Class - 12

Chemistry Practice Questions

Chapter - 1 Solutions
Multiple Choice Questions (1 Mark)
1 A molar solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in
(a) 1000 g of the solvent (b) one litre of the solvent
(c) one litre of the solution (d) 22.4 litre of the solution
2 Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.0 molal aqueous solution is:
(a) 0.1770 (b) 0.0177 (c) 0.0344 (d) 1.7700
3 KH value for Ar(g), CO2(g), HCHO(g) and CH4(g) are 4.039, 1.67, 1.83 × 10–5, and 0.143,
respectively. Arrange these gases in the order of their increasing solubility
(a) HCHO < CH4 < CO2 < Ar (b) HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar
(c) Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO (d) Ar < CH4 < CO2 < HCHO
4 On dissolving sugar in water at room temperature solution feels cool to touch. Under
which of the following cases dissolution of sugar will be most rapid?
(a) Sugar crystals in cold water. (b) Sugar crystals in hot water.
(c) Powdered sugar in cold water. (d) Powdered sugar in hot water.
5 The value of Henry’s constant KH is _____________.
(a) greater for gases with higher solubility. (b) greater for gases with lower solubility.
(c) constant for all gases. (d) not related to the solubility of gases.
6 Low concentration of oxygen in the blood and tissues of people living at high altitude is
due to ____________.
(a) low temperature (b) low atmospheric pressure
(c) high atmospheric pressure (d) both low temperature and high atmospheric
pressure
7 When 1 mole of benzene is mixed with 1 mole of toluene the vapour will contain : (Given
: vapour of benzene = 12.8kPa and vapour pressure of toluene = 3.85 kPa). [CBSE, SQP,
2020-2021]
(a) equal amount of benzene and toluene as it forms an ideal solution
(b) unequal amount of benzene and toluene as it forms a non ideal solution
(c) higher percentage of benzene
(d) higher percentage of toluene
8 If two liquids A and B form minimum boiling azeotrope at some specific composition then
_________.
(a) A–B interactions are stronger than those between A–A or B–B.
(b) Vapour pressure of solution increases because more number of molecules of liquids A
and B can escape from the solution.
(c) Vapour pressure of solution decreases because less number of molecules of only one
of the liquids escape from the solution.
(d) A–B interactions are weaker than those between A–A or B–B.
9 The system that forms maximum boiling azeotropes is:
(a) ethyl alcohol-water (b) benzene-toluene
(c) acetone-chloroform (d) carbon disulphide-acetone
10 We have three aqueous solutions of NaCl labelled as ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ with concentrations
0.1 M,0.01 M and 0.001 M, respectively. The value of van’t Hoff factor for these solutions
 will be in the order
(a) iA < iB < iC (b) iA > iB > iC (c) iA = iB = iC (d) iA < iB > iC
11 Consider the figure and mark the correct option.

(a) Water will move from side (A) to side (B) if pressure lower than osmotic pressure is
applied on piston (B).
(b) Water will move from side (B) to side (A) if pressure greater than osmotic pressure is
applied on piston (B).
(c) Water will move from side (B) to side (A) if pressure equal to osmotic pressure is
applied on piston (B).
(d) Water will move from side (A) to side (B) if pressure equal to osmotic pressure is
applied on piston (A).
12 If we place the blood cells in a solution containing less than 0.9% (m/V) sodium chloride.
They would swell. This is because
(a) the solution is hypotonic (b) the solution is isotonic
(c) the solution is hypertonic (d) none of these
13 Which of the following 0.1 m aqueous solution will have the lowest freezing point?
(a) Al2(SO4)3 (b) C2H10O5 (c) KI (d) C12H22O11
14 Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Two different solutions of sucrose of same molality prepared in different solvents will
have the same depression in freezing point.
(b) The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by the equation p = CRT ( where C is the
molarity of the solution).
(c) Decreasing order of osmotic pressure for 0.01 M aqueous solutions of barium chloride,
potassium chloride, acetic acid and sucrose is BaCl2 > KCl > CH3COOH > sucrose.
(d) According to Raoult’s law, the vapour pressure exerted by a volatile component of a
solution is directly proportional to its mole fraction in the solution.
15 The value of van’t Hoff factor for ethanoic acid in benzene is
(a) 1.0 (b) 1.5 (c) 0.5 (d) 2
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
16 Assertion (A) : If more volatile liquid is added to another liquid, vapour pressure of
solution will be greater than that of pure solvent.
Reason (R) : Vapour pressure of solution is entirely due to solvent molecules.
17 Assertion (A): Dimethyl ether is less volatile than ethyl alcohol.
Reason (R) : Dimethyl ether has greater vapour pressure than ethyl alcohol.
18 Assertion (A) : The boiling point of pure solvent is always higher than the boiling point of
solution.
Reason (R) : The vapour pressure of the solvent decreases in the presence of non-volatile
solute.
19 Assertion (A) : Vapour pressure increase with increase in temperature.
Reason (R) : With increase in temperature, more molecules of the liquid can go into
 vapour phase.
20 Assertion (A) : When a solution is separated from the pure solvent by a semipermeable
membrane, the solvent molecules pass through it from pure solvent side to the solution
side.
Reason (R) : Diffusion of solvent occurs from a region of high concentration solution to a
region of low concentration solution.
21 Assertion (A) : The boiling point of 0.1 M urea solution is less than that of 0.1 M KCl
solution.
Reason (R) : Elevation of boiling point is directly proportional to the number of species
present in the solution.
22 Assertion (A) : 0.1 M solution of KCl has great osmotic pressure than 0.1 M solution of
glucose at same temperature.
Reason (R) : In solution KCl dissociates to produce more number of particles.
23 Assertion (A) : When methyl alcohol is added to water, boiling point of water decreases.
Reason (R) : When a volatile solute is added to a volatile solvent, elevation in boiling
point is observed.
24 Assertion (A) : When NaCl is added to water adepression in freezing point is observed.
Reason (R) : The lowering of vapour pressure of a solution causes depression in the
freezing point.
Short Question Answers (2 and 3 Marks)
25 Calculate the molality of ethanol solution in which the mole fraction of water is 0.88.
Ans. : 7.57 m
26 Calculate the mole fraction of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) in a solution containing 20% of
C2H6O2 by mass. Ans : mole fraction of ethylene glycol = 0.068
27 Calculate the molarity of each of the following solutions:
(a) 30 g of Co(NO3)2. 6H2O in 4.3 L of solution
(b) 30 mL of 0.5 M H2SO4 diluted to 500 mL. Ans: (a) 0.023M (b)
0.03M
28 Calculate : (a) molality (b) molarity and (c) mole fraction of KI if the density of 20%
(mass/mass) aqueous KI is 1.202 g mL-1.
Ans : (a) 1.506m (b) 1.44 M (c) 0.0263
29 H2S, a toxic gas with rotten egg like smell, is used for the qualitative analysis. If the
solubility of H2S in water at STP is 0.195 m, calculate Henry’s law constant.
Ans. :KH= 282bar
30 The vapour pressure of pure liquids A and B are 450 and 700 mm Hg respectively at 350
K. Find out the composition of the liquid mixture if the total vapour pressure is 600 mm
Hg. Also find the composition of the vapour phase. Ans. : XA = 0.30 XB = 0.70
31 Vapour pressure of pure water at 298 K is 23.8 mm Hg. 50 g of urea NH2CONH2 is
dissolved in 850 g of water. Calculate the vapour pressure of water for this solution and
its relative lowering.
Ans. : relative lowering of v.p. = 0.017 V.P. of water in solution = 23.4mm Hg
32 An antifreeze solution is prepared from 222.6 g of ethylene glycol, C2H4(OH)2 and 200 g of
water. Calculate the molality of the solution. If the density of the solution is 1.072 g mL–1,
then what shall be the molarity of the solution?
Ans. : m = 17.95 mol/kg M = 9.1 mole/L
33 State Henry’s law and mention some important applications.
34 Heptane and octane form an ideal solution. At 373 K, the vapour pressures of the two
liquid components are 105.2 kPa and 46.8 kPa, respectively. What will be the vapour
pressure of a mixture of 26.0 g of heptane and 35.0 g of octane?
Ans. : 73.43 kPa
35 A 5% solution (by mass) of cane sugar in water has a freezing point of 271 K. Calculate the
freezing point of a 5% glucose in water if the freezing point of pure water is 273.15 K.
Ans. : Kf = 13.97K Kg/mol Tf = 269.07 K
36 Vapour pressure of water at 293 K is 17.535 mm Hg. Calculate the vapour pressure of
water at 293 K when 25 g of glucose is dissolved in 450 g of water. Ans. : 17.44 mm Hg
37 Determine the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by dissolving 25 mg of K2SO4 in 2
litre of water at 25°C, assuming that it is completely dissociated. Ans. : 5.27 x 10-3 atm
38 (i) Why is an increase in temperature observed on mixing chloroform and acetone?
[CBSE 2019 (56/2/3)]
(ii) Why does sodium chloride solution freeze at a lower temperature than water? [CBSE
2013]
39 When 1.5 g of a non-volatile solute was dissolved in 90 g of benzene, the boiling point of
benzene raised from 353.23 K to 353.93 K. Calculate the molar mass of the solute.
(Kb for benzene = 2.52 K kg mol–1) [CBSE Chennai 2015] Ans. :60 g/mol
40 Calculate the freezing point of a solution containing 60 g of glucose (Molar mass = 180 g
mol–1) in 250 g of water. (Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol–1) [CBSE Delhi 2018]
Ans. : 270.67 K
41 Give reasons: [CBSE 2019 (56/2/1)]
(i) Cooking is faster in pressure cooker than in cooking pan.
(ii) Red Blood Cells (RBC) shrink when placed in saline water but swell in distilled water.
42 Calculate the boiling point of solution when 2 g of Na2SO4 (M = 142 g mol–1) was dissolved
in 50 g of water, assuming Na2SO4 undergoes complete ionisation.
(Kb for water = 0.52 K kg mol–1) [CBSE North 2016] Ans. : 373.589K
43 3.9 g of benzoic acid dissolved in 49 g of benzene shows a depression in freezing point of
1.62 K. Calculate the van’t Hoff factor and predict the nature of solute (associated or
dissociated). (Given: Molar mass of benzoic acid = 122 g mol–1, Kf for benzene = 4.9 K kg
mol–1) Ans. : i = 0.507
44 At 300 K, 30 g of glucose, C6H12O6 present per litre in its solution has an osmotic pressure
of 4.98 bar. If the osmotic pressure of another glucose solution is 1.52 bar at the same
temperature, calculate the concentration of the other solution. Ans. : 0.051M
45 Why a person suffering from high blood pressure is advised to take minimum quantity of
common salt?
46 A 1.00 molar aqueous solution of trichloroacetic acid (CCl3COOH) is heated to its boiling
point. The solution has the boiling point of 100.18°C. Determine the van’t Hoff factor for
trichloroacetic acid. (Kb for water = 0.512 K kg mol–1). Ans: i = 0.35
47 Calculate the boiling point elevation for a solution prepared by adding 10 g CaCl2 to 200 g
of water, assuming that CaCl2 is completely dissociated. (Kb for water = 0.512 K kg mol-1;
Molar mass of CaCl2 = 111 g mol-1) Ans. : 0.69 K
48 Aquatic animals are more comfortable in cold water than in warm water.
49 Rakesh took 20 g of solute A to prepare a 50 ml solution. This solution is isotonic to
another solution of the same volume with a weight of 40 g of a different solute B.
(i) If both the solution is prepared at the same temperature, then what is the ratio of
molecular mass of solute A to that of B?
 (ii) If the two solutions are placed at different temperatures, keeping all other variables
constant, and separated by SPM, will the osmosis happen, and why?
50 State Raoult’s law for a solution containing volatile components. What is the similarity
between the Raoult’s law and Henry’s law.
51 What type of azeotropic mixture will be formed by a solution of acetone and chloroform?
Justify on the basis of strength of intermolecular interactions that develop in the solution.
52 Write two differences between an ideal solution and a non-ideal solution.
52.1

52.2 A 6% solution of glucose (molar mass = 180 g mol -1) is isotonic with 2.5% solution of an
unknown organic substance. Calculate the molecular weight of the unknown organic
substance.
52.3 The vapour pressure of a solvent at 283 K is 100 mm Hg. Calculate the vapour pressure of
a dilute solution containing 1 mole of a strong electrolyte AB in 50 moles of the solvent at
283 K (assuming complete dissociation of solute AB).
52.4
52.5

52.6

52.7

52.8

52.9 (a)

(b)

Case Study Questions

53 Boiling point or freezing point of liquid solution would be affected by the dissolved solids
in the liquid phase. A soluble solid in solution has the effect of raising its boiling point and
depressing its freezing point. The addition of non-volatile substances to a solvent
decreases the vapour pressure and the added solute particles affect the formation
of pure solvent crystals. According to many researches the decrease in freezing point
directly correlated to the concentration of solutes dissolved in the solvent.
This phenomenon is expressed as freezing point depression and it is useful for several
applications such as freeze concentration of liquid food and to find the molar mass of an
unknown solute in the solution.
(i) When a non volatile solid is added to pure water it will:
 (a) boil above 100°C and freeze above 0°C (b) boil below 100°C and freeze above 0°C
(c) boil above 100°C and freeze below 0°C (d) boil below 100°C and freeze below 0°C

(ii) Colligative properties are:

(a) dependent only on the concentration of the solute and independent of the solvent’s
and solute’s identity.
(b) dependent only on the identity of the solute and the concentration of the solute and
independent of the solvent’s identity.
(c) dependent on the identity of the solvent and solute and thus on the concentration of
the solute.
(d) dependent only on the identity of the solvent and the concentration of the solute and
independent of the solute’s identity.

(iii) Assume three samples of juices A, B and C have glucose as the only sugar present in
them. The concentration of sample A, B and C are 0.1M, 0.5M and 0.2 M respectively.
Freezing point will be highest for the fruit juice:
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) All have same freezing point

(iv) Identify which of the following is a colligative property :

(a) freezing point (b) boiling point (c) osmotic pressure (d) all of the above
CHAPTER - 2 ELECTROCHEMISTRY
Multiple Choice Questions
54 The electrochemical cell made up of Zn and Cu half-cell is called Daniell cell. The emf
of a Daniell cell is 1.10V.

When an external voltage greater than 1.10 V is applied to this cell, which of the
following change will be observed in the cell?
(a) Zn electrode will act as an anode.
(b) Current will flow from Cu half cell to Zn half cell.
(c) Electrochemical cell continue to work fast.
(d) Cell will act as electrolytic cell.
55 An electrolytic cell has an anode and cathode made up of graphite. At the anode, Cl2 gas
is released and at the cathode, H2 gas is released. Which of the following electrolytes in
the cell can produce these gases?
A. NH4Cl (aq) (b) Molten NH4Cl (c) NaCl (aq) (d) Molten NaCl
56 Which of the statements about solutions of electrolytes is not correct ?
(a) Conductivity of solution depends upon size of ions.
(b) Conductivity depends upon viscosity of solution.
 (c) Conductivity does not depend upon solvation of ions present in solution.
(d) Conductivity of solution increases with temperature.
57 When 0.1 mol CoCl3(NH3)5 is treated with excess of AgNO3, 0.2 mol of AgCl are obtained.
The conductivity of solution will correspond to:
(a) 1: 3 electrolyte (b) 1: 2 electrolyte
(c) 1: 1 electrolyte (d) 3: 1 electrolyte
58 In the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride solution which of the half cell reaction will
occur at anode?

59 Electrode potential for Mg electrode varies according to the equation:

60 Copper metal is purified by electrolytic refining. If the electrolyte used for refining of
copper in an electrolytic cell is aq.salt solution of copper, which out of the following
statement about this cell is INCORRECT?
(a) The impure Copper rod undergoes oxidation.
(b) Oxidation takes place at the anode.
(c) Impure copper rod acts as the negative electrode.
(d) Pure copper rod acts as a cathode.
61 Under which of the following conditions will the chemical reaction in an electrochemical
cell will be spontaneous?

62 Which cell will measure standard electrode potential of copper electrode?

(a) Pt(s)| H2 (g, 0.1 bar)| H+(aq., 1 M) || Cu2+ (aq., 1M)| Cu
 (b) Pt(s)| H2 (g, 1 bar) | H+(aq., 1 M) || Cu2+ (aq., 2M)| Cu
(c) Pt(s)| H2 (g, 1 bar) | H+(aq., 1 M) || Cu2+ (aq., 1M)| Cu
(d) Pt(s)| H2 (g, 1 bar) | H+(aq., 0.1 M)|| Cu2+ (aq., 1M)| Cu
63 Which of the following statement is not correct about an inert electrode in a cell?
(a) It does not participate in the cell reaction.
(b) It provides surface either for oxidation or for reduction reaction.
(c) It provides surface for conduction of electrons.
(d) It provides surface for redox reaction.
Assertion - Reason type questions
62 Assertion (A) : Mercury cell does not give steady potential.
Reason (R) : In the cell reaction, ions are not involved in solution.
63 Assertion (A) : Copper sulphate cannot be stored in zinc vessel.
Reason (R) : Zinc is less reactive than copper.
64 Assertion (A) : For measuring resistance of an ionic solution an AC source is used.
Reason (R) : Concentration of ionic solution will change if DC source is used.
65 Assertion (A) : Conductivity decreases for weak electrolyte and increases for strong
electrolyte with decrease in concentration.
Reason (R) : On dilution, the number of ions per unit volume that carry the current
decreases.
Short Questions (2/3 Marks)
66 The diagrams below show the component of a chemical cell, an experimental setup, and
how the pointer of the voltmeter deflects when the set-up is connected to the
component. Note that in the chemical cell, a filter paper with Na2SO4 acts as a salt bridge.

Why does the pointer of the voltmeter deflect as shown when a few drops of water are
added to the component?
67 i) Write down the complete cell reactions taking place at anode and cathode in a zinc
/carbon dry cell.
ii) Is the above given cell a primary cell or a secondary cell? Explain.
68 How much time does it require to reduce 3 moles of iron (III) to 3 moles of iron (II) ion by
passing a 2.0 amp current?
 (Note: For calculations use 1 Faraday = 96500 Coulombs.)
69 A rusted piece of iron undergoes electrochemical reactions. Write the chemical
reactions taking place at the following spots of that rusting piece of iron:
a) At the spot that behaves as an anode b) At the spot that behaves as a cathode
c) The overall balanced chemical reaction d) Further oxidation of ferrous ion into rust
70 For an experiment, Aman prepared a 1-litre FeSO4 solution of 1 M concentration and
stored the solution in a glass jar. Before starting the experiment, Aman wants to stir
the solution. Which of the following spoons should he use for this purpose and why?
Aluminium spoon (Al3+/Al = -1.66V) Copper spoon (Cu2+/Cu = 0.34V)
(Given: E0/V Fe2+/Fe = -0.44V)
71 The potential of Zn, Cu and Ag half cells are given below;

Using the data above given,

i) Write the correct cell representation of a cell with a cell potential equal to 0.46V.
ii) Calculate the value of standard free energy change (ΔG0) for the cell above given.
(1F = 96500 C/mol)
72 Calculate the charge required in coulombs to reduce 0.5 moles of Cr2O72- ion to Cr3+ in
acid solution. (1 Faraday = 96500C)
73 One Faraday of electric charge is passed through the electrolytic cells placed in a series
containing solution of Ag+, Cu2+and Al3+respectively.Find out the simple mass ratio of the
metals deposited at the respective electrodes. (Given - Atomic mass Ag=108g, Cu=63.5g.
Al=27g)
74 Calculate ΔrG⁰ for the following reaction: [CBSE 2019 (56/4/1)]
Cd2+(aq) + Zn(s) Zn2+(aq) + Cd(s)
Given: E⁰Cd2+ICd = – 0.403 V, E⁰Zn2+IZn = – 0.763 V
75 The conductivity of 0.20 M solution of KCl at 298 K is 0.025 S cm–1. Calculate its molar
conductivity.
76 The molar conductivity of a 1.5 M solution of an electrolyte is found to be 138.9 S cm2
mol–1. Calculate the conductivity of this solution.
77 State Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ions. Why does the conductivity of a
solution decrease with dilution?
78 Calculate the time to deposit 1.27 g of copper at cathode when a current of 2 A was
passed through the solution of CuSO4. (Molar mass of Cu = 63.5 g mol–1, 1 F = 96500 C
mol–1)
79 How many moles of mercury will be produced by electrolysing 1.0 M Hg(NO3)2 solution
with a current of 2.00 A for 3 hours?
80 Write the name of the cell which is generally used in hearing aids. Write the reactions
taking place at the anode and the cathode of this cell.
81 A zinc rod is dipped in 0.1 M solution of ZnSO4. The salt is 95% dissociated at this dilution
at 298 K. Calculate the electrode potential ( E⁰Zn I Zn2+ = – 0.76 V).
82 Consider the figure given below and answer the questions (i) to (vi):
 (i) Write the direction of electron flow.
(ii) Is silver plate the anode or cathode?
(iii) What will happen if salt bridge is removed?
(iv) When will the cell stop functioning?
(v) How will concentration of Zn2+ ions and Ag+ ions be affected when the cell functions?
(vi) How will the concentration of Zn2+ ions and Ag+ ions be affected after the cell
becomes ‘dead’?
83 (i) Represent the cell in which the following reaction takes place:
2Al (s) + 3Ni2+ (0.1M) 2Al3+ (0.01M) + 3Ni(s)
Calculate the emf if E⁰cell = 1.41 V.
(ii) How does molar conductivity vary with increase in concentration for strong electrolyte
and weak electrolyte? How can you obtain limiting molar conductivity (𝛌:m ) for weak
electrolyte?
84 (i) Define the following terms:
(a) Limiting molar conductivity
(b) Fuel cell
(ii) Resistance of a conductivity cell filled with 0.1 mol L–1 KCl solution is 100 Ω. If the
resistance of the same cell when filled with 0.02 mol L–1 KCl solution is 520 Ω, calculate
the conductivity and molar conductivity of 0.02 mol L–1 KCl solution. The conductivity
of 0.1 mol L–1 KCl solution is 1.29 × 10–2 Ω–1 cm–1.
85 The resistivity of a 0.8M solution of electrolyte is 5 × 10–3 Ωcm. Calculate its molar
conductivity.
86 The cell in which the following reaction occurs:

E:cell = 0.236 V at 298 K. Calculate the standard Gibbs energy and the equilibrium
constant of the cell reaction.
87 The electrical resistance of a column of 0.05 mol L–1 NaOH solution of diameter 1 cm and
length 50 cm is 5.55 × 103 ohm. Calculate its resistivity, conductivity and molar
conductivity
88 Consider the reaction:

What is the quantity of electricity in coulombs needed to reduce 1 mol of Cr2O7 2–?
89 How much charge is required for the following reductions:
(i) 1 mol of Al3+ to Al? (ii) 1 mol of Cu2+ to Cu? (iii) 1 mol of MnO4 – to Mn2+ ?
90 How much electricity in terms of Faraday is required to produce
(i) 20.0 g of Ca from molten CaCl2 ? (ii) 40.0 g of Al from molten Al2O3 ?
91 Three electrolytic cells A,B,C containing solutions of ZnSO4 , AgNO3 and CuSO4 ,
 respectively are connected in series. A steady current of 1.5 amperes was passed through
them until 1.45 g of silver deposited at the cathode of cell B. How long did the current
flow? What mass of copper and zinc were deposited?
92 Predict the products of electrolysis in each of the following:
(i) An aqueous solution of AgNO3 with silver electrodes.
(ii) An aqueous solution of AgNO3 with platinum electrodes.
(iii) A dilute solution of H2SO4 with platinum electrodes.
(iv) An aqueous solution of CuCl2 with platinum electrodes
92.1

92.2

92.3

92.4

92.5
92.6

92.7

Case Study Question

93 The cell constant is usually determined by measuring the resistance of the cell containing
a solution whose conductivity is already known. For this purpose, we generally use KCl
solutions whose conductivity is known accurately at various concentrations and at
different temperatures. Consider the resistance of a conductivity cell filled with 0.1 M KCl
solution is 200 Ω. If the resistance of the same cell when filled with 0.02 M KCl solution
is 420 Ω. (Conductivity of 0.1 M KCl solution is 1.29 S m–1.)

(i) What is the conductivity of 0.02 M KCl solution ? Ans. 0.614Sm-1

(ii) What will happen to the conductivity of the cell with the dilution ?
(iii) What is the change in cell constant of concuctivity cell ?
(iv) Write SI unit of a conductivity of a cell.
(V) Which of the following is not true?The conductivity of solutions of different
electrolytes in the same solvent and at a given temperature differs due to:
(A) size of the ions in which they dissociate (B) concentration of ions
(C) charge of the ions in which they dissociate (D) is independent o
94 Molar conductivity of solution is the conductance of solution containing one mole of
electrolyte, kept between two electrodes having unit length between them and large
cross-sectional area, so as to contain the electrolyte. In other words, molar conductivity is
the conductance of the electrolytic solution kept between the electrodes of a
conductivity cell at unit distance but having area of cross-section large enough to
accommodate sufficient volume of solution that contains one mole of the electrolyte. It is
denoted by λm.

(i) The mathematical expression for molar conductivity is.

(ii) The units of molar conductivity λm is :

(iii) Solutions of two electrolytes ‘A’ and ‘B’ are diluted. The λm of ‘B’ increases 1.5 times
while that of A increases 25 times. Which of the two is a strong electrolyte?
(a) electrolyte A (b) electrolyte B (c) electrolyte A & B (d) None of these

(iv) Molar conductivity of ionic solution depends on ___________.

 (a) pressure (b) distance between electrodes
(c) concentration of electrolytes in solution (d) surface area of electrodes

(v) The cell constant of a conductivity cell _____________.

(a) changes with change of electrolyte.
(b) changes with change of concentration of electrolyte.
(c) changes with temperature of electrolyte.
(d) remains constant for a cell.
Chapter - 6 Haloalkane and Haloarene
95 Phosgene is a common name for
(a) phosphoryl chloride (b) thionyl chloride
(c) carbon dioxide and phosphine (d) carbonyl chloride
96 The decreasing order of boiling points of alkyl halides is
(a) RF > RCl > RBr > RI (b) RBr > RCl > RI > RF
(c) RI > RBr > RCl > RF (d) RCl > RF > RI > RBr
97 Benzene reacts with n-propyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to give
(a) 3 – Propyl – 1 – chlorobenzene (b) n-Propylbenzene
(c) No reaction (d) Isopropylbenzene
98 Which of the following is not used in Friedel-Crafts reaction?
(a) N–Phenyl acetanilide (b) Bromobenzene
(c) Benzene (d) Chlorobenzene
99 An alkyl halide by formation of its Grignard reagent and heating with water yields
propane. What is the original alkyl halide ?
(a) Methyl iodide (b) Ethyl iodide
(c) Ethyl bromide (d) Propyl bromide
100 Which of the following molecules exhibits optical isomerism?
(a) 3-iodopentane (b) 2-iodo-2-methylpropane
(c) 1,3-diiodopropane (d) 2-iodobutane
101 Observe the given reaction.

Which of the following products will be formed as P?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

102 Which of the following is an example of vic-dihalide?
(a) Dichloromethane (b) 1,2-dichloroethane
(c) Ethylidene chloride (d) Allyl chloride
103 The IUPAC name of the compound shown below is :

(a) 2-bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene (b) 6-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene

(c) 3-bromo-1-chlorocyclohexene (d) 1-bromo-3-chlorocyclohexene
104 What is ‘A’ in the following reaction?

Assertion Reason Type Questions

105 Assertion (A): Aryl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution reactions with ease.
Reason(R) : The carbon halogen bond in aryl halides has partial double bond character.
106 Assertion (A): Hydrolysis of 2-bromooctane proceeds with inversion of configuration.
Reason (R): This reaction proceeds through the formation of a carbocation.
107 Assertion (A) : It is difficult to replace chlorine by –OH in chlorobenzene in comparison to
that in chloroethane.
Reason (R) : Carbon-chlorine (C—Cl) bond in chlorobenzene has a partial double bond
character due to resonance.
108 Assertion (A) : Presence of a nitro group at ortho or para position increases the reactivity
of haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution.
Reason (R) : Nitro group, being an electron withdrawing group decreases the electron
density over the benzene ring.
109 Assertion (A) : Phosphorus chlorides (tri and penta) are preferred over thionyl chloride
for the preparation of alkyl chlorides from alcohols.
Reason (R) : Phosphorus chlorides give pure alkyl halides.
Short Question Answers (2/3 Marks Questions)
110 Write the products of following :

111 Among the isomeric alkanes of molecular formula C5H12, identify the one that on
 photochemical chlorination yields (i) A single monochloride. (ii) Three isomeric
monochlorides. (iii) Four isomeric monochlorides.
112 Arrange each set of compounds in order of increasing boiling points.
(i) Bromomethane, Bromoform, Chloromethane, Dibromomethane.
(ii) 1-Chloropropane, Isopropyl chloride, 1-Chlorobutane.
113 Haloalkanes react with KCN to form alkyl cyanides as main product while AgCN forms
isocyanides as the chief product. Explain.
114 Predict the order of reactivity of the following compounds in SN 1 and SN 2 reactions:
(i) The four isomeric bromobutanes
(ii) C6H5CH2Br, C6H5CH(C6H5 )Br, C6H5CH(CH3 )Br, C6H5C(CH3 )(C6H5)Br
115 Although chlorine is an electron withdrawing group, yet it is ortho-, para- directing in
electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions. Why?
116 Identify A, B, C, D, E, R and RI in the following:

117 Write the equations for the preparation of 1-iodobutane from

(i) 1-butanol (ii) 1-chlorobutane (iii) but-1-ene.
118 How will you bring about the following conversions?
(i) Ethanol to but-1-yne (ii) Ethane to bromoethene
(iii) Propene to 1-nitropropane (iv) Toluene to benzyl alcohol
(v) Propene to propyne (vi) Ethanol to ethyl fluoride
(vii) Bromomethane to propanone (viii) But-1-ene to but-2-ene
(ix) 1-Chlorobutane to n-octane (x) Benzene to biphenyl.
119 Write the structure of the major organic product in each of the following reactions:

120 How the following conversions can be carried out?

(i) Propene to propan-1-ol (ii) Ethanol to but-1-yne
(iii) 1-Bromopropane to 2-bromopropane (iv) Toluene to benzyl alcohol
(v) Benzene to 4-bromonitrobenzene (vi) Benzyl alcohol to 2-phenylethanoic
acid (vii) Ethanol to propanenitrile (viii) Aniline to chlorobenzene
(ix) 2-Chlorobutane to 3, 4-dimethylhexane
(x) 2-Methyl-1-propene to 2-chloro-2-methylpropane
(xi) Ethyl chloride to propanoic acid (xii) But-1-ene to n-butyliodide
(xiii) 2-Chloropropane to 1-propanol (xiv) Isopropyl alcohol to iodoform
 (xv) Chlorobenzene to p-nitrophenol (xvi) 2-Bromopropane to 1-bromopropane
(xvii) Chloroethane to butane (xviii) Benzene to diphenyl
(xix) tert-Butyl bromide to isobutyl bromide (xx) Aniline to phenylisocyanide
121 Primary alkyl halide C4H9Br (a) reacted with alcoholic KOH to give compound (b).
Compound (b) is reacted with HBr to give (c) which is an isomer of (a). When (a) is reacted
with sodium metal it gives compound (d), C8H18 which is different from the compound
formed when n-butyl bromide is reacted with sodium. Give the structural formula of (a)
and write the equations for all the reactions.
122 What happens when
(i) n-butyl chloride is treated with alcoholic KOH,
(ii) bromobenzene is treated with Mg in the presence of dry ether,
(iii) chlorobenzene is subjected to hydrolysis,
(iv) ethyl chloride is treated with aqueous KOH,
(v) methyl bromide is treated with sodium in the presence of dry ether,
(vi) methyl chloride is treated with KCN?
123 Which one of the following compounds is more reactive towards SN2 reaction and why?
CH3CH(Cl)CH2CH3 or CH3CH2CH2Cl
124 Give reasons :
(i) C – Cl bond length in chlorobenzene is shorter than C – Cl bond length in CH3 – Cl.
(ii) The dipole moment of chlorobenzene is lower than that of cyclohexyl chloride.
(iii) SN1 reactions are accompanied by racemization in optically active alkyl halides.
125 Give the IUPAC name of the product formed when :
(i) 2-Methyl-1-bromopropane is treated with sodium is the presence of dry ether.
(ii) 1-Methyl cyclohexene is treated with HI.
(iii) Chloroethane is treated with silver nitrite.
126 Identify : A, B , C ,D ,E and F.

127 How will you carry out the following conversion :

(i) 2-Bromopropane to 1-bromopropane
(ii) Benzene to p-chloronitrobenzene
(iii) Ethanol to but-2-yne (HOTS)
128 What happens when
(i) Chlorobenzene is treated with Cl2/FeCl3,
(ii) Ethyl chloride is treated with AgNO2,
(iii) 2-bromopentane is treated with alcoholic KOH ?
Write the chemical equations in support of your answer.
129 How will you distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:
(i) Chloroform and carbon tetrachloride.
(ii) Benzyl chloride and chlorobenzene.
130 Compound ‘A’ with molecular formula C4H9Br is treated with aq. KOH solution. The rate
of this reaction depends upon the concentration of the compound ‘A’ only. When
 another optically active isomer ‘B’ of this compound was treated with aq. KOH solution,
the rate of reaction was found to be dependent on concentration of compound and KOH
both.
(i) Write down the structural formula of both compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’.
(ii) Out of these two compounds, which one will be converted to the product with
inverted configuration?
131 Haloalkanes are important compound which are produced at scale for industrial purpose.
To increase the efficiency and reduce the cost of production, scientists use different
combinations of reactants and reaction conditions. You are given two different
compounds that can be used to make C2H5Cl as shown below.
Which out of two reactants will you choose and why?

132 An organic compound with the formula C6H5Br reacts with CuCN to form compound ‘P’
and CuBr in presence of pyridine at 475 K. Compound P on reaction with dil. HCl forms
compound ‘Q’ which reacts with methyl alcohol produces a sweet smelling compound ‘R’.
Write the chemical reaction showing the above conversions.
133 Write the product(s) formed when
(i) 2-bromopropane undergoes dehydrohalogenation reactions.
(ii) Chlorobenzene undergoes nitration reaction.
(iii) Methylbromide is treated with KCN.
134 Explain why
(i) The dipole moment of chlorobenzene is lower than that of cyclohexyl chloride.
(i) Alkyl halides, though polar, are immiscible with water?
(ii) In the pair, (CH3)3C─Cl and CH3─Cl, CH3Cl will react faster in SN2 reaction with ─OH?
Case Study Question
135 Alkyl/Aryl halides may be classified as mono, di or polyhalogen compounds depending on
one, two or more halogen atoms in their structures. Alkyl halides are prepared by free
radical halogenation of alkanes, addition of halogen acids to alkenes and replacement of
–OH group of alcohols with halogens using phosphorus halides, thionyl chloride or
halogen acids. Aryl halides are prepared by electrophilic substitution to arenes.

The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate
answer :
(i) Complete the reaction :

(ii) Name the major monohalo product of the following reaction.

 (a) 1-Iodo-1-methyl cyclohexane (b) 1-Iodomethyl cyclohexane
(c) 1-Chloro cyclohexane (d) None of the above

(iii) 2-Bromopentane, 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane,1-Bromopentane

Write the compound which is most reactive towards β-elimination reaction.
(a) 2-Bromopentane (b) 1- Bromopentane
(c) 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane (d) None of the above

(iv) Which of the following is halogen exchange reaction?

Chapter - 3 Chemical Kinetics

Multiple Choice Questions
136 Which of the following is not correct about order of a reaction?
(a) The order of a reaction can be a fractional number.
(b) Order of a reaction is experimentally determined quantity.
(c) The order of a reaction is always equal to the sum of the stoichiometric coefficients of
reactants in the balanced chemical equation for a reaction.
(d) The order of a reaction is the sum of the powers of molar concentration of the
reactants in the rate law expression.
137 The unit of rate constant of a zero order reaction is
(a) litre second–1 (b) litre mole–1 second–1 (c) mole litre–1 second–1 (d) mole second–1
138 In the reaction, A B, the rate of reaction increases two times on increasing the
concentration of A four times, the order of reaction is
(a) 2 (b) 0 (c) 1/2 (d) 3
139 If 75% of the first-order reaction was completed in 32 minutes, 50% of the same reaction
would be completed in:
(a) 8 min (b) 4 min (c) 16 min (d) 24 min
140 The half life of a first order reaction is 69.35 sec. The value of rate constant of the
reaction is
(a) 1.0 s–1 (b) 0.1 s–1 (c) 0.01 s–1 (d) 0.001 s–1
141 The activation energy of a reaction is zero. The rate of the reaction
(a) increases with increase of temperature (b) decreases with decrease of
temperature
(c) decreases with increase of temperature (d) is nearly independent of temperature
142 Which of the following can INCREASE the rate of a chemical reaction?
P) increasing the temperature
Q) increasing the concentration of products
R) adding a catalyst
S) increasing the concentration of reactants

(a) Q and S (b) P and Q (c)P, R, and S (d) All- P, Q, R, and S

0
143 If the rate of a reaction 2A + 3B----- > C + 2D is k[A] [B].
By what factor will the rate of reaction increase if the concentration of A increases
by a factor of 2 and that of B by a factor of 3?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 2
144 The rate constant of a zero order reaction is-
(a) Directly proportional to initial concentration (b) Doesn’t depend on concentration
(c) Inversely proportional to initial concentration (d) Can’t say
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
145 Assertion (A) : Instantaneous rate is used to predict the rate of a reaction at a particular
moment of time.
Reason (R) : Average rate is constant for the time interval for which it is calculated.
146 Assertion (A) : Order of the reaction can be zero or fractional.
Reason (R) : We cannot determine order from balanced chemical equation.
147 Assertion (A) : For each ten degree rise of temperature the specific rate constant is nearly
doubled.
Reason (R) : Energy-wise distribution of molecules in a gas is an experimental function of
temperature.
148 Assertion (A) : If the activation energy of a reaction is zero, temperature will have no
effect on the rate constant.
Reason (R) : Lower the activation energy, faster is the reaction.
149 Assertion (A) : Rate of reaction doubles when concentration of reactant is doubled if it is
a first order reaction.
Reason (R) : Rate constant also doubles.
150 Assertion (A) : Dust particles suspended in the air inside unheated gain electrons can
sometimes react explosively.
Reason (R) : The dust particles have large surface area for the reaction.
151 Assertion (A) : The rate of reaction on also increase with its product if one of the product
act as catalyst.
Reason (R): A catalyst lowers the activation energy of reaction.
Short Question - Answers (2/3 Marks)
152 The conversion of molecules X to Y follows second order kinetics. If concentration of X is
increased to three times how will it affect the rate of formation of Y ?
153 A first order reaction is found to have a rate constant, k = 5.5 × 10-14 s-1 . Find the half-life
of the reaction.
154 Show that in a first order reaction, time required for completion of 99.9% is 10 times of
half-life (t 1/2) of the reaction.
155 A first order reaction has a rate constant 1.15 × 10-3 s-1. How long will 5 g of this reactant
take to reduce to 3 g?
156 Time required to decompose SO2Cl2 to half of its initial amount is 60 minutes. If the
 decomposition is a first order reaction, calculate the rate constant of the reaction.
157 A reaction is second order with respect to a reactant. How is the rate of reaction affected
if the concentration of the reactant is (i) doubled (ii) reduced to half?
158 For the reaction 2A + B → A2B, the rate = k [A][B]2 with k = 2.0 × 10–6 mol–2 L2 s–1.
Calculate the initial rate of the reaction when [A] = 0.1 mol L–1 and [B] = 0.2 mol L–1.
Calculate the rate of reaction after [A] is reduced to 0.06 mol L–1.
159 Mention the factors that affects the rate of a chemical reaction.
160 In a pseudo first order hydrolysis of an ester in water, the following results were
obtained:

Calculate the average rate of reaction between the time interval 30 to 60 seconds.
161 In a reaction between A and B, the initial rate of reaction (r0) was measured for different
initial concentrations of A and B as given below:

What is the order of the reaction with respect to A and B?

162 The following results have been obtained during the kinetic studies of the reaction:
2A + B C+D

Determine the rate law and the rate constant for the reaction.
163 Calculate the half-life of a first order reaction from their rate constants given
below: (i) 200 s–1 (ii) 2 min–1 (iii) 4 years–1
164 The rate constant for a first order reaction is 60 s–1. How much time will it take to reduce
the initial concentration of the reactant to its 1/16th value?
165 For a first order reaction, show that time required for 99% completion is twice the time
required for the completion of 90% of reaction.
166 A first order reaction takes 40 min for 30% decomposition. Calculate t1/2.
167 For the decomposition of azoisopropane to hexane and nitrogen at 543K, the following
data are obtained. Calculate the rate constant.
168 The following data were obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of SO2Cl2
at a constant volume.

Calculate the rate of the reaction when total pressure is 0.65 atm.
169 Carbon dating is used by archaeologists to date trees, plants, and animal remains as well
as human artefacts made from wood and leather. If an archaeologist found that the
percentage of carbon-14 in the remains of an animal was 10% of what carbon-14 was in
the animal's body when the animal died, find the age of this sample.
(Given the half-life of carbon-14= 5730 years)
170 For the equation,
A + 2B ----- > C + D + E
The following results were obtained to determine the initial rate of the reaction.

(i) What is the order of reaction with respect to A and B? Justify.

(ii) Write down the overall rate equation.
171 A 1st order reaction is 40% complete in 50 minutes. Calculate the value of rate constant.
At what time will the reaction be 80% completed?
172 Give difference between : Order of reaction and molecularity of a reaction
173 Differentiate between rate of reaction and reaction rate constant.
174 A reaction is of second order with respect to a reactant. How is the rate of reaction
affected if the concentration of the reactant is reduced to half? What is the unit of rate
constant for such a reaction?
175 Define the following terms:
(i) Pseudo first order reaction
(ii) Half life period of reaction (t1/2)
176 The rate constant for a reaction of zero order in A is 0.0030 mol L–1 s–1. How long will it
take for the initial concentration of A to fall from 0.10 M to 0.075 M?
177 After 24 hrs, only 0.125 gm out of the initial quantity of 1 gm of a radioactive isotope
remains behind. What is its half life period?
178 A first order reaction is 50% complete in 25 minutes. Calculate the time for 80%
completion of the reaction.
179 A reaction is of first order with respect to A and second order with respect to B
(i) Write differential rate equation.
(ii) How is the rate effected when the concentration of B is tripled?
 (iii) How is the rate affected when the concentration of both A and B is doubled?
179.1

179.2

179.3

179.4

179.5
 Case Study Questions
180 The branch of physical chemistry that is concerned with understanding the rates of
chemical reactions. It is to be contrasted with thermodynamics which deals with the
direction in which a process occurs but in itself tells nothing about its rate.
Thermodynamics is time's arrow while chemical kinetics is time’s clock. Chemical kinetics
relates to many aspects of cosmology, geology, biology, engineering and even psychology
and thus has far-reaching implications. The principles of chemical kinetics applied to
purely physical processes as well as to chemical reactions.
The rate of a chemical reaction is defined in terms of the rates with which the products
are formed and the reactants (the reacting substances) are consumed. For chemical
systems, it is usual to deal with the concentrations of substances, which is defined as the
amount of substances per unit volume. The rate can then be defined as the concentration
of a substance that is consumed or produced in unit time. Sometimes it is more
convenient to express rates as number of molecules formed are consumed in unit time.

READ THE STATEMENTS GIVEN AS ASSERTION & REASON BOTH AND CHOOSE THE
CORRECT OPTION AS (A)/(B)/(C)/(D) AS PER THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS.
Choose (A) – if both assertion & reason are correct statements and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
Choose (B) - if both assertion & reason are correct statements and reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
Choose (C) – if assertion is the correct statement & reason is incorrect statement.
Choose (D) – if assertion is incorrect statement and reason is the correct statement.

1.Assertion: All collisions of reactant molecules do not lead to product formation.

Reason: Only those collisions in which molecules have correct orientation and sufficient
kinetic energy lead to compound formation.

2. Assertion: The enthalpy of reaction remains constant in the presence of a catalyst

Reason: A catalyst lowers down the activation energy but the difference in energy of
reactant and product remains same.

3. Assertion: The rate of reaction is the rate of change of concentration of a reactant or

product.
Reason: The rate of reaction remains constant during the course of a reaction.

4. Assertion: Instantaneous rate is used to predict the rate of reaction at a particular

moment.
Reason: Average rate is constant for the time interval for which it is calculated.
Chapter - 4 - d and f block elements
Multiple Choice Questions
182 The most stable oxidation state of Iron is :
(a) + 2 (b) + 3 (c) + 4 (d) 2
183
The equilibrium
(a) exists in basic medium (b) exists in acidic medium
 (c) exists in neutral medium (d) does not exist
184 When MnO2 is fused with KOH in air, it gives :
(a) KMnO4 (b) K2MnO4 (c) Mn2O7 (d) Mn2O3
2- -
185 The product of oxidation of SO3 with MnO4 in acidic medium is :
(a) SO2 (b) SO42- (c) S2- (d) S2O32-
186 The correct order for the increasing oxidizing power in 3d series of transition elements is :

187 Which of the following does not show variable oxidation states ?
(A) Fe (B) Cu (C) Mn (D) Sc
188 Transition elements form alloys easily because they have :
(a) same electronic configuration (b) same enthalpies of atomisation
(c) same oxidation states (d) nearly the same atomic size
189 Which of the following elements of 3d series of transition elements has the lowest ΔaH ?
(a) Sc (b) Cr (c) Cu (d) Zn
190 From the following elements of 3d series given below , which elements shows maximum
number of oxidation states ?
(a) Scandium (b) Manganese (c) Chromium (d) Titanium
191 The general electronic configuration of d-block elements are :

192 Transition metals are known to make interstitial compounds. Formation of interstitial
compounds makes the transition metal :
(a) more hard (b) more soft (c) more ductile (d) more metallic
193 The electronic configuration of Cu(II) is 3d9 whereas that of Cu(I) is 3d10. Which of the
following is correct?
(a) Cu(II) is more stable
(b) Cu(II) is less stable
(c) Cu(I) and Cu(II) are equally stable
(d) Stability of Cu(I) and Cu(II) depends on nature of copper salts
194 Which of the following is the reason for Zinc not exhibiting variable oxidation state ?
(a) inert pair effect (b) completely filled 3d subshell
(c) completely filled 4s subshell (d) common ion effect
195 Lanthanoid contraction is caused due to
(a) Atomic number (b) Size of 4f orbitals
(c) Effective nuclear charge (d) Poor shielding effect of 4f electrons
196 Identify the incorrect statement among the following:
(a) Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation of successive shrinkages.
(b) There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu.
(c) As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the properties of 4d series of the transition
elements have no
similarities with the 5d series of elements.
 (d) Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak.
Assertion - Reason type questions
197 Assertion (A) : Separation of Zr and Hf is difficult.
Reason (R) : Zr and Hf have similar radii due to lanthanoid contraction.
198 Assertion (A) : Transition metals have high enthalpy of atomization.
Reason (R) : This is because transition metals have low melting points.
199 Assertion (A) : Separation of Zr and Hf is difficult.
Reason (R) : Zr and Hf are radioactive.
200 Assertion (A) : Copper is a non-transition element.
Reason (R) : Copper has completely filled d-orbitals in its ground state.
201 Assertion (A) : Transition metals have high enthalpy of atomisation. 1
Reason (R) : Greater number of unpaired electrons in transition metals results in weak
metallic bonding.
202 Assertion (A) : Transition metals show their highest oxidation state with oxygen.
Reason (R) : The ability of oxygen to form multiple bonds to metals.
203 Assertion (A): Zinc is not regarded as a transition element.
Reason (R): In zinc, 3d orbitals are completely filled in its ground state as well as in its
oxidised state.
204 Assertion (A) : Fe2+ acts as a reducing agent.
Reason (R) : Fe3+ state is stable due to 3d5 configuration.
205 Assertion (A) : Zr and Hf have almost identical radii.
Reason (R) : Both Zr and Hf exhibit similar properties.
206 Assertion (A): Manganese shows the highest oxidation state of +7 in 3d series.
Reason (R): Transition metals show variable oxidation states.
207 Assertion (A) : E:Cu2+ICu is positive (+ 0 34 V).
Reason (R) : Copper has high ΔaH: and low ΔhydH: .
Short Question Answers (2/3 Marks)
208 Account for the following :
(a) The melting and boiling points of Zn, Cd and Hg are low.
(b) Of the d4 species, Cr2+ is strongly reducing while Mn3+ is strongly oxidizing.
(c) Eo value of Cu2+/Cu is + 0·34 V.
209 Complete and balance the following chemical equations :

210 (a) Out of Cu2Cl2 and CuCl2, which is more stable in aqueous solution and why ?
(b) Write the general electronic configuration of f-block elements.
(c) Predict which of the following will be coloured in aqueous solution and why ?
Sc3+, Fe3+, Zn2+
[Atomic number : Sc = 21, Fe = 26, Zn = 30]
211 (a) How can you obtain potassium dichromate from sodium chromate ?
(b) Why do transition metals and their compounds show catalytic activities ?
212 What is lanthanoid contraction ? Actinoid contraction is greater from element to element
than lanthanoid contraction. Why ?
213 Why do transition metals have high enthalpy of atomization ? Which element of 3d-series
 has lowest enthalpy of atomization ?
214 Complete the following ionic equations :

215 Complete and balance the following chemical equations :

216 Answer the following :

(a) Why Zinc is not considered as transition element ?
(b) Why is first ionisation enthalpy of chromium lower than that of Zn?
(c) Why are transition elements good catalysts?
217 (a) Compounds of transition elements are generally coloured. Give reason.
(b) Out of KMnO4 and K2MnO4 which one is paramagnetic and why?
218 Answer the following :
(a) Ce (III) is easily oxidised to Ce (IV) . Comment.
(b) E:(Mn2+I Mn) is -1.18 V. Why is this value highly negative in comparison to
neighbouring d block elements?
(c) Which element of 3d series has lowest enthalpy of atomisation and why?
219 (a) What happens when sodium chromate is acidified?
(b) Zn , Cd and Hg are soft metals. Why?
220 (a) Why is permanganate titration not carried out in the presence of HCl ?
(b) The lower oxide of transition metals are basic whereas the highest are amphoteric /
acidic. Give reason.
(c) Zn2+ salts are white while Cu2+ salts are coloured. Why?
221 Give reasons for the following:
(a) Eo values of Mn, Ni and Zn are more negative than expected.
(b) [Ti(H2O)]3+ is coloured while [Sc(H2O)6]3+ is colourless. [HOTS]
OR
3+ 3+
Ti is coloured whereas Sc is colourless in aqueous solution.
222 How would you account for the following:
(a) Mn (III) undergoes disproportionation reaction easily.
(b) Co (II) is easily oxidised in the presence of strong ligands.
223 When FeCr2O4 is fused with Na2CO3 in the presence of air it gives a yellow solution of
compound (A). Compound (A) on acidification gives compound (B). Compound (B) on
reaction with KCl forms an orange coloured (C). An acidified solution of compound (C)
oxidises Na2SO3 to (D). Identify (A), (B),(C) and (D.)
224 Explain each of the following observations:
(a) Actinoids exhibit a much larger number of oxidation states than the lanthanoids.
[CBSE 2019 ]
(b) There is hardly any increase in atomic size with increasing atomic numbers in a series
of transition metals.
Case Study Questions
225 Transition metals have incomplete d-subshell either in neutral atom or in their ions. The
presence of partly filled d-orbitals in their atoms makes transition elements different
 from that of the non-transition elements. With partly filled d-orbitals, these elements
exhibit certain characteristic properties such as display of a variety of oxidation states,
formation of coloured ions and entering into complex formation with a variety of ligands.
The transition metals and their compounds also exhibit catalytic properties and
paramagnetic behaviour. The transition metals are very hard and have low volatility. An
examination of the E:M2+IM values shows the varying trends :

Answer the following questions :

(a) On what basis can we say that Cu is a transition element but Zn is not ? (Atomic
number : Cu = 29, Zn = 30)
(b) Why do transition elements show variety of oxidation states ?
(c) (i) Why do E:M2+IM values show irregular trend from Vanadium to Zinc ?
(ii) How is the variability in oxidation states of transition metals different from that of the
non-transition elements ?
OR
(c) (i) Of the d species, Cr2+ is strongly reducing while Mn3+ is strongly oxidizing. Why ?
4

(Atomic number : Cr = 24, Mn = 25)

226 The involvement of (n 1)d electrons in the behaviour of transition elements impart
certain distinct characteristics to these elements. Thus, in addition to variable oxidation
states, they exhibit paramagnetic behaviour, catalytic properties and tendency for the
formation of coloured ions. The transition metals react with a number of non-metals like
oxygen, nitrogen and halogens. KMnO4 and K2Cr2O7 are common examples. The two
series of inner transition elements, lanthanoids and actinoids, constitute the f-block of
the periodic table. In the lanthanoids, there is regular decrease in atomic size with
increase in atomic number due to the imperfect shielding effect of 4f-orbital electrons
which causes contraction.
Answer the following questions :
(a) Why do transition metals and their compounds act as good catalysts ?
(b) What is the cause of contraction in the atomic size of lanthanoids ?
(c) Define lanthanoid contraction. How does it affect the atomic radii of the third
transition series and the second transition series ?
OR
(c) In aqueous media, which is a stronger reducing agent Cr2+ or Fe2+ and why ?
Chapter - 5 Co-ordination Compounds
Multiple Choice Questions
226 Ligand EDTA4- is an example of a :
 (a) Monodentate ligand (b) Didentate ligand
(c) Tridentate ligand (d) Polydentate ligand
227 Which of the following ligand forms chelate complex ?
(a) C2O42- (b) Cl- (c) NO2 (d) NH3
3+
228 The coordination number of Co in [Co(en)3] is :
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
229 Which one of the following complexes is non-ionisable ?
(a) [Co(NH3)3 Cl3] (b) [Co(NH3)4 Cl2] Cl
(c) [Co(NH3)5 Cl] Cl2 (d) [Co(NH3)6] Cl3
230 The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl2(en)2]+ is :
(a) Linkage isomerism (b) Geometrical isomerism
(c) Coordination isomerism (d) Ionization isomerism
231 Which of the following is diamagnetic in nature ?
(a) Co3+, octahedral complex with strong field ligand
(b) Co3+, octahedral complex with weak field ligand
(c) Co3+, in a square planar complex
(d) Co3+, in a tetrahedral complex [ Atomic number : Co = 27 ]
232 Which of the following ligands can show linkage isomerism in a coordination compound ?
(a) NH3 (b) SO42- (c) NO2- (d) C2O42-
233 On adding AgNO3 solution to 1 mole of CoCl3 . 4NH3, one mole of AgCl is precipitated. The
secondary valency of Co is :
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 7
234 The compounds [Co(SO4) (NH3)5] Br and [Co(Br) (NH3)5] SO4 represent :
(a) optical isomerism (b) linkage isomerism
(c) ionisation isomerism (d) coordination isomerism
235 The oxidation state of Fe in [Fe(CO)5] is
(a) + 2 (b) 0 (c) + 3 (d) + 5
236 What is the secondary valency of Cobalt in [Co(en2)Cl2]+ ?
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 8
237 Which of the following ligands is an ambidentate ligand ?
(a) CO (b) NO2 (c) NH3 (d) H2O
238 How many ions are produced in the solution from the complex [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2 ?
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 5
239 Which of the following species is not expected to be a ligand ?
(a) CO (b)NH4+ (c) NH3 (d) H2O
240 Which of the following is the most stable complex species ?
(a) [Fe(C2O4)3]3 (b) [Fe(CN)6]3
(c) [Fe(CO)5] (d) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
241 Which of the following complexes is a chelate complex ?
(a) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (b) [Co(en)3]3+
(c) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ (d) [CoF6]3
242 Optical isomerism is not shown by the complex :
(a) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ (trans form) (b) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ (cis form)
(c) [Cr(ox)3]3 (d) [Cr(en)3]3+
243 Which of the following is a polydentate ligand ?
(a) NH3 (b) H2N - CH2 - CH2 - NH2
4-
(c) EDTA (d) C2O42-
244 Which of the following coordination compounds exhibits linkage isomerism ?
(a) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (b) [Co(NH3)5(CO3)]Cl
(c) [Co(NH3)5NO2](NO3)2 (d) [Co(en)3]Cl3
245 In which of the following does the central atom exhibit an oxidation state of +3 ?
(a) K2[Ni(CN)4] (b) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(c) [Fe(C2O4)3]3 (d) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
246 What type of isomerism is shown by the following pair of complex compounds ?
[Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6]
(a) Linkage isomerism (b) Hydrate isomerism
(c) Coordination isomerism (d) Ionization isomerism
247 In which of the following does the central atom exhibit an oxidation state of +4 ?
(a) K2[Ni(CN)4] (b) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(c) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (d) [Pt(en)2Cl2]2+
248 The dimagnetic species is : (FEBRUARY 2025)
(a) [NI(CN)4]2- (b) [NiCl4]2- (c) [Fe(CN)6]3- (d) [CoF6]3-
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
249 Assertion (A) : Low spin tetrahedral complexes are rarely observed.
Reason (R) : Crystal field splitting energy is less than pairing energy for tetrahedral
complexes.
250 Assertion (A) : EDTA is used to determine hardness of water.
Reason (R) : EDTA is a bidentate ligand.
251 Assertion (A) : Trans [Cr Cl2(ox)2]3– shows optical isomerism. 1
Reason (R) : Optical isomerism is common in octahedral complexes involving didentate
ligands.
252 Assertion (A) : EDTA is a hexadentate ligand.
Reason (R) : EDTA has 2 nitrogen and 4 oxygen donor atoms.
253 Assertion (A) : [Co(NH3)5SO4] Cl gives a white precipitate with silver nitrate solution.
Reason (R) : The complex dissociates to give Cl– and SO42– ions.
Short Questions - Answers (2/3 Marks)
254 (a) Write the formula for the following coordination compound :
Potassium tetrahydroxidozincate (II)
(b) Arrange the following complexes in the increasing order of conductivity of their
solution : [Cr(NH3)5Cl]Cl2, [Cr(NH3)3Cl3], [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
(c) Identify the type of isomerism exhibited by the following complexes :
(i) [Co(NH3)5NO2]2+ (ii) [Co(en)3]Cl3
255 (a) How is the crystal field splitting energy for octahedral complex (ΔO) related to that of
tetrahedral complex (Δt)?
(b) Write the IUPAC name of the following complex : [PtCl2(en)2] (NO3)2
(c) Write the geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)4] on the basis of
Valency Bond Theory (VBT).
256 (a) What type of isomerism is shown by the complex [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] ?
(b) For the coordination compound on the basis of crystal field theory, write the
electronic configuration for d4 ion if Δo < P. Is the coordination compound a high spin or
low spin complex ?
(c) Out of [Co(NH3)6]3+ and [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+, which complex is heteroleptic and why ?
(d) Draw the structures of optical isomers of [PtCl2(en)2]2+.
257 (a) Write the IUPAC name of the complex : [Co(H2O)(CN)(en)2]2+
(b) Why is geometrical isomerism not possible in tetrahedral complexes having two
different types of unidentate ligands coordinated with the central metal ion ?
258 (a) Arrange the following complex ions in increasing order of their crystal field splitting
energy (Δo) : [Co(NH3)6]3+, [CoF6]3 , [Co(CN)6]3
(b) Write the hybridization and magnetic character of the complex [Ni(CO)4] on the basis
of valence bond theory. [Atomic No. : Ni = 28]
(c) Out of [CoF6]3 and [Co(C2O4)3]3- , which one complex is :
(i) more stable ?
(ii) the high spin complex ?
259 (a) What is the difference between an ambidentate ligand and bidentate ligand ?
(b) Write the electronic configuration of d5 in terms of t2g and eg in an
octahedral field when : (i) Δo > P, and (ii) Δo < P
260 (a) Draw the geometrical isomers of the given complex : [Co(en)2 Cl2]+
(b) Write the electron configuration of d4 ion if Δo > P .
(c) What is didentate ligand ? Give one example.
261 (a) Draw the geometrical isomers of the given complex : [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]2+
(b) Write the electron configuration of d5 ion if Δo < P .
(c) What is an ambidentate ligand ?
262

263

Case Study Questions

264 The Valence Bond Theory (VBT) explains the formation, magnetic behaviour and
geometrical shapes of coordination compounds whereas ' THE CRYSTAL FIELD THEORY '
for coordination compounds is based on the effect of different crystal fields (provided by
ligands taken as point charges), on the degeneracy of d-orbital energies of the central
metal atom/ion. The splitting of the d-orbitals provides different electronic arrangements
in strong and weak crystal fields. The crystal field theory attributes the colour of the
coordination compounds to d-d transition of the electron. Coordination compounds find
extensive applications in metallurgical processes, analytical and medicinal chemistry.

Answer the following questions :

(a) What is crystal field splitting energy ?
(b) Give reason for the violet colour of the complex [Ti(H2O)6]3+ on the basis of crystal
field theory.
(c) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ is paramagnetic while [Ni(CN)4]2 is diamagnetic. Explain why. [Atomic No. :
Cr = 24, Ni = 28]
(d) Explain why [Fe(CN)6]3 is an inner orbital complex, whereas [Fe(H2O)6]3+ is an outer
 orbital complex. [Atomic No. : Fe = 26]
265

266
 Chapter - 7 Alcohol , Phenol and Ether
Multiple Choice Questions
267 The reaction of an alkyl halide with sodium alkoxide forming ether is known as :
(a) Wurtz reaction (b) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(c) Williamson synthesis (d) Kolbe reaction
268 The correct order of the ease of dehydration of the following alcohols by the action of
conc. H2SO4 is :
(a) (CH3)3C-OH > (CH3)2CH-OH > CH3CH2-OH
(b) (CH3)2CH-OH > CH3CH2 - OH > (CH3)3C - OH
(C) CH3CH2-OH > (CH3)2CH - OH > (CH3)3C-OH
(D) (CH3)2CH - OH > (CH3)3C-OH > CH3CH2-OH
269 Dehydration of tertiary alcohols with Cu at 573 K gives :
(a) Alkyne (b) Alkene (c) Aldehyde (d) Ketone
270 Phenol on reaction with aqueous bromine at room temperature gives :
(a) 2-bromophenol (b) 3-bromophenol (c) 4-bromophenol (d) 2,4,6-
tribromophenol
271

272
273

274

275 Phenol is less acidic than :

(a) ethanol (b) o-nitrophenol (c) o-methoxyphenol (d) o-
methylphenol
276

277 Aspirin is formed by the acetylation of :

(a) Benzoic acid (b) Phenol (c) Salicylic acid (d) Phthalic acid
278
279

280 Which one of the following compounds has the lowest pKa value ?
(a) p-Cresol (b) p-Nitrophenol (c) m-Nitrophenol (d) 2,4,6-trinitrophenol
281

282
283

284

285

286

287

Assertion - Reason Type Questions

288 Assertion (A) : Addition of ethylene glycol to water lowers its freezing point.
 Reason (R) : Ethylene glycol is insoluble in water due to lack of its ability to form
hydrogen bonds with water molecules.
289 Assertion (A) : The boiling point of ethanol is higher than that of dimethyl ether.
Reason (R) : Dimethyl ether molecules are associated through hydrogen bonding.
290 Assertion (A) : Phenol on reaction with aqueous NaOH gives sodium phenoxide.
Reason (R) : This reaction supports the acidic nature of phenol.
291 Assertion (A) : Boiling point of butan-1-ol is higher than that of butan-1-amine.
Reason (R) : Being more polar, butan-1-ol forms stronger intermolecular hydrogen bonds
as compared to butan-1-amine.
292 Assertion (A) : p-nitrophenol is less acidic than phenol.
Reason (R) : Nitro group is electron withdrawing and helps in the stabilisation of
p-nitrophenoxide ion.
293 Assertion (A) : Bromination of phenol can be carried out even in the absence of Lewis
acid.
Reason (R) : -OH group of phenol has the highest activation effect.
294 Assertion (A) : Phenols are stronger acids than alcohols.
Reason (R) : Alkoxide ion is more stable than phenoxide ion.
295 Assertion (A) : p- methoxyphenol is a stronger acid than p-nitrophenol.
Reason (R) : Methoxy group shows +I effect whereas nitro group shows -I effect.
296 Assertion (A) : p-methoxyphenol is a stronger acid than m-methoxyphenol.
Reason (R) : Methoxy group exerts +R effect at both ortho and para position.
Short Questions (2/3 Marks )
297 Write the chemical equation when :
(a) Butan-2-one is treated with Zn(Hg) and conc. HCl.
(b) Two molecules of benzaldehyde are treated with conc. NaOH.
298

299 Give the equations of reactions for the preparation of :

(a) Phenol from chlorobenzene
(b) Salicylaldehyde from phenol
(c) 2-Methoxyacetophenone from anisole
(d) Picric acid from phenol
300 (a) Write the equations of the reactions involved in the following :
(i) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(ii) Kolbe 's reaction
(b) Name the reagent used in the bromination of phenol to form 2,4,6 tribromophenol.
301 Write the chemical equation for the reaction :
 (a) Hydroboration - Oxidation reaction
(b) Williamson synthesis
(c) Friedel craft alkylation of anisole
302

303 Name the following compounds according to IUPAC system :

304 Give the structures and IUPAC names of the products expected from the following
reactions:
(a) Catalytic reduction of butanal.
(b) Hydration of propene in the presence of dilute sulphuric acid.
(c) Reaction of propanone with methylmagnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis
305 Write the structure of the following reactions :

306 Arrange the following sets of compounds in order of their increasing boiling points:
(a) Pentan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, ethanol, propan-1-ol, methanol.
(b) Pentan-1-ol, n-butane, pentanal, ethoxyethane.
307 Write the structures of the major products expected from the following reactions:
(a) Mononitration of 3-methylphenol
(b) Dinitration of 3-methylphenol
(c) Mononitration of phenyl methanoate.
308 Give structures of the products you would expect when each of the following alcohol
reacts with (a) HCl –ZnCl2 (b) HBr and (c) SOCl2 .
309 (a) Predict the major product of acid catalysed dehydration of (i) 1-methylcyclohexanol
and (ii) butan-1-ol.
(b) Ortho and para nitrophenols are more acidic than phenol. Draw the resonance
structures of the corresponding phenoxide ions.
310 Give the major products that are formed by heating each of the following ethers with HI.
311 (a) Write the reactions of Williamson synthesis of 2-ethoxy-3-methylpentane starting
from ethanol and 3-methylpentan-2-ol.
(b) Which of the following is an appropriate set of reactants for the preparation of
1-methoxy-4-nitrobenzene and why?

312 (a) Give the equations of reactions for the preparation of phenol from cumene.
(b) Write chemical reaction for the preparation of phenol from chlorobenzene.
(c) Write the mechanism of hydration of ethene to yield ethanol.
313 Give equations of the following reactions:
(i) Oxidation of propan-1-ol with alkaline KMnO4 solution.
(ii) Bromine in CS2 with phenol.
(iii) Dilute HNO3 with phenol.
(iv) Treating phenol wih chloroform in presence of aqueous NaOH.
314 How are the following conversions carried out?
(i) Propene Propan-2-ol.
(ii) Benzyl chloride Benzyl alcohol.
(iii) Ethyl magnesium chloride Propan-1-ol.
(iv) Methyl magnesium bromide 2-Methylpropan-2-ol.
315 How is 1-propoxypropane synthesised from propan-1-ol? Write mechanism of this
reaction.
Chapter - 8 Aldehyde , Ketone and Carboxylic Acid
Multiple Choice Questions
316

317

318 The formation of cyanohydrin from an aldehyde is an example of :

 (a) nucleophilic addition (b) electrophilic addition
(c) nucleophilic substitution (d) electrophilic substitution
319

320 Decarboxylation of sodium benzoate on heating with soda lime gives :

(a) benzene (b) benzoic acid (c) benzaldehyde (d) toluene
321

322

323
324

325 Consider the following reaction :

Identify A and B from the given options :

(a) A - Methanol , B- Potassium formate (b) A - Ethanol , B - Potassium fromate
(c) A - Methanal , B - Ethanol (d) A - Methanol , B - Potassium acetate
326 Rossenmund reaction is used for the preparation of aldehydes. The catalyst used in this
reaction is :
(a) Pd - BaSO4 (b) Anhydrous AlCl3 (c) Iron (III) Oxide (d) HgSO4
327 Nuclephilic addition of Grignard reagent to ketones by hydrolysis with dilute acids forms :
(a) Alkene (b) Primary alcohol (c) Tertiary alcohol (d) Secondary alcohol
328 Which of the following is most reactive in nucleophilic addition reactions ? 1
(a) HCHO (b) CH3CHO (c) CH3COCH3 (d) CH3COC2H5
329

330

331 Aldehydes and ketones react with hydroxylamine to form

(a) hydrazones (b) cyanohydrins (c) semicarbazones (d) Oxime
332 The reagent that can be used to distinguish acetophenone and benzophenone is 1
(a) 2, 4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine (b) aqueous NaHSO3
(c) Fehling solution (d) I2 and NaOH
333
334 The reactivities of the carbonyl compounds HCHO (I), CH3CHO (II) and CH3COCH3 (III)
towards nucleophilic addition reaction decreases in the order :
(a) III > II > I (b) I > II > III (c) II > III > I (d) I > III > II
335

336

Assertion - Reason Type Questions

337 Assertion (A) : Acetic acid but not formic acid can be halogenated in presence of red P
and Cl2.
Reason (R) : Acetic acid is a weaker acid than formic acid.
338 Assertion (A) : Bromination of benzoic acid gives m-bromobenzoic acid.
Reason (R) : Carboxyl group increases the electron density at the meta position.
339 Assertion (A) : The final product in Aldol condensation is always α,β - unsaturated
carbonyl compound.
Reason (R) : α,β - unsaturated carbonyl compounds are stabilised due to conjugation.
340 Assertion (A) : Oxidation of ketones is easier than aldehydes.
Reason (R) : C–C bond of ketones is stronger than C–H bond of aldehydes.
341 Assertion (A) : Benzaldehyde is less reactive than ethanal towards nucleophilic addition
reactions.
Reason (R) : Ethanal is more sterically hindered.
342 Assertion (A): Aromatic carboxylic groups do not undergo Friedel- Crafts reaction.
Reason (R): Carboxyl group is deactivating and the catalyst aluminium chloride gets
bonded to the carboxyl group.
343 Assertion (A) : Benzoic acid does not undergo Friedel-craft’s reaction.
Reaction (R) : The carboxyl group is activating and undergo electrophilic substitution
reaction.
Short Questions (2/3 Marks)
344 Write the chemical equation when :
(a) Butan-2-one is treated with Zn(Hg) and conc. HCl.
(b) Two molecules of benzaldehyde are treated with conc. NaOH.
345 Compound (A) (C6H12O2) on reduction with LiAlH4 gives two compounds (B) and (C). The
compound (B) on oxidation with PCC gives compound (D) which upon treatment with
dilute NaOH and subsequent heating gives compound (E). Compound (E) on catalytic
hydrogenation gives compound (C). The compound (D) is oxidized further to give
compound (F) which is found to be a monobasic acid (Molecular weight = 60). Identify the
compounds (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F).
346 Write the chemical equations when :
(a) Pentan-3-one is treated with H2N - NH2 followed by heating with KOH in high boiling
solvent such as ethylene glycol.
(b) Two molecules of (CH3)3C - CHO are treated with conc. NaOH.
347 Write the chemical equations when :
(a) Ethanal is treated with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine ?
(b) Propanone is treated with Zn(Hg) and conc. HCl ?
348 Write the reaction involved in the following :
(a) Wolff-Kishner reduction
(b) Decarboxylation reaction
(c) Cannizzaro reaction
349 How will you bring about the following conversions ?
(a) Benzoic acid to Benzaldehyde
(b) Ethanal to Propanone
(c) Acetophenone to Benzoic acid
(d) Bromobenzene to 1-Phenylethanol
350

351
352

353 Write stepwise mechanism of nucleophilic addition reaction in the carbonyl compounds.
354 Convert : (a) Toluene to benzoic acid (b) Ethanol to 3-hydroxybutanal
355

356 Draw the structure of the major products :

357

358

359 Write the structure of the following products :

360 An organic compound (A) with molecular formula C8H8O forms an orange-red precipitate
with 2,4-DNP reagent and gives yellow precipitate on heating with iodine in the presence
of sodium hydroxide. It neither reduces Tollens’ or Fehlings’ reagent, nor does it
decolourise bromine water or Baeyer’s reagent. On drastic oxidation with chromic acid, it
gives a carboxylic acid (B) having molecular formula C7H6O2 . Identify the compounds (A)
and (B) and explain the reactions involved.
361 Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their reactivity in nucleophilic
addition reactions.
(i) Ethanal, Propanal, Propanone, Butanone.
(ii) Benzaldehyde, p-Tolualdehyde, p-Nitrobenzaldehyde, Acetophenone.
362 Write chemical reactions to affect the following transformations:
(i) Butan-1-ol to butanoic acid
(ii) Benzyl alcohol to phenylethanoic acid
(iii) 3-Nitrobromobenzene to 3-nitrobenzoic acid
(iv) 4-Methylacetophenone to benzene-1,4-dicarboxylic acid
(v) Cyclohexene to hexane-1,6-dioic acid (vi) Butanal to butanoic acid.
363 How will you convert ethanal into the following compounds?
(i) Butane-1,3-diol (ii) But-2-enal (iii) But-2-enoic acid
364 An organic compound (A) (molecular formula C8H16O2) was hydrolysed with dilute
sulphuric acid to give a carboxylic acid (B) and an alcohol (C). Oxidation of (C) with
chromic acid produced (B). (C) on dehydration gives but-1-ene. Write equations for the
reactions involved.
365 Give simple chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds.
(i) Propanal and Propanone (ii) Acetophenone and Benzophenone (iii) Phenol and
Benzoic acid (iv) Benzoic acid and Ethyl benzoate (v) Pentan-2-one and Pentan-3-one (vi)
Benzaldehyde and Acetophenone (vii) Ethanal and Propanal
366 How will you bring about the following conversions in not more than two steps? (i)
Propanone to Propene (ii) Benzoic acid to Benzaldehyde (iii) Ethanol to 3-Hydroxybutanal
(iv) Benzene to m-Nitroacetophenone (v) Benzaldehyde to Benzophenone (vi)
Bromobenzene to 1-Phenylethanol (vii) Benzaldehyde to 3-Phenylpropan-1-ol (viii)
Benazaldehyde to a-Hydroxyphenylacetic acid (ix) Benzoic acid to m- Nitrobenzyl alcohol
367 Complete each synthesis by giving missing starting material, reagent or products

368 An organic compound contains 69.77% carbon, 11.63% hydrogen and rest oxygen. The
molecular mass of the compound is 86. It does not reduce Tollens’ reagent but forms an
addition compound with sodium hydrogensulphite and give positive iodoform test. On
vigorous oxidation it gives ethanoic and propanoic acid. Write the possible structure of
the compound.
369

Case Study Question

370 The carbon – oxygen double bond is polarised in aldehydes and ketonesdue to higher
electronegativity of oxygen relative to carbon. Therefore they undergo nucleophilic
addition reactions with a number of nucleophiles such as HCN, NaHSO3, alcohols,
ammonia derivatives and Grignard reagents. Aldehydes are easily oxidised by mild
oxidising agents as compared to ketones. The carbonyl group of carboxylic acid does not
give reactions of aldehydes and ketones. Carboxylic acids are considerably more acidic
than alcohols and most of simple phenols.

Answer the following :

(a) Write the name of the product when an aldehyde reacts with excess alcohol in
presence of dry HCl.
(b) Why carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol ?

Chapter - 9 Amines
Multiple Choice Questions
371 Which of the following compounds on treatment with benzene sulphonyl choride forms
an alkali-soluble precipitate ?
(a) CH3CONH2 (b) (CH3)3N (c) (CH3)2NH (d) CH3CH2NH2
372 The order of increasing basicities of CH3NH2 (I), (CH3)2NH (II), (CH3)3N (III) and C6H5NH2 (IV)
in aqueous media is :
(a) IV < III < I < II (b) II < I < IV < III (c) I < II < III < IV (d) II < III < I < IV
373

374 Aniline on reaction with Bromine water gives :

(a) o-bromoaniline (b) 2,4,6-tribromoaniline (c) m-bromoaniline (d) p-
bromoaniline
375

376

377

378

379 In order to prepare a 1° amine from an alkyl halide with simultaneous addition of one CH2
group in the carbon chain, the reagent used as source of nitrogen is ___________.
 (a) Sodium amide, NaNH2 (b) Sodium azide, NaN3
(c) Potassium cyanide, KCN (d) Potassium phthalimide, C6H4(CO)2N–K+
380 An organic compound ‘A’ on treatment with NH3 gives ‘B’ which on heating gives ‘C’. ‘C’
when treated with Br2 in the presence of KOH produces ethylamine. Compound ‘A’ is :

Assertion - Reason Type Questions

381 Assertion (A) : Aniline is a stronger base than ammonia.
Reason (R) : The unshared electron pair on nitrogen atom in aniline becomes less
available for protonation due to resonance.
382 Assertion (A) : p-nitroaniline is a weaker base than p-toluidine.
Reason (R) : The electron donating NO2 group in p-nitroaniline makes it a weaker base.
383 Assertion (A) : Aliphatic primary amines can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide
synthesis.
Reason (R) : Alkyl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution with anion formed by
phthalimide.
384 Assertion (A) : Diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more stable than those of aliphatic
amines.
Reason (R) : Diazonium salts of aliphatic amines show resonance.
385 Assertion (A) : Aromatic primary amines can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide
synthesis.
Reason (R) : Alkyl halide undergoes nucleophilic substitution with anion formed by
phthalimide.
386 Assertion (A) : Acetanilide is less basic than aniline.
Reason (R) : Acetylation of aniline results in decrease of electron density on nitrogen in
acetanilide.
387 Assertion (A) : Aniline is a weaker base than cyclohexylamine .
Reason (R) : Aniline is resonance stabilized.
388 Assertion (A) : Ammonolysis of alkyl halides involves reaction between alkyl halide and
ethanolic solution of ammonia.
Reason (R) : Ammonolysis of alkyl halides mainly produces secondary amines.
389 Assertion (A) : Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.
Reason (R) : Friedel-Crafts reaction is a nucleophilic substitution reaction.
390 Assertion (A) : Boiling point of butan-1-ol is higher than that of butan-1-amine.
Reason (R) : Being more polar, butan-1-ol forms stronger intermolecular hydrogen bonds
as compared to butan-1-amine.
Short Question Answers (2/3 Marks)
391 Answer any five questions of the following :
(a) N,N-diethyl-benzenesulphonamide is insoluble in alkali. Give reason.
(b) Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction. Why ?
(c) Write a simple chemical test to distinguish between methylamine and aniline.
(d) Write the chemical reaction involved in Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
(e) How will you convert aniline to p-bromoaniline ?
392

393

(5 marks)
394

395 Carry out the following conversions :

(i) Nitrobenzene to aniline (ii) Aniline to phenol
396 (i) Write a chemical test to distinguish between Dimethyl amine and ethanamine.
(ii) Write the product formed when benzene diazonium chloride is treated with KI.
397 A compound X with molecular formula C3H9N reacts with C6H5SO2Cl to give a solid ,
insoluble alkali. Identify X and give the IUPAC name of the product. Write the reaction
involved.
398 Explain briefly :
 (a) Carbylamine reaction (b) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
399

400 Give reasons :

(i) Aniline on nitration gives good amount of m-nitroaniline, though – NH2 group is o/p
directing in electrophilic substitution reactions.
(ii) (CH3)2 NH is more basic than (CH3)3N in an aqueous solution.
(iii) Ammonolysis of alkyl halides is not a good method to prepare pure primary amines.
401

402 How will you convert the following :

(i) Aniline to p-bromoaniline
(ii) Ethanoic acid to methanamine
(iii) Butanenitrile to 1-aminobutane
403

404 (i) Draw the zwitter ion structure for sulphanilic acid.
(ii) How can the activating effect of –NH2 group in aniline be controlled ?
405

406 (a) Illustrate Sandmeyer’s reaction with an equation.

 (b) Explain, why (CH3)2NH is more basic than (CH3)3N in aqueous solution.

407 Amines are usually formed from nitro compounds, halides, amides, imides, etc. They
exhibit hydrogen bonding which influences their physical properties. In alkyl amines, a
combination of electron releasing, steric and hydrogen bonding factors influence the
stability of the substituted ammonium cations in protic polar solvents and thus affect
the basic nature of amines. In aromatic amines, electron releasing and withdrawing
groups, respectively increase and decrease their basic character. Influence of the number
of hydrogen atoms at nitrogen atom on the type of reactions and nature of products is
responsible for identification and distinction between primary, secondary and tertiary
amines. Presence of amino group in aromatic ring enhances reactivity of the aromatic
amines. Aryl diazonium salts provide advantageous methods for producing aryl halides,
cyanides, phenols and arenes by reductive removal of the diazo group.

Answer the following questions :

(i) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their pKb values in aqueous solution :
C2H5NH2 , (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N
(ii) Aniline on nitration gives a substantial amount of m-nitroaniline, though amino group
is o/p directing. Why ?
(iii) An aromatic compound A of molecular formula C7H6O2 on treatment with aqueous
ammonia and heating froms compound B. Compound B on heating with Br2 and aqueous
KOH gives compoud C of molecular formula C6H7N. Write the structures of A , B and C.
OR

Chapter - 10 Biomolecules
408 Two among the three components of DNA are β-D-2-deoxyribose and a heterocyclic base.
The third component is :
(a) Adenine (b) Phosphoric acid (c) Sulphuric acid (d) Uracil
409 Nucleotides are composed of a :
(a) pentose sugar and phosphoric acid
(b) nitrogenous base, pentose sugar and phosphoric acid
(c) nitrogenous base and phosphoric acid
(d) pentose sugar and nitrogenous base
410 The specific sequence in which amino acids are arranged in a protein is called :
(a) Secondary structure (b) Primary structure
(c) Tertiary structure (d) Quaternary structure
411 Which functional groups of glucose interact to form cyclic hemiacetal leading to pyranose
structure ?
(a) Aldehyde group and hydroxyl group at C - 4
 (b) Aldehyde group and hydroxyl group at C - 5
(c) Ketone group and hydroxyl group at C - 4
(d) Ketone group and hydroxyl group at C - 5
412 Maltose is made up of :
(a) glucose and fructose (b) glucose and galactose
(c) glucose and glucose (d) glucose and ribose
413 All proteins on hydrolysis give :
(a) Enzymes (b) α -amino acids (c) Glucose (d) Polypeptides
414 The vitamin which plays an important role in coagulating blood is :
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin E (c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin K
415 Night blindness is caused by deficiency of Vitamin :
(a) B (b) C (c) K (d) A
416 Scurvy is caused by deficiency of Vitamin :
(a) B (b) C (c) K (d) A
417 Which of the following acid represents Vitamin C ?
(a) Sachharic acid (b) Gluconic acid (c) Ascorbic acid (d) Benzoic acid
418 The specific sequence in which amino acids are arranged in a protein is called its :
(a) Primary Structure (b) Secondary structure
(c) Tertiary structure (d) Quarternary structure
419 The colligative property used for the determination of molar mass of polymers and
proteins is :
(a) Osmotic pressure (b) Depression in freezing point
(c) Relative lowering in vapour pressure (d) Elevation is boiling point
420 The glycosidic linkage involved in linking the glucose units in amylase part of starch is :
(a) C1 - C6 α- linkage (b) C1- C6 β linkage
(c) C1 - C4 α linkage (d) C1- C4 β linkage
421 An -helix is a structural feature of :
(a) Sucrose (b) Starch (c) Polypeptides (d) Nucleotides
422 Proteins are polymers of
(a) Nucleic acids (b) Amino acids (c) Monosaccharides (d) Amines
423 When D-glucose reacts with HI, it forms
(a) Gluconic acid (b) n-hexane (c) Saccharic acid (d) Iodohexane
424 On hydrolysis, which of the following carbohydrates gives only glucose ?
(a) Starch (b) Fructose (c) Lactose (d) Sucrose
425 Which of the following vitamins is water soluble ?
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin E (d) Vitamin C
426 Helical structure of proteins is stabilized by :
(a) ionic bond (b) covalent bond (c) hydrogen bond (d) Van der Waals forces
427 In the ring structure of glucose, the anomeric carbon is :
(a) C-2 (b) C-3 (c) C-4 (d) C-1
428 Deficiency of Vitamin B causes :
(a) rickets (b) muscular weakness (c) scurvy (d) beri-beri
429

430 Deficiency of which of the following vitamins causes Pernicious anaemia ?

(a) Vitamin B1 (b) Vitamin B2 (c) Vitamin B6 (d) Vitamin B12
431 On hydrolysis, which of the following carbohydrates gives glucose and fructose ?
(a) Sucrose (b) Starch (c) Lactose (d) Maltose
432 Hydrolysis of sucrose is called
(a) inversion (b) hydration (c) esterification (d) saponification
433 Which of the following statements is not true about glucose ?
(a) It is an aldohexose. (b) On heating with HI it forms n-hexane.
(c) It is present in pyranose form. (d) It gives 2, 4 DNP test.
434 β-pleated sheet structure in proteins refers to
(a) primary structure (b) secondary structure
(c) tertiary structure (d) quaternary structure
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
435 Assertion (A) : Uracil base is present in DNA.
Reason (R) : DNA undergoes self-replication.
436 Assertion (A) : Vitamin C cannot be stored in our body.
Reason (R) : Vitamin C is water soluble and readily excreted in urine.
437 Assertion (A) : Fructose is a reducing sugar.
Reason (R) : Fructose does not reduce Fehling solution and Tollen's reagent.
438 Assertion (A) : Proteins are polymers of α-amino acids connected by a peptide bond.
Reason (R) : A tetrapeptide contains 4 amino acids linked by 4 peptide bonds.
439 Assertion (A) : Vitamin C cannot be stored in our body.
Reason (R) : Vitamin C is fat soluble and is excreted from the body in urine.
440 Assertion (A) : The backbone of DNA and RNA molecules is a chain consisting of
heterocyclic base, pentose sugar and phosphate group.
Reason (R) : Nucleotides and nucleosides mainly differ from each other in presence of
phosphate group.
Short Question Answers (2/3 Marks)
441 What happens when D-glucose is treated with the following reagents ?
(a) HI (b) Conc. HNO3
442 What happens when D-glucose is treated with the following reagents ?
(a) Br2 water (b) HCN
443 What happens when D-glucose is treated with the following reagents ?
(a) H2N - OH (b) (CH3CO)2O
444 Define the following terms :
 (a) Denaturation of protein (b) Invert sugar
445 Define the following terms :
(a) Essential amino acids (b) Nucleotide
446 Answer the following : (any three)
(a) What is peptide linkage ?
(b) What type of bonds hold a DNA double helix together ?
(c) Which one of the following is a polysaccharide ? Sucrose, Glucose, Starch, Fructose
(d) Give one example each for water-soluble vitamins and fat-soluble vitamins.
447 Define : (a) Non-essential amino acid (b) Monosachharides (c) Anomers
448 Define : (a) Glycosidic linkage (b) Primary structure of protein (c) Disachharides
449 Classify following sugars into monosaccharide and disaccharides :
Galactose , Glucose , Lactose and Maltose
450 (a) Write chemical reaction to show that open structure of D-glucose contains the straight
chain.
(b) What type of linkage is responsible for the formation of protein ?
451 (a) What are the hydrolysis products of (i) Lactose, (ii) Maltose ?
(b) Give the basic structural difference between starch and cellulose.
452 Define denaturation of protein. What is the effect of denaturation on the structure of
protein ?
453 (a) Write chemical reaction to show that open structure of D-glucose contains the straight
chain.
(b) What type of linkage is responsible for the formation of protein ?
454 Write two differences between DNA and RNA.
455 (a) What is the difference between a nucleoside and nucleotide ?
(b) What products would be formed when a nucleotide from DNA containing thymine is
hydrolysed ?
456 How are carbohydrates stored in animal body ? Mention any one organ where they are
present.
457 Give Reasons :
(a) Penta-acetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine.
(b) Amino acids behave like salts.
(c) Water soluble vitamins must be taken regularly in diet.
(d) The two strands in DNA are complimentary to each other.
Case Study Questions
458

459 Proteins are the most abundant biomolecules of the living system. Proteins are the
polymers of about twenty different -amino acids which are linked by peptide bonds. Ten
amino acids are called essential amino acids. In zwitter ionic form, amino acids show
amphoteric behaviour as they react both with acids and bases. On the basis of their
molecular shape, proteins are classified into two types : Fibrous and Globular proteins.
Structure and shape of proteins can be studied at four different levels i.e., primary,
secondary, tertiary and quaternary, each level being more complex than the previous
one. The secondary or tertiary structure of proteins get disturbed on change of pH or
temperature and they are not able to perform their functions. This is called denaturation
of proteins.
 Answer the following questions :
(a) What are essential amino acids ? 1
(b) What is meant by zwitter ionic form of amino acids ? 1
(c) (i) Give one example each for Fibrous protein and Globular protein.
(ii) What type of linkages hold monomers of proteins together ?
OR
(c) (i) What is the structural feature which characterises a reducing sugar ?
(ii) What is the structural difference between nucleoside and nucleotide ?
460