THE NAVIGATOR H/S SCHOOL THATTA

[email protected] PHYSICS II: 18-04-2025

ATOMIC SPECTRA & NUCLEAR PHYSICS

1. What causes atomic spectra to be produced?

A) Reflection of light B) Absorption of sound
C) Movement of electrons between energy levels D) Vibration of atomic nuclei
2. The spectral lines in the hydrogen emission spectrum are due to:
A) Protons changing orbits B) Electrons being added to the nucleus
C) Electrons jumping from higher to lower energy levels D) Neutrons splitting
3. Which series of hydrogen spectrum lies in the visible region?
A) Lyman series B) Balmer series C) Paschen series D) Brackett series
4. The Lyman series appears in which region of the electromagnetic spectrum?
A) Visible B) Infrared C) Ultraviolet D) X-ray
5. Calculate the wavelength of light emitted when an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from n=3 to n=2. Use R=1.10×10 7 m−1.
A) 656 nm B) 486 nm C) 434 nm D) 410 nm
6. What is the primary reason each element has a unique atomic emission spectrum?
A) Different mass B) Different number of neutrons
C) Different electron configurations D) Different sizes of atoms
7. Which instrument is commonly used to observe atomic spectra?
A) Microscope B) Telescope C) Spectroscope D) Barometer
8. In Bohr’s model, the energy of an electron is:
A) Continuous B) Quantized C) Always zero D) Random
9. What does a bright line in an emission spectrum represent?
A) Energy absorbed by the atom B) Energy lost by the nucleus
C) Energy released when an electron falls to a lower level D) Sound emitted by atoms
10. The energy difference between two atomic levels is related to the:
A) Color of the nucleus B) Frequency of emitted light C) Mass of the atom D) Volume of the atom
11. In the Lyman series, the longest wavelength is produced when an electron falls from:
A) n = ∞ to n = 1 B) n = 2 to n = 1 C) n = 3 to n = 1 D) n = 4 to n = 1
12. What kind of spectrum is produced when white light passes through a cool gas?
A) Continuous spectrum B) Line emission spectrum C) Line absorption spectrum D) Band spectrum
13. Which of the following is a characteristic of a continuous spectrum?
A) Only specific wavelengths are present B) Only one color is visible
C) All wavelengths of visible light are present without interruption D) It is produced only by gases
14. A line spectrum is typically produced by:
A) Hot solids B) Cool liquids C) Vibrating solids D) Excited atoms of gases at low pressure
15. Band spectra are usually observed in:
A) Solids B) Monatomic gases C) Diatomic molecules D) Pure liquids
16. Which of the following spectra would be observed from a glowing filament of a bulb?
A) Line spectrum B) Absorption spectrum C) Band spectrum D) Continuous spectrum
17. The transition from n = 4 to n = 2 in hydrogen produces a spectral line in which region?
A) Ultraviolet B) Visible C) Infrared D) Microwave
18. What distinguishes a band spectrum from a line spectrum?
A) Band spectrum contains sharp, individual lines B) Band spectrum consists of closely spaced lines forming groups
C) Line spectrum is always continuous D) Band spectrum is produced by solids
19. According to Bohr’s theory, electrons revolve around the nucleus in:
A) Random paths B) Elliptical orbits
C) Fixed circular orbits with definite energy D) Spiral paths
20. In Bohr’s model, energy is emitted or absorbed when an electron:
A) Remains in the same orbit B) Moves randomly in space
C) Jumps from one energy level to another D) Collides with another atom
21. The energy of an electron in the 1st orbit of hydrogen is approximately:
A) − 13.6 eV B) +13.6 eV C) 0 eV D) −3.4 eV
22. Bohr introduced his atomic model to explain:
A) The periodic table B) The chemical bonding
C) The stability of atoms and line spectra of hydrogen D) The nature of chemical reactions
23. What happens when an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from a higher to a lower energy level?
A) A neutron is emitted B) A proton is absorbed C) Light is emitted D) The atom becomes unstable
24. What is the radius of the second orbit in the hydrogen atom?
A) 0.529 Å B) 1.06 Å C) 2.12 Å D) 4.24 Å
25. Which concept was NOT included in Bohr’s theory?
A) Quantized energy levels B) Fixed circular orbits C) Electron wave nature D) Emission of radiation due to energy transitions
26. If an electron in hydrogen jumps from n = 2 to n = 1, the emitted wavelength falls in the:
A) Infrared region B) Visible region C) Ultraviolet region D) X-ray region
27. In the Lyman series, the shortest wavelength corresponds to the transition from:
A) n = 3 to n = 1 B) n = 4 to n = 1 C) n = 2 to n = 1 D) n = ∞ to n = 1
28. Rydberg constant is equivalent to:
A) 8me4/cεo2h3 B) e4 εo2/8mch3 C) me4 h3/8cεo2 D) me4/8cεo2h3
29. What is the energy difference when an electron jumps from n = 3 to n = 2 in hydrogen?
A) 1.89 eV B) 3.4 eV C) 10.2 eV D) 0.85 eV
30. X-rays are a form of:
A) Sound waves B) Long radio waves C) Electromagnetic radiation D) Mechanical waves
31. X-rays are produced when:
A) Electrons jump from lower to higher energy levels B) Electrons collide with a metal target at high speed
C) Atoms split into two D) Light is reflected from surfaces
32. The wavelength of X-rays is typically in the range of:
A) 1 mm to 1 cm B) 400 nm to 700 nm C) 0.01 nm to 10 nm D) 100 cm to 1 km
33. Which of the following materials is commonly used as the target in an X-ray tube?
A) Copper B) Aluminum C) Tungsten D) Lead
34. X-rays can be used in all of the following fields EXCEPT:
A) Medical imaging B) Airport security C) Radio broadcasting D) Industrial inspection
Question # 35 to #37: A hydrogen atom undergoes a transition from a state with n = 3 to a state with n = 1?
35. What is the energy?
A) 8.8 eV B) 5.3 eV C) 15.5 eV D) 12.1 eV
36. What is the magnitude of the momentum?
A) 1.28 x 10-27 N.s B) 3.45 x 10-27 N.s C) 6.45 x 10-27 N.s D) 9.13 x 10-27 N.s
37. What is the wavelength of the photon emitted?
A) 90 nm B) 102 nm C) 121 nm D) 154 nm
38. The scientist who named “X -rays” for the radiations produced in cathode ray tube that can penetrate paper:
A) Newton B) Bragg C) Roentgen D) Bohr
39. What is the frequency of radiation emitted when an electron falls from n = 2 to n = 1?
A) 2.45 × 1015 Hz B) 3.50 × 1014 Hz C) 6.8 × 1013 Hz D) 1.2 × 1016 Hz
40. What is the function of the high voltage in an X-ray tube?
A) To heat the filament B) To rotate the anode
C) To accelerate electrons toward the anode D) To filter the X-rays
41. Characteristic X-rays are produced when:
A) Electrons are deflected by the nucleus B) Outer-shell electrons fill inner-shell vacancies
C) Electrons reflect off the anode surface D) Photons scatter off the patient’s body
42. What does LASER stand for?
A) Light Amplification by Spontaneous Emission of Radiation B) Light Absorption by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
C) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation D) Light Application by Stimulated Emission of Rays
43. Which one of the following processes is essential for laser action?
A) Absorption B) Spontaneous emission C) Stimulated emission D) Reflection
44. In a laser, the population inversion is a condition where:
A) More atoms are in the ground state than excited state B) The number of atoms in excited state equals ground state
C) More atoms are in the excited state than in the ground state D) No atoms are in the excited state
45. What type of light is produced by a laser?
A) Incoherent and monochromatic B) Coherent and monochromatic
C) Incoherent and polychromatic D) Coherent and polychromatic
46. According to Bohr’s theory, the velocity of an electron in the first orbit of hydrogen is approximately:
A) 1.09 × 106 m/s B) 2.18 × 106 m/s C) 3.00 × 108 m/s D) 9.1 × 10−31 m/s
47. Which of the following is a solid-state laser?
A) Ruby laser B) Helium-neon laser C) Carbon dioxide laser D) Dye laser
48. Ruby laser is an example of
A) Electronic pumping B) Chemical pumping C) Optical pumping D) Thermal pumping
49. What is the role of the optical cavity or resonator in a laser?
A) To absorb light B) To reflect and amplify light
C) To scatter light randomly D) To heat the laser medium
50. The first working laser was based on which material?
A) Helium-Neon B) Ruby C) Gallium Arsenide D) Carbon Dioxide
51 Which one of the following is not an application of lasers?
A) Eye surgery B) Data storage C) Microwave cooking D) Barcode scanning
52. The main requirement to achieve laser action is:
A) High temperature B) Population inversion C) Low pressure D) Electric current
53. What is the role of the optical cavity or resonator in a laser?
A) To absorb light B) To reflect and amplify light
C) To scatter light randomly D) To heat the laser medium
54. Metastable state energy of neon is:
A) 2.6 eV B) 20.66 eV C) 27.66 eV D) 41.66 eV
55. The life time of metastable state:
a) 10-8 sec B) 10-11 sec C) 10-9 sec D) 10-3 sec
56. Which instrument is commonly used to detect radioactive decay?
A) Microscope B) Barometer C) Geiger-Müller counter D) Spectrophotometer
57. During beta-minus decay, the atomic number of the nucleus:
A) Decreases by 1 B) Increases by 1 C) Remains the same D) Doubles
58. Which particle is found in the nucleus of an atom along with protons?
A) Electron B) Neutrino C) Neutron D) Positron
59. The process of splitting a heavy nucleus into two lighter nuclei is called:
A) Fusion B) Radioactive decay C) Fission D) Ionization
60. Question #60 to #62: What is the speed of the electron if it orbits in the smallest allowed orbit?
A) 2.19 x 16 m/s B) 1.09 x 106 m/s C) 5.05 x 106 m/s D) 7.28 x 106 m/s
61. What is the speed in second smallest orbit?
A) 2.19 x 16 m/s B) 1.09 x 106 m/s C) 5.05 x 106 m/s D) 7.28 x 106 m/s
62. What happens to the speed when electron moves to a larger orbit?
A) Decrease B) Increase C) Remains same D) Both A & B are possible
63. Which of the following types of radiation is the most penetrating?
A) Alpha particles B) Beta particles C) Gamma rays D) Neutrons
64. In nuclear fusion, energy is released because:
A) Mass is converted into energy B) Electrons are absorbed
C) Neutrons are released D) Atoms become stable
65. Which nuclear reaction takes place in the sun?
A) Nuclear fission B) Beta decay C) Nuclear fusion D) Alpha emission
66. What is the unit of radioactive decay?
A) Watt B) Becquerel C) Coulomb D) Hertz
67. A radioactive element has a half-life of 5 years. How much of a 100g sample remains after 10 years?
A) 25g B) 50g C) 12.5g D) 75g
68. Which of the following is used as fuel in nuclear power plants?
A) Uranium-235 B) Plutonium-244 C) Carbon-12 D) Helium-4
69. Who discovered the neutron?
A) Niels Bohr B) Ernest Rutherford C) J.J. Thomson D) James Chadwick
70. What protects the surroundings from radiation in a nuclear reactor?
A) Graphite moderator B) Control rods C) Cooling system D) Concrete shielding
71. The law of radioactive decay states that:
A) The number of nuclei increases over time B) The decay rate is constant and independent of time
C) The rate of decay is proportional to the number of undecayed nuclei D) All nuclei decay at the same time
72. The mathematical expression for radioactive decay is:
A) N = No + λt B) N = No e λt C) N = No e−λt D) N = λNot
−λt
73. In the decay formula N = Noe , what does λ represent?
A) Number of atoms B) Time C) Decay constant D) Half-life
74. The half-life t1/2 of a radioactive substance is related to the decay constant by the formula:
A) t1/2 = λ B) t1/2 =1/ λ C) t1/2 =ln2/λ D) t1/2 =λln2
75. If a radioactive substance has a half-life of 2 hours, what fraction of the original sample remains after 6 hours?
A) ½ B) ¼ C) 1/8 D) 1/16
76. A radioactive sample has a half-life of 10 hours. What fraction of the original sample remains after 40 hours?
A) ½ B) ¼ C) 1/8 D) 1/16
77. The decay constant λ of a substance with a half-life of 5 hours is:
A) 0.0693 h⁻¹ B) 0.1386 h⁻¹ C) 0.3465 h⁻¹ D) 1.386 h⁻¹
78. If the initial number of nuclei is 800, how many remain after two five-lives?
A) 800 B) 600 C) 400 D) 50
79. A substance decays from 100g to 25g in 6 hours. What is its half-life?
A) 1hour B) 2 hours C) 3 hours D) 6 hours
80. If the decay constant λ=0.231 day−1, what is the half-life of the substance?
A) 0.693 day B) 2 days C) 3 days D) 4 days
81. What is mass defect?
A) The gain in mass after nuclear fusion B) The difference between the mass of a nucleus and the sum of its individual nucleons
C) The amount of energy stored in electrons D) The difference in weight between isotopes
82. The mass defect is converted into which form of energy?
A) Kinetic energy B) Sound energy C) Binding energy D) Chemical energy
83. The unit of binding energy is:
A) Joule B) Coulomb C) Watt D) Pascal
84. Binding energy per nucleon is:
A) Total binding energy divided by the number of protons B) Total binding energy divided by the number of neutrons
C) Total binding energy divided by the number of nucleons D) Energy required to remove a proton
85. Which nucleus has the highest binding energy per nucleon?
A) Uranium-235 B) Hydrogen-1 C) Iron-56 D) Helium-4
86. What causes the mass defect in a nucleus?
A) Loss of electrons B) Emission of gamma rays
C) Conversion of mass into energy during nucleus formation D) Gravitational attraction between nucleons
87. The greater the binding energy per nucleon, the:
A) Less stable the nucleus B) More unstable the atom C) More stable the nucleus D) Bigger the atom
88. Which equation relates mass defect to binding energy?
A) F = ma B) V = IR C) E = mc2 D) PV=nRT
89. If a nucleus has a mass defect of 0.01 u, what is its binding energy?
A) 1.5 MeV B) 9.3 MeV C) 0.1 MeV D) 20 MeV
90. Binding energy is the energy required to:
A) Split a neutron into proton and electron B) Bind electrons to the nucleus
C) Break the nucleus into its individual protons and neutrons D) Remove all electrons from an atom
91. A radioactive substance has a half-life of 4 hours. How much of a 160 g sample will remain after 12 hours?
A) 20 g B) 40 g C) 80 g D) 10 g
92. If a radioactive sample decays from 256 g to 16 g in 16 hours, what is its half-life?
A) 1 hour B) 2 hours C) 3 hours D) 4 hours
93. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is 1 hour. What fraction of the original sample remains after 3 hours?
A) ½ B) 1/3 C) ¼ D) 1/8
94. A substance has a half-life of 5 days. How much of a 64 g sample remains after 15 days?
A) 8 g B) 16 g C) 32 g D) 4 g
95. The half-life of a certain element is 2 hours. How long will it take for a 200 g sample to decay to 25 g?
A) 2 hours B) 4 hours C) 6 hours D) 8 hours
96. A nucleus has a mass defect of 1 a.m.u. What is the binding energy in MeV?
A) 831 MeV B) 931 MeV C) 0.931 MeV D) 131 MeV
97. If the mass of 2 protons and 2 neutrons is 4.032 u, but the mass of a helium nucleus is 4.0026 u, what is the mass defect?
A) 0.020 u B) 0.0294 u C) 0.0194 u D) 0.0014 u
98. What is the binding energy of a helium nucleus with a mass defect of 0.030 u?
A) 27.93 MeV B) 17.12 MeV C) 38.45 MeV D) 50.00 MeV
99. A lithium nucleus has a binding energy of 31.5 MeV and contains 7 nucleons. What is the binding energy per nucleon?
A) 4.5 MeV B) 5.5 MeV C) 6.5 MeV D) 7.5 MeV
00. If the mass defect of a nucleus is 0.050 u, what is the equivalent energy in joules?
A) 7.47×10−13 J B) 6.22×10−13 J C) 9.34×10−13 J D) 4.98×10−13 J