MDCAT FULL LENGTH PAPER-5

 PLEASE DO NOT WRITE ANYTHING ON THE PAGES.

ALL ANSWERS MUST BE GIVEN ON THE MCQ’s RESPONSE FORM

BIOLOGY
Q.1 Nuclear pores controls the inward traffic of all of the following molecules except:
A. Enzymes B. rRNA C. Histones D. ATPs
Q.2 Proteins, enzymes, co-enzymes, ribosomes and circular DNA is found in:
A. Outer and inner mitochondrial space B. Cytoplasm and nucleoplasm
C. Stroma and thylakoid lumen D. Mitochondrial matrix and stroma
Q.3 Secondary lysosome is not synonymous with:
A. Phagosome B. Autophagolysosome
C. Digestive vacuole D. Phagolysosome
Q.4 Which of the following reactions may exclusively occur in cytosol of prokaryote but
cannot be observed in eukaryotic cytosol:
A. Succinate → Fumarate B. Nucleic acid → polypeptides
C. Glycerol → Pyruvate D. Glucose → Glycogen
Q.5 Oleic acid is different from stearic acid in:
A. Position of C=C bond B. Number of carbonyl groups
C. Number of carbon atoms in fatty acid chain D. Presence of C=C bond
Q.6 Which of the following is nucleoside:
A. Guanine B. Thymine C. Adenosine D. Uracil
Q.7 Which of the following is common between unit membrane and fluid mosaic models
of plasma membrane?
A. Phospholipids forms bilayer B. Proteins are found in mosaic manner
C. Proteins are present in between lipid bilayer D. Carbohydrates form glycolipids
Q.8 Mucin is present in our saliva, and it is synthesized on RER and poured into
spherical or tubular membranes that separate it from the cytoplasmic material.
These sacs may be termed as:
A. Ascus B. Cisternae C. Alveolus D. Cristae
Q.9 Which of the following are most plentiful and best developed in those cells where
energy requiring processes take place?
A. Lysosomes B. Ribosomes C. Mitochondria D. RER
Q.10 The type of linkage present in carbohydrates is:
A. Amide B. Peptide C. Glycosidic D. Phosphate bonds
Q.11 Which of the following property of co-enzyme is same as enzyme?
A. Non-protein in nature B. Can be recovered after reaction
C. Thermostable D. Transform during ES complex formation
Q.12 ATP + H₂O ? ADP + Pi + Energy
The above-mentioned reaction is:
A. Oxygenation B. Hydrolysis C. Oxidation D. Hydration
Q.13 Calvin cycle expends the following for fixation of 3 molecules of CO2:
A. 9 ATP and 6 NADPH B. 8 ATP and 6 NADPH
C. 9 ATP and 3 NADPH D. 6 ATP and 9 NADPH
Q.14 The number of glucose molecules required to produce 38 ATP molecules under
anaerobic conditions by yeast cell is:
A. 1 B. 2 C. 19 D. 38
Q.15 Sequence of cytochromes in respiratory chain is:
A. Cyt a → b → c → a3 B. Cyt b → c → a → a3
C. Cyt b → a → a3 → c D. Cyt b → c → a3 → a
Q.16 Kupffer cells are found in:
A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Small intestine D. Large intestine
Q.17 Chyme is poured into duodenum by opening:
A. Pyloric sphincter B. Sphincter of Oddi
C. Cardiac sphincter D. Esophageal sphincter
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Q.18 Jaundice may be caused by the retarded function of:
A. Heart B. Liver C. Lungs D. Kidneys
Q.19 During the process of digestion, the starch present in diet is digested by:
A. Salivary amylase only B. Pancreatic amylase only
C. Both the salivary and pancreatic amylases D. Carbohydrases
Q.20 What is the function of goblet cells?
A. Production of HCl B. Production of mucin
C. Production of enzyme D. Production of hormone
Q.21 The function of tracheal cilia is to:
A. Pass air in B. Pass air out C. Pass mucus in D. Pass mucus out
Q.22 The function/s of surfactant is/are:
A. To reduce surface tension of the alveoli B. Maintaining the stable size of the alveoli
C. Facilitating lung expansion D. All A, B, C
Q.23 In lungs, there is definite exchange of ions between RBC and plasma. Removal of
CO2 from blood involves:
A. Influx of Cl- into RBC B. Efflux of Cl- from RBC
C. Influx of H2CO3 into RBC D. Efflux of HCO3- from RBC
Q.24 Residual volume is:
A. Lesser than tidal volume B. Greater than tidal volume
C. Greater than vital capacity D. Greater than inspiratory reserve vloume
Q.25 Systemic heart refers to:
A. Entire heart in lower vertebrates
B. The two ventricles together in humans
C. Left auricle and left ventricle in higher vertebrates
D. The heart that contracts under stimulation from nervous system
Q.26 Pacemaker of heart is:
A. SA node B. AV node C. Purkinje fibres D. Chordae tendinae
Q.27 Pulmonary arteries differ from pulmonary veins in having:
A. No endothelium B. Strong valves
C. Collagen D. Thick muscular walls
Q.28 Which blood vessel in mammals would normally carry the largest amount of urea?
A. Renal vein B. Dorsal aorta C. Hepatic vein D. Hepatic portal vein
Q.29 Which of the following statements is true for lymph?
A. WBCs and serum
B. RBCs, WBCs, and plasma
C. RBCs, proteins, and platelets
D. All components of blood except RBCs and some proteins
Q.30 Neutrophils and monocytes are important cells participating in:
A. Phagocytosis B. Perforin production
C. Passive Immunity D. Antibody production
Q.31 Which one of the following is not associated with ascent of sap in tall trees?
A. Cohesion and adhesion of water molecule B. Continuity of water column
C. Pressure in tracheary elements D. Transpiration pull
Q.32 The movement of organic materials through the vascular tissue of plants is called:
A. Transpiration B. Translocation C. Transcription D. Transduction
Q.33 Which of the following causes transmission of impulse across synapse?
A. Na+ B. K+ C. Ca2+ D. Mg2+
Q.34 Acetylchoinesterase splits acetylcholine into:
A. Acetone and choline B. Acetic acid and choline
C. Amino acid and choline D. Aspartic acid and ethanolamine
Q.35 Which of the following acts as an inhibitory neurotransmitter?
A. GABA B. Histamine C. Epinephrine D. Acetylcholine
Q.36 Which of the following hormones are produced in the hypothalamus and stored in
the posterior pituitary?
A. FSH and LH B. TSH and STH C. ACTH and MSH D. ADH and oxytocin
Q.37 Graves’ disease is due to:
A. Hyperactivity of thyroid gland B. Hypoactivity of adrenal gland
C. Hyperactivity of adrenal medulla D. Hypoactivity Islets of Langerhans
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Q.38 Calcitonin is a thyroid hormone which:
A. Has no effect on Ca2+ B. Lowers Ca2+ level in blood
C. Elevates Ca2+ level in the blood D. Elevates K+ level in blood
Q.39 Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a hormone with a disease
resulting from its deficiency?
A. Parathyroid hormone – Tetany B. Relaxin – Gigantism
C. Prolactin – Cretinism D. Insulin – Diabetes insipidus
Q.40 Which of these is not a hormone produced by the ovaries?
A. Inhibin B. Prolactin C. Estrogen D. Progesterone
Q.41 Increase in BMR is due to:
A. Thyroxin B. Adrenaline
C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Parasympathetic nervous system
Q.42 Parathormone secretion increases in response to:
A. Increased secretion of calcitonin
B. A decrease in blood Ca2+ level
C. Increased secretion of parathyroid-releasing hormone from hypothalamus
D. Increased production of parathyroid-stimulating hormone from anterior pituitary
Q.43 2n = 6 in a primary spermatocyte which is in metaphase of first meiotic division.
What shall be the total number of chromatids in each of the secondary spermatocyte?
A. 6 B. 8 C. 24 D. 32
Q.44 Semen contains all of the following except:
A. Mucus
B. Fructose
C. Substances to reduce pH of uterine environment
D. Substances to increase motility of uterine muscles
Q.45 Cervix is a part:
A. Of kidney B. Of fallopian tube
C. Of epididymis D. Between uterus and vagina
Q.46 Muscle activity of our body:
A. Decreases BMR B. Decreases venous return
C. Increases body temperature D. Reduces lymph flow
Q.47 The superior radio-ulna within the forearm is:
A. Hinge joint B. Pivot joint
C. Ball and socket joint D. Saddle joint
Q.48 Pick the correct pair from the following:
A. Ligament – Bone to muscle attachment B. Ligament – Collagen proteins
C. Tendon – Bone to bone attachment D. Tendon – Elastic in nature
Q.49 Cross bridges are:
A. Globular heads of actin B. Globular tails of actin
C. Globular heads of myosin D. Globular tails of tropomyosin
Q.50 Some bacteria are not easily killed by antibiotics or heat treatment because of their:
A. Chitinous cell wall B. Mucopeptides in cell wall
C. Capsule or endospores D. Mesosomes
Q.51 Best vector DNA for recombinant DNA technology is:
A. Bacteriophages B. Cosmids and plasmids
C. Plasmid DNA D. Bacterial genome
Q.52 It is not derived from endoderm?
A. Liver B. Gastric glands C. Pancreases D. Muscles
Q.53 In deuterostomes, mesoderm is derived from wall of developing:
A. Coelom B. Schizocoelous
C. Archenteron D. Margin of blastopore
Q.54 Radial symmetry is present in:
A. Sycon B. Cockroach C. Hydra D. Human
Q.55 In Mendelian dihybrid cross, how many individuals are homozygous recessive for
both traits in F2 generation?
A. 1/16 B. 4/16 C. 2/16 D. 6/16

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Q.56 It is the chance of an event to occur:
A. Product rule B. Summation rule C. Division rule D. Probability
Q.57 If male is an affected case of hypophosphatemic rickets and female is normal, then
chances of this trait in their offspring will be as under:
A. All daughters will be affected B. 50% daughters will be affected
C. All sons will be affected D. 50% sons will be affected
Q.58 Haemophilia ‘A’ occurs due to disturbance in ___________ while haemophilia ‘B’
occurs due to disturbance in ___________, respectively.
A. Factor, IX, factor X B. Factor XI, factor VIII
C. Factor VIII, factor IX D. Factor IX, factor XI
Q.59 Example of vestigial organs in the human body are:
A. Wisdom tooth, coccyx, vermiform appendix, nail, thymus
B. Coccyx, wisdom tooth, vermiform appendix, auricular muscles
C. Coccyx, vermiform appendix, wisdom tooth, pancreas
D. Auricular muscles, coccyx, retina, wisdom tooth, hypothalamus
Q.60 It is not an example of lipid:
A. Wax B. Sterol C. Lecithin D. Glycerol
Q.61 It is involved in storage of useful and waste substances in cell:
A. Ribosome B. Mitochondria C. Vacuole D. Chloroplast
Q.62 In myelinated neurons, myelin sheath is formed by:
A. Schwann cell B. Cerebral nerves C. Spinal nerves D. Ganglia
Q.63 The nature of nerve impulse conduction is:
A. Mechanical wave B. Electrochemical wave
C. Thermal wave D. Physiological wave
Q.64 Darwin believed in perceived unity of life. It means:
A. All organisms are unicellular B. All organisms have common ancestor
C. All organisms are similar D. All organisms have common cells
Q.65 “Production of more individuals than the environment can support” may lead to:
A. Struggle for existence B. Natural selection
C. Survival of the fittest D. Evolution
Q.66 Haemophilia and color blindness are:
A. X-linked traits B. X-linked recessive traits
C. Y-linked traits D. X-linked dominant traits
Q.67 A woman, whose father was albino, marries with an albino male. The proportion of
her progeny is:
A. All normal B. 1 normal : 3 albino C. All albino D. 1 normal : 1 albino
Q.68 It is the correct description regarding polysomes:
Ribosomes mRNA Molecules Direction of Protein Synthesis
A. Single Many 5' to 3'
B. Many Single 5' to 3'
C. Many Single 3' to 5'
D. Single Many 3' to 5'

CHEMISTRY
Q.69 Maximum paramagnetic behaviour of manganese observed in __________ oxidation
state
A. +1 B. +2 C. +3 D. +6
Q.70 How many non-typical transition elements are present in 3d series
A. Zero B. One C. Two D. Three
Q.71 Oxidation state of all the elements in free state is
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
Q.72 Which one of the following pairs can be cis-trans isomer to each other?
A. CH3-CH=CH-CH3 and H3C-CH=CH-CH3 B. CHCl=CCl2 and CH2=CH2
C. CHCl=CH2 and CH2=CHCl D. CH3-CH3 and CH2=CH2

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Q.73 The given three hydrocarbons are

A. Alicyclic hydrocarbons B. Acyclic Hydrocarbons

C. Aromatic hydrocarbons D. Heterocyclic hydrocarbons
Q.74 The type of structural isomerism which arises due to the difference in the nature of
carbon chain or carbon skeleton is
A. Chain isomerism B. Cis-Trans isomerism
C. Position isomerism D. Optical isomerism
Q.75 When propene reacted with water in the presence of H2SO4, the final product will be
A. Primary alcohol B. Secondary alcohol C. Tertiary alcohol D. Dihydric alcohol
Q.76 2-Butanone is prepared by the hydration of butyne through formation of
A. Propanol B. Propyne C. Propen-2-ol D. 1-Buten-2-ol
Q.77 In Nitration of benzene NO2+ is the attacking electrophile. It is produced by
A. Conc. HNO3 + Conc. H2SO4 B. Dil. HNO3 + Dil. H2SO4
C. Conc. HNO3 + Dil. H2SO4 D. Dil. HNO3 + Conc. H2SO4
Q.78 In CH3CH2OH, the bond that undergoes heterolytic cleavage most readily is
A. O – H B. C – H C. C – O D. C – C
Q.79 Glucose and acetaldehyde gives silver mirror test with Tollen’s reagent. It shows
presence of
A. Ketonic group B. Aldehydic group C. Alcoholic group D. Acidic group
Q.80 Cyanohydrin of acetaldehyde on acidic hydrolysis will yield
A. Propanoic acid B. 2-Hydroxy ethanoic acid
C. 2-Hydroxy butanoic acid D. 2-Hydroxy propanoic acid
Q.81 Using NaBH4, propanone is reduced to ______
A. 2-Propanol B. Ethanol C. 1-Propanol D. Propane
Q.82 What is “X” in given reaction X + 4 O ⎯⎯⎯→
KMnO4
Heat
2CH 3COOH
A. 1-Butene B. 2-Butene C. Butanal D. 2-Butanol
Q.83 Which of the following derivatives of carboxylic acid is more reactive towards
nucleophile
A. Ethyl acetate B. Acetamide C. Acetyl chloride D. Acetic anhydride
Q.84 Collagen proteins are present in __________ throughout the body
A. Muscle B. Tendons C. Red blood cell D. Blood plasma
Q.85 The formula used to find out the number of orbitals in a sub-shell is
A. n2 B. 2(2l + 1) C. 2 n2 D. 2l +1
Q.86 Many enzymes contain a protein part and non-protein part. The protein part of
enzyme is known as
A. Co-enzyme B. Co-factor C. Apoenzyme D. Both a and b
Q.87 Enzymes are of great biological importance and are of great help in the diagnosis of
certain diseases. Which of the following enzyme is raised in heart diseases.
A. L-Asparaginase B. Phosphatase C. LDH-1 D. Alkaline phosphates
Q.88 The e/ m value of positive rays is maximum for
A. Helium B. Nitrogen C. Oxygen D. Hydrogen
Q.89 In Boyle’s law, the value of ‘k’ depends on
A. Pressure B. Number of moles C. Temperature D. Both B and C
Q.90 The momentary attraction between the molecules of a liquid caused by instantaneous
dipole and induced –dipole attractions are called
A. Dipole-dipole forces B. London dispersion forces
C. Polar forces D. Debye forces
Q.91 The strongest H-bond is present in hydrogen fluoride, which of the following has
highest boiling point
A. Ammonia B. Water C. Hydrogen fluoride D. Ethanol
Q.92 Which one of the following is an example of polar molecular solid
A. Naphthalene B. Iodine C. Dry ice D. Sucrose

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Q.93 Which of the following is produced by the action of CH3Cl on benzene in presence of
AlCl3 followed by oxidation in the presence of acidified KMnO4 give
A. Toluene B. ortho-Xylene C. meta-Xylene D. Benzoic acid
Q.94 The bond energy of chlorine molecule is ______ kJ/mol
A. 151 B. 155 C. 193 D. 242
Q.95 Substitution of iso-propyl chloride to 2-Propanol follows mechanism
A. SN1 or SN2 mechanism B. Neither SN1 nor SN2 mechanism
C. SN1 mechanism only D. SN2 mechanism only
Q.96 The order of reactivity of alcohols when C–O bond breaks
A. Primary > secondary > tertiary B. Secondary > tertiary > primary
C. Tertiary > Primary > secondary D. Tertiary > secondary > primary
Q.97 Consider the reaction given below:
CH3 − CH2Br ⎯⎯⎯ KOH
alcohol
→ H2C = CH2 + HBr
Mechanism followed by the reaction is:
A. E2 B. SN1 C. E1 D. SN2
→ Product , Rate = k  A B  When [A]= [B] = 0.1M and rate of reaction
2
Q.98 A + 2B ⎯⎯
is 2.4×10–3mol dm–3sec–1. The rate constant ‘k’ will be
A. 2.4×10–1 B. 2.4 C. 2.4×10–3 D. 2.4×10–3
Q.99 In lithium, valence electron is screened from the nucleus by
A. 1 shell B. 1 sub-shell C. 1 orbital D. All of these
Q.100 Highest occupied orbitals in chromium is
A. Spherical B. Dumb-bell C. Sausage D. Complicated
Q.101 Total number of carbon atoms present in 22 g of carbon dioxide (C = 12, O = 16)
A. 6.02 × 1022 B. 6.02 × 1023 C. 3.01 × 1022 D. 3.01 × 1023
Q.102 The weight of a single atom of oxygen is
A. 5.057 × 1023 g B. 1.556 × 1023 g C. 2.656 × 10-23 g D. 4.538 × 10–23 g
Q.103 When 12.5g lime stone (CaCO3) is heated then 3.5g CaO is formed. What is %age
yield of given reaction CaCO3 ⎯⎯ → CaO + CO2
A. 40 % B. 50 % C. 25 % D. 71 %
Q.104 Azimuthal quantum number ‘l’ explains
A. Shapes of orbitals B. Size of orbit C. Degenerate orbitals D. Spin of electron
Q.105 In the structure of NaCl, arrangement of particles is
A. Octahedral B. Trigonal planer C. Tetrahedral D. Hexagonal
Q.106 The relationship between Kp and Kc for the following reaction is
N 2 + 3H 2 2NH 3
A. Kp = Kc (RT)1/2 B. Kc = Kp (RT)2 C. Kc = Kp (RT)–2 D. Kp = Kc (RT)
Q.107 In decomposition of PCl5, yield can be maximized by
A. Continuous removal of PCl3 B. Increasing temperature
C. Decreasing pressure D. All of these
Q.108 During the manufacture of nitric acid, nitric oxide is oxidized to nitrogen dioxide.
This reaction is given as
2NO(g) + O 2(g) 2NO 2( g ) H = − 114kJ/mol
According to Le Chatelier’s Principle
A. Reaction must not be temperature dependent
B. Reaction must be carried out at room temperature
C. Reaction must be carried out at low temperature
D. Reaction must be carried out at high temperature
Q.109 What is the correct relation between pH and pKa?
A. pH = pKa + log  Acid  B. pH = pKb + log  Salt 
 
 Salt 
   Acid 
C.  Acid  D.  Salt 
pH = pKa − log  pKa = pH + log 
 Salt   Acid 

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Q.110 A ‘X’ radio active sample has half life 45 mint how much ‘X’ left behind after one
and half hour
A. 6.25% B. 12.5% C. 25% D. 50%
Q.111 If the reactants or product of a chemical reaction can absorb ultraviolet, visible or
infra-red radiation then the rate of a chemical reaction can best be measured by
which one of the following methods?
A. Chemical method B. Graphical method C. Spectrometry D. Differential method
–4 -3
Q.112 When the change in concentration is 6×10 moldm and time for that change is 100
seconds, the rate of reaction will be
A. 6×10–3 moldm–3 sec–1 B. 6×10–6 moldm–3sec–1
C. 6×10–4 moldm–3 sec–1 D. 6×10–5 moldm–3sec–1
Q.113 Which one is spontaneous and exothermic process
A. Sublimation B. Evaporation C. Boiling D. Neutralization
Q.114 Which of the following is correct representation of enthalpy of atomization
1 1
A. H 2( g ) ⎯⎯
→ H( g ) ΔH=+218kJmol-1 B. Cl2( g ) ⎯⎯ → Cl( g ) ΔH=+121kJmol-1
2 2
C. Na( s ) ⎯⎯
→ Na ( g ) ΔH=+108kJmol-1 D. All of these
Q.115 Combustion of graphite to form CO2, can be done by two ways. Reactions are given
as follow
C + O2 ⎯⎯⎯
→ CO 2 ΔH = -393.7 kJmol-1
C + 1 2 O 2 ⎯⎯⎯
→ CO ΔH1 = ?
CO + 1 2 O 2 ⎯⎯⎯ → CO 2 ΔH 2 = −283kJmol-1
What is the enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide?
A. – 676 kJ mol – 1 B. + 110 kJ mol – 1 C. – 110 kJ mol – 1 D. 676 kJ mol – 1
Q.116 Study the following redox reaction:
10Cl - + 16H + + 2MnO4- ⎯⎯ → 5Cl 2 + 2Mn +2 + 8H 2O
Which statement is true about this reaction?
A. Manganese is oxidized from +7 to +2. B. Chlorine is reduced from zero to -1
C. Chloride ions are oxidized from -1 to zero D. Manganese is oxidized from +7 to +2
Q.117 According to electrochemical series which one will act as cathode (preferably)
A. Cu B. Sn C. Ag D. Pb
Q.118 Which one of the following is redox reaction?
A. NaCl + AgNO3 → NaNO3 + AgCl B. 2Na+Cl2→2NaCl
C. 2Cl- → Cl2+2e- D. Na+ + 1e- → Na
Q.119 Which of the following is correct graph for variation in electron affinity values

A. B. C. D.
Q.120 Among alkaline earth metals, which one has lowest melting and boiling point
A. Be B. Mg C. Ca D. Sr
Q.121 VSEPR theory explains shapes and geometries of molecule. The superiority of VBT
on VSEPR is
A. VBT explains shapes of molecules more accurately
B. VBT also explains the reason for bond formation
C. VBT explains paramagnetic behaviour of certain molecules
D. VBT explains the coordinate covalent bond formation
Q.122 Which of the following does react with alkali to evolve H2 gas
A. Mg B. Be C. Ca D. Na

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 PHYSICS
Q.123 If a wave travelling at a speed of 130 m/s and has a wavelength of 5m. Then find out
the frequency of the wave?
A. 650 Hz B. 3.8  102 Hz C. 20 Hz D. 26 Hz
Q.124 Beta rays emitted by a radioactive material are
A. Electromagnetic radiations B. The electrons orbiting around the nucleus
C. Charged particles emitted by nucleus D. Neutral particles
Q.125 In Bohr's model of hydrogen atom, let PE represents potential energy and TE the
total energy. In going to a higher level
A. PE decreases, TE increases B. PE decreases, TE decreases
C. PE increases, TE increases D. PE increases, TE decreases
Q.126 Which of the following increases by increasing amplitude?
A. Wavelength B. Zero C. Frequency D. Loudness
Q.127 How much heat (in Joules) does it take to raise the temperature of 100 g of H2O
from 22˚C to 98˚C?
A. 0.4 kJ B. 60.0 kJ C. 20.0 kJ D. 32 kJ
Q.128 100 joules work has been done by an agency in 10 second. What is the power of agency?
A. 1000-watt B. 10 Watt C. 100-Watt D. 0.10 Watt
Q.129 The Coulomb force between two charges q1 = 2C and q2 is 2N, the distance between
charges is 3m. What is the charge of q2?
A. 1 109C B. 2 109C C. 110-9C D. 4 10-9C
Q.130 A body covers displacement of 10m towards North and returns back to initial point
by covering 10m towards south, its total displacement is:
A. 20m North B. 10m South
C. 0m along North-south D. 0m
Q.131 In Newton’s first law of motion which quantity remains constant:
A. Velocity B. Angular displacement
C. Amplitude D. Amount of work
Q.132 A projectile is launched, its velocity is maximum at;
A. Point of projection B. Highest point
C. Between launching and highest point D. All points
Q.133 Potential divider circuit is made when:
A. Current is divided B. Emf source is divided
C. Resistance is divided D. Number of electrons are divided
Q.134 What is the inappropriate statement for step-up transformer?
A. It increases given AC voltage
B. It decreases given alternating current
C. Heat is never produced in step-up transformer
D. Its input energy is always less than its output energy
Q.135 An ideal transformer is used to step up an alternating emf of 220 V to 4.4kV to
transmit 6.6kW of power. The current rating of the secondary is
A. 30A B. 1.5 A C. 3A D. 1A
Q.136 The device used for rectification is called
A. Rectifier B. Transformer C. Thermistor D. Wheatstone Bridge
Q.137 For angle of projection of a particle (45°-θ) and (45°+θ), the horizontal ranges
described by the projectile are in the ratio
A. 1 : 3 B. 2 : 1 C. 1 : 2 D. 1 : 1
Q.138 The time required for a 50Hz alternating current to reach its peak value starting
from zero is
1 1 1 1
A. s B. s C. s D. s
100 200 50 400
Q.139 What is the mathematical expression for the K.E of a body of mass m moving with speed v
A. 2mv2 B.
1m
2v 2
C.
1 v2
2m
1
2
( )
D. m v.v

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Q.140 The length of a string is 1m, tension in it is 40N and mass of the string is 0.1 kg. Then the
velocity of transverse waves produced in the string will be:
A. 400 ms–1 B. 180 ms–1 C. 80 ms–1 D. 20 ms–1
Q.141 An  − particle is moving through a current carrying solenoid along its axis.
Magnetic force acting on  − particle is
A. ILv B. Bev C. eV D. Zero
Q.142 An external agency carries ‘–5C’ of charge from infinity to a point in an
electrostatic field and performs 100 joule of work. The potential at the given point is
A. 10 V B. –10 V C. 20 V D. –20 V
Q.143 Activity of a sample is initially 320 counts per second. At the end of 90 minutes it gives 40
counts per second. What is the half-life of the element in sample?
A. 30 minutes B. 60 minutes C. 45 minutes D. 75 minutes
Q.144 Hydrogen atom emits blue light when it changes from n=4 energy level to n=2 level.
Which colour of light would the atom emit when it changes from n=5 level to n=2 level?
A. Red B. Yellow C. Violet D. Green
Q.145 A baseball is hit straight up and is caught by the catcher 2.0 s later. The maximum
height of the ball during this interval is:
A. 4.9 m B. 7.4 m C. 9.8 m D. 12.6 m
Q.146 When an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from orbit n=3 to n=2, the wave length
of emitted radiation
R 62 36 5R
A.  = 2 B.  = C.  = D.  =
6 R 5R 36
Q.147 A model car of mass 3 kg is initially at rest. An unbalanced force acts on the model
car, as shown in the following force-time graph.

Determine the change in momentum of the model car at a time of 3 seconds.

A 0.0 kgms-1 B 2.5 kgms-1 C 5.0 kgms-1 D 12.5 kgms-1
Q.148 A simple pendulum is vibrating in an evacuated chamber. It will oscillate with
A. Constant amplitude
B. Increasing amplitude
C. Decreasing amplitude
D. First increasing amplitude and then decreasing amplitude
Q.149 In pair annihilation two gamma rays photons created, travel in opposite direction
not in the same direction, because:
A. This proves law of conservation of energy
B. This proves law of conservation of momentum
C. This proves law of conservation of charge
D. This proves law of conservation of mass-energy
Q.150 An electron and a proton enter a magnetic field perpendicularly. Both have same
kinetic energy. Which of the following is true?
A. Trajectory of electron is less curved B. Both trajectories are equally curved
C. Trajectory of proton is less curved D. Both move on straight-line path
Q.151 A body of mass 5 kg is moving in a circle of radius 1m with an angular velocity of
2 rad/sec. The centripetal force acting on the body is
A. 20 N B. 10 N C. 5N D. 15 N
Q.152 An observer approaches a stationary 1000 Hz sound source at the half speed of
sound. What does frequency is heard by the observer?
A. 400 Hz B. 1500 Hz C. 3000 Hz D. None of these
Q.153 Work done will be zero if angle between Force and displacement is:
A. 0o B. 270o C. 60o D. 360o
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Q.154 A wheel from 1 m diameter makes 60 rev/min. The linear speed of a point on its rim
in m/s is

A.  B. C. 2  D. 3
2
Q.155 The maximum value of displacement from the mean position in a wave is called
A. Height B. Amplitude C. Frequency D. Distance
Q.156 The resistance of silicon decreases with
A. Increase in temperature B. Decrease in temperature
C. Increase in viscosity D. Decreases in velocity
Q.157 The angle through which a body moves is called
A. Angular displacement B. Angular velocity
C. Angular acceleration D. None of these
Q.158 The force acting between two equal point charges distance r apart in air is F. If one
of the charges is rotated about the other in a circle of radius r, the work done will be
A. rF B. 2rF C. 2πrF D. Zero
Q.159 Out of the following, which one is not a source of electrical energy?
A. Solar cell B. Battery C. Potentiometer D. Generator
Q.160 An electron is injected into a uniform magnetic field with components of velocity
parallel to and normal to the field direction. The path of the electron is a
A. Helix B. Parabola C. Circle D. Straight line
Q.161 If a full wave rectifier circuit is operating from 60 Hz mains, the fundamental
frequency in the ripple will be
A. 60 Hz B. 120 Hz C. 70.7 Hz D. 25 Hz
Q.162 The increase in capacitance of a capacitor due to presence of dielectric is due to
_____ dielectric.
A. Electric polarization B. Ionization
C. Electrification D. Electrolysis
Q.163 A wheel of radius 2 m turns through an angle of /6 rad. It lays out a tangential
distance:
A. 2m B. 4m C. 57.3m D. /3m
Q.164 If the value of magnetic flux is 10Wb, when magnetic lines of force containing
magnetic field strength of 1Tesla passing through unit area of 10m 2 then the angle
between magnetic field and unit area is:
A. 180° B. 90o C. 360o D. 0o
T
Q.165 During the interval 0 → the forward biased diode offers
2
A. Very small resistance B. Very high resistance
C. Very small current flow through it D. Zero resistance
Q.166 When wavelength of incident photon is decreased then
A. Velocity of emitted photo-electron decreases
B. Velocity of photoelectron do not charge
C. Velocity of emitted photoelectron increases
D. Photo electric current increases
Q.167 How is energy stored in the capacitor?
A. Magnetic Field B. Gravitation Field C. Electric Field D. All of these
Q.168 Angle 1 radian is equal to
1
A. rev B. 57.3° C. 573° D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
2
Q.169 When length of copper wire is doubled then resistivity becomes:
A. Double B. Half C. Remains same D. Four times
Q.170 A charge of 90 C passes through a wire for 30 seconds. Then the current in the wire
will be:
A. 3 A B. 0.3 A C. 3 mA D. 0.3 mA

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Q.171 Find potential difference in moving 2 C charge which requires 600 J of work
between two points.
A. 1200 V B. 300 V C. 150 V D. 2400 V
Q.172 The S.I unit of capacitance of a capacitor is:
A. Coulomb B. Volt C. Farad D. Ampere
Q.173 During the isothermal process, the temperature
A. Remains constant during the initial phase of the process
B. Remains constant throughout the process
C. Alters throughout the process
D. Increases throughout the process
Q.174 What is the value of heat (Q) in an adiabatic process?
A. +1 B. –1 C. 0 D. +2
Q.175 When a force of 1N displaces its point of application by 1m in the direction of force,
the work done is
A. 1 J B. 10 J C. 0 J D. J
Q.176 How much heat is needed to raise the temperature of a block of copper (with mass
0.5 kg) from 0°C to 100° C? (for copper, c = 386 J / kg oC)
A. 21 kJ B. 19.3 kJ C. 12.4 kJ D. 6.25 kJ

ENGLISH
Q.177 The word 'REPENT' means:
A. Mourn B. Delight C. Relish D. Savour
Q.178 The SYNONYM of "RECONCILE" is:
A. Disrupt B. Resolve C. Disarray D. Alienate
Q.179 The ANTONYM of "SAGACIOUS" is:
A. Stupid B. Perspicacious C. Discriminative D. Learned
Q.180 What is the ANTONYM of ‘SCRUPULOUS’?
A. Villainous B. Conscientious C. Virtuous D. Righteous
Q.181 Fill in the blank with appropriate article as required.
Yesterday _____ European called at my office.
A. A B. An C. The D. No article
Q.182 Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition.
The box was lying___ the front door.
A With B By C. To D. At
Q.183 Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition.
The noise comes ______across the river.
A. From B. At C. beside D. over
STUDY NOTE:
Sometimes the object to a Preposition is an Adverbial Phrase as (across the river)
Q.184 The Town _________ its appearance completely since 1980.
A. Is changing B. Changed C. Has changed D. Changes
Q.185 By next March, we ____________ here for four years.
A. would had been B. would have lived
C. Shall have been living D. shall live
Q.186 Fill in the blank with appropriate option.
The students, accompanied by the teacher, _________ entering the museum.
A. Is B. Has C. Are D. Have
Q.187 Fill in the blank with appropriate option:
None of us _________ beyond a mile.
A. Gone B. Have gone C. Has gone D. Were go
Q.188 Fill in the blank with appropriate option:
I ______________ before 10 p.m.
A. Shall have sleeped B. Shall have slept
C. Will have sleep D. Shall have been slept
Q.189 Pick the correct option:
A. Two and two make four. B. Two and two makes four.
C. Two and two will make four. D. Two and two made four.
Q.190 Pick the correct option:
A. Many a man do not know his own good deeds.
B. Many a man did not knew his own good deeds.
C. Many a man does not know his own good deeds.
D. Many man do not know their own good deeds.
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Q.191 Pick the correct option:
A. Mathematics are a branch of study in every school.
B. Mathematics is a branch of study in every school.
C. Mathematics have been a branch of study in every school.
D. Mathematics was a branch of study in every school.
Q.192 Pick the correct option:
A. Our soldiers were the better drilled than those of enemies.
B. Our soldiers were better drilled than that of enemies.
C. Our soldiers were better drilled from which of enemies.
D. Our soldiers were better drilled than those of enemies.
Q.193 Pick the correct option:
A. The machine printed the stuff which was new fast.
B. The machine which was new printed the stuff fast.
C. The machine which was new printed fast the stuff.
D The machine which was new printed the stuff fastly.
Q.194 Choose the correct sentence:
A. My grandmother often reminded us of her favorite saying; "Patience is a virtue."
B. My grandmother often reminded us of her favorite saying "Patience is a virtue".
C. My grandmother often reminded us of her favorite saying: "Patience is a virtue."
D. My grandmother often reminded us of her favorite saying… "Patience is a virtue."

LOGICAL REASONING
Q.195 A, E, I, M, ?
A. O B. P C. Q D. R
Q.196 Find the wrong term: 10, 15, 24, 35, 54, 75, 100
A. 75 B. 35 C. 15 D. 100
Q.197 Statements:
Some ladies are beautiful. Some beautiful are honest. All honest are sensitive.
Conclusion:
I. Some sensitive are beautiful.
II. Some honest are ladies.
III. Some sensitive are ladies.
A. None of the conclusion follows B. Only conclusion I follows
C. Only conclusions I and II follow D. All conclusions follow
Q.198 Statements:
A  B, B  C, C  D
Conclusions:
I. A  C
II. A = C
A. Only I is true B. Only II is true
C. Either I or II true D. Neither I nor II true
Q.199 Statement:
There has been an unprecedented increase in the number of students applying for
admission to first standard in a local school making it difficult for the school authority to
convince the parents of rejected applicants.
Courses of action:
I) The school authority should immediately put in place objective criteria for
admitting students to select the required number.
II) The school authority should open another school in the area to accommodate the
remaining students.
A. Only I follows B. Only II follows
C. Either I or II follows D. None follows
Q.200 Statements
I. Dental researchers recently discovered that contamination usually occurs after
toothbrushes have been used for four weeks
II. The number of people who replace their toothbrushes at least once a month is
increasing.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect
B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect
C. Both statements I and II are independent causes
D Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

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