CGPET 2019

Solved Paper

Question 1
A double convex lens has two surfaces of equal radii R and refractive
index µ = 1.5. Then,
Options:

R
A. f =
2

B. f = R

C. f = − R

D. f = 2R

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Given,
Refractive index, µ = 1.5
Radius of curvature, R1 = R , R2 = − R
As we know that, from the lens maker's formula,
1 ⎛1 1⎞
= ( µ − 1) −
f ⎜ R1 R2 ⎠
⎝ ⎟
1 1 1
= ( 1.5 − 1) [ − ]
f R ( −R )
1 1 1
= 0.5[ + ]
f R R
1 2 1 2
= 0.5[ ] = ( )
f R 2 R
1 1
= ⇒f =R
f R

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Question 2
The refractive indices of the material of the prism and liquid are 1.56
and 1.32, respectively. What will be the value of θ for the above
refraction?

Options:
 13
A. sin θ ≥
11
11
B. sin θ ≥
13

C. sin θ ≥ √3
2
1
D. sin θ ≥
√2
Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:

For total internal reflection from surface BC

θ ≥ C ⇒ sin θ ≥ sin C
⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ µliquid ⎞
⇒ sin θ ≥ µ ⇒ sin θ ≥ ⎜
⎜ ⎟
⎝liquid prism ⎠ ⎝ µprism ⎟⎠
given, [ µliquid = 1.32µprism = 1.56]
1.32
sin θ ≥ ( )
1.56
11
or sin θ ≥
13

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Question 3
Which of the following graphs shows appropriate variation of refractive
index µ with wavelength λ ?
Options:

A.

B.
C.

D.

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
B
According to Cauchy's formula, µ = A +
λ2
Where A and B are called Cauchy's constants for the prism.
1
µ∝
λ2
Hence, option (a) is represent the variation of refractive index µ with wavelength λ .

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Question 4
A person cannot see objects clearly beyond 2.0m . The power of lens
required to correct his vision will be
©

Options:

A. +2D

B. −1D

C. +1D

D. −0.5D

Answer: D

Solution:
Solution:
For correcting far point.
u = −∞
v = −2m
Applying len's formula
1 1 1
= v − u .......(i)
f
Put the values in Eq.(i)
1 1 1 1 1
= + ⇒ = +0
f −2 ∞ f −2
⇒ f = −2m
So power of lens,
1 1
P= =
f −2
P = −0.5D

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Question 5
The image formed by the objective of a compound microscope is
©

Options:

A. virtual and enlarged

B. virtual and diminished

C. real and diminished

D. real and enlarged

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
The image formed by objective lens of compound microscope is real and enlarged, while final image formed by
compound microscope is inverted, virtual, enlarged and at a distance D to infinite or from an eye, on same side of eye
piece.

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Question 6
As the intensity of incident light increases
©

Options:

A. photoelectric current increases

B. photoelectric current decreases

C. kinetic energy of photoelectron increases

D. kinetic energy of photoelectron decreases

Answer: A

Solution:
Solution:
If the intensity of light of a given frequency is increased, then the number of photons striking the surface per second will
increase in the same ratio. This increased number of photons strike more electrons of metals and hence number of
photoelectrons emitted through the surface increase and hence photoelectric current increases.

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Question 7
In Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the lowest orbit corresponds to
©

Options:

A. Infinite energy

B. The maximum energy

C. The minimum energy

D. Zero energy

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
In Bohr model, lowest orbits corresponds to minimum energy.
13.6
En = − 2
n
for lowest orbit, n = 1
−13.6
So, En = = −13.6eV
( 1) 2

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Question 8
In the nuclear reaction C 11 → B 11 + β + + X − , what does X stand for?
6 5
©

Options:

A. An electron

B. A proton

C. A neutron

D. A neutrino

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Given nuclear reaction, C 11 → B 11 + β + + X
6 5
[here X is stand for a neutrino, when β -particle emitted ]
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Question 9
In the given reaction
XA → YA − 4 → KA − 4 → KA − 4
Z Z −2 Z −1 Z −1
Radioactive radiations are emitted in the sequence
©

Options:

A. α, β, γ

B. β, α, γ

C. α, γ, β

D. β, γ, α

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
In given reaction,
α β γ
X A ─── ▸ Y A − 4─── ▸ K A − 4 ─── ▸ K A − 4 In above reaction, in first atomic number z decreases by 2 and mass
Z Z −2 Z −1 Z −1
number A decreases by 4 .
So, α -particle emitted.
In second step, atomic number ( z − 2) increases by 1 and man number ( A − 4) remains same hence β-particle emitted.
In third step, atomic number ( z − 1) and mans number ( A − 4) remain same.
Hence γ -particle emitted.
Hence, radioactive radiations are emitted in sequence of α, β, γ

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Question 10
The temperature ( T ) dependence of resistivity (ρ) of a semiconductor is
represented by
©

Options:

A.

B.
C.

D.

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
When the temperature is increased in semiconductor, the density of the charge carriers increase and the resistivity of
semiconductor decreases.
The relation between resistivity and temperature is given by following equation.
ρT = ρ0[ 1 + α( T − T0) ]
Where ρ0 is the resistivity at a reference temperature T0 and ρT its value at temperature T .
The factor α is called the temperature coefficient of resistivity and the temperature coefficient is negative for
semiconductor.
Hence the curve is non-linear for wide range of temperature as shown in the figure.
Hence, option (c) is represent the temperature ( T ) dependence on resistivity ( ρ) of a semiconductor.

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Question 11
If a full wave rectifier circuit is operated from 100 Hz mains, the
fundamental frequency in the ripple will be
©

Options:

A. 100Hz

B. 200Hz

C. 50Hz

D. 150Hz

Answer: B
Solution:

Solution:
According to question, a full wave rectifier circuit is operated from 100Hz mains.
So, AC input frequency = 100Hz
In the full wave rectifier the frequency of ripple is double to that of AC input frequency.
Hence, Ripple frequency = 2 × AC input frequency
= 2 × 100 = 200Hz
Hence, fundamental frequency in the ripple will be 200Hz .

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Question 12
A long magnetic needle of length 2l magnetic moment M and pole
strength m is broken into two pieces at the middle. The magnetic
moment and pole strength of each piece will be
©

Options:

M m
A. ,
2 2
m
B. M ,
2
M
C. ,m
2
D. M1m

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Given, Length of magnetic needle = 2l
Magnetic moment = M
pole strength = m

Magnetic moment, M = m × 2l ...(i)

According to the question, when magnetic needle is broken into two pieces at the middle as shown in the figure.
M′ = m × l
1
M ′ = m × 2l ×
2
From Eq. (i), we get
M
M′ =
2
Pole strength of magnetic needle cannot be changed.
M
Hence, the correct option is (c), i.e. ( , m )
2

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Question 13
The sensitivity of tangent galvanometer is increased, if
©

Options:

A. number of turns decreases

B. number of turns increases

C. fields increases

D. None of the above

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
NBA
Current sensitivity of tangent galvanometer is given by Si = c
where, N = number of turns in coil,
B = magnetic field
A = area of coil.
So, Si ∝ N
Hence, the sensitivity of tangent galvanometer is increased, if number of turns in the coil increases.

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Question 14
The ratio of forces between two small spheres with constant charge in
air and in a medium of dielectric constant k is
©

Options:
A. 1: k

B. k : 1

C. 1: k 2

D. k 2 : 1

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Let distance between two small spheres with constant charge is r as shown in figure.

According to the Coulomb's law, the force between the spheres in air is given by
2
1 q
Fair = .......(i)
4πε0 r 2
Force between the spheres in medium is given by
2
1 q
Fmedium = .......(ii)
4πε0k r 2
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
Fair k
=
Fmedium 1
⇒ Fair : Fmedium = k : 1

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Question 15
The magnitude of electric field intensity E is such that, an electron
placed in it would experience an electrical force equal to its weight, is
given by
©

Options:

A. mge
mg
B.
e
e
C.
mg

e2
D. g
m2
Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Given,
Magnitude of electric field intensity = E
Hence, the electric force on electron, F = qE ....... (i)
Weight of electron, w = mg
where, m = mass of electron and
g = gravitational acceleration.
According to the question, Electrical force = weight of electron
 mg
qE = mg ⇒ E = q
Here, charge on electron, q = e
mg
E= e

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Question 16
N identical spherical drops charged to the same potential V are
combined to form a big drop. The potential of the new drop will be
©

Options:

A. V
V
B.
N
C. V . N
2
D. V . N 3

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Let the charge of small drop = q
Kq
Potential on small drop, V = ......(i)
r
When N identical spherical drops are combined to form a big drop, then volume remains constant.
4 4
N × πr3 = πR3
3 3
where, R = radius of big drop.
R = ( N 1 ∕ 3) r
K ( Nq )
Potential of the new drop, V ′ =
R
K ( Nq )
V′ =
( N 1 ∕ 3) r
1
Kq 1 − 3
V′ = N
r
From Eq. (i), we get
2
V′ = V . N 3

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Question 17
A 6µ F capacitor is charged from 10V to20V . Increase in energy will be
©

Options:

A. 18 × 10−4J

B. 9 × 10−4J

C. 4.5 × 10−4J

D. 9 × 10−6J
Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Given,
Capacitance of capacitor, C = 6µ F
As we know that,
1
Electrical energy stored in capacitor, U = CV 2
2
Hence, increase in energy.
1 1
Δ U = CV22 − CV12
2 2
C 2
Δ U = ( V2 − V12)
2
Here, V1 = 10V and V2 = 20V
6 × 10−6
ΔU = [ ( 20) 2 − ( 10) 2]
2
6 × 10−6
ΔU = × 300
2
−4
Δ U = 9 × 10 J

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Question 18
In the following circuit the resultant capacitance between A and B is
1µ F . Then, the value of C is

Options:

32
A. µF
11
11
B. µF
32
 23
C. µF
32
32
D. µF
23
Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
According to the question,

Given, capacitance between A and B , CAB = 1µ F .

∴ Capacitors between point C and D are connected in parallel. So, capacitance. CCD = 2µ F + 2µ F = 4µ F .
∴ Capacitors between points E and F connected in series, so the capacitance between points E and F , is
1 1 1
= +
CEF 6 12
1 2+1 3
or = =
CEF 12 12
12
or CEF = = 4µ F
3
Capacitors between points G and D are connected in series, therefore
1 1 1
= +
CGD 8µ F 4µ F
1+2
∴ =
8
1 3
or =
CGD 8
8
or CGD = µ F
3
 ∴ Capacitance between points E and F , are connected in parallel, so
∴ CEF = 4µ F + 4µ F = 8µ F
Capacitance between points G and F , are connected in series, therefore
1 1 1
= +
CGF 1 8
8+1 9
or = =
8 8
8
or CGF = µ F
9

Now,
8 8 24 + 8
∴ CPR = + =
9 3 9
32
= µF
9
Capacitors are connected in series, then the total capacitance across points A and B ,
1 1 1
∴ = +
CAB C 32 ∕ 9
1 9
or 1 = +
C 32
Here CAB = 1µ F
1 9 32 − 9 23 1 23
or =1− = = or =
C 32 32 32 C 32
32
C= µF
23

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Question 19
The resistance of a wire is 10Ω . Its length is increased by 10 % by
stretching. The new resistance will be
©

Options:

A. 12Ω

B. 1.2Ω

C. 13Ω

D. 11Ω

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Resistance of wire, R = 10Ω .
Let the initial length of wire = l
ρl
Resistance of wire, R = ......(i)
A
According to the question,
l × 10
New length of wire, l ′ = l +
100
l 11l
l′ = l + or l ′ =
10 10
The volume of wire remains constant.
∴ Volume of wire before stretching = Volume of wire after stretching Al = A ′ l ′
11l 10
Al = A ′ ( ) ⇒ A′ = A
10 11
New resistance of wire,
11
ρ( l)
ρl′ 10
R′ = ⇒ R′ =
A′ 10
A
11
ρl 11 11
R′ = × ×
A 10 10
From Eq. (i)
11 2 11 2
R ′ = R × ( ) = 10 × ( ) = 12.1Ω ≈ 12Ω
10 10

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Question 20
Equivalent resistance between the points A and B , is

Options:

1
A. 1 Ω
5
1
B. 1 Ω
4
1
C. 2 Ω
3
1
D. 3 Ω
2
Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
According to the question,
The resistance between point C and F are connected in parallel combination. Hence, its equivalent resistance is given by
1 1 1 1 1
= + + ⇒ RCF = Ω
RCF 1 1 1 3
Now, circuit becomes
All the resistance in the above circuit are connected in the series combination.
1
Hence, RAB = 1 + 1 +
3
1 1
=2+ =2 Ω
3 3

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Question 21
In the circuit shown P ≠ R , the reading of the galvanometer is same with
switch S open or closed, then

Options:

A. IR = IG

B. IP = IG

C. IQ = IG
D. IQ = IR

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Given, P ≠ R
The reading of the galvanometer is same with S open or closed i.e., the value of current in branch CD is zero. Hence, the
potential at points C and D is same i.e., VC = VD

Hence, the value of current in branch ADB and ACB is same, i.e. IP = IQ
IR = IG
Hence, option (a) is correct.

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Question 22
The resistance of 1 A ammeter is 0.018Ω . Toconvert it into 10A
ammeter, the shunt resistance required will be
©

Options:

A. 0.18Ω

B. 0.0018Ω

C. 0.002Ω

D. 0.12Ω

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Given,
Resistance of ammeter, G = 0.018Ω
Ig = 1A
I = 10A
As we know that,
Ig G
Shunt resistance, S =
I − Ig
1 × 0.018 0.018
= =
10 − 1 9
= 0.002Ω

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Question 23
Two electric bulbs whose resistances are in the ratio 1: 2 are connected
in parallel to a constant voltage source. The power dissipated in them
have the ratio
©

Options:

A. 1: 2

B. 1: 1

C. 2: 1

D. 1: 4

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Let the resistances of bulb are R1 and R2 , respectively.
R1 1
As we know that, = (given)
R2 2
V 2
Power, P =
R
P1 V12 ∕ R1
Now, =
P2 V22 ∕ R2
In the parallel combination potential remains same i.e. V1 = V2
P1 R2 2
= =
P2 R1 1

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Question 24
The current flowing in a copper voltmeter is 1.6A . The number of Cu + +
ions deposited at the cathode per minute is
©

Options:

A. 1.5 × 1020

B. 3 × 1020

C. 6 × 1020

D. 1 × 1019

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Given, the current flowing in a copper voltmeter, I = 1.6A
As we know that,
Charge, Q = Total number of ions × Charge on electron ( e )
Q = n × e .......(i)
Current
Charge Q =
Time
I
Q=
t
From Eq. (i), we get
I⎛ ⎞
n ×e = ∵ t = 1min given
t ⎝⎜ ⎟
⎠
n × 1.6 × 10−19 = 1.6( ∵ e = 1.6 × 10−19C )
1.6
Now, the number of Cu + + ions deposited at the cathode per minute is n =
1.6 × 10−19
n = 1 × 1019

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Question 25
The magnetic induction at the centre O in the figure shown is

Options:

µ0i ⎛ 1 1⎞
A. −
4 ⎝⎜ R1 R2 ⎠
⎟
 µ0i ⎛ 1 1⎞
B. +
4 ⎝⎜R1 R2 ⎠
⎟

µ0i
C. ( R1 − R2)
4
µ0i
D. ( R1 + R2)
4
Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
µ0 i
Magnetic field due to an arc of a circle at the centre is B = ( )( )θ
4π R

Magnetic field due to straight wire at point O is zero and the magnetic field due to semicircular loop radius R1 is given by
µ0i π µ0i
B1 = (π) =
4k1 4R1
µ0i
Similarly, magnetic field due to semicircular loop of radius R2 is given by B2 =
4R2
As, R2 > R1
Hence, net magnetic field
µ0i µ0i
Bnet = B1 − B2 = −
4R1 4R2
µ0i ⎛ 1 1⎞
= −
4 ⎜⎝R1 R2 ⎟⎠

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Question 26
A 2 MeV proton is moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of
2.5T . The force applied on the proton is
©

Options:

A. 3 × 10−10N

B. 8 × 10−11N

C. 3 × 10−11N

D. 8 × 10−12N

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Given,
Kinetic energy of proton, K = 2MeV = 2 × 106eV
 = 2 × 106 × 1.6 × 10−19J
= 3.2 × 10−13J
Magnetic field, B = 2 . 5T
and mass of proton, m = 1.67 × 10−27kg
1
Now, kinetic energy, K = mv 2 .......(i)
2
Substitute given values in Eq. (i)
1
∴ 3.2 × 10−3 = × 1.67 × 10−27 × v 2
2
2 2 × 3.2 × 10−13
or v =
1.67 × 10−27
or v 2 = 3.83 × 1014
or v = 1.95 × 107m ∕ s
Force applied on proton in a uniform magnetic field is given by
F = qvB sin θ
Here, θ = 90°, ( ∵ Proton is moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field).
∴ F = qvB [ ∵ sin 90° = 1]
or F = 1.6 × 10−19 × 1.95 × 107 × 2.5
or F = 7.8 × 10−12N
or F ≈ 8 × 10−12N

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Question 27
An arbitrary shaped closed coil is made of a wire of length L and a
current I ampere is flowing through it. The plane of the coil is
perpendicular to magnetic field B , the force on the coil is
©

Options:

A. zero

B. IBL

C. 2IBL
1
D. IBL
2
Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
We know that, force on wire which length L and flowing current is I .
Force, F = I ( L × B ) .........(i)
But here arbitrary shaped is close. Magnetic field is zero is closed loop.
So, force on the coil is zero.

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Question 28
The magnetic flux linked with a coil, in webers, is given by the equation
ϕ = 3t 2 + 4t + 9
Then, the magnitude of induced emf at t = 2 s will be
©

Options:

A. 2V
B. 4V

C. 8V

D. 16V

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Given,
Magnetic flux, ϕ = 3t 2 + 4t + 9
dϕ
We know that, induced emf |e | =
dt
|d |
⇒ | e | = | ( 3t 2 + 4t + 9) | = |6t + 4|
| dt |
Induced emf at t = 2s
|e | = | ( 6 × 2) + 4 | = 16V

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Question 29
An L − R circuit has a cell of emf. E , which is switched ON a time t = 0.
The current in the circuit after a long time will be
©

Options:

A. zero
E
B.
R
E
C.
L
E
D.
√L 2 + R 2

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Given, situation can be shown in figure below R
Applying, kirchhoff's voltage law,
dI dI IR E
⇒L + IR = E ⇒ + =
dt dt L L
We know that, integration factor
R
t
IF = e L
R R
( )t ( )t E
or e L .I = e L .
L
R R
t
E L Lt E L
⇒eL I = . e ⇒I = .
L R L R
So, the current in the circuit after a long time will be
E
I=
R

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Question 30
A body moving with uniform acceleration describes 12m in the 3s of its
motion and 20m in the 5s . The velocity after 10s is
©

Options:

A. 52m ∕ s

B. 50m ∕ s

C. 42m ∕ s

D. 40m ∕ s

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
We know that, distance travelled in n th second
 a
sn = u + ( 2n − 1)
2
Case 1 Given, n = 3, s = 12m
a
So,12 = u + ( 6 − 1)
2
⇒ 12 = u + 2.5a .......(i)
Case 2s = 20m , n = 5
a
So, 20 = u + ( 10 − 1)
2
⇒ 20 = u + 4.5a ........(ii)
from Eqs. (i) and (ii),
8 = a ( 4.5 − 25)
⇒ 8 = 2a
⇒ a = 4m ∕ s 2 .......(iii)
From Eqs. (i),
⇒ 12 = u + 25 × 4 ⇒ u = 2m ∕ s
From first equation of motion,
v = u + at
v = 2 + 4 × 10 = 42m ∕ s

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Question 31
In the arrangement shown in figure, coefficient of friction between the
1
two blocks, is µ = . The force of friction acting between the two blocks,
2
is

Options:

A. 6N

B. 8N

C. 4N

D. 9N

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
1
Given, µ = , m1 = 2kg , m2 = 4kg
2
F1 = 2N , F2 = 20N
The maximum force of friction that can occur between the two blocks, is
fmax = µ mg ........(i)
Substitute given value in Eq. (i)
1
∴ fmax = × 2 × 10 = 10N
2
and acceleration of the block system,
total force 20 + ( −2) +18
a= = = = 3 m ∕ s2
total mass 4+2 6
The system of block has an acceleration in the left side. The force of friction opposing the motion of the 2kg block in the
left side is
ma + force acting in the direction of friction
= [ ( 2 × 3) + 2N ] = 8N
Thus, the force of friction acting between the two blocks is 8N .

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Question 32
A ball of mass m is thrown upwards with a velocity v . If air exerts an
average resisting force F , the velocity with which the ball returns to the
thrower is
©

Options:
mg
A. v √
mg + F
F
B. v √
mg + F
√ mg + F
C. v mg
√ mg − F
D. v
mg + F

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
First of all we divide the journey of ball in two parts, upward and downward.

Case I For upward journey,

From work energy theorem,
Work done, W = Kf − Ki = Δ K
1
⇒ − Fh − mgh = − mv 2 − 0
2
 1
⇒ Fh + mgh = mv 2 .......(i)
2
Since, F is a resistance force.
Case II For downward journey,
From work energy theorem
W = Kf − Ki = Δ K
1
⇒ − Fh + mgh = mv12 .......(ii)
2
(here, v1 = final velocity )
Divide (i) and (ii), we get
1
mv 2
( Fh + mgh ) 2
=
( − Fh + mgh ) 1
mv12
2
h ( F + mg ) v2
⇒ = 2
h ( − F + mg ) v1
2 2 ( mg − F )
⇒ v1 = v
( mg + F )
Hence, the velocity with which the ball returns to the thrower is
√ ( mg − F )
v1 = v
( mg + F )

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Question 33
When work done by force of gravity is negative, then
©

Options:

A. kinetic energy decreases

B. kinetic energy increases

C. kinetic energy remains constant

D. potential energy remains constants

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
We know that, from work energy theorem,
Work done = Change in kinetic energy
⇒ W = ΔK
Here, work done is negative.
So. − W = Δ K
It is possible when initial kinetic energy is greater than final kinetic energy.
i.e., kinetic energy will decrease.

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Question 34
Power applied to a particle varies with time as ( P = 3t 2 − 2t + 1) W , where
t is in second. The change in its kinetic energy between t = 2s and
t = 4s is
©

Options:

A. 32 J
B. 46J

C. 61J

D. 100J

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Given power, P = 3t 2 − 2t + 1
dW
We know that, P = .......(i)
dt
⇒ dW = Pdt
and from work energy theorem,
Work down, dW = Kf − Ki = Δ K ........(ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii)
Δ K = Pdt
4
⇒ Δ K = Pdt
2
4
= ( 3t 2 − 2t + 1) dt
2
3 2
⎡3t 2t ⎤4
=⎢ − + t⎥
⎣ 3 2 ⎦2
= ( t 3 − t 2 + t ) 42 = [ ( 4) 3 − ( 4) 2 + ( 4) −( 2) 3 + ( 2) 2 − 2] = 64 − 16 + 4 − 8 + 4 − 2 = 46J
So, the change in its kinetic energy between t = 2s and t = 4s is 46J .

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 35
In the figure, mass of A is m and that of B is 2m . All the surfaces are
smooth. System is released from rest with spring unstretched. Then, the
maximum extension xm in spring will be

Options:
 mg
A.
K
2mg
B.
K
3mg
C.
K
4mg
D.
K
Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:

Given, mass of A = m
Mass of B = 2m
According to question, system is released from rest with spring unstretched.
Then, decrease in potential energy of B
= Increase in spring potential energy
1 2
⇒ ∴ 2mgxm = Kxm .......(i)
2
Here, xm = maximum extension,
K = force constant and
g = gravitational acceleration
From Eq. (i)
1
2mg = Kxm
2
So, maximum extension xm in spring,
4mg
⇒ xm =
K

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 36
What will be the effect on the weight of a body placed on the surface of
earth, if earth suddenly starts rotating with half of its angular velocity
of rotation?
©

Options:

A. No effect

B. Weight will decrease

C. Weight will become zero

D. Weight will increase

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
The variation in gravitational acceleration is given by
g ′ = g − ω 2R cos 2λ ........(i)
where g = gravitational acceleration at surface
omega = angualr velocity
R= Radius of earth
According to the question,
g" = g − ω′ R cos 2λ
ω
Hereω′ =
2
ω 2
g" = g − ( ) R cos 2λ ...........(ii)
2
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), it is clear that
g" > g
As we know that
Weight of a body, w = mg
Here mass of body remains constant
Hence if earth suddenly starts rotating with half of its angular velocity of rotation, then the weight of body will increases.
Hence, w ∝ g

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 37
If the radius of the earth shrinks by 0.2 % without any change in the
mass, escape velocity from the surface of earth is
©

Options:

A. decreased by 0.1 %

B. decreased by 0.4 %

C. increased by 0.1 %

D. increased by 0.4 %

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
As, we know that,
Escape velocity, v = √2gRe .......(i)
Here, Re = radius of earth and
g = gravitational acceleration.
Given, earth radius shrinks by 0.2 %
Δ Re
So, × 100 = 0.2
Re
From Eq. (i), v 2 = 2gRe ......(ii)
Differentiate, 2v Δ v = 2g Δ Re ........(iii)
Dividing Eq. (iii) by Eq. (ii)
Δv 2g Δ Re
2v =
v2 2gRe
Δv 1 Δ Re 1
⇒ v × 100 = × 100 = × 0.2 = 0.1
2 Re 2
So, escape velocity from the surface of earth is increased by 0.1 % .

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 38
A uniform cylinder rod of length L . cross-sectional area A and Young's
modulus Y is acted upon by the forces shown in the figure. The
elongation of the rod is

Options:

8 FL
A.
3 AY
3 FL
B.
8 AY
5 FL
C.
3 AY
3 FL
D.
5 AY
Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
2L L
First of all we divide the rod into 2 parts of lengths and and where force F is acting.
3 3
2L
Case I Force acting on both side of is 3F .
3
So, elongation x1 will be
2L
[ 3F × ]
3
x1 = .......(i)
AY
L
Case II Force acting on both side of is 2F .
3
So, elongation x2 will be
 L
[ 2F × ]
3
x2 = ........(ii)
AY
Now, total elongation, x = x1 + x2
2L L
( 3F × ) ( 2F × )
3 3
= +
AY AY
8
FL
3 8FL
x= =
AY 3AY

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 39
Drop of liquid of density ρ is floating half immersed in a liquid of
density ρ0 . If surface tension of liquid is s , the radius of drop is
©

Options:

3s
A. √
g ( ρ − ρ0)
3s
B. √
g ( 2ρ − ρ0)
3s
C. √
g ( 3ρ − ρ0)
3s
D. √
g ( 4ρ − ρ0)

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Given, density of liquid drop = ρ
Density of floating half immersed in liquid = ρ0
Surface tension of liquid = s
Now, balancing the forces acting on the drops floating
∴ w = Fb + Fs
where, w is the weight of the liquid drop, Fb is the Buoyant force acting on the drop and FS is the surface tension acting
on drop.
Then,
w = Fb + Fs
4 2
or π r 3ρ g = π r 3ρ0g + s × 2π r
3 3
4 2
or π r 3ρ g − π r 3ρ0g = s × 2π r
3 3
4 2
or r 3[ πρ g − πρ0g ] = s × 2π r
3 3
2
[ 4πρ g − 2πρ0g ]
or r = s × 2π
3
2π g [ 2 p − ρ0]
or r 2 = s × 2π
3
g ( 2p − p0 )
or r 2 =s
3
3s
or r 2 =
g ( 2p − p0)
3s
or r = √ .
g ( 2ρ − ρ0)
3s
So, the radius of drop is r = √ .
g ( 2ρ − ρ0)

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 40
If the masses of all molecules of a gas are halved and their speeds
doubled, then the ratio of initial and final pressure will be
©

Options:

A. 1: 4

B. 4: 1

C. 2: 1

D. 1: 2

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Let mass of molecule m and speed v , then by kinetic theory of gasses,
1
∴ PV = nmv 2 ......(i)
2
Here, P = initial pressure
and V = initial volume.
According to question,
m
Mass of molecules of gas =
2
and Speed of the gas molecules = 2v .
Then,
1 m
P ′ V ′ = n ( ) ( 2v ) 2
3 2
Here, P ′ is final pressure of gas molecules.
1 m
or, P ′ V ′ = n × 4v 2
3 2
1
or P ′ V ′ = nm × 2v 2 ......(ii)
3
Now from equation (i) and (ii), we get
1
nmv 2
PV 3
or, =
P′V′ 1
nmv 2 × 2
3
P 1
or, = ( ∵ v = v′)
P′ 2
So, the ratio of Initial and final pressure is 1: 2.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 41
7 5
1 mole of gas with γ = is mixed with l mole of gas with γ = , then the
5 3
value of γ for the resulting mixture is
©

Options:

7
A.
5
2
B.
5
3
C.
2
 12
D.
7
Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
According to the question,
7
1 mole of gas with γ1 =
5
5
Mixed with 1 mole of gas with γ2 =
3
Now, by mixture of non-reactive gases,
Specific heat of constant pressure( CP )
∴γ =
Specific heat of constant volume( CV )
Number of gas molecules in mixture is
⎡ ∵ n1 = 1 ⎤
n = n1 + n2 = 1 + 1 = 2⎢ ⎥
⎣ andn2 = 1 ⎦
CP
∴γ =
CV
n n1 n2
or = +
γ −1 γ1 − 1 γ2 − 1
Now, putting the values in above equation, we get
2 1 1
or = +
γ −1 7 5
−1 −1
5 3
2 5 3 2
or = + or =4
γ −1 2 2 γ −1
1 1 3
or γ − 1 = or γ = + 1 =
2 2 2
3
Then, the value of γ for resulting mixture is .
2

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 42
1
A diatomic ideal gas is compressed adiabatically to of its initial
32
volume. If the initial temperature of the gas is T1 (in kelvin) and the
final temperature is α Ti , the value of α is
©

Options:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Let the initial volume of gas = V1
Gas is compressed adiabatically then the volume.
V1
V2 =
32
Initial temperature of gas = Ti (in kelvin)
Final temperature of gas = α Ti
7
For diatomic gas, γ =
5
For adiabatic process,
⇒ T V γ − 1 = constant
When initial volume is V1 , then adiabatic process is given as
⇒ Ti V1γ − 1 = constant .......(i)
1
When volume is of initial volume, then adiabatic process
32
⎛ V1 ⎞ γ − 1
∴ α Ti = constant .........(ii)
⎝⎜32 ⎠⎟
Now, Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
7
−1 V 7 −1
or Ti V15 = α Ti ⎛ 1 ⎞ 5
⎜ 32 ⎠
⎝ ⎟
2 2 2
V 1 5
or Ti V15 = α Ti ⎛ 1 ⎞ 5 or 1 = α( )
⎜
⎝ 32 ⎟
⎠ 32
α = ( 32) 2 ∕ 5orα = 4

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 43
Which of the following is not true about the process?
©

Options:

A. For isothermal process, dT = 0

B. For isoboric process, dP = 0

C. For isochoric process, dE = 0

D. For adiabatic process, dQ = 0

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Given, for isochoric process dE = 0 that is wrong because for isochoric process dv = 0.
For an isothermal process temperature remins constant, therefore, dT = 0 for an isobaric process pressure remains
constant, therefore, dp = 0. For an adiabatic process, there is no exchange of heat between system and the
surroundings, therefore, dQ = 0
Hence, option (c) is not true.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 44
A body cools from 60°C to 50°C in 10min . If room temperature is 25°C ,
then the temperature of body at the end of next 10 min will be
©

Options:

A. 38.5°C

B. 42.8°C

C. 45.5°C
D. 40.8°C

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Given, T1 = 60°C , T2 = 50°C
T0 = 25°, t2 = t1 = 10min
According to Newton's law of cooling,
T1 − T2 ⎛T1 + T2 ⎞
=k − T0
t ⎜ 2
⎝ ⎟
⎠
60 − 50 60 + 50
⇒ = k( − 25)
10 2
1
⇒ 1 = k ( 55 − 25) ⇒ k = .......(i)
30
50 − θ 50 + θ
Suppose if temperature of body θ in next 10min , then = k( − 25) .........(ii)
10 2
From Eqs. (i) and (ii)
50 − θ 1 50 + θ
= ( − 25)
10 30 2
50 − θ 1 50 + θ − 50
⇒ = ( )
10 30 2
50 − θ 1 θ
= ×
10 30 2
θ
⇒ 50 − θ =
6
⇒ 300 − 6θ = θ
300
⇒ 7θ = 300 ⇒ θ = = 42.8°C
7

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 45
The rate of radiation of a black body at 0°C is E joule per sec. Then, the
rate of radiation of this black body at 273°C will be
©

Options:

A. 16E

B. 8E

C. 4E

D. 2E

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Given,
d θ1
Rate of radiation of black body at 0°C , =E
dt
Now, Stefan's law, rate at which heat is emitted is given as
dθ
= σε AT 4
dt
where, σ = Stefan constant and A = area of surface.
d θ1
∴ = ( σε A ) T14
dt
or E = ( σε A ) ( 0 + 273) 4 .......(i)
Then, the rate of radiation of this black body at 273°C,
 d θ2
∴ = ( σε A ) T24
dt
d θ2
Let, =X
dt
or X = ( σε A ) T24( ∵ T2 = 273°C )
or X = ( σε A ) ( 273° + 273°) ........(ii)
Dividing Eqs. (i) by (ii), we get
E ( 0° + 273) 4 ( 273) 4 ( 1) 4 1 1
∴ = = = = =
X ( 273 + 273) 4 ( 546) 4 ( 2) 4 24 16
or X = 16E
Therefore, the rate of radiation of this black body at 273°C will be 16E .

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 46
A particle starts oscillating in simple harmonic motion from its
equilibrium position with time period T . The ratio of KE and PE of the
T
particle at time t = is
12
©

Options:

A. 3: 1

B. 1: 4

C. 4: 1

D. 2: 1

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
We know that, displacement at t is given by
y = a sin ω t ........(i)
∴ Velocity, v = a ω cos ω t .......(ii)
Here, a = amplitude
2π
and ω = angular frequency = .
T
360 T √
∴ cos ω t = cos( × ) = cos 30° = 3
T 12 2
From Eq. (i), we get
Velocity, v = √3 a ω .......(iii)
2
1
Kinetic energy ( KE ) = mv 2
2
From Eq. (iii), we get
1 3 3
= ma 2 ω 2 = ma 2ω 2 .........(iv)
2 4 8
As we know that
1
Total energy ( TE ) = ma 2ω 2 .........(v)
2
∴ Potential energy = TE − KE
1 3
= ma 2ω 2 − ma 2ω 2
2 4
1 3
= ma 2ω 2[ 1 − ]
2 4
1 1 1
= ma 2ω 2 × = ma 2ω 2 ........(iv)
2 4 8
3
ma 2ω 2
KE ′ 8
Hence, = = 3: 1
PE 1
ma 2ω 2
8
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 47
A simple harmonic motion has amplitude a and time period T . The
maximums velocity will be
©

Options:

4a
A.
T
2a
B.
T
a
C. 2π √
T
2π a
D.
T
Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Given,
Amplitude of a SHM = a
Time period of SHM = T
The displacement of a particle in case of SHM is given by,
x = a sin( ω t + ϕ)
then the velocity of SHM is given as
dx d
∴ v= or v = [ a sin( ω t + ϕ) ]
dt dt
or v = a ω[ 1 − sin ( ω t + ϕ) ] 1 ∕ 2
2

⎡ x 2 ⎤1 ∕ 2
or = a ω 1 −
⎢⎣ a 2 ⎥⎦
or v = ω √a 2 − x 2
Now, at mean position ( x = 0) velocity is maximum.
i.e. vmax = a ω ........(i)
We know that, angular frequency oscillating particle is
2π
ω= .........(ii)
T
Now, putting the value of omega is Eq. (i), we get
2π
vmax = a ×
T
2π a
vmax =
T
2π a
So, the maximum velocity of particle will be .
T

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 48
At what speed should a source of sound move, so that stationary
observer finds the apparent frequency equal to half of the original
frequency?
©

Options:
v
A.
2
B. 2v
v
C.
4
D. v

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Given,
1
The apparent frequency equal to half of the original frequency v ′ = v
2 0
Now, the apparent frequency of observer is given as
v
∴ v′ = .v
v + vs 0
Here, v ′ = apparent frequency of observer,
v = speed of the sound,
vs = speed of the source of sound and
v0 = original frequency.
1
∴ v ′ = v0
2
1 v 1 v
Then, v0 = v or =
2 v + vS 0 2 v + vs
or v + vs = 2v
or vs = 2v − v
or vs = v
Therefore, speed of source of sound ( vs ) more should be equal to the speed of sound ( v ) , so that stationary observer
finds the apparent frequency equal to half of the original frequency.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 49
In interference, the ratio of maximum intensity to the minimum
intensity is 25 . The intensities of the sources are in the ratio
©

Options:

A. 25: 1

B. 5: 1

C. 9: 4

D. 625: 1

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Given,
Imax
The ratio of maximum intensity to minimum intensity is = 25
Imin
Now, in the interference,
∴ Intensities of two coherent sources is given by
Imax ( √I1 + √I2) 2
=
Imin ( √I1 − √I2) 2
 ( √I1 + √I2) 2
or 25 =
( √I1 − √I2) 2
( √I1 + √I2)
or √25 =
( √I1 − √I2)
√I1 + √I2
5=
√I1 − √I2
or 5( √I1 − √I2) = √I1 + √I2
or 5√I1 − √I1 = √I2 + 5√I2
or √I1( 5 − 1) = √I2( 5 + 1)
√I 6 I 6 2
or 1 = ⇒ 1 = ( )
√I 4 I2 4
I1 2 36 I1 9
or = ⇒ =
I2 16 I2 4
Therefore, the intensities of the sources are in the ratio 9: 4.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 50
Four light waves are represented by
(i) y = a1 sin ω t
(ii) y = a2 sin(ω t + ϕ)
(iii) y = a1 sin 2 ω t
(iv) y = a2 sin 2(ω t + ϕ)
Interference fringes may be observed due to superimposition of
©

Options:

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (i) and (iii)

C. (ii) and (iii)

D. (ii) and (iv)

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
The interference fringes can be observed with coherent sources of light which have a constant initial phase difference
and same frequency. Only the waves of option (a) satisfy this condition.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 51
Which of the following processes involves the roasting process?
©

Options:

A. Fe 2O3 + 3C → 2Fe + 3CO

B. Al 2O3 . 2H2O → Al 2O3 + 2H2O

C. ZnCO 3 → ZnO + CO 2
D. 2PbS + 3O2 → 2PbO + 2SO 2

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
The process of heating the ore, strongly below its melting point ( m . p ) in the presence of air (i.e. oxygen) is called
roasting. Usually sulphide ores are converted to oxide of metal by this process.
Thus, PbS is converted to PbO by this method is the correct option.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 52
Match the following

Options:

A. I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b

B. I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a

C. I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a

D. I-d, II-a, III-b, IV-c

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Hence, ( a ) is the correct option.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 53
Which set of elements have nearly the same atomic radii?
©

Options:

A. Fe , Co , Ni , Cu

B. F , Cl , Br , I

C. Na , K , Rb , Cs

D. Li , Be , B , C

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Due to lanthanide contraction, the inner electrons of 3d -orbitals offer poor shielding effect, which increases the effective
nuclear charge and therefore, element belongs to 3d -series (i.e. Fe , Co, Ni and Cu ) are nearly of same atomic radii
(size).
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 54
CO forms a volatile compound with
©

Options:

A. Cu

B. Al

C. Ni

D. Na

Answer: C
Solution:

Solution:
As Ni can form Ni ( CO ) 4 easily, which is of volatile nature and can give pure Ni as follows
350K 450 − 470K
Ni + 4CO ──── ▸ Ni ( CO ) 4 ──── ▸ Ni + CO
( Nickel compound)

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 55
The correct order of first electron affinity of O , S and Se is
©

Options:

A. O > S > Se

B. Se > O > S

C. Se > S > 0

D. S > O > Se

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Electron affinity increases along the period from left to right and is decreases as we move down the group. The values of
electron affinity for the given species are as follows:
S ( sulphur ) = 200kJ ∕ mol
Se (selenium) = 195kJ ∕ mol
O ( oxygen ) = 141.1kJ ∕ mol
Hence, correct order is : S > Se > O , but as electron affinity of S ≈ Se, we can also write it as Se > S > O and option (c)
will be the correct answer.
Note Electron affinity of S > O , due to very small size of oxygen having lone pair of electrons, which offer more repulsion
for the incoming electron.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 56
The volume of ' 10 vol' of H2O2 required to liberate 500mL O2 at NTP is
©

Options:

A. 125mL

B. 500mL

C. 50mL

D. 100mL

Answer: C
Solution:

Solution:
10 vol. H2O2 means 1 vol (in mL or L ) of H2O2 will give 10L (or 10mL ) of oxygen O2 at NTP/STP.
Now,
∵ 10 vol. of O2 is given by −1 volume of H2O2
500 × 1
∴ 500 vol. of O2 is given by = = 50 vol
10
Thus, 50mL of H2O2 is required to get 500mL of O2 at NTP/STP and option (c) is the correct answer.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 57
The Nessler's reagent contains
©

Options:

A. [ Hgl 2] 2 −

B. [ Hg 2] 2 +

C. [ Hg ] 2 +

D. [ Hgl 4] 2 −

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Nessler's reagent is K2HgI 4 . It is a basic solution of potassium mercuric iodide which gives reddish brown ppt. of millon's
base [ H2N − HgO − HgI ] with NH 3 , as follows
NH 3 + 2K2HgI 4 + 3KOH──── ▸ H2N − HgO − HgI + 7KI + 2H2O
( lodide of millon′ s base) Brown ppt .
Thus, it can give [ HgI 4] 2 − ions so, option ( d ) is the correct answer.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 58
XeF 6 on complete hydrolysis gives
©

Options:

A. XeO 2

B. XeO 4

C. Xe

D. XeO 3

Answer: D

Solution:
Solution:
Complete hydrolysis of XeF 6 gives XeO 3 which occurs as follows
XeF 6 + 3H2O ──── ▸ XeO 3 + 6HF
Hence, ( d ) is the correct option.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 59
For which one of the following ions, the colour is not due to d − d
transition?
©

Options:

A. [ Cu ( NH 3) 4] 2 +

B. CrO 24 −

C. CoF 36 −

D. [ Ti ( H2O ) 6] 3 +

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
( a ) In [ Cu ( NH 3) 4] 2 + , in the presence of ligand NH 3, Cu 2 + ions show the following electronic configuration.

Note In which one electron of 3d is transfered to 4p .

The above complex show colour due to d − d transition.
(b) In CrO 24 − , Cr in compound CrO 24 − offer colour due to charge transfer from metal to π * orbitals of ligand and not due
to d − d transition.
(c) In [ CoF 6] 3 − , in the presence of weak ligand (i.e. fluorine), Co 3 + ions show the following electronic configuration,

The above complex has unpaired electrons and can show colour due to d − d transition.
(d) In [Ti(H 2O ) 6] 3 +

The presence of weak ligand i.e., ( H2O ) , Ti 3 + ion show one unpaired electron and offer colour due to d − d transition.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 60
Which is known as philosopher's wool?
©

Options:

A. ZnO

B. CdO

C. BaO

D. HgO

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Zinc oxide ( ZnO ) is a white powder that is insoluble in water ( H2O ) and is used as an additive in many products e.g.
rubber.
It is also known as 'philosopher's wool.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 61
In the reaction,
2CuCl 2 + 2H2O + SO 2 ─── ▸ A + H2SO 4 + 2HCl
A is
©

Options:

A. CuS

B. Cu

C. CuSO 4

D. Cu 2Cl 2

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
The reaction between CuCl 2 and SO 2 occurs as follows
2CuCl 2 + 2H2O + SO 2 ─── ▸ Cu 2Cl 2 + H2SO 4 + 2HCl
A
Hence, ( a) is Cu 2Cl 2 or 2CuCl so, option ( d ) is the correct answer.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 62
The hybridisation of [ Ni ( CN ) 4] 2 − and [ Ni ( NH 3) 6] 2 + ions are
respectively.
©

Options:

A. sp 3, d 2sp 3

B. dsp 2, sp 3d 2

C. dsp 2, d 2sp 3

D. d 2sp , d 2sp 3

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 63
Aqua-regia reacts with Pt to yield
©

Options:

A. Pt ( NO 3) 4

B. H2PtCl 6

C. PtCl 2

D. PtCl 4

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Aqua-regia is a mixture of HCl and HNO 3 in the ratio of 3: 1. When aqua-regia react with Pt (platinum), we get H2PtCl 6
as follows:
3Pt + 4HNO 3 + 18HCl ──── ▸ 3H2PtCl 6( aq ) + 4NO ( g ) + 8H2O ( l )
Hence, option (b) is the correct.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 64
Which ion is paramagnetic?
©

Options:

A. Ni ( NH 3) 6] 2 +

B. [ Ni ( CN ) 4] 2 −

C. Ni ( CO ) 4

D. [ Co ( NH 3) 6] 3 +

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
(a) In Ni ( NH 3) 6] 2 + , Ni is present as Ni 2 + ion having outer electronic configuration.
Here, NH 3 is regarded as a weak field ligand which can not go for pairing when present in d -subshell.
Due to presence of unpaired electrons it is paramagnetic in nature.
(b) In [ Ni ( CN ) 4] 2 − , Ni is present as Ni 2 + ion and CN is a strong field ligand,
Thus, has the following electronic configuration.

The above configuration has no unpaired electron, thus, is diamagnetic in nature.

(c) In [ Ni ( CO ) 4] , oxidation state of Ni is zero and show the following electronic configuration.

Note Here, electrons of 4 s migrate towards 3d and give sp 3 hybridisation.

As Ni ( CO ) 4 has no unpaired electron so, it is diamagnetic in nature.
(d) In [Co(NH 3) 6] 3 + , Co is in Co 3 + state and show the electronic configuration as follows
Due to presence of NH 3 as ligand, [ Co ( NH 3) 6] 3 + has no unpaired electron and therefore, is diamagnetic in nature.
Hence, option (a) is the correct.

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Question 65
Which combines with Fe 2 + to form brown complex?
©

Options:

A. NO

B. N2O
C. N2O3

D. N2O5

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
When Fe 2 + i.e., [ Fe ( H2O ) ] SO 4 or FeSO 4( aq )
react with NO (nitric oxide), it gives brown ring complex as follows
[ Fe ( H2O ) 6] SO 4 + NO ──── ▸ [ Fe ( H2O ) 5NO ] SO 4 + H2O
brown complex
The brown ring test is used to identify the presence of NO 3− ions.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Question 66
How many isomers of C5H11OH will be primary alcohols?
©

Options:

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
The isomers of primary alcohol with formula C5H11 . OH are as follows
Hence, we have 4 (four) isomers and option (c) is the correct answer.

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Question 67
IUPAC name of lowest molecular mass alkane containing chiral carbon
is
©

Options:

A. 3-methylhexane

B. 2-methylhexane

C. 2, 4-dimethylpentane

D. 2-methylpentane

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Key Point The carbon, which is bonded with four different atoms/groups is known as chiral carbon.
The structure of the given IUPAC names are as follows:
(a) 3 -methylhexane
6 5 4 3 2 1
C H3 − C H2 − C H2 − CH − C H2 − C H3
|
CH3
H
|
or C3H7− • C − C2H5
|
CH3
(It has one chiral carbon atom, marked with dot.)
(b) 2 -methylhexane
H
6 5 4 3 2 | 1
H3C − C H2 − C H2 − C H2 − C − C H3
|
CH3
It has no chiral carbon atom.
(c) 2, 4-dimethyl pentane
5 4 3 2 1
H3 − C H − C H2 − C H − C H3
| |
CH3 CH3
It has also no chiral carbon atom.
(d) 2 -methyl pentane
5 4 3 2 1
H3C − C H2 − C H2 − C H − C H3
|
CH3
It has also no chiral carbon atom.
Thus, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Question 68
64g of an organic compound contains 24g of carbon, 8 g of hydrogen
and the rest oxygen. The empirical formula of the compound is
©

Options:

A. CH 2O
B. C2H4O

C. CH 4O

D. C2H8O

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Key Point The simplest whole number ratio of the elements, present in any compound is called to empirical formula
Given
Total mass of an organic compound = 64g
Carbon ( C ) = 24g
Hydrogen ( H ) = 8g
Oxygen ( O ) = 64 − ( 24 + 8) = 32g
Thus, empirical formula is

Hence, formula = C2H8O2 and its empirical formula = CH 4O and option (c) is the correct answer.

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Question 69

A is

Options:

A. cis-but-2-ene

B. trans-but-2-ene
C. but-1-ene

D. 2-methylpropene

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(i) C4H8 (an alkene) on ozonolysis only give one organic product means it has the double bond as follows
H3C − CH = CH − CH 3 i.e., show i.e., Symmetry about C = C
(ii) As trans C4H8
i.e., trans but-2-ene can give Meso compound with Br 2 in CCl 4 , which is optically inactive.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
Note cis but-2-ene give ±2, 3 dibromobutane on treatment with Br 2 in CCl 4 .

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Question 70

Options:

A. CH ≡ CH

B. CH 3 − C ≡ CH

C. CH 3 − C ≡ CH − CH 3

D. CH 2 = CH 2
Answer: B

Solution:
Solution:
(i) CH 3 − C ≡ CH can provide white ppt. with Ag 2O , as it can give aldehyde as intermediate product.
(ii) CH 3 − C ≡ CH can give aldehyde on treatment with Hg 2 + ∕ H + , which on reduction with NaBH 4 gives 2° -alcohol.
The 2° -alcohol gives blue colour with ether during victor meyer test.
Ag 2O
(i) CH 3 − C ≡ CH ──── ▸ CH 3 − CH 2 − CHO
′A′
Hg 2 + ∕ H +
(ii) (I) CH 3 − C ≡ CH ──── ▸ CH 3 − CH 2 − CHO
NaBH4
(II) CH 3 − CH 2 − CHO ──── ▸ CH3 − CH − CH3
Reduction |
OH
( 2° − alcohol )
Victor meyer
(III) CH3 − CH − CH3 ──── ▸ blue
| test
OH
colour with ether.
Hence, ( b ) is the correct option.

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Question 71
Olefin 'A' gives 2 mol acetone and glyoxal on ozonolysis. The structure
of ' A '.
©

Options:

A. 2, 4-dimethylhex-2, 4 -diene

B. 3,4 -dimethylhex-2, 4 -diene

C. 3,4 -dimethylhex-1, 5 -diene

D. 2, 5-dimethylhex-2, 4-diene

Answer: D

Solution:
Solution:
Key Point Olefins (alkenes) give respective aldehydes/ketones on ozonolysis. To find the parent alkene that gives related
aldehyde/ketone (i.e., moles of acetone and one mole of glyoxal), we remove the double bond from the given structure
and add = 0 in the obtained fragment (i.e., in place of double bond), to get the required aldehyde/ketone.
The products formed on the ozonolysis of alkene are as follows:
(a) 2, 4 dimethylhex 2,4 -diene
(b) 3,4 -dimethylhex 2,4 diene

(c) 3, 4 -dimethylhex 1,5 diene

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Question 72
Which of the following compound does not show geometrical
isomerism?
©

Options:

A. Crotonic acid
B. Citraconic acid

C. Cis-platin

D. Butanone-2

Answer: C

Solution:
Solution:
Conditions of geometrical isomerism:
In order to represent the geometrical isomerism by the compound, the two groups should be different lies at each stereo
centre, in which geometrical isomerism is observed.

In these compounds, Cis-platin does not show geometrical isomerism. Thus, the option (c) is correct.

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Question 73
 1.Br 2 O3
Butene- 2 ───── ▸ [ A ] ─────
+
▸ [B ]
2. alc.KOH , Δ H3 O
Compounds A and B are
©

Options:

A. but-1, 3-diene, formaldehyde

B. allene, formaldehyde

C. butyne-2, acetic acid

D. butyne-1, formic acid

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
So, in this reaction the product [ A ] is butyne- 2 and product [ B ] is acetic acid.

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Question 74
1.2g of Mg is treated with 100mL of 1M H2SO 4 . Molar concentration of
the H2SO 4 solution after complete reaction will be
©

Options:

A. 0.20M

B. 0.005M

C. 0.10M

D. 0.5M

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Given,
mass of Mg ( W ) = 1.2g
molar mass of Mg ( M ) = 24g
volume of 1M H2SO 4 = 100mL
Thus,
W
∵ moles ( n ) of Mg =
M
1.2
= = 0.05 mole
24
and moles ( n ) of H2SO 4 in 100mL
solution of 1MH2SO 4 = M × V( L )
1 × 100
= = 0.1 moles.
1000
Where, ( V = volume of solution)
Therefore, H2SO 4 left after treated with 100mL of 1MH2SO 4 = 0.1 − 0.05
i.e., n ′ = 0.05 moles
Thus, concentration of H2SO 4 (left)
n ′ × 1000 0.05 × 1000
= = = 0.5M
V 100
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

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Question 75
1. HI,Δ LiAlH4
Diethyl ether ───── ▸ [ A ] ───── ▸ [ B ]
2. KCN
Compound [ B ] gives carbylamine test. What are the structures of [ A ]
and [ B ] ?
©

Options:

A. Ethane nitrile, ethylamine

B. Ethane amine, acid

C. Propane nitrile, propanol

D. Propane nitrile, propyl amine

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
In this reaction the product [ A ] is propane nitrile and product [ B ] is propyl amine.

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Question 76
Complete the following reaction. The structure of final product [ C ] is

Options:

A. pentene-2

B. butene-2

C. pentene-1

D. butene-1

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
From the given reaction, final product [ C ] is butene- 2 or but-2-ene.

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Question 77
Which pair of following compounds gives intra cannizzaro's reaction?
©

Options:

A. Glyoxal, phthaldehyde

B. Formaldehyde, acetone

C. Benzaldehyde, formaldehyde

D. Benzaldehyde, glyoxal

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Intra cannizzaro's reaction: Glyoxal and phthaldehyde undergoes an intra molecular cannizzaro reaction in aqueous base.
Thus, the option (a) is correct.

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Question 78
Compound [ X ] M.F C7H7 NO reacts with Br 2 − KOH to yield compound
[ Y ] which gives mustard oil reaction. The structures of [ X ] and [ Y ] are
©

Options:

A. acetamide, ethylamine

B. benzamide, aniline

C. benzamide, anicidine

D. nitrosobenzene, aniline

Answer: B

Solution:
Solution:
When compound [ X ] C7H7 NO reacts with Br 2 − KOH to yield compound [ Y ] which gives mustured oil reaction.
The structures of [ X ] and [ Y ] are

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Question 79
Which one of the following is biopolymer?
©

Options:

A. Dextron

B. P C T F E

C. Nylon-6, 6

D. Neoprene

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Biopolymers are polymers produced by living organisms. Biopolymers contain monomeric units that are covalently
bonded to form larger structures. These are three main classes of biopolymers, that is monomers, polypeptides and
polynucleotides.
Other examples of biopolymers include suberin, melanin and lignin. Dextron is a copolymer of glycolic acid and lactic
acid.

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Question 80
Which polymer is used in electrical insulator?
©

Options:

A. Buna-N

B. Dextron

C. PHBV
D. Styrene

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Polymer insulator is an electrical device consisting of insulation section made of polymer materials and metal fittings.
There are many polymers which used for insulation.
For example, epoxy resins, polyster, polyethylene, styrene and phenol formaldehyde (bakelite) etc.
So, option (d) is correct.

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Question 81
Which compound gives saccharic acid when it reacts with conc. HNO 3 ?
Options:

A. Sucrose

B. Starch

C. Maltose

D. Glucose

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Glucose when reacts with HNO 3 (conc.), it gives saccharicacid/gluceric acid as main product, the reaction occurs as
follows

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 82
Which statements are correct?
1. Lysozyme present in bacterial cell, on hydrolysis gives NAM and NAG.
2. Hemoglobin S has two α and two β chain.
3. Sangar reagent is used to protect C-terminus of protein.
4. Vitamin E, Vitamin K and coenzyme Q are derived lipids
©

Options:

A. 1, 2, 4

B. 2, 3, 4

C. 1, 3, 4

D. 1, 2, 3

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Correct statements are 1,2 and 3 .
1. Lysozyme is a special enzyme found in tears, saliva, sweat and other body fluids. It is a glycoside hydrolase that
catalyses the hydrolysis of 1,4 -beta-linkage between N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) and N-acetyl-D-glucosamine ( NAG )
residues, which is the major component of gram positive bacterial cell wall.
2. The hemoglobin S molecule is made up of four polypeptide chains that is two alpha and two beta chain.
3. Sanger's reagent is 1-fluoro-2,4-dinitrobenzene. It reacts with N-terminal amino acid of polypeptides. This can be
helpful for sequencing proteins.
4. Derived lipids are the substances derived from simple and compound lipids by hydrolysis. The most common derived
lipids are steroids, terpenes and carotenoids. So, vitamin mathrm K and coenzyme Q are derived lipids.

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Question 83
If uncertainty of position and momentum are equal then uncertainty of
velocity is
©

Options:

h
A. √
π
h
B. √
2π
1 √h
C.
2m π
h
D.
2π
Answer: C

Solution:
Solution:
According to uncertainty principle, It is impossible to determine simultaneously, the exact position and momentum (or
velocity) of an moving electron.
h
Mathematically Δ x . Δ p ≥
4π
Given, when,
Δx = Δp
where, Δ x = uncertainty in position.
Δ p = uncertainty in momentum and
Δp = mΔv
where, Δ v = uncertainty in velocity and
m = mass of electron
m . Δ = Δx
h
or, m 2Δ v 2 =
4π
1 √h
or Δ v 2 =
2m π
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Question 84
The introduction of a neutron into the nucleus of an atom would lead to
a change in
©

Options:

A. atomic number

B. atomic mass

C. chemical nature of the atom

D. number of electron

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) Mass number is the sum of masses of all protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom while atomic
number is the sum of all protons present in the nucleus.
Electrons are negatively charges particles having negligible mass moving around the nucleus.
When a neutron is added to the nucleus of an atom only atomic mass of the atom changes, as neutron has no-charge on
it.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Question 85
The number of lone pair of electron and hybridisation in XeOF 4 is
©

Options:

A. 0, sp 3

B. 1, sp 3d

C. 1, sp 3d 2
D. 2, sp 3d 2

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Key Point Only one sigma bond is formed by each surrounding atom and each atom try to complete its octave and only
orbitals involved in sigma bond formation or have lone pair of electrons can so for hybridisation.
The structure of XeOF 4 is as follows:

In the structure of XeOF 4 , we have five ( 5) sigma(σ) bonds and one lone pair of electron associated with Xe-atom.
Thus, has 5 sigma bonds and 1 lone pair of electron with sp 3d 2( 5 + 1 = 6) hybridisation.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Question 86
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using following
codes
Options:

A. A-3, B-5, C-1, D-2, E-4

B. A-5, B-3, C-2, D-4, E-1

C. A-1, B-3, C-5, D-2, E-4

D. A-4, B-5, C-2, D-1, E-3

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Question 87
Number of unit cells present in a cubic shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of
mass 1.00g is [Molecular mass = 58.5]
©

Options:

A. 1.28 × 1021 unit cells

B. 1.71 × 1021 unit cells

C. 5.14 × 1021 unit cells

D. 2.57 × 1021 unit cells

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
NaCl has fcc structure, therefore we have 4 units of NaCl in one unit cell of NaCl .
and
6.02 × 1023 units of NaCl = 1mol
= 23 + 35.5 = 58.5g
and molar mass of NaCl ( 23 + 35.5 = 58.5)
= 58.5g of NaCl permol
= 1mol = 6.02 × 1023 units of NaCl
∵ 58.5g of NaCl contain = 6.02 × 1023 units of NaCl
∴ 1g of NaCl contain
6.02 × 1023
= unit cells of NaCl
58.5
= 0.1029 × 1023 units of NaCl
Also,
∵ Each unit cell contain 4 units of NaCl .
∴ Number of NaCl unit cells = 0.0257 × 1023
unit cells of NaCl = 2.5 × 1021 unit cells.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

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Question 88
A match box exhibits
©

Options:

A. cubic geometry

B. monoclinic geometry

C. orthorhombic geometry

D. tetragonal geometry

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
The diamentions and angles between the edges of the match box are as follows
α = β = γ = 90
where, α, β and γ are the bond angles between the edges
and a ≠ b ≠ c , where, a , b and c are the bond lengths of match box.
Hence, it has orthorhombic geometry and option (c) is the correct answer.

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Question 89
If the quantity of a radioactive element is doubled, the rate of
disintegration will
©

Options:

A. be halved

B. be doubled

C. become four times

D. remain unaffected

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
The radioactive elements follow first order disintegration, which are not attacted by the initial concentration i.e., rate of
disintegration remain unaffected.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

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Question 90
In the radioactive decay process
−α −α −4β
A ───── ▸ B ───── ▸ C ───── ▸ D
1. A and B are isobars
2. A and D are isotopes
3. C and D are isobars
4. A and C are isotopes
The correct answer is
©

Options:

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 1 and 4

Answer: B

Solution:
Solution:
On emission of each α -particle, atomic number of an element decreased by 2 units and atomic mass by 4 units, while on
emission of each β -particle, atomic number is increased by one unit and atomic mass remain unaffected.
Let initial atomic number of radioactive species ( A ) = Z and atomic mass of ( A ) = M , then,
−α −α −4β
AZM ───── ▸ BZM−−24───── ▸ CZM−−48───── ▸ DZM − 8
Also,
Isotopes are the species which have same atomic number but have different atomic masses while isobers have same
atomic mass and different atomic numbers.
The species with same number of neutrons but have different number of protons are called isotones.
Thus, species A and ′ B ′ are isotopes while species C and D are isobars.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Question 91
If solubility of M ( OH ) 3 is S , its solubility product will be:

Options:

A. 108S 5

B. 27S 3

C. 4S 4

D. 27S 4

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
The relation between solubility ( S ) and solubility product ( KSP ) is as follows
KSP = x x . y 9 . S x + y
where, x and y are the number of atoms/radicals of the given species.
For M ( OH ) 3 type species
x =1
y =3
thus, KSP = 11 × 33S 3 + 1 = 27S 4
Hence, solution (d) is the correct answer.

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Question 92
For the reaction
2NO 2( g ) ⇌ 2NO ( g ) + O2( g )
Kc = 1.8 × 10−6 at 184°C
R = 0.0831kJK −1mol −1
The relationship between Kp and Kc at 184°C is
©

Options:

A. Kp > Kc

B. Kp < Kc
C. Kp = Kc

D. Kp is independent of Kc

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Given, 2NO 2( g ) ⇌ 2NO ( g ) + O2( g )
Kc = 1.8 × 10−6 at 184°C
R = 0.0831kJK −1mol −1
Kp = Kc ( RT ) Δ n ( g )
where,
Δ n ( g ) = (Gaseous products-gaseous reactants)
=3−2=1
Kp = 1.8 × 10−6( 0.0831 × 457)
= 6.835806 × 10−6
So, there have, Kp > Kc

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Question 93
For a chemical reaction, Δ G is always less than zero (Δ G < 0) if
©

Options:

A. Δ H and T Δ S both are positive

B. Δ H and T Δ S both are negative

C. Δ H is negative and T Δ S is positive

D. Δ H is positive and T Δ S is negative

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
For a chemical reaction, Δ G is always less than zero i.e., ( Δ G < 0) for a spontaneous process.
The reaction can be expressed as follows
Δ G = Δ H − T Δ S = ( − ) ve
Thus, for the Δ G to be ( − ) ve at all temperature i.e., under all conditions.
Δ H must be ( − ) ve and
T\Δ S must be ( + ) ve so that
Δ G remain ( − ) ve
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Question 94
Equal volumes of 1MHCl and 1MH2SO 4 are neutralised by dil. NaOH
solution separately. If X kcal and Y kcal of heat are liberated
respectively, then which of the following relation is correct?
©
Options:

A. X = Y
1
B. X = Y
2

C. X = 2Y
1
D. X = Y
3
Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
∵ Equal volume of 1M HCl and 1M H2SO 4 are used to neutralised by NaOH (dil.) separately.
HCl will give 1 mol of H + ions per mole while.
Given,
H2SO 4 will give 2 moles of H + ions per mole.
Given:
1M HCl + dil NaOH , Δ H = Xk . cal
1M H2SO 4 + dil NaOH ,
Δ H = Y k.cal
∵ H2SO 4 provide 2 moles of H + ions per mole of H2SO 4
Therefore, 2X = Y
1
∴X= Y
2
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Question 95
The Arrhenius equation gives the dependence of the rate constant of a
chemical reaction on the absolute temperature and may be expressed as
Ea
−
k = Ae RT . If the unit of k is s −1 , the unit of A will be
©

Options:

A. kJmol −1

B. mol −1

C. s −1

D. K (kelvin)

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
According to Arrhenius equation where,
− E ∕ RT
k = A .e 0
where, k = rate constant
A = Arrhenius constant
E0 = Activation energy
R = Gas constant
T = Temperature
Here, A can be related to the frequency, whose unit is s −1 .
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Question 96
Consider the following reaction
k1 k2
A ⇌ M + C ; M + B ─── ▸ k−1 products
K1
The rate can be expressed as
©

Options:

A. Rate = k2[ A ] [ B ] [ M ]

k1k2 [ A ] [ B ]
B. Rate =
k−1 [ C ]

k1k2 [ A ] [ B ]
C. Rate =
k−1 [ C ] [ M ]

k1k−1 [ A ] [ M ]
D. Rate =
k2 [B]

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
frac d ( P ) dt = k2[ M ] [ B ] ........(i)
Here, P = Product
Reaction-rate-for Intermediate
d(A)
= k1[ A ] − k−1[ M ] [ C ]
dt
According to law of study state
d[A]
= k1[ A ] − k−1[ M ] [ C ] = 0
dt
∴ k−1[ M ] [ C ] = k1[ A ]
k1[ A ]
[M] =
k−1[ C ]
d(P) k2 × k1[ A ] [ B ]
∴ =
dt k−1[ C ]
Thus (b) is the correct option

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Question 97
The E ° values of the following half cells are given: (25°C )
E°
Fe 3 + ( aq ) + e − ──── ▸ Fe 2 + ( aq ) + 0.771V
Fe 2 + ( aq ) + 2e − ──── ▸ Fe ( s ) −0.447V
The Δ G ° of Fe 3 + ( aq ) + 3e − ──── ▸ Fe ( s )
will be, ( F = 96485Cmol −1)
©

Options:
A. 160.65kJmol −1

B. −74.39kJmol −1

C. 86.26kJmol −

D. 11.87kJmol −1

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Given,
Fe 3 + ( aq ) + e − ── ▸ Fe 2 + ( aq ) E ° = +0.771V ......(i)
Fe 2 + ( aq ) + 2e − ── ▸ Fe ( s ) −0.447V .......(ii)
( F = 96485Cmol −1)
To find Δ G ° of Fe 3 + ( aq ) + 3e − ─── ▸ Fe ( s )
∵ Δ G( f ) ° = Δ G1° + Δ G2°
= − nFE1° + − nFE2°( ∵ Δ G ° = − nFE °)
for eq. no. ( 1) , n = 1 and for eq. no. ( 2) , n = 2
E1° = 0.771V and E2° = ( − ) 0.447V
on adding Eq. (i) and (ii), we have
Δ G( f ) ° = ( − nFE1°) + ( − nFE2°)
= F [ −0.771 + ( − ) 2 × 0.447]
= F [ −0.771( − ) − ( 0.894) ]
= 96485 × 0.123 = 11867.655kJ ∕ mol
= 11.87kJ ∕ mol
Hence, option ( d ) is the correct answer.

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Question 98
If 50 × 10−3 amp of current is passed through copper coulometer for
60min , calculate the amount of copper deposited ( F = 96500Cmol −1)
©

Options:

A. 0.118g

B. 0.180g

C. 50g

D. 1.18g

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Given,
Current ( i ) = 50 × 10−3 amp.
Time ( t ) = 60min = 3600sec
( F ) = 96500C
∵ charge ( Q ) = i × t
Q = i × t = 50 × 10−3 × 3600 = 180C
Now, molar mass of copper ( Cu ) = 63.5g and to convert to Cu ( s )
∵ 96500C charge is required to deposit = 63.5g of copper (s) and to convert Cu + → Cu ( s ) :
63.5
∵ 1C charge will deposit = g ofCu ( s )
96500
∴ 180C charge will deposit
63.5 × 180
= = 0.118g ofCu
96500
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Question 99
The critical micelle concentration of a surfactant depends on
©

Options:

A. hydrophobic part

B. hydrophilic part

C. counterion

D. All of the above

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Surfactant contain charged groups, which are hydrophillic in nature and the maximum concentration of the surfactant
above which they form micelles are called critical micelle concentration (CMC)
Thus, critical micelle concentration depends on hydrophillic part of the surfactant and option (b) is the correct answer.

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Question 100
Formula of diaspore is
©

Options:

A. Al 2O3

B. Al 2O3 . H2O

C. Al 2O3 . 2H2O

D. Al 2O3 . 3H2O

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Diaspore is one of the three component minerals of the economically important aluminium ore bauxite.
The chemical formula of diaspore is AlO ( OH ) .
Al 2O3 . H2O is just a general way of writing the formula of the aluminium oxy-hydroxides that occur in bauxites.

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Question 101

Options:

A. 0

B. 1

C. 3r 2

D. r 2

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
^ ^ ^
Let r = x i + y j + z k
^ ^ ^ ^ ^
(r . i ) = (x i + y j + zk) . i
^ ^ 2
( r . i ) = x ⇒ ( r . i ) = x 2 .......(i)
^ ^ ^ ^ ^
(r . j ) = (x i + y j + zk) . j
^ ^ 2
( r . j ) = y ⇒ ( r . j ) = y 2 ...........(ii)
^ ^ ^ ^ ^
And ( r . k ) = ( x . i + y . j + z . k ) . k
^ ^ 2
( r . k ) = z ⇒ ( r . k ) = z 2 .........(iii)
^ 2 ^ 2 ^ 2
Now, ( r . i ) + ( r . j ) + ( r . k )
Put the value of Eqs.(i), (ii) and (iii), we get
= x2 + y2 + z2 = r2

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Question 102
^ ^ ^ ^
The component of i + j along j + k be
©

Options:
^
1+ j
A.
2
^ ^
j +k
B.
2
^ ^
k+i
C.
2
D. None of these

Answer: B
Solution:

Solution:
^ ^ ^ ^
Let a = i + j and b = j + k
(a . b)b
We know that, the component of a along b =
b .b
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
[( i + j ) . ( j + k)]( j + k) 1( j + k ) j +k
= = =
^ ^ ^ ^ 1+1 2
( i + k) . ( i + k)

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Question 103
The range of the function f ( x ) = x 2
©

Options:

A. R

B. ( 0, ∞)

C. ( 0, −∞)

D. ( 1, ∞)

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Since, ∀ x ∈ R
x 2 ≥ 0 ⇒ x 2 ∈ [ 0, ∞)
Now, from the options, the range of function
f ( x ) = x 2is( 0, ∞)

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Question 104
The range of the function
f ( x ) = sec −1x + sin −1x is
©

Options:
π
A. [ 0, π] − { }
4
π π
B. [ − , ] − { 0}
2 2
π
C. { }
2

D. None of these

Answer: C

Solution:
Solution:
f ( x ) = sec −1x + sin −1x
domain of sec −1x = ( −∞, −1] ∪ [ 1, ∞)
and domain of sin −1x = [ −1, 1]
So, domain of ' f ′ is { −1, 1}
Since, f ( −1) = sec −1( −1) + sin −1( −1)
π π
=π− =
2 2
and f ( 1) = sec −1( 1) + sin −1( 1)
π π
=π+ =
2 2
π
Hence, the range of f ( x ) is { } .
2

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Question 105
lim + x 7(log x ) 8 is equal to
x →0
©

Options:

A. 0
7
B.
8
8
C.
7

D. None of these

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
lim + x 7( log x ) 8
x →0
= lim ( 0 + h ) 7[ log( 0 + h ) ] 8 [ ∵ for h > 0, lim f ( x ) = lim f ( 0 + h ) ]
h →0 h →0 h →0
On applying successive L 'Hospital Rule in
( log h ) 8
lim , we get
h → 0 1 ∕ h7
lim h 7[ log h ] 8 = 0
h →0

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Question 106
If m , n ∈ R and f : R → R is a continuous function given by
m 2cos 2x + n 2sin 2x , ifx ≤ 0
f (x ) = {
e mx + n , ifx > 0

Options:

A. n 2 = log | m |

B. n = 2 log | m |
C. 2n = log | m |

D. n = log | 2m |

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
m , n ∈ R and f : R → R is a continuous function.
m 2cos 2x + n 2sin 2x , ifx ≤ 0
f(x) = {
e mx + n , ifx > 0
f ( 0) = m cos 0 + n 2sin 20
2 2

= m2 . 1 + n2 . 0 = m2
f ( 0 + ) = lim + ( e mx + n ) = e m ( 0) + n = e n
x →0
f ( 0 − ) = lim − ( m 2cos 2x + n 2sin 2x ) = m 2
x →0
∵ f is continuous function.
∴ f ( 0) = f ( 0 + ) = f ( 0 − ) , m 2 = e n
Taking log both sides, we get
log( m 2) = log( e n )
⇒ n = 2 log | m |

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Question 107
π
If f ( x ) = | x ||sin x | , then f ′ (− ) is equal to
6
©

Options:

π √ π 3
A. √ ( − 3 log + π )
6 2 6
π √ π 3
B. √ ( − 3 log − π )
6 2 6
π π 3
C. √ ( √3 log − )
6 2 6 π
D. None of the above

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Since, f ( x ) = | x | sin x |
y = | x | |sin x |[Letf ( x ) = y ]
Taking log both sides, we get
log y = | sin x | log | x | [ ∵ log M A = M log A ]
Differentiate w.r. to ′ x ′ , we get
1 dy ⎡|sin x | |sin x | |x | ⎤
y dx = ⎢⎣ sin x cos x . log |x | + |x | . x ⎥⎦
dy ⎡|sin x | | | |sin x | ⎤
⇒ =y cos x . log | x | +
dx ⎢
⎣ sin x | | x ⎥⎦
| |sin x |⎡ |sin x | |sin x | ⎤
⇒ f′(x) = |x | ⎢ sin x cos x . log |x | + x ⎦ ⎥
| ⎣
−π | −π ||sin( −π ∕ 6) |
⇒ f′( ) = ||
6 6 ||
⎡ |sin( − π ) | ⎤
⎢ || 6 || π | −π | |sin( −π ∕ 6) | ⎥
cos( − ) . log || +
⎢ π
sin( − ) 6 6 || ( −π ∕ 6) ⎥
⎣ 6 ⎥
⎦
−π π 1 ∕ 2 − √3 π 1∕2
⇒ f′( ) =( ) [ log + ]
6 6 2 6 −π ∕ 6
−π π − √3 π 3
⇒ f′( ) =√ [ log − π ]
6 6 2 6

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Question 108
The difference between the greatest and the least values of the function
1 1
f ( x ) = cos x + cos 2 x − cos 3 x is
2 3
©

Options:

4
A.
9
9
B.
4
8
C.
7
7
D.
8
Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
1 1
Since, f ( x ) = cos x + cos 2 x − cos 3 x
2 3
1 1
f ′ ( x ) = −sin x − ( 2) sin 2 x + ( 3) sin 3 x
2 3
f ′ ( x ) = −sin x − sin 2 x + sin 3 x
f ′ ( x ) = −( sin x + sin 2 x ) + sin 3 x
3x x 2
f ′ ( x ) = −( 2 sin . cos ) + sin ( 3x )
2 2 2
C +D C −D
{ ∵ sin C + sin D = 2 sin cos }
2 2
3x x 3x 3x
f ′ ( x ) = −2 sin . cos + 2 sin . cos [ ∵ sin 2 θ = 2 sin θ cos θ]
2 2 2 2
3x 3x x
f ′ ( x ) = 2 sin [ cos − cos ]
2 2 2
3x x
f ′ ( x ) = 2 sin [ −2 sin x sin ]
2 2
x 3x
f ′ ( x ) = −4 sin sin x sin
2 2
For greatest and least value, f ′ ( x ) = 0
x 3x
4 sin sin x . sin =0
2 2
sin x = 0
x = n π, n ∈ Z
x
sin = 0
2
x
= nπ
2
x = 2n π, n ∈ Z ;
3x
sin =0
2
3x
= nπ
2
2n π
x= ,n ∈ Z
3
 2π
Now, For x = 0, π,
3
1 1
∵ f ( x ) = cos x + cos 2 x − cos 3 x
2 3
Now, at x = 0
1 1
f ( 0) = cos 0 + cos 2( 0) − cos 3( 0)
2 3
1 1 7
=1+ ×1− =
2 3 6
1 1
f ( π) = cos π + cos 2 π − cos 3 π
2 3
1 1
f ( π) = −1 + × 1 − ( −1) = −1 ∕ 6
2 3
2π 2π 1 2π 1 2π
and f ( ) = cos + cos 2( ) − cos 3( )
3 3 2 3 3 3
1 1 1 1 13
= − + (− ) − = −
2 2 2 3 12
Hence, greatest value of f ( x ) = 7 ∕ 6
13
Least value of f ( x ) = −
12
Difference between the greatest and least value
7 13 7 13 27 9
= − (− ) = + = =
6 12 6 12 12 4

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Question 109
The function 2x 7 + 7x 4 + 14x + 28 is increasing
©

Options:

A. for all x

B. for x < 0

C. for x > 0

D. None of these

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Given, f ( x ) = 2x 7 + 7x 4 + 14x + 28
Differentiate w.r.t. x , we get
f ′ ( x ) = 14x 6 + 28x 3 + 14
= 14( x 6 + 2x 3 + 1) = 14( x 3 + 1) 2
For f ( x ) to be increasing
f′(x) ≥ 0
∴ 14( x 3 + 1) 2 ≥ 0
Hence, f ( x ) is increasing for all x

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Question 110
Rolle's theorem is not applicable for which of the following functions?
©

Options:

A. f ( x ) = √4 − x 2 , on [ −2, 2]

B. f ( x ) = log( x 2 + 2) − log 6, on [ −2, 2]

 2
C. f ( x ) = e 1 − x , on [ −1, 1]
2
D. f ( x ) = 3 + ( x − 1) 3 , on [ 0, 3] x

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
2
We have, f ( x ) = 3 + ( x − 1) 3
2
⇒ f′(x) =
3( x − 1) 1 ∕ 3
Clearly, f ( x ) is not derivable at x = 1
So, Rolle's theorem is not applicable on [ 0, 3]

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Question 111
x
2
∫ e sec 2 x (1 + 4 tan 2 x ) d x is equal to
©

Options:
x
1
A. e 2 sec 2 x + C
2
x
B. e2 sec 2 x tan 4 x + C
x
C. 2e 2 sec 2 x + C

D. None of these

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
x
I = e 2 sec 2 x ( 1 + 4 tan 2 x ) d x
x
= e 2 ( sec 2 x + 4 tan 2 x . sec 2 x ) dx
x
Let = t , x = 2t , dx = 2dt
2
∴ I = 2 e t ( sec 4 t + 4 tan 4 t . sec 4 t ) dt .......(i)
We know, e x ( f ( x ) + f ′ ( x ) ) dx = e x f ( x ) + C .......(ii)
d
and ( sec 4 x ) = 4 sec 4 x tan 4 x
dx
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
= 2[ e t sec 4 t + C ′ ] = 2e t sec 4 t + 2C ′
Put the value of t , we get
x
= 2e x ∕ 2 sec 4 . ( ) + 2c ′ = 2e x ∕ 2 sec 2 x + C
2
[ Here 2C ′ = C ]

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Question 112
3 4x 3 + 17x −4
∫ dx is equal to
0 4x 2 + 25
©

Options:

x2 4 4x
A. − log( 4x 2 + 25) + tan −1 +C
2 5 5
x2 4 4x
B. − log( 4x 2 + 25) − tan −1 +C
2 5 5

x2 4 4x
C. + log( 4x 2 + 25) − tan −1 +C
2 5 5

D. None of the above

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
3
4x 3 + 17x − 4
dx
0 4x 2 + 25
8x + 4
= (x − ) dx
4x 2 + 25
8x 4 2
= xdx − dx − dx
4x 2 + 25 2 4x 2 + 25
x2 2 2x
= − log( 4x 2 + 25) − [ tan −1 ] + C
2 5 5

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Question 113
2π
∫ (cos x + | cos x |) dx is equal to
0
©

Options:

A. 0

B. 1

C. 4

D. None of these

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
2π
( cos x + | cos x |) dx
0
2π 2π
= cos x d x + [ |cos x |] dx
0 0
π
= [ sin x ] 2π
0 + 2 |cos x |dx
0
 ⎡π ∕ 2 π
⎤
= sin 2 π + sin 0 + 2 ⎢ cos x d x − cos x d x ⎥
⎣ 0 π ∕2 ⎦
π
⎡2 π
⎢ ⎤
= 0 + 0 + 2 cos x d x − cos x d x ⎥
⎢0 π ∕2 ⎦
⎣
= 2[ [ sin x ] π0 ∕ 2 − [ sin x ] ππ ∕ 2]
= 2[ ( sin π ∕ 2 − sin 0) − ( sin π − sin π ∕ 2) ]
= 2[ ( 1 − 0) − ( 0 − 1) ]
= 2[ 1 + 1] = 4

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Question 114
Half of the area bounded by the curve xy 2 = a 2( a − x ) and Y -axis is
©

Options:

A. π a 2

πa2
B.
2

C. 3π a 2

D. None of these

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
xy 2 = a 2( a − x )
xy 2 = a 3 − a 2x
⇒ x ( y 2 + a 2) = a 3
a3
∴x = 2
y + a2
a3
At x = a , a = 2
y + a2
 a3
⇒ y2 + a2 = a = a2 ⇒ y2 = a2 − a2 = 0
⇒y =0
∞
Required area = 2 × xdy
0
∞
a3
=2× dy
0 y2 + a2
y ∞ π
= 2a 2[ tan −1 ] = 2a 2[ ] = π a 2
a 0 2
1
Half of the area bounded of the given curve = π a 2
2

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Question 115
Order of the differential equation of all parabolas whose axes are
parallel to Y -axis is
©

Options:

A. 0
B. 1

C. 3

D. 2

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
The general equation of parabola whose axes are parallel to Y -axis.
y = ax 2 + bx + c ........(i)
Differentiate w.r to ' x ', we get
dy
= 2ax + b
dx
Again, differentiate. W.r. to ' x ', we get
d 2y
= 2a
dx 2
And again, differentiate. W.r to ' x ', we get
d 3y
=0
dx 3
This is required differential equation.
The order of this equation is 3 .

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Question 116
dy xy
The solution of the differential equation = 2 is
dx x + y2
©

Options:

x2
y2
A. cy 2 = e
x
y
B. cy = e
2
C. y = e x + y + c

D. y = e x + e y + c

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
dy xy
= 2 .......(i)
dx x + y2
dy dv
Put y = vx ⇒ =v +x
dx dx
From Eq. (i)
dv ( x ) ( vx ) x 2v x 2v
v +x = 2 = =
dx x + v 2x 2 x 2 + v 2x 2 x 2( 1 + v 2)
dv v v − v − v3 −v 3
⇒x = − v = =
dx 1 + v2 1 + v2 1 + v2
dv −v 3 1 + v2 dx
⇒x = ⇒ dv = − x
dx 1 + v2 v3
On integration both sides
 ( 1 + v 2) dx
⇒ dv = − x
v3
1 1 dx
⇒ dv + v dv = − x
v3
1
⇒ − 2 + log v = −log x − log c ′
2v
−x 2 y
⇒ + log x = −log x − log c ′
2y 2
y
⇒ − x 22y 2 + log x + log x = −log c ′
−x 2 y
⇒ + log( x . x ) = −log c ′ { ∵ log m + log n = log m n }
2y 2
x2 x2
⇒ log y + log c ′ = 2
⇒ log( y . c ′ ) =
2y 2y 2
x 2 ∕ 2y 2 x2 ∕ y2 2 2
⇒ yc ′ = e 2 2
⇒ y c′ = e ⇒ y c = ex ∕ y
2
2
[ Let c ′ = c ]

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Question 117
The solution of the differential equation
−1 dy
(1 + y 2) + ( x − e tan y ) = 0 is
dx
©

Options:
−1 −1
y y
A. 2xe tan = e 2tan +k
−1 −1
y y
B. 2xe tan = e tan +k
−1 −1
y y
C. xe tan = e tan +k
−1 −1
y y
D. xe tan = 3e tan +k

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
−1
ydy
( 1 + y 2) + ( x − e tan ) =0
dx
−1 dy
⇒ ( 1 + y 2) = ( e tan y − x )
−1
dx −1
dx e tan y − x dx e tan y x
⇒ = ⇒ = −
dy ( 1 + y 2) dy 1 + y2 1 + y2
−1
dx x e tan y
⇒ + = .......(i)
dy 1 + y 2 1 + y2
This is first order linear diff. equation in x .
1 −1
IF = 2
dy = e tan y
1+y
The general solution of Eq. (i)
−1
−1 e tan y tan −1y
x . e tan y = .e dy + c
1 + y2
Put tan −1y = t
1
dy = dt
1 + y2
∴ x . e t = e t . e t dt + c
e 2t
⇒ x . e t = e 2t dt + c ⇒ x . e t = +c
2
Put the values of t
−1
−1 e 2tan y
⇒ x . e tan y = +c
2
tan −1y 2tan −1y
⇒ 2xe =e + 2c
 −1 −1
y y
⇒ 2x e tan = e 2tan + k [ Let k = 2c ]

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Question 118
The differential equation whose solution is ax 2 + by 2 = 1, where a and b
are arbitraryconstants, is of
©

Options:

A. Second order and second degree

B. First order and second degree

C. First order and first degree

D. Second order and first degree

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
ax 2 + by 2 = 1
Differentiate w.r. to ' x ', we get
dy dy
a ( 2x ) + b ( 2y ) = 0 ⇒ 2[ ax + by ] =0
dx dx
dy
⇒ ax + by =0
dx
Again differentiate w.r. to ′ x ′ , we get
dy 2 d 2y ⎤
[a + b( ) + by ⎥=0
dx dx 2 ⎦
2
dy 2 d y
⇒ a = −b ( ) − by
dx dx 2
Put the value of a in the eq. (i), we get
⎡ dy 2 d 2y ⎤ dy
⎢⎣− b ( dx ) − by dx 2 ⎥ ⎦
x + by
dx
=0

⎡ dy 2 d 2y dy ⎤
⇒ − b ⎢{ ( ) +y }x − y =0
⎣ dx dx 2 dx ⎥⎦
2
⎡ dy 2 d y⎤ dy
⇒ ⎢( ) +y ⎥x −y =0
⎣ dx dx ⎦2 dx
This is the required differential equation and it is second order and first degree differential equation.

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Question 119
A card is drawn at random from a pack of cards. What is the probability
that the drawn card is neither a heart nor a king?
©

Options:

13
A.
26
9
B.
13
 4
C.
13
9
D.
52
Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Total number of all possible outcomes = 52
i.e., n ( S ) = 52
Let E be the favourable outcomes of getting neither a heart nor a king, then n ( E ) = 36.
Therefore, P (neither a heart nor a king)
36 9
= = .
52 13

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Question 120
A 1 B 1
For two events A and B , if P ( A ) = P ( ) = and P ( ) = , then
B 4 A 2
©

Options:

A. A and B are independent

⎛A 1 ⎞ 3
B. P =
⎜B ⎠
⎝ ⎟ 4

⎛B 1 ⎞ 1
C. P =
⎜A 1 ⎠⎟ 2
⎝

D. All of these

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
A 1 B 1
Since, P ( A ) = P ( ) = and P ( ) =
B 4 A 2
P(A ∩ B) 1 P(A ∩ B) 1
⇒ = and =
P(B) 4 P(A) 2
1 1 1 1
So P ( A ∩ B ) = P ( A ) = × =
2 2 4 8
1 1
and P ( B ) = 4P ( A ∩ B ) = 4 × =
8 2
1
∵ P(A ∩ B) = = P(A)P(B)
8
∴ Events A and B are independent.
A′ A 1 3
∵ P( ) = 1 − P( ) = 1 − =
B b 4 4
B′ P(A′ ∩ B′) P((A ∪ B)′)
and P ( ) = =
A′ P(A′) P ( A 1)
1 − P(A ∪ B) {P(A) + P(B) − P(A ∩ B)}
= =1−
1 − P(A) 1 − P(A)
5 3
1−
1 1 1 1 8 8 1
= 1 − { + − }1 − = = =
4 2 8 4 3 3 2
4 4
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 121
Three fair coins are tossed all together. The probability of getting at
least two heads is
©

Options:

1
A.
8
3
B.
8
1
C.
2
2
D.
3
Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Total number of all possible outcomes = 8
i.e., n ( S ) = 8
Let E be the favourable outcomes of getting at least two heads, the n ( E ) = 3 + 1 = 4
4 1
∴ P ( at least two heads) = =
8 2

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Question 122
If the two lines of regression are 4x + 3y + 7 = 0 and 3x + 4y + 8 = 0,
then the means of x and y are
©

Options:

4 11
A. − ,
7 7
4 11
B. − , −
7 7
4 11
C. ,−
7 7
4 11
D. ,
7 7
Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
∵ Regression lines passes through the ( x , y ) .
∴ 4x + 3y + 7 = 0 .......(i)
3x + 4y + 8 = 0 .......(ii)
Eq. (i) multiplying by 4 and Eq. (ii) multiplying by 3 and Eq. (ii) subtract from Eq. (i), we get
16x + 28 − ( 9x + 24) = 0
7x + 4 = 0
4
x =−
7
Value of x , put the Eq. (i), we get
4
4( − ) + 3y + 7 = 0
7
16 33 1 11
⇒ 3y = −7 + ⇒y =− × =−
7 7 3 7

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Question 123
For the solution of equation f ( x ) = 0 by the Newton-Raphson method,
the value of x tends to root of the equation highly when f ′ ( xn ) is
©

Options:

A. very big

B. zero

C. very small

D. None of these

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
For the solution of equation f ( x ) = 0 by the Newton-Raphson method, the value of x tends to root of the equation highly
when f ′ ( xn ) is very big.

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Question 124
2 dx
By Simpson's rule, the value of ∫ x dividing the interval (1, 2) into four
1
parts is
©

Options:

A. 0.6932

B. 0.6692

C. 0.6753

D. 0.6720

Answer: A

Solution:
Solution:
As we know that,
x0 + nh
h
f ( x ) dx = { f ( x0) + f ( x0 + nh ) } +4{ f ( x0 + h ) + f ( x0 + 3h ) + . . . . . . } +2{ f ( x0 + 2h ) + f ( x0 + 4h ) + . . . . . . } ]
x0 3
.......(i)
Put x0 = a , n = 2n , x0 + 2nh = x2n = b
b −a
and h = in Eq. (i)
2n
b
b −a
f ( x ) dx = [ { f ( x0) + f ( x2n ) } + 4{ f ( x1) + f ( x3) + . . . . . . . } +2{ f ( x2) + f ( x4) + . . . . . . . . } ]
a 6n
b −a
= [ f ( x0) + 4f ( x1) + 2f ( x2) + 4f ( x3) + . . . . . . . . . + f ( x2n ) ]
6n
Now, divide the range [ 1, 2] into four equal parts
x0 = 1, x1 = 1.25, x2 = 1.5, x3 = 1.75, x4 = 2
2 x4
dx
1
x = x0f ( x ) dx
b −a
= [ f ( x0) + 4f ( x1) + 2f ( x2) +4f ( x3) + f ( x4) ]
6n
2−1 1 4 2 4 1
= [ + + + + ]
6 × 2 1 1.25 1.5 1.75 2
= 0.6932

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Question 125
b
Simpson's rule for evaluation of ∫ f ( x ) dx requires the interval ( a , b ) to
a
be divided into
©

Options:

A. 2n + 1 intervals

B. 3n intervals

C. 2n intervals

D. any number of intervals

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
b
Simpson's rule for evaluation of f ( x ) dx requires the interval [ a , b ] to be divided into an even number of sub intervals
a
of equal width i.e. divided by 2n intervals.

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Question 126
Secondary storage memory is basically
©

Options:

A. Volatile memory

B. non-volatile memory
C. backup memory

D. impact memory

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Secondary storage memory is basically non-volatile memory.

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Question 127
When was the first email sent?
©

Options:

A. 1963

B. 1969

C. 1971

D. 1974

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
In 1971 , the first email sent.

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Question 128
Which of the following controls the process of interaction between the
user and the operating system?
©

Options:

A. User interface

B. Language translator

C. Platform

D. Screen saver

Answer: A

Solution:
Solution:
User interface controls the process of interaction between the user the operating system.

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Question 129
The value of (1 + i ) 8 + (1 − i ) 8 is
©

Options:

A. 28

B. 25
π
C. 24 cos
4
π
D. 28 cos
8
Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
π π
We have, 1 + i = √2( cos + i sin )
4 4
π π
and 1 − i = √2( cos − i sin )
4 4
∴ (1 + i)8 + (1 − i)8
π π 8 π π 8
= 24( cos + i sin ) + 24( cos − i sin )
4 4 4 4
= 24( cos 2 π + i sin 2 π) +24( cos 2 π − i sin 2 π)
= 24( 2 cos 2 π) = 25

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Question 130
If ω is a non-real cube root of unity, then the expression
(1 − ω)(1 − ω 2)(1 + ω 4)(1 + ω 8) is equal to
©

Options:

A. 0

B. 3

C. 1

D. 2

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Given, ( 1 − ω) ( 1 − ω 2) ( 1 + ω 4) ( 1 + ω 8)
= ( 1 − ω) ( 1 − ω 2) ( 1 + ω) ( 1 + ω 2) [ ∵ ω 3 = 1]
 = ( 1 − ω) ( 1 + ω) ( 1 − ω 2) ( 1 + ω 2)
= ( 1 − ω 2) ( 1 − ω 4) [ ∵ ( a + b ) ( a − b ) = a 2 − b 2]
= ( 1 − ω 2) ( 1 − ω) = 1 − ω − ω 2 + ω 3
= 1 − ω − ω 2 + 1 = 2 − ( ω + ω 2) [ ∵ 1 + ω + ω 2 = 0]
= 2 − ( −1) = 3

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Question 131
If | z1 | = | z2| and arg( z1) + arg( z2) = 0, then
©

Options:

A. z1 = z2

B. z1 = z 2

C. z1z2 = 1
z1
D.
z2 = 1

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
iθ iθ
Let z1 = r1e 1 and z2 = r2e 2
Now, |z1| = | z2 | ⇒ r1 = r2 = r (let)
Also, given that
arg( z1) + arg( z2) = 0 ⇒ θ1 + θ2 = 0
i(θ + θ )
⇒ z1z2 = r 2e 1 2 = r 2
Hence, they are conjugate
∴ z1 = z 2

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Question 132
z −2
If z is a point on the argand plane such that |z − 1| = 1, then z is
equal to
©

Options:

A. tan( arg z )

B. cot( arg z )

C. i tan( arg z )

D. i cot( arg z )

Answer: C

Solution:
Solution:
Let z = x + iy
∴ |z − 1| = 1
⇒ | ( x − 1) + iy | = 1
⇒ √( x − 1) 2 + y 2 = 1
⇒ x 2 + 1 − 2x + y 2 = 1[ on squaring both sides ]
⇒ x 2 + y 2 = 2x ........(i)
z − 2 ( x − 2) + iy
Now, z =
x + iy
( x − 2) + iy ( x − iy )
= ×
( x + iy ) ( x − iy )
x ( x − 2) − y ( x − 2) i + xyi + y 2
=
x2 + y2
x 2 − 2x − xyi + 2yi + xyi + y 2
=
x2 + y2
2x − 2x + 2yi
= [By Eq. (i)]
2x
2yi y y
= = x i = i tan( tan −1 x ) = i tan( arg z )
2x

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Question 133
If x = 6 + 6 + 6 + . . . . . . ∞ then
©

Options:

A. x is a irrational number

B. 2 < x < 3

C. x = 3

D. 2 > x > 3

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Given, x = √6 + √6 + √6 + . . . . . . ∞
Squaring both sides, we get
x 2 = 6 + √6 + √6 + √6 + . . ∞
⇒ x2 = 6 + x
⇒ x2 − x − 6 = 0
⇒ x 2 − 3x + 2x − 6 = 0
⇒ x ( x − 3) + 2( x − 3) = 0
⇒ ( x − 3) ( x + 2) = 0 ⇒ x = 3 or x = −2
∴ x = 3 [ ∵ x is positive ]

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Question 134
The sum of factors of 8! which are odd and are of the form 3m + 2,
where m is a natural number, is
©

Options:

A. 40
B. 8

C. 45

D. 35

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
We have, 8! = 8 × 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1
= 27 × 32 × 5 × 7
Since factors must be odd and of the form 3m + 2.
So, they must not be multiple of 2 and 3 .
∴ Required factors are 5 and 35 .
∴ Required sum = 5 + 35 = 40

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Question 135
2 1 3 1 4 1 5 1
The value of . + . + . + . + . . . . . . ∞ is
1 3 2 9 3 27 4 81
©

Options:

1 2
A. − loge
2 3
2
B. −loge
3
1 2
C. + loge
2 3
2
D. loge
3
Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
2 1 3 1 4 1 5 1 n +1 1
Let S = . + . + . + . + . . . . . . + n . n + . . . . . .∞
1 3 2 9 3 27 4 81 3
n +1 1 1 1 1 1
Where, Tn = n . n = ( 1 + n ) n = n +
3 3 3 n . 3n
1 1
⇒ S = Tn = +
3n n . 3n

1
3 1 1 2
= + { −loge ( 1 − ) } = − loge ( )
1 3 2 3
1−
3

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Question 136
 ⎡ 0 0 −1 ⎤
Assume that A = ⎢ 0 −1 0 ⎥,then the statement true for A is
⎢ ⎥
⎣ −1 0 0 ⎦
©

Options:

A. A 2 = I

B. A = ( −1) I , where I is a unit matrix

C. A −1 does not exist

D. A is a null matrix

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
⎡ 0 0 −1 ⎤
Given, A = ⎢ 0 −1 0 ⎥
⎢ ⎥
⎣ −1 0 0 ⎦
∴ A2 = A . A
⎡ 0 0 −1 ⎤⎡ 0 0 −1 ⎤
= ⎢ 0 −1 0 ⎥⎢ 0 −1 0 ⎥
⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥
⎣ −1 0 0 ⎦⎣ −1 0 0 ⎦
⎡0+0+1 0+0+0 0+0+0 ⎤
= ⎢0+0+0 0+1+0 0+0+0 ⎥
⎢ ⎥
⎣0+0+0 0+0+0 1+0+0 ⎦
⎡1 0 0⎤
= ⎢0 1 0⎥
⎢ ⎥
⎣0 0 1⎦
A2 = I
Hence, option (a) is correct.

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Question 137
The equation 3 sin x + cos x = 4 has
©

Options:

A. only one solution

B. two solutions

C. infinitely many solutions

D. No solution

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Given equation is, √3 sin x + cos x = 4
Let sin x = t
∵ cos x = √1 − sin 2x ∴ cos x = √1 − t 2
Now, √3t + √1 − t 2 = 4, √1 − t 2 = 4 − √3t
Squaring both sides, we get
1 − t 2 = 16 + 3t 2 − 8√3t
⇒ 4t 2 − 8√3t + 15 = 0
Discriminant ( D ) = ( 8√3) 2 − 4( 4) 15
= 192 − 240 = −48 < 0
So, the equation has imaginary roots, So, there are no solutions.

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Question 138
1
A Δ ABC is such that sin(2A + B ) = . If A , B and C are in AP , then the
2
values of A , B and C are
©

Options:

π π 5π
A. , ,
4 3 12
π π π
B. , ,
2 3 6
π π π
C. , ,
2 4 4
π π π
D. , ,
2 4 6
Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
1
Given, sin( 2A + B ) =
2
5π 5π
⇒ sin( 2A + B ) = sin ⇒ 2A + B = ......(i)
6 6
A + B + C = π [angle sum property ] ........(ii)
As, A , B and C are in A.P.

So, B − A = C − B ⇒ A − 2B + C = 0 ........(iii)
From Eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get
π
B=
3
On putting the value of angle B in Eq. (i), we get
π 5π π π
2A + = ⇒ 2A = ⇒A =
3 6 2 4
On putting thevalue of angles A and B in Eq. (ii), we get
π π 5π
+ +C =π ⇒C =
4 3 12
π π 5π
Hence, ( A , B , C ) i.e.. ( , , ).
4 3 12

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Question 139
1
If tan(cos −1x ) = sin(cot −1 ), then the value of x is
2
©
Options:

1
A.
√5
2
B.
√5
3
C.
√5

D. √5
3
Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
1
Given, tan( cos −1x ) = sin( cot −1 )
2
1
⇒ tan{ sec −1( x ) } = sin( tan −12)
√ x 2 } = sin( sin −1 2 )
⇒ tan{ tan −1 1 − x √5
√ 2
⇒ 1− x2 = 2 ⇒ 1 − x = 4
x √5 x2 5
⇒ 5 − 5x = 4x ⇒ 9x 2 = 5
2 2
5
⇒ x 2 = ⇒ x = ± √5 ⇒ x = √5
9 3 3

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Question 140
A tree is broken by wind, its upper part touches the ground at a point
10m from the foot of the tree and makes an angle of 45° with the
ground. The entire length of the tree is
©

Options:

A. 15m

B. 20m

C. 10( 1 + √2) m

D. 10( 1 + √3 ) m
2
Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Let BD be the entire length of the tree.
The tree breaks at point C and makes Δ ABC as given into the figure such that AC = CD
In triangle ABC ,
BC BC
tan 45° = ⇒1= ⇒ BC = AB ⇒ BC = 10m
AB AB
AB 10
Also, cos 45° = =
AC AC
1 10
⇒ = ⇒ AC = 10√2m
√2 AC
∴ Total height of tree = BC + AC
= 10√2 + 10 = 10( 1 + √2) m

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Question 141
The vertices of a triangle are (3, −5) and (−7, 4). If its centroid is
(2, −1), then the third vertex is
©

Options:

A. ( 10, 2)

B. ( 10, −2)

C. ( 2, 2)
D. ( 10, 10)

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Let points are A ( 3, −5) , B ( −7, 4) and C ( x , y )
Given centroid is G ( 2, −1)
x1 + x2 + x3 y1 + y2 + y3
As, centroid G = ( , )
3 3
−5 + 4 + y
⇒ 3 − 7 + x 3 = 2 and = −1
3
⇒ −4 + x = 6 and −1 + y = −3
⇒ x = 6 + 4 and y = −3 + 1
⇒ x = 10 and y = −2
∴ ( x , y ) = ( 10, −2)
Hence, third vertex is ( 10, −2)

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Question 142
The area enclosed by the curve ( x ) + ( y ) = 1 is
©

Options:

A. 1 sq.unit

B. 2 sq.unit

C. √2 sq.unit

D. √3 sq.unit

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Assuming, |x | + | y | = 1
The straight lines are
x + y = 1, x − y = 1, − x − y = 1, − x + y = 1
Which form a square withe each side
= √( 1 − 0) 2 + ( 0 − 1) 2
= √1 + 1 = √2
Or form four equal right isosceles triangle with each equal side 1 unit.
1 1
So, each triangle's area = . 1 . 1 = sq. unit
2 2
1
Therefore, required area = × 4 = 2sq . unit.
2

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Question 143
The angle between x = 2 and x − 3y = 6 is
©

Options:
A. ∞

B. tan −1( 3)
1
C. tan −1( )
3

D. None of these

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Since, x = 2 is parallel to Y -axis.
So, the angle between the line x = 2 and x − 3y = 6 is the angle between x − 3y = 6 and Y -axis which is given by
|1|
tan θ = || m ||, where m is the slope of the line
x − 3y = 6
Consider the line x − 3y = 6, −3y = 6 − x
x −6 x
⇒y = = −2
3 3
1
Slope of the line x − 3y = 6 is
3
| |
|1 |
Therefore, tan θ = | | = |3| ⇒ θ = tan −1( 3)
|1 |
|3 |

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Question 144
Line passing through (1, 2) and (2, 5) is
©

Options:

A. 3x − y + 1 = 0

B. 3x + y + 1 = 0

C. y − 3x + 1 = 0

D. 3x + y − 1 = 0

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
We know that, the line passing through points ( x1, y1) and ( x2, y2) is
y2 − y1
y − y1 = x − x ( x − x1)
2 1
∴ Line passing through ( 1, 2) and ( 2, 5) is
5−2
y −2= ( x − 1)
2−1
⇒ y − 2 = 3( x − 1) ⇒ y − 2 = 3x − 3
⇒ 3x − y − 3 + 2 = 0 ⇒ 3x − y − 1 = 0
⇒ y − 3x + 1 = 0

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Question 145
The sum of the square of the direction cosine of a line is
©

Options:

A. 0

B. 1

C. Constant

D. Variable

E.

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
The sum of the squares of the direction cosine of a line is 1 .
i.e., l 2 + m 2 + n 2 = 1

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Question 146
The angle between two diagonals of a cube will be
©

Options:

A. Constant

B. Variable
1
C. sin −1( )
3
1
D. cos −1( )
3
Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Let O , one vertex of a cube be the origin and three edges through O along the co-ordinate axes. The four diagonals are
OP , AA ′ , BB ′ and CC ′ . Let ' a ′ be the length of each edge. Then the coordinates of P , A , A ′ are
( a , a , a ) , ( a , 0, 0) , ( 0, a , a )
The direction ratios of OP are a , a , a .
The direction cosines of OP are
a a a 1 1 1
, , i.e., , ,
a √3 a √3 a √3 √3 √3 √3
Similarly, direction cosines of AA ′ are
1 1 1
(− , , )
√3 √3 √3
Let θ be the angle between the diagonals OP and AA ′ , then
1 1 1 1 1 1
cos θ = (− ) + ( ) + ( )
√3 √3 √3 √3 √3 √3
 1 1 1 1 1
=− + + = ⇒ cos θ =
3 3 3 3 3
1
⇒ θ = cos −1( )
3
1
Thus, the angle between any two diagonals of a cube is cos −1( )
3

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Question 147
The perpendicular distance of the point (2, 4, −1), from the line
x +5 y +3 z −6
= = is
1 4 −9
©

Options:

A. 3

B. 5

C. 7

D. 9

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
x +5 y +3 z −6
The given line l is = =
1 4 −9
Any point Q on the line l is given by
x +5 y +3 z −6
⇒ = = =λ
1 4 −9
⇒ x = λ − 5, y = 4λ − 3, z = −9λ + 6
Direction ratios of PQ are
λ − 5 − 24λ − 3 − 4, −9λ + 6 + 1
or λ − 7, 4λ − 7, −9λ + 7

Since, PQ ⊥ L
∴ ( λ − 7) + 4( 4λ − 7) − 9( −9λ + 7) = 0
⇒ λ − 7 + 16λ − 28 + 81λ − 63 = 0
⇒ 98λ = 98 ⇒ λ = 1
∴ Coordinates of Q are ( 1 − 5, 4 − 3, −9 + 6)
i.e., ( −4, 1, −3)
Now, Required distance
= √( 2 + 4) 2 + ( 4 − 1) 2 + ( −1 + 3) 2
= √36 + 9 + 4 = √49 = 7 unit.

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Question 148
The locus of the equation x 2 + y 2 + z 2 + 1 = 0 is
©
Options:

A. An empty set

B. A sphere

C. A pair of lines

D. None of these

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
We have,
x 2 + y 2 + z 2 + 1 = 0 ⇒ x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = −1
Since, sum of squares of real number is always be non-negative.
∴ x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ≠ −1
∴ Locus of the equation is an empty set.

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Question 149
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
If u = i × ( a × i ) + j × ( a × j ) + k × ( a × k ),then
©

Options:

A. u = 0
^ ^ ^
B. u = i + j + k

C. u = 2a

D. u = a

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
^ ^ ^
Let, a = x i + y j + z k
^ ^
∵ i ×i =0
^ ^ ^
i ×k = −j
^ ^ ^
i ×j =k
^ ^
Similarly for j and k
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
u = i × ( a × i ) + j × ( a × j ) +k × ( a × k )
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
= i × ( −y k + z j ) + j × ( x k + − z i ) +k × ( −x j + y i )
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
= y j + zk + x i + zk + x i + yk
^ ^ ^
= 2( x i + y j + z k ) = 2a

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Question 150
 ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
The vector 2 i + j − k is perpendicular to i − 4 j + λ k , then λ is equal to
©

Options:

A. −2

B. -1

C. −3

D. 0

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
^ ^ ^
Let a = 2 i + j − k
^ ^ ^
And b = i − 4 j + λ k
If two vectors a and b are perpendicular,
Then, a . b = 0
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
(2i + j − k) . ( i − 4j + λk) = 0
⇒ 2 − 4 − λ = 0 ⇒ −2 − λ = 0
⇒ λ = −2

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