallest temple in Nepal?

A. Muktinath B. Kailashnath
C. Nyatapola D. pashupatinath

94. How much is Nepal smaller than China?

A. 40 times B. 50 times
C. 65 times D. 35 times

95. The metal whose salts are sensitive to light is?

A. Zinc B. Silver
C. Copper D. Aluminum

96. What does DRAM stand for?

A. Double Random Access Memory B. Dynamic Random Access Memory
C. Data Random Access Memory D. Data Random Active Memory

97. How many bits is 1K Byte?

A. 1000 B. 512
C. 1096 D. 1024

9 121 33
98. Find the missing number? 25 49 35
64 ? 32

A. 16 B. 8
C. 4 D. 2

99. The product of 82 and 5 is

A. 400 B. 410
C. 420 D. None of these

100. In what units is gold fineness measured?

A. Meter B. Kilogram
C. Litre D. Carat



Trinity International College 12