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2017 MDSC 3312

The document consists of a series of medical questions and scenarios across various specialties including anatomical pathology, chemical pathology, hematology, immunology, microbiology, pharmacology, and public health. Each question presents clinical cases or concepts requiring knowledge of histological features, diagnostic criteria, and treatment options. The content appears to be aimed at medical students or professionals preparing for examinations.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
6 views

2017 MDSC 3312

The document consists of a series of medical questions and scenarios across various specialties including anatomical pathology, chemical pathology, hematology, immunology, microbiology, pharmacology, and public health. Each question presents clinical cases or concepts requiring knowledge of histological features, diagnostic criteria, and treatment options. The content appears to be aimed at medical students or professionals preparing for examinations.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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MDSC 3312 REMAKE

ANATOMICAL PATHOLOGY:

1. Which of the following is a histological feature of kidney in malignant hypertension:


A. Thyroidisation of the tubules
B. Fibrous necrosis of the arterioles

2. 12 year old boy has hematochezia and pain in his umbilical region. Surgical exploration
revealed the following:

(This wasn’t the exact picture, but it looked something like this)

Which of the following is TRUE:


A. The patient has a vitellointestinal duct remnant abnormality
B. The patient has diverticular something…

3. Which of the following is at the highest risk of a non-hemolytic cause of gallstones?


(rephrased)
A. Male > 60 years
B. Obese female > 60 years
C. Obese female < 40 years
D. Male with alcoholic cirrhosis

4. Which of the following is TRUE about piecemeal necrosis:


A. Necrosis of hepatocytes at the limiting plate

5. Patient has a testicular tumour that has Schiller-Duval Bodies and is AFP positive.
A. Yolk Sac tumor
B. Seminoma
C. Choriocarcinoma
D. Teratoma

6. Patient has a swollen testes and inflammation of the epididymis. Biopsy showed
caseating granuloma with epithelioid cells. Which is the diagnosis?
A. Mumps
B. Tuberculosis

7. A 7 year-old child presents with hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia, and


proteinuria. The edema is in the periorbital region initially and eventually spreads to the rest of
the body. The patient responds well to steroid therapy. The MOST LIKELY diagnostic
morphological feature of the patient’s disease would be:
A. Fusion of foot processes of podocytes
B. Thickening of glomerular basement membrane
C. Crescent formation
D. Acute tubular necrosis

8. A 49 yr. old woman has a physical examination, which is negative except for her stools,
which test positive for occult blood. A colonoscopy is later performed and reveals a 1cm polyp
in the ascending colon with a stalk. It is biopsied and microscopy shows a atypical, crowded,
tubular colonic-type glands confined to the mucosa. The BEST diagnosis is
A. Adenomatous polyp
B. Peutz-Jegher polyp
C. Hyperplastic polyp
D. Adenocarcinoma of the colon

9. Patient has symptoms of inflammatory bowel disease. A series of morphological


features were given that indicated ulcerative colitis such as no granulomas. Which of the
following is TRUE:
A. The patient has Crohn’s
B. Toxic megacolon is a rare complication

10. Patient had a pap smear that showed CIN3. Which of the following is TRUE:
A. Something about the upper ⅔ …
B. Something about koilocytosis in the basement layer
C. Something about the HPV 6 subtype being the most likely cause

CHEMICAL PATHOLOGY:

11. With respect to AST and ALT, which of the following are true:
A. In viral hepatitis, ALT is greater than AST
B. ALT is present in higher concentration than AST in the cytoplasm
C. AST is found only in the mitochondria
D. Something related to the location and concentrations of ALT and AST

12. Biochemical imbalance caused by nephrotic syndrome/liver disease? I think….


A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypernatremia

13. With respect to the serum electrophoresis, what electrophoretic band has
ceruloplasmin:
A. Alpha 1
B. Alpha 2
C. Beta
D. Gamma

14. Regarding the abnormal SPE below, which of the following conditions does it most
likely suggest?
A. Agammaglobulinemia
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Meningitis

15. Regarding the diagram below, which of the following conditions does it most likely
suggest?

A. Multiple Sclerosis
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Meningitis
D.
16. For reclamation of filtered bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) from the proximal tubule,
A. HCO3- diffuses across the membrane
B. HCO3- is actively reabsorbed from the proximal tubule
C. HCO3- is reabsorbed as CO2 from the proximal tubule
D. HCO3- is reabsorbed as hydrogen bicarbonate

HAEMATOLOGY:

17. In a kid with Immune thrombocytopenia, which of the following is true:


A. Causes bleeding to joints
B. Most of the time it resolves on its own
C. Another wrong option
D. Another wrong option.

18. A pregnant lady got a DVT and she was placed on LMWH. What test would you use
to monitor her:
A. APTT and PT
B. Bleeding time
C. Factor Xa
D. GPS

19. The following can be transferred via blood transfusion except:


A. HIV
B. HSV
C. HEP B
D. Chagas disease

20. Patient had hemophilia A. Which of the following is TRUE:


A. The prolonged PTT becomes normal after adding normal plasma
B. Something about his mother/father...

21. Patient has beta thalassemia major and has A+ blood type. Which of the following is
TRUE:
A. The patient needs leukocyte-depleted red cells
B. Patient’s blood agglutinates with Anti B

22. A 29 year old woman presents with a … diagnosed with DVT following a doppler
ultrasound commenced on heparin and warfarin therapy. They decide because the patient is too
young to perform a reveals a Protein C level of 25. You would advise the patient.
A. Stop warfarin therapy immediately
B. She will require lifelong therapy
C. Should bring in family members for testing
D. Repeat the thrombophilia screen in 3 weeks

23. A 15 year old female patient presents to a doctor complaining of jaundice, the doctor
orders blood tests. Which of the following will you expect in the results?
A. Normal reticulocyte count
B. Increased haemoglobin
C. Haptoglobin decreased
D. LDH low
24. Which of the following is true for Vwf:
A. Most common deficiency
B. Platelet function impaired
C. IX deficiency
D. X linked

IMMUNOLOGY:

24. Which of the following BEST describes peripheral tolerance?:


A. Something about auto-regulatory T cells and self-reactive T cells
B. Something about self-reactive T cells needing activation by self-reactive B cells
C. Something about self-reactive B cells needing activation by self-reactive T cells

25. What autoimmune disease causes Abs against Ach receptor on muscle?
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Wrong option
C. Wrong option
D. Wrong option

26. Which of the following is true about hyperacute rejection


A. It occurs as a result of anti-HLA

27. All of the following organisms can lead to cancer EXCEPT:


A. HPV
B. Herpes
C. HIV

MICROBIOLOGY:

28. Which of the following intestinal protozoans cause enteritis and hepatic abscesses:
A. Entamoeba hartmanni
B. Entamoeba dispar
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Entamoeba coli

29. A patient consulted a dermatologist for a skin fungal infection. A skin scraping was
sent to the laboratory for culture, including culture for fungi. The culture revealed a slow
growing colony which produced a small microconidia and pencil shaped macroconidia. Which
of the following is most likely causative fungus?
A. Epidermophyton
B. Microsporum
C. Trichophyton
D. Trichosporon

30. A rose gardener has multiple vesicles on hand and multiple eruptions along the
lymphatics. The fungus which is most likely to be responsible is:
A. Candida albicans
B. Cladosporium carrionii
C. Histoplasma capsularum
D. Sporothrix schenckil

PHARMACOLOGY:

31. Prolonged steroid treatment causes osteoporosis. What is the cause of this?
A. Steroids directly inhibit osteoblasts
B. Vitamin D cannot be absorbed in the gut
C. Calcium is secreted from the renal tubule
D. inhibits osteoclasts?

32. Patient was placed on chemotherapy with several drugs. One of the drugs listed was
cyclophosphamide. Patient got hemorrhagic cystitis. What was the cause?
A. Toxic effects of acrolein

33. Patient has hypoglycemia symptoms. Which are the following drugs is the most likely
cause?
A. Acarbose
B. Glyburide

34. Which of the following processes do NOT occur in diabetic ketoacidosis?


A. Gluconeogenesis
B. Ketogenesis
C. Glycogenesis
D. Lipolysis

35. Patient has anemia and signs of chronic renal failure like high creatinine etc. Which of
the following medication would you prescribe?
A. An Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents

36. Patient needed a direct thrombin inhibitor. Which of the following drugs would you
prescribe? (Similar question in the EMQ)
A. Dabigatran

PUBLIC HEALTH:

37. Chronic viral hepatitis can be confirmed in a patient with


A. Persistent HbAg
B. Something about HbeAg

38. Which organism causes the most amount of salt loss during diarrhoea?
A. Cholera
B. E. Choli
C. Rota Virus

39. Which disease has an outbreak of diarrhea during the dry summer?
A. Cholera
B. Rotavirus
C. Shigellosis
40. Which of the following are TRUE about about ovarian cancer:
A. Obesity is a risk factor
B. It occurs mostly in women ages 35-55

----------------------------------------------------------EMQs-----------------------------------------------
-------------

ANATOMICAL PATHOLOGY: Breast Pathology

A. Ductal carcinoma in situ


B. Invasive ductal carcinoma
C. Invasive lobular carcinoma
D. Infiltration of axillary lymph nodes
E. Fibroadenoma
F. Sclerosing Adenosis
G. Lobular Hyperplasia

1. What is the most important prognostic factor for breast cancer?


2. What is associated with comedonecrosis?
3. What is a benign lesion that never goes malignant?
4. What is the most common infiltrative breast cancer?
5. What indicates increased risk of malignancy?

CHEM PATH: Dehydration

A. Brown urine
B. Dark urine
C. Anion Gap
D. Osmolality
E. Osmolarity
F. Osmolality gap
G. ADH

6. What hormone is released to cause water retention


7. What is a clinical sign of dehydration
8. What is used to assess the presence of unmeasured anions and cations in the plasma

HAEM:

A. Recombinant activated factor VIIa


B. Vitamin K
C. Platelet Concentrate
D. PCC
E. VIIa
F. VIIIa
G. Cryoprecipitate
H. FFP
9. Used to treat warfarin overdose
10. Never give in TTP
11. Used to treat dysfibrinogenemia in DIC

IMMUNO: Autoimmune Diseases

A. SLE
B. Sjogren's disease
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Myasthenia gravis

12. What disease has a characteristic butterfly rash?


13. What is an autoimmune disease affecting moisture-secreting glands?
14. What is an autoimmune disease involving antibodies to synovial membrane in joints

MICROBIOLOGY: Fungi

A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Aspergillus fumigatus
C. Aspergillus c
D. Candida albicans
E. Sporothrix schenckii
F. Pneumocystis carinii
G. Malassezia Furfur
H. Cryptococcus Neoformans

15. An uncle with HIV, has a CD4 count of ___. Skin showed lota liver spot.
16. Creamy pasty colonies and germ tube positive.
17. On SBD agar green pasture, unbranching ___.
18. An IV drug abuser came in with infection, found to be atypical fungi which does not
respond to antifungal medication.
19. An AIDS defining fungi stained by india ink

PHARM: ANTICOAGULANT DRUGS

A. Dabigatran
B. Enoxaparin
C. Warfarin
D. Clopidogrel
E. Streptokinase
F. Fondaparinux

20. Direct thrombin inhibitor


21. ADP inhibitor for platelets
22. Person came in, they received some kind of surgery. Following, they were put on a
certain anticoagulant after a week they developed a macular rash (and bloody blisters?) on the
left inner thigh. What was the anticoagulant?

PUBLIC HEALTH: STIs


A. Syphilis
B. HPV
C. HSV?
D. Human Papilloma Virus
E. Gonorrhoea and chlamydia infections

23. Accounts for xx0,000 incidences of cervical cancer and xx0,000 deaths from cervical
cancer according to WHO (idr the numbers)
24. Makes it easier to contract HIV
25. Causes blindness in babies if pregnant mom is left untreated.

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