Question bank for validation – TR

Question bank for the TR validation

1- Definition of ANAC?

The National Civil Aviation Agency (ANAC)

2- Date of creation of ANAC

July 11, 2008

3- Definition of RAG?

Gabonese Aeronautical Regulations

4- Define an airport: Defined surface on land or water (including, possibly, buildings, installations and
equipment), intended to be used, in whole or in part, for the arrival, departure and movements of
aircraft on the surface.

5- Define the apron: Defined area, on a land aerodrome, intended for aircraft during the embarkation
or disembarkation of passengers, loading or unloading of mail or freight, refueling or refueling ,
parking or maintenance.

6- Define the movement area: Part of an aerodrome to be used for takeoffs, landings and movement
of aircraft on the surface, and which includes the maneuvering area and aprons.

7- Maneuvering area. Part of an aerodrome to be used for take-offs, landings and surface movement
of aircraft, excluding aprons.

8- Aircraft: Any device that can support itself in the atmosphere thanks to air reactions other than air
reactions on the surface of the Earth.

9- Airplane: Aerodyne driven by a motor unit and whose lift in flight is obtained mainly by
aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given flight conditions.

10- Night: Hours between the end of civil twilight and the start of civil dawn, or any other period
between sunset and sunrise which may be fixed by the competent authority.

Civil twilight ends when the center of the solar disk is 6° below the horizon. Civil dawn begins when
the center of the solar disk is 6° below the horizon.

11- Flight manual: Manual associated with the certificate of airworthiness, which records the limits
of use within which the aircraft must be considered in good working order, as well as the information
and instructions necessary for members of the flight crew to ensure the safe use of the aircraft.

12- Operations manual: Manual which records the procedures, instructions and indications intended
for operating personnel in the execution of their tasks.

13- Regulations on avoidance and priorities

The aircraft which has the right of way maintains its heading and speed.

7.1.3.2.2.1 Do not pass over, under or in front of an aircraft unless you do so at a safe distance and
allow for wake turbulence.
7.1.3.2.2.2 Aircraft approaching head-on. Will skew to its right.

7.1.3.2.2.3 Converging routes. He who sees the other on his right will move away; however :

a) powered motorcycle aerodynes will give way to airships, gliders and balloons;

(b) airships will give way to gliders and balloons;

c) gliders will give way to balloons;

(d) motorcycle-powered aircraft will yield the right of way to aircraft that are seen towing other
aircraft or objects.

Ref: RAG 7.1.3.2.2

14- What does Few mean?

report cloudiness using the abbreviations “FEW” (1-2 octas), “SCT” (3-4 octas), “BKN” (5-7 octas) or
“OVC” (8 octas);

15- Date of creation of the RAGs?

August 8, 2016

16- What is CAVOK?

visibility ≥ 10 km

No clouds below 5000’

RAG 3 – Relating to personnel licenses

Crew licenses

1- What is RAG 3?

Related to personnel licenses

2- Validity of the medical?

- Until the end of the 12th month following the month in which the certificate was issued for the
class 1 certificate;

- In the case of ATPL license holders who carry out commercial passenger transport flights in single-
pilot operation and who are aged 40 or over, the specified validity period will be reduced to 6
months.

- In the case of ATPL license holders who operate commercial transport flights and who are aged 60
or over, the specified validity period will be reduced to 6 months.

3- Extension of medical?

45 days.
4- Validity period of licenses (CPL/ATPL)?

5 years

5- Age required to obtain a CPL? ATPL?

CPL -> 18 years / ATPL -> 21 years

6- Validity of a standard Qualification?

12 months from the date of its issue, renewal or extension, until the end of the month during which
this validity is due to expire

When the extension of a qualification is carried out within the 3 months preceding the expiry date,
the validity of the qualification runs from the date of the end of the previous validity, until the end of
the month during

7- Validity of an IR?

12 months from the date of its issue, renewal or extension, until the end of the month during which
this validity is due to expire

When the extension of a qualification is carried out within the 3 months preceding the expiry date,
the validity of the qualification runs from the date of the end of the previous validity, until the end of
the month during

8- Validity of a validation?

1 year renewable

RAG 4.1 - Public air transport-Airplane

1- What is RAG 4.1?

RAG 4.1 – Relating to the technical operation of aircraft/public air transport-Airplane

2- Rest period?

Defined, uninterrupted period of time preceding and/or following duty, during which a flight or cabin
crew member is released from duty.

3- Flight service period?

Period which begins when a flight or cabin crew member is required to report for duty, which
includes a flight or series of flights and which ends when the airplane comes to a stop and after
engine shutdown at the end of the last flight on which he performs crew member duties.

4- Track -

- Dry -> A track is considered dry if its surface has no visible moisture or contaminants in the area
that is to be used.

- Wet -> A is considered wet when its surface is not dry, but the surface humility does not give it a
shiny appearance.
- Wet -> The track surface is covered with visible moisture or 3mm of water or less in the area to be
used.

- Contaminated -> A runway is said to be contaminated when more than 25% of the surface of the
runway (whether by separate fractions or not) delimited by the required length and width, is covered
by one of the following elements:

a) a film of water measuring more than 3 mm (0.125 inch), or sleet or powder snow in a quantity
equivalent to more than 3 mm (0.125 inch) of water;

b) snow packed so as to form a solid mass capable of resisting any subsequent compression, forming
a homogeneous mass which detaches in fragments if one attempts to remove it (compact snow); Or

(c) ice, including wet ice.

5- What is SMS?

Safety Management System

6- Flight time?

Total time counted from the time the aircraft begins moving for takeoff to the time it finally comes to
rest at the end of the flight.

7- Maximum approved passenger seat configuration?

Maximum passenger seat capacity of a particular aircraft, excluding cockpit seats and cabin crew
seats, used by an operator, approved by ANAC and included in the operations manual.

8- Deadlines for reporting to Anac in the event of a major incident? Report without delay

Deadlines for reporting to Anac in the event of an incident? 72 hours

9- What is LME? Minimum equipment list

What is the LMER? Minimum list of reference equipment (more restrictive)

10- Landing:

More than 30 passengers on flights over water at a distance from the coast allowing for an
emergency landing greater than that corresponding to 120 minutes of flight at cruising speed or
400nm, if this is lower.

11- Alcohol consumption?

8 hours before the indicated presentation time for flight duty or the start of the reserve;

12- Conservation, provision and use of FDRs?

60 days

13- Definition of a CTA?

Air Transport Certificate

Validity of a CTA?

2 years
14- What is a suitable aerodrome?

Aerodrome that the operator considers satisfactory, taking into account the applicable performance
requirements and runway characteristics. At the planned time of use, the aerodrome will be available
and equipped with the necessary ancillary services, such as ATS, sufficient lighting, communications,
weather services, navigation aids and emergency services.

What is an alternate aerodrome?

Aerodrome to which an aircraft may continue its flight when it becomes impossible or inopportune
to continue the flight or land at the intended landing aerodrome, where the necessary services and
facilities are available, where the requirements of the aircraft in performance can be met and will be
operational at the intended time of use.

15- Performance class

A -> Multi-engine aircraft equipped with turboprops, with more than 9 passengers or with a
maximum take-off mass greater than 5,700 kg, + all multi-jet aircraft.

B -> Propeller aircraft equal to or less than 9 passengers and whose maximum take-off mass is equal
to or less than 5,700 kg

C -> Airplanes equipped with piston engines with more than 9 passengers, or whose maximum take-
off mass exceeds 5,700 kg

16- What is

LDA -> (Usable landing distance) Length of runway declared usable by the ANAC appropriate and
suitable for taxiing an aircraft on the ground during landing.

TORA -> (Usable take-off run length) Length of runway declared usable by the ANAC, appropriate and
adapted to the ground roll of an aircraft during take-off.

TODA -> (Usable take-off distance) Usable take-off run length to which is added the usable clear
extension.

ASDA -> (Usable Acceleration-Stop Distance) -> usable take-off run length, to which is added the
stopping extension, provided that this stopping extension is declared usable by the appropriate
ANAC and capable of supporting the mass of the aircraft in the operating conditions considered.

17- Life jackets?

Land planes - An operator cannot operate a land plane:

(1) when flying over a body of water more than 50 nautical miles from the coast,

(2) or taking off from an aerodrome or landing at an aerodrome where the take-off or approach path
is arranged in such a way above the water that in the event of a problem the probability of a ditching
exists, that if this aircraft is equipped, for each person on board, with a life jacket fitted with a
survival light beacon.
18- Manex

A -> General

B -> Use of the plane

C -> Information and instructions on roads and aerodromes

D -> Training

19- Transport of dangerous goods crew? Category 10

20- Incident report for the transport of dangerous goods? 72H

21- Fuel policy?

1-ground taxi fuel: APU/Hotel mode + Start + Taxi

2- stage fuel: quantity of fuel necessary for the plane to fly from the take-off point until landing at
the destination aerodrome

3- road reserve: quantity of fuel necessary to deal with unforeseen circumstances. It will be 5% of the
planned stage fuel, in any event it will not be less than flying for 5 minutes at holding speed at 1,500
ft above the destination aerodrome in normal conditions.

4- clearance reserve at destination:

(i) in cases where an alternate aerodrome at the destination is necessary, the quantity of fuel
required for the airplane to:

1. (a) conduct a missed approach to the destination aerodrome

2. (b) climb to the planned cruising altitude;

3. (c) follow the planned route;

4. (d) descend to the point where the planned approach is initiated; And

5. (e) conduct the approach and landing at the destination alternate aerodrome;

(ii) in cases where two destination alternate aerodromes are required, so that the airplane can
proceed to the alternate aerodrome that requires the greatest quantity of fuel.

in cases where the flight is carried out without a fuel alternate aerodrome required for the aircraft to
fly for 15 minutes at the holding speed at 1500 ft above the altitude of the destination aerodrome
under normal conditions .

(iii) in cases where the intended landing aerodrome is an isolated aerodrome:

1- if the aircraft is equipped with reciprocating engines, quantity of fuel required for the aircraft to fly
for 45 minutes, plus 15% of the planned flight time at cruise level, including the final reserve, or for 2
hours , if this duration is less;

2- if the aircraft is equipped with turbomachines, quantity of fuel required for the aircraft to be able
to fly for 2 hours at normal cruise consumption above the destination aerodrome, including the final
reserve;
5. final reserve:

(i) if the airplane is equipped with reciprocating engines, quantity of fuel required for the airplane to
fly for 45 minutes

(ii) if the airplane is equipped with turbomachinery, quantity of fuel required for the airplane to fly
for 30 minutes at the waiting speed 1,500 ft above the aerodrome under normal conditions;

6. additional fuel: additional quantity of fuel for:

(1) allow the airplane to descend as necessary and proceed to an alternate aerodrome in the event
of engine failure or depressurization, whichever contingency requires the greatest amount of fuel in
the event that it occurs produced at the most critical point of the route; And

(i) fly for 15 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft above the aerodrome under normal conditions; And

(ii) carry out the approach and landing;

7- discretionary fuel: additional quantity of fuel that the pilot in command may request to carry.

22- Selection of aerodromes?

Lift-off :

Alternate take-off aerodrome in the event that it is impossible to return to the departure aerodrome:

- Located 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with 1 engine in ISA condition, in calm air and maximum
take-off weight (twin-engine).

- Located at 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating in ISA condition, calm air
and maximum takeoff weight (3 engines or more).

If there is no alternate aerodrome at takeoff, the flight time necessary to reach the first alternate
aerodrome located at a distance less than the maximum diversion time.

Destination :

a) Minimum 1 alternate aerodrome unless:

- Flight duration does not exceed 6 hours

- The destination aerodrome has 2 usable runways and the weather has a ceiling of 2000 feet or 500
feet above the MDH and visibility > 5km, 1 hour before arrival and 1 hour after arrival.

- The destination aerodrome is isolated

b) 2 alternate aerodromes when:

- For 1 hour before arrival to 1 hour after arrival the weather is below the minimum.

- There is no weather report available at the destination

(1) for jet aircraft, 60% of the usable landing distance;

(2) or, for turboprop airplanes, 70% of the usable landing distance;

24- Landing – Wet and contaminated runways

The usable landing distance is at least 115% of the required landing distance.

RAG 7.1 – Rules of the air

1- ASECNA? Air Safety and Navigation Agency.

Air security service provider designated by Gabon.

2- Flight plan:

Mandatory for all IFR flights

To be deposited at least 1 hour before departure and valid until 1 hour after the indicated departure
time.

3- Interruption of communications:

VFR:

a) continue under VFR, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report arrival by the most rapid
means to the appropriate air traffic services unit;

b) if deemed desirable, will terminate the flight under IFR

IFR:

a) No RADAR: maintain the last assigned speed and level, or the minimum flight altitude if higher, for
20 MINUTES following the moment when it should have indicated its position vertically from a point
of mandatory report, and will subsequently modify its level and speed in accordance with the flight
plan submitted;

b) With RADAR: maintain the last assigned speed and level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, for a
period of 7 MINUTES from the later of the following three times:

1) the moment when he reached the last assigned level or minimum flight altitude; Or

2) when the transponder was set to code 7600; Or

3) when he should have indicated his position above a mandatory reporting point; and subsequently,
will modify its level and speed in accordance with the filed flight plan;

c) if it is guided by radar or if it has received instructions from ATC to follow in area navigation (RNAV)
an offset route with no specified limit, will join the route indicated in the flight plan in force at later
at the next significant point, taking into account the applicable minimum flight altitude;
(d) following the route indicated in the flight plan in force, will continue its flight to the designated
navigation aid or appropriate landmark serving the destination aerodrome and, where required to do
so to comply in paragraph (e) below, will wait vertically to this aid or marker until it begins to
descend;

(e) begin to descend from the navigation aid or landmark specified in paragraph (d) at the last
expected time of approach of which it has received communication and acknowledgment, or at a
time as close as practicable to this one; if it has not received communication and acknowledgment of
any expected approach time, it will begin to descend at the expected time of arrival determined
according to the flight plan in force, or at a time as close as possible of it;

(f) execute the normal instrument approach procedure specified for the designated navigation aid or
fix;

g) land, if practicable, within 30 minutes of the expected time of arrival specified in paragraph (e) or
the latest expected time of approach acknowledged by the aircraft if later than the time expected
arrival.

4- Minimum VMC:

5- Minimum levels:

Except for the purposes of take-off or landing and unless otherwise authorized by the competent
authority, an IFR flight will be carried out at a level which will not be lower than the minimum flight
altitude set by the State whose territory is flown over or, when no minimum flight altitude has been
established:

a) above rugged or mountainous areas, at a level which will be at least 2000 ft above the highest
obstacle within a radius of 8 km from the estimated position of the aircraft;

(b) elsewhere than in the areas specified in paragraph (a), at a level which will be at least 1000 ft
above the highest obstacle located within a radius of 8 km around the estimated position of the
aircraft.

6- Distress signal: The signals used together or separately mean that there is a threat of serious and
imminent danger, and that immediate help is requested

7- Emergency signals: Signals used together or separately mean that an aircraft wishes to report
difficulties which force it to land, without requiring immediate assistance.

VOR: VHF Ominidirectional Range

RMI: Radial Magnetic Indicator

NDB: Non-directional beacon

ADF: Automatic direction finder

RNAV: Surface navigation

PANS: Procedures for air navigation services

OCA: Obstacle crossing altitude

TAWS: Impact warning and alarm system

ADS/C: Automatic dependent surveillance in contract mode

ADTO: Extended diversion time flight

OTHER QUESTIONS !!!

1- Circulation air definition?

2- What is class B airspace? (separations)

3- Validity of the medical for a CPL class 2 license?

24 months

4- What is the last Amendment to RAG 3?

Amendment No. 5

5- Which RAG relates to general aviation?

RAG 4.2

6- Hours to obtain an ATPL?

Have completed at least 1500 hours of flight as an aircraft pilot.

Experience acquired as a training pilot on an approved synthetic flight trainer is acceptable towards
the total flight time of 1500 hours.

The reduction corresponding to this experience will be limited to a maximum of 100 hours, including
a maximum of 25 hours on a flight procedure trainer or primary instrument flight trainer.

7- Condition for applying for an ATPL?

Complete 1500 as an airplane pilot.

8- English language level 5?

valid for 6 years for a CPL

9- Validity for medical examiner approval?

24 months

10- Lowest moment of the Cicardian rhythm?

between 1 hour and 3 hours.

11- A special VFR flight can begin below ?

5km and cannot be extended below 1.5 km

12- A soldier who has completed military training can apply for a license?

CPL and carry out a standard qualification if necessary

man 86kg; woman 74kg

14- What does DSLR mean?

a) An audio conversation recorder?

b) A flight data recorder

c) Neither

Answer: Neither

15- Control region center

An area above demarcated from the surface

16- The establishment of the RAG is signed by?

The Director General of ANAC

17- What RAG relates to AERONAUTICAL CHARTS?

RAG 7.6