Quality Control
Quality Control
QUALITY CONTROL
➢ Example: A car with precise engine tolerances that operate within the
manufacturer's guidelines.
b) Performance:
➢ High performance means the product meets or exceeds the expectations set for
it.
➢ Example: A smartphone that functions quickly, has minimal lag, and supports all
features effectively.
c) Durability:
➢ Durability refers to the longevity and endurance of a product over time and under
different conditions of use.
➢ A durable product retains its performance and appearance even after extensive
use.
➢ Example: A pair of hiking boots that last for many years without deterioration.
d) Reliability:
e) Aesthetics:
➢ Aesthetics are the visual, tactile, and sensory aspects of a product, such as its
design, appearance, and feel.
➢ This characteristic pertains to how the product appeals to the senses, creating a
positive user experience.
f) Features:
g) Ease of Use:
➢ Refers to how easy and intuitive it is for customers to interact with a product or
service.
h) Consistency:
➢ This refers to the ability to produce the same high standard of output every time
the product or service is used or delivered.
➢ Consistency assures users that they will get the same level of quality repeatedly.
i) Customer Satisfaction:
➢ Quality can also be defined by how much value the product offers relative to its
price.
• For Services:
e) Empathy: The provider's ability to understand and care for the customer's
needs.
c) Manufacturing Process:
➢ The methods used to produce or assemble the product directly impact its
quality. High-tech machinery, quality control measures, and skilled labor
contribute to quality output.
➢ Systems in place to ensure that the product meets certain standards (e.g.,
inspections, tests, quality audits) are crucial in maintaining high quality.
Consistent testing prevents defects and substandard products from reaching
customers.
c) Performance Metrics: Quantifiable measures that track how well the product or
service functions over time (e.g., uptime for a software product).
d) Cost of Poor Quality (COPQ): The total cost related to defects, including rework,
scrap, warranty costs, and lost customer goodwill.
• The quality of conformance is concerned with how well the manufactured product
conforms to the quality of design.
• When a design has been established, it is the ask of all responsible for production
planning and manufacturing to obtain a high level of quality of conformity; the
measure of truthfulness with which the product conforms to the design
specifications.
For good quality of conformance with the design. any organization should ensure that:
• The incoming raw materials are of adequate quality. The machines and tools for
the job and the measuring instruments are adequate for their purposes and are
kept at high level of maintenance.
• Proper selection of the process and adequate process control is done.
• The operators should be well trained, experienced and motivated for quality
consciousness.
• Proper care should be taken in shipment and storage of finished goods.
• Inspection programme should be such that it gives accurate measure of the
efficiency of the whole system, and ensures to reduce and sort out defective
products from the lot during processing.
• Feedback from both, the internal inspection and the customers, are obtained
regarding quality for taking corrective action.
• S.Q.C techniques should be used to control variability in manufacturing process.
• Higher quality of design usually costs more, higher quality of conformance
usually costs less, by reducing the number of defective products produced.
The quality of performance is concerned with how well the manufactured product gives
its performance. It depends upon.
• It can be a best design possible, but poor conformance control can cause poor
performance, conversely the best conformance control cannot make the product
function correctly, if the design itself is not right.
• Fitness for use is achieved through two components: product features and freedom
from deficiencies. Product features in manufacturing industries cover performance,
a) Definition:
b) Focus:
c) Approach:
d) Goal:
• Quality Control: The goal of QC is to identify and correct defects in the final
product to meet the desired quality standards.
e) Activities:
f) Timing:
• Quality Control: QC occurs after the production process. It involves checking the
finished product for defects, ensuring that only high-quality products are delivered.
g) Scope:
• Quality Control: QC is more specific and focused on the product itself. It checks
whether the final product conforms to the defined quality standards and
specifications.
h) Examples:
• Quality Assurance:
• Quality Control:
➢ Using statistical tools to monitor quality trends (e.g., sampling for defects in a
production line).
i) Methods:
➢ Sampling methods
➢ Automated inspections.
j) Outcome:
• Quality Control: QC ensures that any defects or issues in the finished product are
identified and corrected, preventing poor-quality products from reaching customers.
Goal Prevent defects by improving processes Detect and correct defects in the final
product
• Positive Word of Mouth: Customers who are pleased with the quality of a product
or service tend to recommend it to others. This creates organic promotion through
word-of-mouth, which is one of the most powerful forms of marketing.
• Reputation and Brand Image: A reputation for delivering quality builds a strong
brand. When a brand is known for its quality, it differentiates itself in the marketplace
and fosters trust with customers.
• Minimized Warranty and Return Costs: Products with fewer defects or failures
lead to fewer warranty claims and returns. This helps businesses save money on
repairs, replacements, and logistics.
• Brand Loyalty and Repeat Business: As mentioned earlier, customers who trust in
the consistent quality of a brand are more likely to return and even recommend it to
others. This loyalty provides companies with a competitive edge.
• Higher Market Share: Companies that provide better quality may attract more
customers, increasing their market share. In contrast, lower-quality products can lead
to loss of customers and diminished market position.
• Health and Safety: In industries like healthcare, food production, and construction,
quality is directly tied to safety. Substandard products or services can lead to accidents,
injuries, or health risks, which can be disastrous both financially and reputationally.
• Reduced Rework and Stress: When quality processes are in place, employees spend
less time correcting mistakes, handling complaints, or dealing with issues that arise
from poor-quality products. This reduces workplace stress and improves job
satisfaction.
• Attracting Talent: Companies known for their commitment to quality often attract
better talent. High-caliber professionals are more likely to seek employment in
organizations that align with their values and standards of excellence.
• Reputation for Excellence: Companies that are known for quality tend to enjoy a
strong reputation in the marketplace. This can lead to positive media coverage,
recognition from industry bodies, and a stronger position in the marketplace.
Questions
A) Low cost
B) Durability
D) Simple design
Q3. Which of the following best describes the difference between Quality Assurance and
Quality Control?
Q4. Which of the following would be considered an example of a product's aesthetic quality?
A) Durability of a smartphone
Q6. Which of the following is the primary focus of Quality Assurance (QA)?
Q7. What is the key difference between Quality Assurance (QA) and Quality Control (QC)?
A) Statistical sampling
C) Product testing
Q9. Which of the following best describes the goal of Quality Control (QC)?
Q10. When does Quality Assurance (QA) primarily take place during production?
A) After production
B) During production
C) Before production
Solutions
1. Answer: B) Preventing defects by improving processes
Explanation:
A) Inspecting finished products for defects: This is related to Quality Control (QC), not
QA. QA is proactive, while QC is reactive.
D) Correcting errors after the product is released: This is also part of QC, which focuses
on identifying and fixing defects in finished products.
2. Answer: B) Durability
Explanation:
A) Low cost: Low cost does not necessarily indicate high quality. Quality often involves a
balance between cost and performance.
C) High manufacturing speed: Manufacturing speed does not directly affect the quality of
the product. High-speed production may compromise quality.
D) Simple design: While simple design can be effective, it doesn't inherently reflect the
quality of the product. Quality is about how well it performs and meets customer expectations.
Explanation:
D) QA is used to increase costs, while QC is used to reduce costs: This is not accurate.
Both QA and QC aim to optimize processes and improve quality, which may reduce costs in
the long term.
B) The color and design of the smartphone: Correct. Aesthetic quality refers to the visual,
tactile, and sensory aspects of a product, such as design, color, and appearance.
C) The screen resolution of the smartphone: This is a functional attribute related to the
product's performance, not aesthetic quality.
D) The battery life of the smartphone: This is a performance-related feature, not related to
aesthetics.
Explanation:
C) The product’s ability to perform well under various conditions: This refers to
performance quality, not conformance to specifications.
D) The product’s aesthetic appeal: This is related to the visual or sensory quality, not
specifications.
Explanation:
A) Identifying defects in the finished product: This describes Quality Control (QC), which
focuses on inspecting the finished product to detect defects.
D) Correcting product defects in the final stage: This is part of QC, which addresses issues
after they occur, whereas QA works to prevent them.
Explanation:
D) QA deals with process design, and QC deals with sales: This is incorrect. QC deals with
inspecting and testing products, while QA deals with ensuring that processes meet quality
standards.
Explanation:
C) Product testing: Product testing is generally a QC activity used to find defects in the final
product.
D) Final product inspection: This is part of QC, where products are inspected to ensure they
meet the required quality standards.
Explanation:
A) Ensuring the processes are designed correctly: This is part of QA, which focuses on
process design and improvement.
D) Conducting process audits for improvements: Process audits are part of QA, which
looks to improve processes to ensure product quality.
Explanation:
A) After production: QA activities are not just after production; they occur throughout the
process, from design to delivery.
C) Before production: While QA starts with process design and planning before production,
it also involves ongoing monitoring during production.
D) During the shipping stage: QA is focused on production processes, not the shipping stage.
Explanation:
A) It ensures that customers are always happy with the price: While price is important,
quality impacts how well the product or service meets customer needs, which goes beyond
just price.
C) It eliminates the need for marketing: Quality is important, but marketing still plays a
crucial role in promoting a product or service.
D) It focuses only on the physical appearance of the product: While aesthetics matter,
quality includes performance, durability, and customer experience, not just appearance.
Explanation:
A) By requiring fewer resources to produce the product: High quality doesn’t always
reduce resource use but rather optimizes production processes.
D) By lowering the price of the product: Quality is often associated with higher prices, not
necessarily lower. The focus is on value and performance.
Explanation:
A) Increased market share and customer loyalty: Correct. Consistently providing high-
quality products or services builds a strong reputation, attracts more customers, and fosters
loyalty, which helps in increasing market share.
B) Immediate increase in profits: While quality can lead to higher profits over time, the
impact is long-term, not immediate.
C) Fewer employees required: High quality may require a well-trained workforce, not
necessarily fewer employees.
Explanation:
A) It builds trust and credibility in the market: Correct. High-quality products and services
create a strong, trustworthy reputation, which is essential for long-term business success.
B) It makes the company more expensive to operate: While high quality may involve
investment, the long-term benefits (e.g., customer loyalty, fewer returns) outweigh the costs.
D) It eliminates the need for customer service: High quality reduces the number of service
issues, but customer service remains necessary for addressing concerns and feedback.
15. Answer: A) High quality improves employee job satisfaction and morale
A) High quality improves employee job satisfaction and morale: Correct. Employees feel
proud of working for a company that produces high-quality products and services, leading to
higher job satisfaction.
B) High quality leads to more employee turnover: This is not true; employees are more
likely to stay with a company known for producing high-quality products.
C) High quality requires fewer employees to produce products: High quality often
requires skilled employees to maintain standards, not necessarily fewer employees.
D) High quality results in more administrative tasks for employees: High quality should
streamline processes, reducing unnecessary administrative burdens.
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Q1. Which of the following is a key benefit of implementing a Total Quality Management
(TQM) system?
A) Reducing the need for process documentation
B) Achieving higher customer satisfaction
C) Increasing the speed of production
D) Lowering product prices
Q2. What is the term used to describe the ability of a product to consistently perform its
intended function over time?
A) Durability
B) Reliability
C) Performance
D) Aesthetics
Q3. Which of the following is a characteristic of a product with high quality in terms of
serviceability?
A) It is easy and inexpensive to repair
B) It performs exceptionally well
C) It has a sleek and modern design
D) It is available in multiple colors
Q4. What is the most important factor in determining the value for money of a product?
A) Its performance and features relative to its price
B) Its aesthetic appeal
C) Its brand reputation
D) Its packaging
Q5. Which of the following would best indicate a product's conformance to quality
standards?
A) Customer feedback
B) The product meets regulatory requirements
C) The product is visually appealing
D) The product is frequently tested for defects
Q6. What is the key benefit of implementing Quality Assurance?
A) Reducing defects in the final product
B) Preventing defects from occurring during production
C) Enhancing the aesthetic appeal of the product
D) Increasing the speed of production
Q7. Which of the following is a tool commonly used in Quality Control?
A) Process mapping
B) Fishbone diagram
Solutions
1. Answer: B) Achieving higher customer satisfaction
Explanation:
A) Reducing the need for process documentation: TQM encourages thorough
documentation and standardization of processes, not reducing them.
B) Achieving higher customer satisfaction: Correct. TQM focuses on continuous
improvement, customer feedback, and reducing defects, all of which lead to higher customer
satisfaction.
C) Increasing the speed of production: TQM focuses on quality improvement, not
necessarily speed.
D) Lowering product prices: TQM does not directly focus on lowering prices, but it does
improve efficiency, which may indirectly reduce costs.
2.Answer: B) Reliability
Explanation:
A) Durability: This refers to the product’s ability to last over time, but not necessarily its
consistency in performance.
B) Reliability: Correct. Reliability refers to how consistently a product performs its intended
function over time without failure.
C) Performance: This refers to how well the product works or performs, but not necessarily
its consistency over time.
D) Aesthetics: Aesthetics pertains to the visual and sensory qualities of a product, not its
reliability.
3. Answer: A) It is easy and inexpensive to repair
Explanation:
A) It is easy and inexpensive to repair: Correct. Serviceability refers to how easily and cost-
effectively a product can be repaired or maintained.
B) It performs exceptionally well: This relates more to the performance of the product, not
its serviceability.
C) It has a sleek and modern design: This relates to the aesthetic qualities of the product, not
its serviceability.
D) It is available in multiple colors: This is an aesthetic feature, not a characteristic of
serviceability.
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QUALITY CONTROL
b) Control Charts:
• Control charts (also called Shewhart charts) are one of the primary tools used in
SPC. They visually display process data over time and help identify trends, shifts,
or outliers that suggest problems.
➢ Upper Control Limit (UCL) and Lower Control Limit (LCL): These are
the boundaries of acceptable variation. If the process data points fall outside
these limits, the process is considered to be out of control.
➢ Data Points: These represent the actual process measurements over time.
c) Types of Control Charts: Control charts are tailored to different types of data and
processes:
• X-bar and R Charts: Used for monitoring the mean (average) and range of a
process when the data is collected in subgroups (e.g., samples of 5 units).
• X-bar and S Charts: Similar to X-bar and R charts but used when the standard
deviation is known or when sample sizes are large.
• np-Chart: Used for monitoring the number of defective items in a sample, similar
to a p-chart but with fixed sample sizes.
• u-Chart: Used for monitoring the number of defects per unit in a process when
the sample size can vary.
d) Process Capability:
• The most common measure of process capability is the Cp index, which compares
the process spread to the specification limits. A value of Cp > 1 indicates that the
process can meet the specifications consistently. If Cp < 1, the process may not be
capable of producing products within specifications.
• Cp: Compares the width of the process distribution to the width of the
specification limits. It does not consider the process mean.
• Cpk: Similar to Cp, but it also accounts for how centered the process is. A higher
Cpk indicates better capability.
• Organize the collected data and plot it on a control chart. The chart will have
control limits based on historical data or specifications, with the central line
representing the process mean or target value.
• Data points that fall outside the control limits indicate potential issues that
require investigation.
• Analyze the control chart for patterns. A process is considered "in control" if the
data points fluctuate randomly within the control limits, with no clear trends or
outliers.
• Outliers: Data points that fall far outside the control limits.
• If special cause variation is detected (i.e., points outside the control limits or
unusual patterns), investigate to identify the root cause. This could involve
checking equipment, reviewing operator actions, or evaluating external factors
that might affect the process.
• Once the special causes are identified, corrective actions can be taken to bring
the process back into control. This might involve fixing equipment, changing
procedures, or training employees.
• SPC helps identify and eliminate sources of variation, leading to less waste, fewer
defective products, and better resource utilization.
c) Cost Savings:
• By reducing defects and improving efficiency, SPC can lower production costs
and prevent expensive recalls or rework.
• SPC provides data-driven insights into the health of a process, allowing managers
and operators to make informed decisions based on real-time data rather than
guesswork.
• With fewer defects and more consistent product quality, customer satisfaction
increases, leading to better customer retention and brand reputation.
f) Continuous Improvement:
• SPC is only effective if the data collected is accurate, representative, and timely.
Poor data collection methods or incomplete data can lead to incorrect conclusions.
• While SPC can identify when a process is out of control, it doesn't always explain
why. Identifying the underlying causes of variation requires additional problem-
solving tools (such as root cause analysis or fishbone diagrams).
A) Probability Sampling:
In probability sampling, each member of the population has a known and non-zero
chance of being selected. This type of sampling is advantageous because it allows for the
calculation of sampling error and generalization of results to the larger population. The
main probability sampling techniques are:
• Definition: Each member of the population has an equal chance of being selected. It
is the most basic and straightforward type of probability sampling.
• Advantages:
➢ No bias in selection.
• Disadvantages:
b) Systematic Sampling:
• Definition: Involves selecting every nth item from a list or population after choosing
a random starting point.
• How it works: After selecting a random starting point, every nth element in the
population is selected for inclusion in the sample.
• Example: If you want a sample of 10 from a population of 100, you might select
every 10th item after randomly choosing a starting point between 1 and 10.
• Advantages:
➢ Still ensures randomness if the population list does not follow any specific order.
• Disadvantages:
➢ If there’s an underlying pattern in the population that aligns with the sampling
interval, this could introduce bias.
c) Stratified Sampling:
• Definition: The population is divided into different subgroups, or strata, that share
similar characteristics (e.g., age, income, education), and then a sample is taken from
each stratum.
• Advantages:
• Disadvantages:
d) Cluster Sampling:
• Definition: The population is divided into clusters, and a random sample of clusters
is selected. All or a random sample of elements from the chosen clusters are then
included in the sample.
• How it works: Divide the population into clusters (often based on geographic
location or other natural groupings), randomly select some clusters, and then collect
data from all or a random subset of individuals within the selected clusters.
• Example: A city is divided into different neighborhoods (clusters), and you randomly
select a few neighborhoods to survey all households in those neighborhoods.
• Advantages:
• Disadvantages:
➢ May increase sampling error if the clusters are not homogenous (i.e., the people
within each cluster differ significantly from each other).
e) Multistage Sampling:
• How it works: For example, you could first use cluster sampling to select several
regions, then use simple random sampling to select individual households within
those regions.
• Example: A researcher might first sample entire schools (clusters), then sample
individual classrooms within those schools, and then finally select students randomly
within those classrooms.
• Advantages:
• Disadvantages:
• Can introduce more sampling errors, especially if the stages are poorly executed.
B) Non-Probability Sampling:
In non-probability sampling, the selection of individuals is not random. Some
individuals have a higher chance of being selected, and the results cannot be generalized
to the population as precisely as in probability sampling. This technique is often used
when probability sampling is not feasible due to cost or time constraints.
a) Convenience Sampling:
• Definition: The sample is taken from a group that is easy to access or convenient for
the researcher.
• Advantages:
• Disadvantages:
➢ Limited generalizability.
• How it works: The researcher deliberately chooses individuals who are deemed
representative of the population or who possess specific qualities relevant to the
study.
• Advantages:
• Disadvantages:
c) Snowball Sampling:
• How it works: One participant refers another, and those referred participants may
refer others, creating a chain of recruitment.
• Example: Studying a hidden population like drug users or individuals with rare
medical conditions.
• Advantages:
➢ Can lead to bias because the sample may not represent the population accurately.
d) Quota Sampling:
• Definition: The researcher ensures that certain characteristics are represented in the
sample in proportion to their prevalence in the population. However, selection within
the quotas is non-random.
• How it works: The researcher divides the population into subgroups (e.g., by gender,
age, income), and then selects participants from each subgroup to meet a
predetermined quota.
• Example: A researcher might ensure that 50% of the sample is female, 30% is male,
and 20% is non-binary, based on the population's gender distribution.
• Advantages:
• Disadvantages:
C) Acceptance sampling
• Acceptance sampling is the process of evaluating a portion of the product/ material in
a lot for the purpose of accepting or rejecting the lot as either conforming or not
conforming to quality specifications.
• The process of performing a check of raw materials, components and parts supplied
by the vendors is called incoming inspection. Similarly, before dispatching a lot of
finished goods to the customers, an outgoing inspection is done. For both of these,
incoming and outgoing inspection, acceptance sampling may be used.
• In 100% inspection all the parts or products are subjected to inspection, whereas in
sampling inspection only a sample is drawn from the lot and inspected. A sample
may be defined as the number of items drawn from a lot, batch or population for
inspection purposes.
• However, 100% inspection will be required when the lots contain items that are
critical in nature and any failure at a later stage of assembling or performance may
result in high cost of replacement or rework. 100% inspection may also be useful for
lots of expensive items having a very low volume of annual consumption.
• Acceptance sampling does not control or improve the quality level of the process.
As stressed previously, quality cannot be inspected into a product or service; quality
must be designed and built into it. Because of the very
• When a decision on acceptance or rejection of the lot is made on the basis of only
one sample, the acceptance plan is known as a single sampling plan.
• If N is the lot size from which the sample is drawn. n is the sample size, c is the
number of allowable defectives in the sample, then the sampling plan shown in figure
below is applicable.
• Example: In the sampling plan, if N = lot size = 500, n = sample size = 50, c =
acceptance number = 10, it means that if we take a sample of 50 items from a lot of
500, and if the sample contains more than 10 defective item then the lot gets rejected,
otherwise the lot is accepted.
• Take a first sample of 25 items from a lot of 500 and inspect it.
• Accept the lot on the basis of the first sample if it contains 0 or 1 defective item
• Reject the lot on the basis of the first sample if it contains more than 4 defective
items
• Accept the lot on the basis of the first and second sample combined, if the combined
sample of 65 items contains 4 or less defective items.
• Reject the lot on the basis of the combined sample if the combined sample contains
more than 4 defective items.
• 4 defective items in the first sample followed by 0 defective items in the second
sample.
• The probability of accepting the lot is the sum of probabilities of the different ways
in which it may be accepted.
• Although double sampling plans are more complicated than single sampling plans,
usually fewer items need to be sampled, on average, to make a decision regarding
the lot. This is because a demonstration of extremely good or extremely poor batch
quality in the first sample causes acceptance or rejection of the lot without the need
for a second sample.
• In this plan, a decision to accept or reject a lot is taken after inspecting more than
two samples.
• A multiple sampling plan will generally involve less total inspection, than the
corresponding single or double sampling plan guranteeing the same protection. But
they usually require higher administrative costs and higher calibre inspection
personnel may be necessary to guarantee proper use of the plans.
• The ultimate extension of the multiple sampling plan is the sequential sampling plan,
which is an item-by-item inspection plan.
• After each item is inspected, a decision is made to accept the lot, reject the lot, or
choose another item for inspection, depending on whether the observed cumulative
number of nonconforming items is less than or equal to the acceptance number,
greater than or equal to the rejection number, or in between the two.
➢ Stratified sampling
➢ Systematic sampling
➢ Cluster sampling
• Pareto Chart
• Flow Chart
• Scatter Plot
• Check Sheet
• Histogram
• Control Chart
a) Pareto Chart
• It is given by Vilfredo Pareto, an Italian economist.
• It supports 80/20 rule, which states that approx "80% of problem are created by
approx 20% of cause".
• Pareto chart helps in identifying and distinguishing the vital few factors from the
trivial many. Thus, by finding out and eliminating few (unnecessary) factors, most
of the problems can be solved.
• The exact percentages (80/20) may vary in different situations but the sense is that
most of the problem are caused by very few factors.
• Pareto chart help prioritize problems by arranging them in descending order of
importance, from left to right in a bar diagram.
• In an environment of limited resources, these diagrams help companies decide on
the order in which they should address problems.
b) Flow Chart
• It is a pictorial diagram which shows the sequence of events in a process.
• A flow chart would allow pin pointing of key problem areas that contribute to a
particular problem.
• Flow charts help in visualising and understanding a process, and also in finding
flaws and bottle necks in a process.
• Commonly used symbols in flow charts
c) Cause-and-Effect Diagrams
• Cause-and-effect diagrams were developed by Kaoru Ishikawa and thus are often
called Ishikawa diagram.
• They are also known as fishbone diagrams because of their appearance (in the plotted
form).
• These diagrams are used to identify and attributed to a problem (or an effect). These
diagrams thus help determine which of several causes has the greatest effect.
• A cause-and-effect diagram can aid in identifying the reasons why a process goes out
of control Alternatively, if a process is stable, these diagrams can help management
decide which causes to investigate for process improvement.
• It is known as a fishbone diagram because of its shape, similar to the side view of a
fish skeleton. The defect is shown as the fish's head, facing to the right, with the
causes extending to the left as fishbones; the ribs branch off the backbone for major
causes, with sub-branches for root-causes to as many levels as required.
• The causes emerge by analysis, often through brainstorming sessions, and are
grouped into categories on the main branches off the fishbone. Each potential cause
is traced back to find the root cause, often using the why-why analysis. After
determining the root cause, the causes may be prioritised to determine which are
having the largest effect and which are easy to fix or control.
d) Scatter Plots
• The scatterplot consists of plotting data to depict the relationship between two
variables.
• When we analyze processes, the relationship between a controllable variable and a
desired quality characteristic is frequently of importance. Knowing this relationship
may help us decide how to set a controllable variable to achieve a desired level for
the output characteristic.
• The measured or dependent variable is customarily plotted along the vertical axis.
Subsequently, a correlation, if it exists, may be established between the two
variables. For example, weight and height, weight would be on y axis and height
would be on the x axis.
• Correlations may be positive (rising), negative (falling), or null (uncorrelated). If
the pattern of dots slopes from lower left to upper right, it indicates a positive
correlation between the variables being studied. If the pattern of dots slopes from
upper left to lower right, it indicates a negative correlation.
e) Check Sheet
• A check sheet is a structured, prepared form for collecting and analysing data in real
time at the location where the data is generated.
• This is a generic tool that can be adapted for a wide variety of purposes.
• The pattern and distribution of data helps in analysing the causes for problems.
f) Histogram
• It is a bar graph that shows the distribution of data. It is used to determine the spread
and variation of data point in graphical from.
• It is most commonly used graph to show frequency distribution. It provides the easiest
way to evaluate the distribution of data.
139.5 – 149.5 6
149.5 – 1595 9
159.5 – 169.5 7
169.5 – 179.5 5
179.5 – 189.5 2
189.5 – 199.5 1
The above figure tells us about the variation of height among the people.
g) Control Chart
• A control chart is a graphical tool for monitoring the activity of an ongoing process.
Walter Shewhart first proposed their general theory. Hence, controlled charts are
sometimes referred to as Shewhart control charts.
• Control charts contain three lines. The centreline (CL) which represents the average
value of the quality characteristic being plotted, is an indication of where the process
is centered. Control charts contain two lines on either side of the centreline, known
as upper control limit (UCL) and lower control limit (LCL).
• Control charts tell whether a process is under control or out of control. If the points
plotted in the control chart fall randomly within the UCL and LCL and don't show
any identifiable non-random pattern, then it will be said that the process is under
control.
• On the other hand, if a point falls outside the control limits or points lie within the
control limits but show any particular non-random pattern, then it is said that the
process has gone out of control.
• In the control chart, the value of the quality characteristics are plotted along the
vertical axis and the horizontal axis represents samples from which the quality
characteristic are found. The quality characteristics are obtained from the inspection
of items in the samples.
• Quality characteristics are of two types - variables and attributes. Variable are those
quality characteristics, which can be measured, ex length, diameter, weight etc.
Thus numerical values can be obtained for these variable quality characteristics.
Attributes are those quality characteristics which are expressed in terms of good or
bad, defective or non-defective, conformity or non-conformity etc. Ex - proportion
of defectives, number of defects in a unit etc.
• Variation and quality are opposite to each other. The more the variation, lower will
be the quality and vice-versa. Thus, to improve the quality, variation in the quality
characteristic of the product should be minimised.
• Variations are of two types: (1) Natural variations, or common cause variations or
variations due to chance factors and (2) special cause variations or variations due to
assignable factors.
• Variations due to the common causes are always present in the process. Their
magnitude is small. These can't be eliminated but can be reduced, through quality
improvement. If these variations are present, then the points will fall randomly
within the control limits in the control chart and the process will be under control.
• The pattern of the plot on the control chart can diagnose possible causes and hence
can indicate possible remedial actions.
• Since variation is a part of any process, hence the control chart shows that when the
variation is normal due to common causes only and so no correction action is
needed.
• If the control chart shows a process to be in statistical control, we can estimate the
capability of the process and hence its ability to meet customer's requirements. This
helps the product and process design.
• Control charts also provide useful information regarding actions to take for quality
improvement.
a) Visual Inspection
Process:
Purpose:
Advantages:
Limitations:
• Limited to visible defects and cannot detect internal problems like stress fractures or
hidden flaws.
• Subjectivity in judgment, depending on the inspector’s skill and experience.
b) Dimension Inspection
Process:
• Common tools used include calipers (vernier, digital, or micrometer), height gauges,
optical comparators, and coordinate measuring machines (CMM).
• Measurement can be done manually or with automated systems, and the data can be
compared to the blueprint specifications.
• Tolerances (acceptable limits for variation) are predefined, and deviations outside
these tolerances can indicate manufacturing issues.
Purpose:
Advantages:
Limitations:
• Does not detect hidden defects or irregularities like cracks or internal stresses.
c) Functional Testing
Definition: Functional testing ensures that the product or component works as intended
under normal operating conditions. It involves testing the actual performance of the
item.
Process:
• For electrical devices, this might involve checking the power output, battery life, or
signal strength.
• For mechanical systems, it could involve checking the smooth operation of gears,
pistons, or any moving parts.
Purpose:
Advantages:
Limitations:
• Not suitable for all types of products (e.g., products with non-repetitive functions).
d) Destructive Testing
Process:
• Common tests include tensile testing, impact testing, fatigue testing, and fracture
testing, where samples are subjected to stress, pressure, or other extreme conditions.
• Tensile testing measures how a material stretches under tension until it breaks.
• Impact testing evaluates how a material reacts to a sudden force or shock, typically
using a pendulum-type impact tester.
• Fatigue testing assesses the number of cycles a material can withstand before failure
due to repeated stress.
• Fracture toughness testing evaluates the ability of a material to resist crack
propagation.
Purpose:
Advantages:
QUESTIONS
2. Which type of control chart would be most appropriate for monitoring the number of defects
in a batch of products where the sample size varies?
a) p-chart
b) u-chart
c) np-chart
d) c-chart
3. In an SPC context, what does a "point outside the control limits" typically indicate?
4. When performing an X-bar chart, what does a "run" of 7 consecutive points all above the
centerline indicate?
5. Which of the following best describes the concept of "process capability" in SPC?
6. Which of the following best describes the primary use of a Pareto chart?
9. Which of the following tools would be most useful for identifying the frequency of different
types of defects in a manufacturing process?
a) Histogram
b) Pareto chart
c) Scatter diagram
d) Control chart
13. Which of the following types of testing would be most appropriate for identifying defects
in the internal structure of a material without causing damage?
a) Destructive testing
b) Visual inspection
d) Functional testing
14. Which of the following inspection methods is most suitable for detecting surface cracks in
a metal part?
a) Ultrasonic testing
b) Visual inspection
d) X-ray testing
15. What is the main advantage of using automated inspection systems over manual inspection?
16. Which of the following best describes the purpose of acceptance sampling?
18. In acceptance sampling, what does the "lot size" refer to?
20. In a typical acceptance sampling plan, what does the "acceptance number" refer to?
a) The maximum number of defective items allowed in a sample for the lot to be accepted
Explanation of Options:
a) To determine the cause of process variation: Control charts help identify when a process is
out of control, but they don’t pinpoint the specific cause of variation. Root cause analysis would
be needed for that.
c) To monitor the stability of a process over time: Correct. Control charts help assess whether
a process is stable (in-control) or if variation is occurring that needs attention (out-of-control).
d) To predict future performance of the process: Control charts do not predict future
performance. They track current performance and identify variations that may require
corrective actions.
2. Answer: b) u-chart
Explanation of Options:
a) p-chart: This chart is used to monitor the proportion of defective items in a sample when the
sample size is constant. It is not appropriate when the sample size varies.
b) u-chart: Correct. The u-chart is used for monitoring the number of defects per unit when
sample size varies. It accounts for the varying sample size in each subgroup.
c) np-chart: The np-chart is used to track the number of defectives in a fixed sample size, so
it’s inappropriate when sample sizes vary.
d) c-chart: This chart tracks the number of defects per unit in situations where the sample size
remains constant. It does not work when the sample size changes.
Explanation of Options:
a) The process is in statistical control: A point outside control limits indicates an out-of-control
condition, meaning the process is not in control.
b) The process is stable and predictable: A point outside control limits suggests instability and
predictability issues.
c) A special cause of variation has occurred: Correct. A point outside the control limits suggests
that a special cause (a non-random event) is influencing the process.
d) The process is experiencing random variation: Random variation usually stays within control
limits. A point outside control limits signals something unusual or non-random.
a) The process is in control: A run of 7 points all above the centerline suggests something out
of the ordinary, so the process is not in control.
b) There is a special cause of variation: Correct. A sequence of 7 consecutive points on one side
of the centerline typically signals a special cause of variation.
c) The process is statistically stable: A sequence of 7 points on one side of the centerline implies
instability in the process.
d) The process is experiencing random variation: Random variation should not show trends or
runs like this. Such patterns suggest special cause variation.
Explanation of Options:
a) The ability of the process to produce output without variation: This is an unrealistic
expectation. All processes have some level of variation.
b) The degree to which a process meets customer specifications: Correct. Process capability
refers to how well the output of a process meets the specifications or tolerances defined by
customers or product design.
c) The ability of a process to remain stable over time: While stability is important, process
capability focuses on meeting specifications, not stability alone.
d) The difference between the upper and lower control limits: This defines the control limits of
a process, not its capability to meet specifications.
Explanation of Options:
a) To identify the root cause of defects: A Pareto chart helps identify the significant factors
contributing to a problem but does not directly identify the root cause.
b) To track the performance of a process over time: A Pareto chart is not used for tracking
performance over time. It is used to prioritize issues based on frequency or impact.
c) To display the most significant factors contributing to a problem: Correct. The Pareto chart
is based on the Pareto Principle (80/20 rule) and helps highlight the most frequent or impactful
causes.
7. Answer: b) It allows the user to analyze the root causes of a problem systematically
Explanation of Options:
a) It helps in collecting data from different sources: The Fishbone diagram doesn’t focus on
data collection, it focuses on categorizing potential causes of a problem.
b) It allows the user to analyze the root causes of a problem systematically: Correct. The
Fishbone diagram helps to systematically categorize and analyze potential root causes of a
problem.
c) It tracks the changes in process over time: This is more relevant to control charts or run
charts, not a Fishbone diagram.
d) It identifies potential process improvements: While Fishbone diagrams are great for
identifying causes, they do not directly identify solutions or improvements.
Explanation of Options:
a) The relationship between input and output in a process: This is the focus of scatter diagrams
or process flow diagrams, not control charts.
b) The frequency of defects in a product: Control charts monitor process variation, not just the
frequency of defects.
c) The variation in a process over time: Correct. Control charts track the stability and variation
within a process over time and help detect any out-of-control situations.
d) The percentage of defect-free products: This is more aligned with a defect rate chart like a
p-chart, not a control chart.
Explanation of Options:
a) Histogram: A histogram displays the distribution of a single set of data points, such as the
frequency of measurements. It doesn't focus on the categories of defects.
b) Pareto chart: Correct. A Pareto chart is used to show the frequency or significance of
different categories of problems, allowing you to focus on the most important ones.
d) Control chart: A control chart is used to monitor process stability over time, not to identify
the frequency of different types of defects.
Explanation of Options:
a) To predict future defects in a process: Histograms are not used for prediction; they visualize
the distribution of existing data.
b) To show the distribution of data and identify patterns: Correct. A histogram provides a visual
representation of data distribution, helping to identify patterns and variations.
c) To track the causes of defects over time: This is more suited to control charts or Fishbone
diagrams, not histograms.
d) To compare actual performance against a target: This is more appropriate for tools like
control charts, not histograms.
Explanation of Options:
a) To evaluate the process capability: Process capability evaluation typically uses non-
destructive methods and statistical tools like control charts, not destructive testing.
b) To ensure that products meet customer specifications: Destructive testing focuses on testing
the material's strength and properties by failure, not simply ensuring specification
conformance.
c) To assess the physical properties of a material by causing failure: Correct. Destructive testing
is used to measure the limits of materials and components by intentionally causing failure to
understand their properties under stress (e.g., tensile testing, impact testing).
12. Answer: c) A measuring tool used to determine if a part meets specified tolerances
Explanation of Options:
b) A device used to test the visual appearance of a product: Visual appearance is assessed
through visual inspection, not a go/no-go gauge.
c) A measuring tool used to determine if a part meets specified tolerances: Correct. A go/no-go
gauge is a simple tool used in inspection to verify whether a part meets the specified size or
dimensional tolerances. It has two elements: one for the "go" side (acceptance) and one for the
"no-go" side (rejection).
d) A tool that analyzes the chemical composition of a material: Chemical analysis would require
a different kind of testing equipment, such as spectrometers or chemical testing kits.
Explanation of Options:
a) Destructive testing: Destructive testing is used to determine how a material fails under stress,
but it causes permanent damage to the product.
b) Visual inspection: Visual inspection can detect surface defects but does not provide insight
into internal structural issues.
c) Non-destructive testing (NDT): Correct. NDT allows for the examination of internal
structures (e.g., X-ray, ultrasonic, magnetic particle testing) without causing any damage to the
material.
d) Functional testing: Functional testing verifies that the product performs according to its
intended function but does not assess internal material properties or defects.
Explanation of Options:
a) Ultrasonic testing: Ultrasonic testing is primarily used for detecting internal flaws in
materials, not surface cracks.
b) Visual inspection: Visual inspection can be effective for detecting visible surface cracks, but
it may not identify small or hidden defects.
c) Eddy current testing: Correct. Eddy current testing is highly effective for detecting surface
cracks and other surface defects in conductive materials like metals.
15. Answer: b) They allow for faster, more consistent, and repeatable inspections
Explanation of Options:
a) They eliminate the need for quality standards: Automated inspection systems still need to
follow quality standards to ensure consistent product quality.
b) They allow for faster, more consistent, and repeatable inspections: Correct. Automated
inspection systems can inspect parts more quickly and with higher consistency and
repeatability than manual inspection, reducing human error.
c) They reduce the need for employee training: While automation may reduce the need for
certain manual tasks, employees still need training to operate and maintain the system.
d) They are less expensive to implement in the long term: Automation systems can have high
upfront costs, though they may save money in the long term due to increased efficiency and
reduced labor costs.
16. Answer: c) To decide whether a batch of products should be accepted or rejected based
on a sample
Explanation of Options:
b) To determine the root cause of defects in a batch of products: Acceptance sampling is not
used for root cause analysis; it’s a decision tool for batch acceptance.
d) To measure the specific dimensions of a product: Dimension measurement is not the focus
of acceptance sampling; it deals with the acceptability of the entire batch.
17. Answer: b) The maximum defect rate that is acceptable in a batch of products
Explanation of Options:
b) The maximum defect rate that is acceptable in a batch of products: Correct. AQL is the
maximum percentage of defective units allowed in a batch before the batch is rejected.
c) The number of products that must be tested in a batch: The number of products tested is
determined by the sampling plan, not by the AQL.
d) The threshold at which all products in a batch must be tested: AQL doesn’t require testing
all units; it determines the acceptable defect level in the sample.
Explanation of Options:
a) The number of units in a sample: The sample size is separate from the lot size. The lot size
refers to the entire batch.
b) The total number of products produced in a batch: Correct. Lot size refers to the total number
of products in a batch or production run.
c) The number of defective units in a batch: This refers to the number of defective items in a
batch, not the total lot size.
d) The number of units that pass the inspection: The number of passing units is a result of the
inspection, not the definition of lot size.
19. Answer: b) It specifies the number of units that must be inspected in a batch
Explanation of Options:
a) It determines the total number of defects allowed in a batch: The sample size does not directly
determine the number of defects allowed; that is the role of the acceptance quality limit (AQL).
b) It specifies the number of units that must be inspected in a batch: Correct. The sample size
is the number of units selected from the batch to inspect.
c) It defines the acceptable defect rate in a batch: This is the role of the AQL, not the sample
size.
d) It defines the number of defect-free products needed to accept a batch: The sample size is
about how many products to inspect, not how many need to be defect-free for acceptance.
Explanation of Options:
a) The maximum number of defective items allowed in a sample for the lot to be accepted:
Correct. The acceptance number is the highest number of defective items allowed in the sample
for the batch to be accepted.
b) The number of defects found in the sample after inspection: The acceptance number is the
threshold for defective items, not the number found.
c) The number of products that must be inspected before making a decision: This is related to
the sample size, not the acceptance number.
d) The total number of products in the batch: This refers to the lot size, not the acceptance
number.
How to connect?
Q2. Which of the following actions is appropriate when a process is found to be "out of control"
in SPC?
a) The number of standard deviations between the process mean and the closest specification
limit
Q4. What is the difference between "common cause variation" and "special cause variation"?
a) Common cause variation is usually easier to identify than special cause variation
b) Special cause variation is inherent to the process, while common cause variation is due to
external factors
c) Common cause variation is the random variation inherent to the process, while special cause
variation comes from external factors
d) It determines the minimum sample size needed for a valid process measurement
Q7. In which scenario would a flow chart be most useful in quality control?
Q9. Which of the following tools would be most useful for detecting process trends and shifts
over time?
a) Histogram
b) Control chart
c) Fishbone diagram
Q10. How does the seven basic quality control tools contribute to continuous improvement?
a) They provide a framework for identifying, analyzing, and solving problems systematically
Q11 .Which of the following is a key disadvantage of using destructive testing in a production
environment?
Q12. What is the primary purpose of using a leak test in the inspection process?
Q13. Which inspection method would be best for detecting small, internal cracks in a composite
material?
a) Visual inspection
b) Ultrasonic testing
d) X-ray testing
Q14. Which of the following is a key consideration when performing a functional test on a
product?
b) Confirming that the product performs its intended function within the specified limits
Q15. In the context of acceptance sampling, what is the role of an "acceptance quality limit"
(AQL)?
Q16. What is the main disadvantage of using acceptance sampling as a quality control method?
b) It may allow batches with a higher defect rate than acceptable to be accepted
a) The number of defective items in the batch that would result in rejection of the lot
b) The number of units that must pass inspection for a batch to be accepted
c) The number of defective units in the sample that would cause the batch to be accepted
Q18. In a double sampling plan, what happens if the results of the first sample are inconclusive?
a) The risk that defective products are rejected despite being of acceptable quality
Q20. Which of the following best describes the role of acceptance sampling in a quality control
program?
b) It provides a method for determining whether a batch of products meets predefined quality
standards based on a sample
1. Answer: c)
Explanation:
Explanation:
Explanation:
The number of standard deviations between the process mean and the closest specification limit
a) The number of standard deviations between the process mean and the closest specification
limit: Correct. The sigma level measures how far the process mean is from the closest
specification limit, indicating process capability.
b) The average number of defects per unit produced: This would be more related to the defect
rate, not sigma level.
c) The total variation in the process output: Total variation is typically described by the standard
deviation, but sigma level specifically refers to how close the process is to meeting
specifications.
d) The proportion of units that are out of specification: The sigma level relates to the distance
from the mean to the specification limit, not the proportion of out-of-spec units.
4. Answer: c)
Explanation:
Common cause variation is the random variation inherent to the process, while special cause
variation comes from external factors
a) Common cause variation is usually easier to identify than special cause variation: Common
cause variation is generally harder to identify because it is inherent to the system.
b) Special cause variation is inherent to the process, while common cause variation is due to
external factors: This is incorrect. Special cause variation is not inherent but arises from outside
factors.
c) Common cause variation is the random variation inherent to the process, while special cause
variation comes from external factors: Correct. Common causes are inherent in the process,
while special causes are external or irregular factors.
d) Special cause variation is present only when the process is in control: Special cause variation
only occurs when the process is out of control.
Explanation:
Explanation:
Explanation:
Explanation:
Explanation:
Control chart
a) Histogram: Histograms show the distribution of data but are not useful for detecting trends
over time.
b) Control chart: Correct. Control charts are specifically designed to monitor process stability
and detect trends, shifts, or out-of-control conditions over time.
c) Fishbone diagram: This is more used for identifying causes of problems rather than
monitoring process performance over time.
d) Scatter diagram: While scatter diagrams show relationships between variables, they are not
suited for detecting time-based trends.
10. Answer: a)
Explanation:
They provide a framework for identifying, analyzing, and solving problems systematically
a) They provide a framework for identifying, analyzing, and solving problems systematically:
Correct. The seven basic quality control tools provide a structured approach for identifying
issues, analyzing their causes, and implementing solutions to improve quality.
b) They create complex models that predict future quality performance: The tools focus more
on identifying and solving current issues rather than predicting future performance.
Explanation:
Explanation:
Explanation:
Ultrasonic testing
a) Visual inspection: Visual inspection is typically used for detecting surface flaws and would
not be suitable for internal cracks in composite materials.
b) Ultrasonic testing: Correct. Ultrasonic testing uses high-frequency sound waves to detect
internal cracks and flaws in materials like composites.
c) Magnetic particle testing: Magnetic particle testing is primarily used for ferromagnetic
materials, and it detects surface and near-surface flaws, not internal cracks in composites.
d) X-ray testing: X-ray testing can detect internal flaws but is generally more expensive and
complex than ultrasonic testing for detecting cracks in composites.
14. Answer: b)
Explanation:
Confirming that the product performs its intended function within the specified limits
a) Ensuring that the product's material properties are tested under extreme conditions: This is
more relevant to material testing or destructive testing, not functional testing.
b) Confirming that the product performs its intended function within the specified limits:
Correct. Functional testing checks whether the product operates as expected in real-world
conditions and meets performance specifications.
c) Measuring the product's dimensional accuracy: Dimensional accuracy is typically checked
through dimensional or geometrical inspection, not functional testing.
d) Checking the appearance of the product for visual defects: Visual inspection would check
for appearance issues, but functional testing is about ensuring the product works as intended.
15. Answer: a)
Explanation:
Explanation:
It may allow batches with a higher defect rate than acceptable to be accepted
a) It requires constant re-inspection of every product in a batch: Acceptance sampling does not
require re-inspection of every product; it inspects only a sample.
b) It may allow batches with a higher defect rate than acceptable to be accepted: Correct.
Acceptance sampling can sometimes accept a batch with more defects than is acceptable due
to the sampling process, especially when the sample size is small.
c) It results in costly rework and waste: While acceptance sampling is used to control defects,
it does not necessarily cause rework or waste.
d) It requires no training for personnel involved in inspection: Personnel still need training to
apply acceptance sampling effectively, particularly in interpreting results and applying
standards.
17. Answer: a)
Explanation:
The number of defective items in the batch that would result in rejection of the lot
a) The number of defective items in the batch that would result in rejection of the lot: Correct.
The reject number specifies the number of defects found in the sample that would lead to the
rejection of the entire batch.
b) The number of units that must pass inspection for a batch to be accepted: This is related to
the acceptance number, not the reject number.
c) The number of defective units in the sample that would cause the batch to be accepted: This
is the role of the acceptance number, not the reject number.
d) The maximum number of defects allowed in a product: This is not the definition of the reject
number.
18. Answer: b)
Explanation:
Explanation:
The risk that defective products are rejected despite being of acceptable quality
a) The risk that defective products are rejected despite being of acceptable quality: Correct.
Producer’s risk refers to the possibility of rejecting a batch that meets the acceptance criteria
due to sampling variability.
b) The risk that an entire batch is accepted when it should be rejected: This is known as
consumer's risk, not producer’s risk.
c) The risk that a batch is inspected at all: This is not related to producer’s risk.
d) The risk that a batch fails to meet the AQL: This risk is more related to the consumer's risk.
20. Answer: b)
Explanation:
It provides a method for determining whether a batch of products meets predefined quality
standards based on a sample
a) It is used to test every product for defects before shipment: Acceptance sampling only
involves testing a sample of products, not every product.
b) It provides a method for determining whether a batch of products meets predefined quality
standards based on a sample: Correct. Acceptance sampling is used to decide whether a batch
should be accepted or rejected based on the inspection of a sample.
c) It helps prevent defects from occurring by improving process capability: This is the role of
process control and improvement methods, not acceptance sampling.
d) It is used to track the performance of a production line over time: This is more relevant to
statistical process control (SPC), not acceptance sampling.
QUALITY CONTROL
• Cost of quality has two main components (1) cost of conformance and (2) cost of
non-conformance.
• Cost of conformance i.e. prevention and appraisal costs can be considered as good
amount spent. Cost of failure is an unnecessary amount spent in the form of internal
and external failure costs.
A) Prevention Costs
These are costs incurred to prevent defects from occurring in the first place. Prevention
costs are proactive and focus on reducing the likelihood of quality issues by improving
processes, systems, and employee training. Investing in prevention is generally seen as a
Key Objective:
The main objective of prevention costs is to eliminate the causes of defects before they
occur. By focusing on prevention, organizations can reduce future costs associated with
defects, which can be much higher than investing upfront in quality systems.
B) Appraisal Costs
Appraisal costs are incurred for measuring and monitoring the quality of products and
services. These costs are associated with the activities required to assess whether a
product meets quality standards. Appraisal is essentially a form of inspection, testing,
and verification to detect defects before products are delivered to customers.
Key Objective:
Appraisal costs aim to detect defects early in the production process. While these costs
help ensure that only quality products reach customers, they do not directly prevent
defects from occurring; they merely help identify and correct them.
Key Objective:
Internal failure costs are incurred because of defects discovered during the production
process, and while the products are not delivered to customers, these costs can still be
significant. Reducing internal failure costs is a key goal of quality improvement
initiatives, as it helps save resources and avoid redoing work.
Key Objective:
External failure costs are the most detrimental to an organization because they directly
impact the customer and can damage the organization’s reputation. These costs are
typically the result of failing to catch defects earlier in the process, and they can lead to
customer churn and reduced sales.
NOTE: Hidden Quality costs: These are also costs incurred when trying to understand
the cost of poor quality. Commonly measured failure costs include scrap, rework,
warranty etc., but the hidden failure costs will include increased inventory. decreased
capacity, potential loss of sales. engineering and management time etc
• Internal and External Failure Costs are reactive costs that arise due to defects. The
higher the level of internal and external failures, the greater the total cost of quality.
• Organizations can analyze their COQ to assess which areas are contributing the most
to quality problems. For instance, if internal failure costs are high, it might indicate
poor process control or a need for better training and preventive measures.
b. Improving Profitability
b) Profitability: A company that manages its COQ effectively will incur lower costs in
dealing with defects and failures, thus increasing profitability.
• Prevention and appraisal costs: These are low when the level of quality is less and
these increase as the level of quality increases.
• Total quality cost: This is sum of the failure costs and the prevention and appraisal
costs The objective is to minimise the total cost of Quality.
• Total quality cost curve may be divided into three zones. The zone in which a
company is in can usually be identified from the prevailing ratios of the quality costs
in the principal categories as follows:
• Zone of Improvement Projects: This is the left-hand portion of the total quality cost
curve. Failure costs constitute more than 70 per cent of the total quality costs while
prevention costs are less than 10 percent of the total. In such cases, there are
opportunities for reducing total quality costs by the quality of conformance. The
approach is to identify specific improvement projects and pursue them to improve
the conformance, thereby reducing the costs of poor quality, especially failure costs.
• Zone of High Appraisal Costs: This is the right-hand portion of the total quality cost
curve. It is usually characterized by the fact that appraisal costs exceed failure costs.
In such cases there are also opportunities to reduce costs.
• Zone of Indifference: This is the central area of the total quality cost curve. In this
zone, the failure costs are usually about half the quality costs while prevention costs
• Cost of quality (COQ) data is useful as a measurement tool for it can be used very
effectively to identify and prioritize improvement opportunities and to track the
impact of the change once it is initiated. The COQ data is aimed at attacking the
failure costs and driving them to zero. This strategy is implemented to enable quick
problem solving and initiation of change of improvement in the processes that
produce the product or service.
• Appraisal cost activities should be minimized as they do not add value since they do
not change the quality of the product or service being evaluated. The more the
inspections or verifications conducted, the less likely that the poor quality product
will be shipped to the customer. However, these activities do not prevent the poor
quality product from being produced. By spending more money on prevention
activities, appraisal activities can be reduced and this also leads to low failure costs.
• The value of quality is to be assessed considering various factors, a few of which are
as under:
• From company's point of view profit is more important. It is not necessary that the
company should manufacture 100% quality products. The study of optimum quality
of design involves market survey. While carrying out market survey expected sale for
particular quality, profit and competition in the market is to be considered The quality
of design should meet the needs of the customers and at the same time its
manufacturing cost should be such which will yield maximum profit. The aim should
be to improve quality at lower cost.
• The curves representing the cost and value of quality of design are shown in figure.
If we want to improve the quality of design from point 1 to point 2, the cost of quality
will increase by amount A whereas the value of quality will increase by amount B.
Now B > A and therefore, improvement in quality at this level will yield more income.
Explanation of Options:
a) Rework costs to fix defective products: This is an example of internal failure cost, as
rework occurs when defects are identified during production.
d) Warranty claims from customers: This is an example of external failure cost, as it occurs
after the product has been delivered to the customer.
Explanation of Options:
a) Increased external failure costs: Correct. If prevention costs are reduced, defects are more
likely to escape detection and reach the customer, leading to higher external failure costs.
b) Decreased internal failure costs: Prevention costs aim to reduce internal failures. Reducing
them would likely lead to an increase in internal failure costs.
d) Fewer product inspections: Reducing prevention costs doesn't directly correlate with fewer
inspections; instead, it might lead to more defects, thus increasing inspection needs.
Explanation of Options:
b) Warranty costs for repairing faulty engines: Correct. Warranty repairs are an example of
external failure costs, as they involve correcting defects after the product has been delivered
to the customer.
d) Repairing defects identified during final inspection before shipment: This is an internal
failure cost, as the defects are found internally before the product is delivered.
4. Answer: b) They are costs associated with discovering defects during production
Explanation of Options:
a) They are incurred to prevent defects from occurring: Prevention costs are related to
preventing defects, not appraisal costs.
b) They are costs associated with discovering defects during production: Correct. Appraisal
costs are the costs associated with measuring and evaluating products to detect defects before
delivery.
c) They include the cost of reworking defective products: Reworking defective products is
an example of internal failure costs, not appraisal costs.
d) They represent the cost of warranty claims from customers: Warranty claims are
external failure costs, not appraisal costs.
5. Answer: b) Investing in more robust quality control systems and preventive maintenance
Explanation of Options:
a) Reducing employee training programs on quality: This would likely increase both
internal and external failure costs, as employees would be less equipped to prevent and detect
defects.
b) Investing in more robust quality control systems and preventive maintenance: Correct.
Improving quality control systems and preventive maintenance reduces defects and the
likelihood of failure both internally (during production) and externally (after delivery).
c) Increasing the sample size for product inspections: While increasing inspections can catch
more defects, it does not address the root cause of defects and may increase appraisal costs
rather than reducing failure costs.
d) Cutting back on supplier audits and inspections: This would likely increase failure costs
due to defects entering the system from suppliers.
Explanation of Options:
a) Costs that are not accounted for in the traditional financial reporting system: Correct.
Hidden costs refer to costs that organizations may not explicitly track in their regular
accounting systems but are still significant, such as lost opportunities, customer dissatisfaction,
or internal inefficiencies.
b) Costs incurred from defects that occur after the product has been shipped: These are
external failure costs, not hidden costs.
c) Costs associated with training and preventive measures: These are prevention costs, not
hidden costs.
The cost of appraisal activities, such as inspections: These are appraisal costs, not hidden
costs.
7. Answer: a) It identifies areas where quality improvement efforts can be most effectively
focused
Explanation of Options:
a) It identifies areas where quality improvement efforts can be most effectively focused:
Correct. COQ analysis helps organizations identify high-cost areas (such as external failures)
and target improvement efforts where they will have the greatest financial impact.
b) It measures the direct return on investment for quality improvement programs: COQ
does not directly measure ROI; it is a tool to assess the total cost of quality and identify areas
for improvement.
c) It helps determine how many products need to be tested to ensure quality: This is related
to appraisal costs, but COQ itself is broader and focuses on total quality-related costs.
d) It estimates the costs of failure after product release to the customer: This would fall
under external failure costs, but COQ encompasses more than just failure costs.
Explanation of Options:
c) Customer complaints and returns for defective software: Correct. These are external
failure costs, as they occur after the product has been delivered to the customer.
Time spent conducting internal code reviews: This is an appraisal cost, as it involves
checking the quality of the code before release.
9. Answer: b) A software company releases an update that causes widespread system failures
across customer systems
Explanation of Options:
b) A software company releases an update that causes widespread system failures across
customer systems: Correct. This is a classic example of external failure costs because defects
are discovered only after the product is delivered to customers, and they can lead to customer
dissatisfaction, legal costs, and brand damage.
c) A construction company discovers that their building project is behind schedule: This
is not directly related to failure costs but could affect the appraisal or internal failure costs.
d) A food company experiences waste during production due to quality control issues:
This would lead to internal failure costs, as the defects are discovered before the product is
shipped.
Explanation of Options:
a) Reducing the number of inspections performed during production: This could reduce
appraisal costs, but it may increase failure costs if defects go unnoticed.
b) Investing in advanced automation to reduce manual errors: This would likely reduce
internal failure costs by improving consistency and quality, thereby lowering the overall
COQ.
How to connect?
Q1. Which of the following actions would most effectively reduce external failure costs in a
manufacturing company?
Q2. Which of the following is an example of internal failure cost for a software development
company?
Q3. What is the primary objective of prevention costs in relation to the Cost of Quality (COQ)?
a) To detect defects after the product has been delivered to the customer
Q4. Which of the following best describes the relationship between prevention costs and
appraisal costs in Cost of Quality (COQ)?
Q5. Which of the following would lead to an increase in internal failure costs in an
organization?
Q6. How does a high level of external failure costs typically affect a company's long-term
profitability?
Q7. What is the potential risk of focusing too heavily on reducing appraisal costs in an
organization?
Q8. Which of the following would be considered a hidden cost of quality in a company?
Q9. What is the impact of prevention costs on the overall Cost of Quality when an organization
has already implemented a strong quality management system?
c) Prevention costs reduce both internal and external failure costs, lowering the total COQ
d) Prevention costs increase due to the need for constant improvement and adaptation
Q10. Which of the following strategies is likely to have the most significant impact on reducing
external failure costs in an automotive manufacturing company?
Solutions
1. Answer: c) Improving the product design to make it more robust
Explanation of Options:
b) Investing in advanced training programs for employees: Training helps reduce internal
failure costs by improving skills and processes, but it does not directly reduce external failure
costs, which are about defects reaching the customer.
c) Improving the product design to make it more robust: Correct. A more robust product
design prevents defects from occurring in the first place, reducing both internal and external
failure costs.
Explanation of Options:
a) Costs of fixing software bugs after release: These are external failure costs, as the defects
are identified after the product is released to customers.
c) Costs of internal code reviews and testing during development: Correct. Internal code
reviews and testing help identify and fix defects during development, which are internal
failure costs.
Explanation of Options:
a) To detect defects after the product has been delivered to the customer: This is an
example of external failure costs, not prevention costs.
b) To measure the efficiency of product inspections and testing: This is related to appraisal
costs, not prevention costs.
c) To eliminate the causes of defects before they occur: Correct. Prevention costs focus on
activities designed to avoid defects from happening in the first place, such as training, quality
planning, and process improvements.
d) To rework products that do not meet quality standards: This is an example of internal
failure costs, not prevention costs.
Explanation of Options:
a) Prevention costs increase as appraisal costs increase: This is incorrect because increased
appraisal costs do not necessarily lead to an increase in prevention costs.
c) Prevention and appraisal costs are independent of each other: Incorrect. The two are
often connected, as effective prevention can reduce the need for extensive appraisal.
d) Prevention costs are a subset of appraisal costs: This is incorrect. Prevention costs aim to
prevent defects, whereas appraisal costs focus on detecting them after production begins.
Explanation of Options:
a) Improving the product design to be more fault-tolerant: This would reduce internal
failure costs by preventing defects during manufacturing.
c) Reducing the amount of testing during the development phase: Correct. Less testing
during development can lead to undetected defects, increasing internal failure costs (e.g.,
rework, scrap).
Explanation of Options:
a) It has a negligible impact, as the costs are borne by the customer: Incorrect. While
external failure costs affect customers, the company incurs costs to address them, including
refunds, replacements, and damage to brand reputation.
Explanation of Options:
Explanation of Options:
a) The cost of customer complaints: This is an external failure cost but not a hidden cost, as
it is usually measurable and tracked.
b) The cost of reworking defective products: This is an internal failure cost and typically
tracked, not hidden.
c) The cost of lost sales due to poor product quality: Correct. Lost sales and damaged
reputation often represent hidden costs, as they may not be directly accounted for but have a
significant impact on long-term profitability.
d) The cost of training employees on quality control methods: This is a prevention cost and
is typically not considered a hidden cost.
9. Answer: c) Prevention costs reduce both internal and external failure costs, lowering the
total COQ
Explanation of Options:
a) Prevention costs become less significant and can be reduced further: This is incorrect.
As quality systems improve, prevention costs remain important because they ensure defects
don't occur, thus saving on failure costs.
b) Prevention costs have a high impact on increasing overall COQ: Prevention costs are an
investment to reduce future failure costs and do not increase COQ in the long term.
c) Prevention costs reduce both internal and external failure costs, lowering the total
COQ: Correct. Strong prevention efforts lead to fewer defects, reducing internal and external
failure costs, which lowers overall COQ.
d) Prevention costs increase due to the need for constant improvement and adaptation:
While continuous improvement is important, prevention costs should lead to savings by
reducing failure costs, rather than increasing.
Explanation of Options:
a) Increasing the frequency of quality control checks during production: While this helps
identify defects before the product leaves the factory, it does not address the root causes of
defects that lead to external failure costs.
d) Reducing the number of final product inspections: Reducing inspections could increase
external failure costs if defects go unnoticed.
How to connect?
f) Clause 6: Planning
Planning is central to ISO 9001. Organizations are required to establish quality
objectives and determine the actions needed to address risks and opportunities. This
Questions
Q1. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for leadership under ISO 9001:2015?
Q2. ISO 9001:2015 requires organizations to use which type of approach for decision-making?
a) Intuition-based approach
b) Risk-based approach
c) Experience-based approach
d) Analytical approach
Q4. Which of the following activities is NOT part of the 'Support' clause of ISO 9001:2015?
Q5. In ISO 9001:2015, which clause requires organizations to define their quality policy?
a) Clause 4
b) Clause 5
c) Clause 6
d) Clause 7
Q6. What is the main objective of Clause 10: Improvement in ISO 9001?
Q8. Which of the following would typically be considered a nonconformity in ISO 9001:2015?
Q9. In ISO 9001:2015, which of the following best describes the role of management reviews?
b) To evaluate the effectiveness of the QMS and identify areas for improvement
Q10. Which of the following activities should be considered when assessing customer
satisfaction in ISO 9001:2015?
How to connect?
Q.1 What is the purpose of Clause 4 (Context of the Organization) in ISO 9001:2015?
Q2. What does the term "documented information" in ISO 9001:2015 refer to?
b) All records and documents necessary for the effective operation of the QMS
Q3. In the context of ISO 9001:2015, what is the role of risk-based thinking?
c) To identify and address risks that could affect the QMS’s ability to achieve objectives
Q4. How often is an external audit required for ISO 9001 certification?
Every 2 years
b) Every 3 years
c) Annually
d) Every 5 years
Q5. Which of the following is a direct benefit of performing an internal audit in the ISO
9001:2015 standard?
Q6. What is the primary purpose of the management review in ISO 9001?
To ensure the quality policy is updated
b) To assess whether the quality management system is operating effectively
c) To evaluate employee performance
d) To conduct risk analysis for business opportunities
Q7. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for documented information in ISO
9001:2015?
It must be controlled and maintained
b) It must be readily available for use
c) It must be updated at least annually
d) It must be protected from unauthorized access
Q8. In ISO 9001:2015, what is the term for a formal review of the QMS to ensure it is
compliant and effective?
Internal audit
b) Risk assessment
c) Management review
d) Performance evaluation
Q9. Which clause of ISO 9001:2015 requires organizations to ensure they have the
necessary resources for their QMS?
Clause 6: Planning
b) Clause 7: Support
c) Clause 8: Operation
d) Clause 9: Performance Evaluation
Q10. Under ISO 9001:2015, what should an organization do if they identify
nonconformities during the internal audit?
Conduct a risk assessment
b) Take immediate corrective actions and document the findings
c) Notify customers
d) Ignore the findings if they are minor
Explanation of Options:
2. Answer: b) All records and documents necessary for the effective operation of the QMS
Explanation of Options:
a) Only the quality policy: Incorrect. Documented information refers to more than just the
quality policy.
b) All records and documents necessary for the effective operation of the QMS:
Correct. Documented information includes procedures, records, and other documentation
required to manage and operate the QMS.
c) The final product design specifications: This is specific to product design, not all the
required documentation under ISO 9001.
d) The cost of quality reports: Cost of quality reports are not part of "documented
information" as defined by ISO 9001.
3. Answer: c) To identify and address risks that could affect the QMS’s ability to achieve
objectives
Explanation of Options:
a) To eliminate risks in the production process: This is not the objective of risk-based
thinking. Risks may be managed rather than eliminated.
b) To ensure all risks are avoided: While some risks may be avoided, the objective is to
address risks to ensure the QMS remains effective, not to avoid all risks.
4. Answer: c) Annually
Explanation of Options:
a) Every 2 years: Incorrect. Audits are typically required annually to ensure ongoing
compliance.
b) Every 3 years: Incorrect. Annual audits are required for certification maintenance.
c) Annually: Correct. Organizations with ISO 9001 certification must undergo surveillance
audits annually.
d) Every 5 years: Incorrect. Surveillance audits are required annually, not every 5 years.
Explanation of Options:
a) Identify and correct nonconformities: Correct. Internal audits help identify areas
where the QMS is not conforming to requirements and facilitate corrective actions.
b) Assess customer satisfaction: This is part of performance evaluation but not a direct
goal of internal audits.
d) Increase product sales: Sales are impacted by many factors, but internal audits
themselves do not directly influence sales.
Explanation of Options:
a) To ensure the quality policy is updated: The management review may discuss quality
policy but its primary purpose is to evaluate the QMS's effectiveness.
d) To conduct risk analysis for business opportunities: While risk analysis may be part
of the review, the primary goal is to evaluate the QMS.
Explanation of Options:
b) It must be readily available for use: Correct. Documented information must be easily
accessible to those who need it for operational purposes.
Explanation of Options:
a) Internal audit: While audits help ensure compliance, they are not formal reviews of the
entire QMS like management reviews.
b) Risk assessment: This process is about identifying risks, not formally reviewing the
QMS’s effectiveness.
Explanation of Options:
c) Clause 8: Operation: This clause addresses the operation and delivery of the product or
service, not resources.
10. Answer: b) Take immediate corrective actions and document the findings
Explanation of Options:
a) Conduct a risk assessment: While a risk assessment might help in some situations, the
main requirement is to take corrective actions for nonconformities.
d) Ignore the findings if they are minor: Nonconformities should never be ignored, even
if they seem minor.
How to connect?
QUALITY CONTROL
c) Process-Centered Approach
• TQM is based on the idea that the overall quality of an organization depends on
how well individual processes perform. By optimizing processes, organizations
can reduce waste, improve efficiency, and consistently produce high-quality
products and services.
d) Integrated System
• The goal is to create a seamless system where every part of the organization works
together to achieve the common objective of providing high-quality products and
services.
• TQM encourages adopting a mindset of never being satisfied with the current state
of quality and always seeking ways to improve.
• Decisions in TQM are based on the use of data and analysis rather than
assumptions or gut feelings. Statistical tools, data collection, and analysis are used
to monitor performance and identify areas for improvement.
• Using facts helps eliminate subjective opinions and enables organizations to make
informed decisions that lead to quality improvements.
g) Communications
• Open and clear communication also ensures that feedback from customers and
employees is gathered and addressed.
• For TQM to be successful, top management must commit to the principles and
goals of the program. Leaders are responsible for setting the vision, providing
resources, and creating an environment where quality is valued.
b) Customer Satisfaction
• TQM is built around the understanding that quality is defined by the customer.
Organizations must continuously gather feedback from customers, both external
and internal, to understand their expectations and deliver products or services that
meet or exceed these expectations.
• Tools like customer surveys, focus groups, and net promoter scores (NPS) are
used to assess satisfaction levels and make improvements based on customer
input.
c) Employee Involvement
d) Process Management
• Tools such as flow charts, cause-and-effect diagrams, and process mapping are
used to visualize and manage processes.
• The Quality Management System (QMS) is used to ensure that every aspect of
the organization’s operations is aligned with the desired quality outcomes.
f) Continuous Improvement
• TQM encourages using data and statistical methods to identify areas for
improvement, measure performance, and make informed decisions. The use of
data ensures that improvements are based on facts and are not arbitrary.
• Common tools for data analysis include Pareto analysis, scatter diagrams,
histograms, and control charts.
a) Pareto Analysis (80/20 Rule): This tool helps to identify the most significant
problems by highlighting the vital few factors (often 20%) that contribute to the
majority (often 80%) of problems or defects.
b) Fishbone Diagram (Ishikawa): This visual tool helps identify the root causes of a
problem by categorizing potential causes (e.g., people, processes, equipment,
materials).
c) Flowcharting: A flowchart helps map out a process to understand how work is done
and where improvements can be made.
e) Control Charts: These charts track process performance over time to ensure that a
process remains stable and that any variation is predictable.
f) Six Sigma: A set of techniques and tools for process improvement that focuses on
reducing variability and defects. It uses the DMAIC (Define, Measure, Analyze,
Improve, Control) methodology.
b) Increased Efficiency
• When organizations focus on understanding and meeting customer needs, they are
better able to deliver products that delight customers, leading to stronger customer
loyalty.
e) Continuous Improvement
f) Long-Term Success
g) Reduction in Costs
b) Time-Consuming
c) Resource Intensive
• If top management does not fully support TQM or fails to allocate the necessary
resources, it can be difficult to implement successfully across the organization.
• For six sigma projects, there is a clear focus on achieving measurable and quantifiable
financial returns. Also, there is an increased emphasis on strong and passionate
management leadership and support.
• ISO 13053: 2011 and ISO 18404: 2015 deal with six sigma process.
• Lean management differs from six sigma in the sense that lean management emphasises
on eliminating waste and ensuring efficiency while six sigma focuses on eliminating
defects and reducing variability.
• Six sigma is the process that has six standard deviations on each side between the mean
and the specification limit.
• It contrasts to six sigma quality, the three sigma quality performance of 99.73% results
in 2700 DPMO. For a process with a series of steps, the overall yield is the product of
the yields of the different steps. Considering the complexity involved in the modern
processes, three sigma quality level will result in larger number of defects thus making
the organisation unviable.
• In a six sigma process, over a period of time, a 1.5 sigma shift is introduced into the
calculation. Accordingly, a process that fits 6 sigma between the process mean and the
nearest specification limit in a short term will fit only 4.5 sigma in the long term.
• This may be because the process mean will shift over a period of time or because the
long term standard deviation of the process will be greater than that observed in the
short term or both. This increase in variation over a period of time may be due to small
variation in process inputs, changing conditions etc.
• If a process is originally designed to be twice as good as a customer demands then even
with a shift in the distribution of output the customer demands are likely to be met.
• A six sigma process with no shift in the mean results in 2 defects per billion
opportunities.
• Six sigma is a breakthrough management process that is used to improve a company's
performance by variation reduction.
• Six sigma methodology has two elements which comprise the voice of customer and
the voice of process. It essentially reduces the gap between two voices and ensure that
they match.
• If the process mean is not centered, Cp over estimates process capability then another
index Cpk may be used. Cpk = Min [(USL- mean)/3 σ; (Mean- LSL)/3 σ]
• It estimates what the process is capable of producing, considering that the process mean
may not be centered between the specification limits.
• Cp2 and Cpk = 1.5 assuming a 1.56 mean shift. The higher the value of Cpk the lower
will be the amount of product which is outside specification limits. In certifying
suppliers, some organisations use Cpk as one element of certification criteria.
• Comments concerning Cp and Cpk are as follows:
4. A Cpk value greater than 1.00 indicates the process conforms to specifications.
5. A Cpk value less than 1.00 indicates that the process does not conform to
specifications.
6. A Cp value less than 1.00 indicates that the process is not capable
7. A Cpk value of zero indicates the average is equal to one of the specification limits.
8. A negative Cpk value indicates that the average is outside the specifications.
DMAIC
• The DMAIC project methodology has five phases:
• Define the system, the voice of the customer and their requirements, and the project
goals, specifically.
• Measure key aspects of the current process and collect relevant data; calculate the
'as-is' Process Capability.
• Measure key aspects of the current process and collect relevant data; calculate the
'as-is' Process Capability.
DMADV
• The DMADV project methodology features five phases:
• Define design goals that are consistent with customer demands and the enterprise
strategy.
• Measure and identify CTQs (characteristics that are Critical To Quality), measure
product capabilities, production process capability, and measure risks.
• Analyze to develop and design alternatives
• Design an improved alternative, best suited per analysis in the previous step
• Verify the design, set up pilot runs, implement the production process and hand it
over to the process owner(s).
• Define: Identify the problem and define the scope of the project. Establish
customer requirements and project goals.
• Measure: Collect data to understand the current process performance and identify
areas of improvement.
• Analyze: Use statistical tools to analyze the data, determine root causes of issues,
and quantify the extent of the problem.
• Improve: Implement solutions to eliminate the root causes and improve the
process.
• Control: Put systems in place to sustain improvements over time and prevent
regression.
• SPC involves using control charts to monitor and control a process. These charts
help identify variations in processes, allowing for corrective actions before defects
occur. Control charts are essential in Six Sigma to ensure that improvements are
maintained.
• Process mapping and flowcharts are tools used to visualize processes. In Six
Sigma, process mapping helps to understand the steps involved, identify
inefficiencies, and pinpoint areas for improvement.
e) Pareto Analysis:
• Based on the 80/20 Rule, Pareto analysis is used to identify the most significant
causes of defects. It helps prioritize efforts on the few causes that will have the
greatest impact on process improvement.
• FMEA is used to identify potential failure modes in a process and assess the
severity, likelihood, and detectability of each failure. It helps prioritize
improvements based on the risk they pose to the process.
• Value Stream Mapping is a tool used to visualize the flow of materials and
information in a process, from raw material to finished product. It helps identify
non-value-added activities (waste) and areas where improvements can be made.
• Kanban is a scheduling system that helps control inventory levels and production
flow. It uses visual signals (e.g., cards or boards) to trigger the replenishment of
materials only when needed, reducing excess inventory and minimizing waste.
d) Just-in-Time (JIT):
• Just-in-Time is a Lean technique that aims to produce and deliver goods only
when they are needed in the production process. This reduces inventory levels and
improves flow efficiency, ensuring that resources are used efficiently.
b) 5 Whys Technique:
c) A3 Problem Solving:
d) Standardized Work:
• Standardized work involves creating and documenting the most efficient way to
perform a task, ensuring that the process is carried out consistently. Kaizen focuses
on continuously improving these standards to achieve higher efficiency and
quality.
e) Visual Management:
• Visual management involves using visual cues (e.g., charts, labels, color-coding)
to convey information about process status, issues, and performance. This helps
teams identify problems quickly and take corrective actions in real-time.
f) Gemba Walks:
• A Gemba Walk is when managers and team leaders go to the "Gemba" (the place
where work is done) to observe processes firsthand, engage with employees, and
identify opportunities for improvement. This practice emphasizes the importance
• Six Sigma focuses on reducing defects and variation using data and statistical
analysis. It is highly effective in improving the quality of processes and reducing
variability.
When combined, these methodologies form a powerful approach to achieving TQM goals:
• Six Sigma provides the tools and methods for reducing defects and variation.
• Lean Manufacturing removes waste and optimizes processes for greater efficiency.
Together, they create a system where processes are improved, waste is minimized, and
quality is consistently enhanced, all contributing to an organization’s long-term success
and customer satisfaction.
a) Continuous improvement
b) Customer focus
d) Employee involvement
Q2. Which of the following is the primary goal of the 5S methodology in TQM?
Q3. What does the “A” in DMAIC stand for in Six Sigma and TQM methodologies?
a) Analyze
b) Act
c) Apply
d) Arrange
Q4. Which of the following best describes the role of leadership in TQM?
a) Control charts
b) Fishbone diagram
c) Pareto chart
d) Histogram
Q7. What does the “P” in the PDCA cycle stand for?
a) Process
b) Plan
c) Performance
d) Prove
a) Financial performance
b) Cost reduction
d) Employee welfare
a) Overproduction
b) Customer feedback
c) Regular training
d) On-time delivery
Explanation of Options:
b) Customer focus: TQM emphasizes understanding and meeting customer needs and
requirements as a primary objective.
c) Top-down management approach: This is not a TQM principle. TQM encourages bottom-
up involvement where all employees contribute to quality improvements, not just top
management dictating the changes.
d) Employee involvement: TQM promotes full involvement from all levels of the
organization, ensuring that employees at all levels contribute to quality efforts.
Explanation of Options:
a) To identify and remove waste: 5S focuses on creating a clean, organized, and efficient work
environment by eliminating unnecessary items and ensuring that everything has its proper
place. This helps remove waste and improves efficiency.
b) To streamline customer complaints: This is not the goal of 5S. Customer complaints may
be addressed through other quality management processes, not 5S.
3. Answer: a) Analyze
Explanation of Options:
a) Analyze: DMAIC stands for Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control. The "Analyze"
phase focuses on identifying the root causes of problems or variations in a process.
Explanation of Options:
a) Ensuring quality goals are met through employee compliance: Leadership should
motivate and involve employees in the process, not just enforce compliance.
c) Assigning quality tasks to employees: Leadership should not just assign tasks; they should
foster a culture of quality and involvement.
Explanation of Options:
Explanation of Options:
a) Control charts: Used for monitoring process stability and variation, not for root cause
analysis.
b) Fishbone diagram: Correct. A fishbone diagram (Ishikawa) helps identify potential root
causes of a problem by categorizing causes into several areas (e.g., people, processes,
materials).
Histogram: Shows the distribution of data, but does not directly identify root causes.
7. Answer: b) Plan
Explanation of Options:
a) Process: This is not the correct term for the PDCA cycle.
b) Plan: Correct. The PDCA cycle stands for Plan, Do, Check, Act. The "Plan" phase involves
setting goals and deciding how to achieve them.
c) Performance: Performance is related to assessing results, but not what "P" stands for in
PDCA.
Explanation of Options:
b) Cost reduction: While TQM can lead to cost reduction through improved processes, the
main goal is customer satisfaction.
d) Employee welfare: While TQM involves employee involvement, the primary goal is
customer satisfaction through quality improvement.
9. Answer: a) Overproduction
Explanation of Options:
d) On-time delivery: Timely delivery adds value to the customer, so it is not considered waste.
Explanation of Options:
b) To reduce customer complaints: While SPC can indirectly help reduce complaints by
improving process quality, its primary purpose is controlling variability.
c) To monitor and control process variability: Correct. SPC uses control charts to monitor
process stability and ensure that it stays within acceptable limits.
d) To reduce the cost of raw materials: SPC focuses on quality and process control rather
than direct cost reduction of raw materials.
How to connect?
Q5. What is the main difference between TQM and traditional quality management?
a) Gantt chart
b) Control chart
c) Fishbone diagram
d) Job description
Q7. Which of the following is NOT a tool used for problem-solving in TQM?
a) Brainstorming
b) SWOT analysis
c) Control charts
d) Pareto analysis
Q8. What is the key focus of the TQM principle of continuous improvement?
Q10. Which of the following tools helps in identifying the most significant causes of quality
problems?
a) Scatter diagram
b) Histogram
c) Pareto chart
d) Control chart
Explanation of Options:
a) Maximizing resource utilization: This is more related to Lean, not Six Sigma.
b) Reducing variation and defects to near perfection: Correct. Six Sigma aims for a process
that produces fewer than 3.4 defects per million opportunities.
c) Empowering employees to make independent decisions: While Six Sigma does involve
employee involvement, its focus is on process improvement through data-driven decision-
making.
d) Streamlining production schedules: This is part of Lean Manufacturing, not Six Sigma.
Explanation of Options:
a) To monitor process changes over time: This is the function of a control chart, not a Pareto
chart.
b) To identify the root cause of problems: A Pareto chart helps identify the most significant
problems, but not the root causes directly.
c) To prioritize problems based on their impact: Correct. The Pareto chart is based on the
80/20 rule, helping identify which problems to tackle first.
Explanation of Options:
a) To increase inventory levels: Kanban is used to control and reduce inventory, not to increase
it.
b) To reduce lead times by pulling inventory when needed: Correct. Kanban helps manage
workflow by signaling when to replenish inventory, thus minimizing overproduction.
Explanation of Options:
a) To ensure that tasks are completed according to personal preference: Standardized work
is about consistency, not personal preferences.
b) To document and maintain the best way to perform tasks: Correct. Standardized work
ensures that the most efficient and effective methods are followed consistently.
d) To identify employee performance metrics: This is not the purpose of standardized work.
Explanation of Options:
a) TQM focuses on top-down quality control: TQM involves bottom-up participation from
all employees, not just top-down control.
b) TQM involves all employees in quality improvement: Correct. TQM emphasizes that
quality improvement is everyone's responsibility.
c) TQM only focuses on defect prevention: TQM encompasses continuous improvement, not
just defect prevention.
d) TQM eliminates the need for customer feedback: Customer feedback is crucial in TQM
to improve quality.
Explanation of Options:
a) Gantt chart: Gantt charts are used for project scheduling, not process improvement.
b) Control chart: Correct. Control charts are used to monitor process stability and
improvement.
d) Job description: Job descriptions outline roles but are not a tool for process improvement.
Explanation of Options:
b) SWOT analysis: SWOT analysis is used for strategic planning, not for problem-solving in
TQM.
c) Control charts: Control charts are used to monitor processes and identify problems.
d) Pareto analysis: Pareto analysis helps prioritize problems based on their impact.
Explanation of Options:
Explanation of Options:
Explanation of Options:
a) Scatter diagram: A scatter diagram helps identify relationships between two variables, not
necessarily the most significant causes of problems.
b) Histogram: A histogram is used to understand the distribution of data, but not specifically
to identify the most significant causes of quality problems.
c) Pareto chart: Correct. A Pareto chart is based on the 80/20 rule and helps prioritize quality
issues by showing the most frequent problems, enabling focus on the most impactful issues.
d) Control chart: A control chart is used to monitor process stability over time, but not to
prioritize causes of quality problems.
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